☰ INDEX
Biomedical Waste Management
Biostatistics
Communicable Diseases
Demography and Health
Disaster Management
Environment and Health
Epidemiology
Family Planning and Contraception
Genetics and Health
H. Programs, Schemes, Acts
Health Care System in India
Health Communication
Health Management
Health Planning
Health and Disease
History of Medicine
International Health
Mental Health
Non-communicable Diseases
Nutrition and Health
Occupational Health
Preventive Obstetrics, Paediatrics & Geriatrics
Screening of Disease
Social Sciences and Health
Vaccines and Cold Chain
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Among the total healthcare wastes generated, a specific portion is classified as infectious, posing significant risks if not properly handled. As a healthcare administrator, you are preparing a report on waste management of your Hospital. Based on global health statistics, approximately what percentage of total healthcare waste in developing countries is classified as infectious waste?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1.5%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1.5%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• The average composition of health-care/ hospital wastes is as follows.</li><li>• average</li><li>• health-care/ hospital wastes</li><li>• Paper: 15% Plastic: 10% Rags: 15% Metals (Sharps, etc): 1.0% Infectious waste: 1.5% Glass: 4.0% General waste (food waste, sweeping of premises) : 53.5%</li><li>• Paper: 15%</li><li>• Paper: 15%</li><li>• Plastic: 10%</li><li>• Rags: 15%</li><li>• Rags: 15%</li><li>• Metals (Sharps, etc): 1.0%</li><li>• Infectious waste: 1.5%</li><li>• Infectious waste: 1.5%</li><li>• Glass: 4.0%</li><li>• General waste (food waste, sweeping of premises) : 53.5%</li><li>• General waste (food waste, sweeping of premises) : 53.5%</li><li>• Infectious waste : Contains pathogens ( bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungi ) in sufficient concentration or quantity to cause disease in susceptible hosts . Includes Cultures , Waste from surgery and autopsies on patients with infectious diseases , Waste from infected patients in isolation wards (e.g. excreta, dressings ), Waste that has been in contact with infected patients undergoing haemodialysis, Infected animals from laboratories , Any other instruments or materials that have been in contact with infected persons or animals.</li><li>• Infectious waste</li><li>• bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungi</li><li>• concentration or quantity</li><li>• susceptible hosts</li><li>• Cultures</li><li>• Waste</li><li>• surgery</li><li>• autopsies</li><li>• infectious diseases</li><li>• Waste</li><li>• infected patients</li><li>• isolation wards</li><li>• excreta, dressings</li><li>• Waste</li><li>• contact</li><li>• infected patients</li><li>• haemodialysis, Infected animals</li><li>• laboratories</li><li>• instruments or materials</li><li>• contact</li><li>• infected persons</li><li>• animals.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The amount of infectious waste among hospital waste is 1.5%</li><li>• infectious waste</li><li>• hospital waste</li><li>• 1.5%</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 883</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In India, glass products accounts for about __________ of the hospital waste?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 4%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/24/image-20230724172747-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 4%</strong></p>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is evaluating the disposal methods of healthcare waste at a regional hospital. One method under consideration is incineration, which can be effective for various waste types. However, certain characteristics of waste can make it less suitable for this process. Considering the properties of waste ideal for incineration, which of the following characteristics would make waste less suitable for incineration?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Content of combustible matter above 60 percent.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Content of non-combustible solids below 5 percent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moisture content above 20 percent", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Content of non-combustible fines below 20 percent", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Moisture content above 20 percent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Moisture content above 20 percent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Characteristics of the waste suitable for incineration are:</li><li>• Characteristics of the waste suitable for incineration are:</li><li>• Low heating volume – above 2,000 kcal/kg for single-chamber incinerators, and above 3,500 kcal/kg for pyrolytic double-chamber incinerators . Content of combustible matter above 60 percent . Content of non-combustible solids below 5 percent . Content of non-combustible fines below 20 percent ; and Moisture content below 30 percent</li><li>• Low heating volume – above 2,000 kcal/kg for single-chamber incinerators, and above 3,500 kcal/kg for pyrolytic double-chamber incinerators .</li><li>• Low heating volume</li><li>• 2,000 kcal/kg</li><li>• single-chamber</li><li>• incinerators,</li><li>• 3,500 kcal/kg</li><li>• pyrolytic double-chamber incinerators</li><li>• Content of combustible matter above 60 percent .</li><li>• combustible</li><li>• 60 percent</li><li>• Content of non-combustible solids below 5 percent .</li><li>• non-combustible solids</li><li>• 5 percent</li><li>• Content of non-combustible fines below 20 percent ; and</li><li>• non-combustible fines</li><li>• 20 percent</li><li>• Moisture content below 30 percent</li><li>• Moisture content below 30 percent</li><li>• Incineration</li><li>• Incineration</li><li>• It is a high-temperature dry oxidation process ; It leads to a significant reduction in waste volume and weight (up to 70-80% ).</li><li>• high-temperature dry oxidation process</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• waste volume</li><li>• weight</li><li>• 70-80%</li><li>• Incineration does not require pretreatment . The biggest disadvantage of incineration is the smoke generation.</li><li>• does not</li><li>• pretreatment</li><li>• disadvantage</li><li>• smoke generation.</li><li>• Types of Incinerators: Double chamber pyrolytic ; Single chamber pyrolytic; Rotary kilns</li><li>• Types</li><li>• Double chamber pyrolytic</li><li>• Single chamber</li><li>• pyrolytic; Rotary kilns</li><li>• Temperature in an incinerator (Now, &gt; 1200°C recommended)</li><li>• Temperature</li><li>• &gt; 1200°C</li><li>• Wastes types not to be incinerated are -</li><li>• Wastes types not to be incinerated are -</li><li>• Pressurized gas containers Reactive chemical wastes Silver/ Radiographic/ Photographic wastes Halogenated plastics (PVC) Wastes with high mercury/ cadmium content Sealed ampoules with heavy metals.</li><li>• Pressurized gas containers</li><li>• gas containers</li><li>• Reactive chemical wastes</li><li>• chemical</li><li>• Silver/ Radiographic/ Photographic wastes</li><li>• Silver/ Radiographic/ Photographic</li><li>• Halogenated plastics (PVC)</li><li>• Halogenated plastics</li><li>• Wastes with high mercury/ cadmium content</li><li>• high mercury/ cadmium content</li><li>• Sealed ampoules with heavy metals.</li><li>• Sealed</li><li>• ampoules</li><li>• heavy metals.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incineration is a common method for disposing of healthcare waste , particularly effective for materials that can be easily burned . The suitability of waste for incineration depends on several factors , including its calorific value , combustibility, and moisture content.</li><li>➤ Incineration</li><li>➤ disposing</li><li>➤ healthcare waste</li><li>➤ effective</li><li>➤ materials</li><li>➤ easily burned</li><li>➤ waste</li><li>➤ incineration</li><li>➤ several factors</li><li>➤ calorific value</li><li>➤ combustibility,</li><li>➤ moisture content.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 884</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an administrator at a local hospital, you are reviewing the protocols for waste disposal. While incineration is a recommended method for certain types of waste, there is a particular type of waste that should typically NOT be disposed of by incineration. Which of the following wastes fits that description?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytotoxic drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Used batteries", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Animal carcasses", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Empty blood bags", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Used batteries", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Used batteries.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Waste types NOT to be incinerated are -</li><li>• NOT</li><li>• incinerated</li><li>• Pressurized gas containers Large amounts of reactive chemical wastes Silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes Halogenated plastics such as PVC Waste with high mercury or cadmium content , such as broken thermometers , used batteries and lead -lined wooden panels Sealed ampules or ampules containing heavy metals .</li><li>• Pressurized gas containers</li><li>• gas containers</li><li>• Large amounts of reactive chemical wastes</li><li>• reactive chemical wastes</li><li>• Silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes</li><li>• Silver salts</li><li>• photographic</li><li>• radiographic wastes</li><li>• Halogenated plastics such as PVC</li><li>• Halogenated plastics</li><li>• Waste with high mercury or cadmium content , such as broken thermometers , used batteries and lead -lined wooden panels</li><li>• high mercury or cadmium content</li><li>• broken thermometers</li><li>• used batteries</li><li>• lead</li><li>• Sealed ampules or ampules containing heavy metals .</li><li>• Sealed ampules</li><li>• heavy metals</li><li>• Incineration</li><li>• Incineration</li><li>• It is a high-temperature dry oxidation process; It leads to a significant reduction in waste volume and weight (up to 70-80%).</li><li>• high-temperature dry oxidation process;</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• waste volume</li><li>• weight</li><li>• 70-80%).</li><li>• Incineration does not require pretreatment . The biggest disadvantage of incineration is the smoke generation .</li><li>• not</li><li>• pretreatment</li><li>• disadvantage</li><li>• smoke</li><li>• generation</li><li>• Temperature in an incinerator (Now, &gt; 1200°C recommended)</li><li>• Temperature</li><li>• &gt; 1200°C</li><li>• Characteristics of wastes suitable for incineration -</li><li>• Characteristics of wastes suitable for incineration -</li><li>• Low heating volume Combustible matter &gt; 60% Non-combustible solids &lt; 5% Non-combustible fines &lt; 20% Moisture content &lt; 30%</li><li>• Low heating volume</li><li>• Low heating volume</li><li>• Combustible matter &gt; 60%</li><li>• Non-combustible solids &lt; 5%</li><li>• Non-combustible solids &lt; 5%</li><li>• Non-combustible fines &lt; 20%</li><li>• Moisture content &lt; 30%</li><li>• Moisture content &lt; 30%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incineration not done for Radioactive waste, PVC, Heavy metals, broken thermometers, used batteries, Reactive chemical waste, Pressurised containers.</li><li>➤ Incineration not</li><li>➤ Radioactive waste, PVC, Heavy metals, broken thermometers, used batteries, Reactive chemical waste, Pressurised containers.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 884</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A local healthcare facility is looking to update its waste management system. They are considering adopting the screw feed technology for disposal of infectious waste. What is the primary result of utilizing screw feed technology in this context?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "85% reduction of volume and 15% reduction in weight.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "80% reduction in volume and 35% reduction in weight.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "75% reduction in volume and 45% reduction in weight.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70% reduction in volume and 70% reduction in weight.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 80% reduction in volume and 35% reduction in weight.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 80% reduction in volume and 35% reduction in weight.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation -</li><li>• SCREW FEED TECHNOLOGY</li><li>• SCREW FEED TECHNOLOGY</li><li>• Non-burn dry thermal disinfection process in which waste is shredded and then heated in a rotating auger .</li><li>• Non-burn dry thermal disinfection</li><li>• waste</li><li>• shredded</li><li>• heated</li><li>• rotating auger</li><li>• The waste is reduced by 80 percent in volume and by 20—35 percent in weight .</li><li>• waste</li><li>• reduced</li><li>• 80 percent</li><li>• volume</li><li>• 20—35 percent</li><li>• weight</li><li>• This process is suitable for treating infectious waste and sharps , but it should not be used to Process pathological , cytotoxic , or radio-active waste.</li><li>• treating infectious waste</li><li>• sharps</li><li>• not</li><li>• pathological</li><li>• cytotoxic</li><li>• radio-active waste.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screw feed technology , a non-burn method , reducing volume by 80% and weight by 20-35%, is suitable for infectious &amp; sharp waste but not for pathological, cytotoxic or radioactive waste.</li><li>➤ Screw feed technology</li><li>➤ non-burn method</li><li>➤ reducing</li><li>➤ volume</li><li>➤ 80%</li><li>➤ weight</li><li>➤ 20-35%,</li><li>➤ infectious &amp; sharp waste</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ pathological, cytotoxic</li><li>➤ radioactive waste.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 885</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital administrator is exploring methods to safely dispose of infectious waste. He comes across a technique that involves blending the waste with cement and other substances prior to its disposal. This method is best referred to as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cementization", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incineration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Encapsulation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Inertization", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Inertization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Inertization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Inertization- mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal, to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the waste migrating into the surface water or groundwater .</li><li>• Inertization-</li><li>• cement</li><li>• other substances</li><li>• minimize</li><li>• risk</li><li>• contained</li><li>• waste migrating</li><li>• surface water</li><li>• groundwater</li><li>• Inertization is especially suitable for pharmaceuticals and for incineration ashes with high metal content .</li><li>• Inertization</li><li>• pharmaceuticals</li><li>• incineration ashes</li><li>• high metal content</li><li>• A typical composition of the mixture is - 65% pharmaceutical waste , 15% lime, 15% cement, 5% water.</li><li>• composition</li><li>• 65% pharmaceutical waste</li><li>• 15% lime, 15% cement, 5% water.</li><li>• CEMENT IN BMW MANAGEMENT</li><li>• CEMENT IN BMW MANAGEMENT</li><li>• Encapsulation : Filling containers with waste, adding an immobilizing material ( plastic foam/ bituminous sand/cement mortar/clay material ) and sealing containers . The primary aim is to physically contain waste to prevent the migration of contaminants.</li><li>• Encapsulation</li><li>• containers</li><li>• waste,</li><li>• immobilizing material</li><li>• plastic foam/ bituminous sand/cement mortar/clay material</li><li>• sealing containers</li><li>• physically contain waste to</li><li>• prevent the migration of contaminants.</li><li>• Inertization: Mixing biomedical waste with cement and other substances ( lime ) before disposal . The primary aim is to render the waste chemically inactive or stable.</li><li>• Inertization:</li><li>• biomedical waste</li><li>• cement</li><li>• lime</li><li>• before disposal</li><li>• render</li><li>• waste</li><li>• chemically inactive or stable.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inertization : Mixing biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal .</li><li>➤ Inertization</li><li>➤ biomedical waste</li><li>➤ cement</li><li>➤ before disposal</li><li>➤ Useful for pharmaceuticals and for incineration ashes with high metal content .</li><li>➤ pharmaceuticals</li><li>➤ for incineration ashes</li><li>➤ high metal content</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 885</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young and innovative healthcare administrator in Pune, is spearheading an initiative to revamp the hospital's waste management system. She learns about the Inertization process as an effective method for treating specific biomedical wastes. Before implementing this, she wants to ensure that her team uses the correct proportions of components in the process. What percentage of the mixture for the Inertization process should be made up of cement and water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20% and 10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30% and 15%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15% and 5%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "40% and 10%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15% and 5%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 15% and 5%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• A typical composition of the mixture is - 65% pharmaceutical waste, 15% lime, 15% cement, 5% water . A homogeneous mass is formed , and cubes or pellets are produced on site and then transported to suitable storage sites.</li><li>• 65% pharmaceutical waste, 15% lime, 15% cement, 5% water</li><li>• formed</li><li>• cubes</li><li>• pellets</li><li>• transported</li><li>• storage</li><li>• Inertization - mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal , to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the waste migrating into the surface water or groundwater .</li><li>• Inertization</li><li>• waste</li><li>• cement</li><li>• before disposal</li><li>• minimize</li><li>• risk</li><li>• toxic substances</li><li>• surface water</li><li>• groundwater</li><li>• Inertization is especially suitable for pharmaceuticals and for incineration ashes with high metal content.</li><li>• Inertization</li><li>• pharmaceuticals</li><li>• incineration ashes</li><li>• high metal content.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A typical composition of mixture is:</li><li>➤ typical composition</li><li>➤ 65% pharmaceutical waste 15% l im e 15% cement 5% water</li><li>➤ 65% pharmaceutical waste</li><li>➤ 65%</li><li>➤ pharmaceutical waste</li><li>➤ 15% l im e</li><li>➤ 15%</li><li>➤ im</li><li>➤ 15% cement</li><li>➤ 15% cement</li><li>➤ 5% water</li><li>➤ 5% water</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 885</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. Rajkumari, an Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) working at a Tribal Sub Health Center in Chhattisgarh, has successfully assisted in a delivery. The mother, belonging to the local tribal community, and her newborn are both stable and in good health. Given the remote location of the Sub Health Center and the lack of access to standard Biomedical Waste Management procedures, how should Mrs. Rajkumari dispose of the placenta?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incineration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plasma pyrolysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deep burial", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chemical disinfection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deep burial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Deep burial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Disposal by deep burial is permitted ONLY in rural or remote areas where there is no access to common bio-medical waste treatment facilities . This will be carried out with prior approval from the prescribed authority.</li><li>• Disposal</li><li>• deep burial</li><li>• ONLY in rural or remote areas</li><li>• no access</li><li>• bio-medical waste treatment facilities</li><li>• Deep burial is done for Human anatomical waste, Animal anatomical waste, and Soiled waste (ONLY In the absence of facilities like Autoclaving/Micro-waving/Hydroclaving followed by Shredding/Mutilation ).</li><li>• Deep burial</li><li>• Human anatomical waste, Animal anatomical waste,</li><li>• Soiled waste</li><li>• absence</li><li>• Autoclaving/Micro-waving/Hydroclaving</li><li>• Shredding/Mutilation</li><li>• Standards for Deep Burial</li><li>• Standards for Deep Burial</li><li>• Pit/Trench &gt;2 meters deep , half filled with waste , then covered with lime within 50 cm of the surface, before filling the rest of the pit with soil. When wastes are added to the pit , a layer of 10 cm of soil shall be added to cover the wastes.</li><li>• Pit/Trench &gt;2 meters deep , half filled with waste , then covered with lime within 50 cm of the surface, before filling the rest of the pit with soil.</li><li>• Pit/Trench &gt;2 meters deep</li><li>• half filled</li><li>• waste</li><li>• lime</li><li>• 50 cm</li><li>• before filling</li><li>• rest</li><li>• pit</li><li>• soil.</li><li>• When wastes are added to the pit , a layer of 10 cm of soil shall be added to cover the wastes.</li><li>• wastes</li><li>• added</li><li>• pit</li><li>• 10 cm</li><li>• soil</li><li>• cover</li><li>• wastes.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deep burial is the treatment and disposal option for Yellow bag/ category - Human &amp; animal anatomical waste and soiled waste .</li><li>➤ Deep burial</li><li>➤ treatment</li><li>➤ disposal</li><li>➤ Yellow bag/ category</li><li>➤ Human</li><li>➤ animal anatomical waste</li><li>➤ soiled waste</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a healthcare facility manager, you are assessing various waste disposal methods, including chemical disinfection. This method involves using chemicals to neutralize potentially harmful biological agents in waste. However, not all types of waste are suitable for chemical disinfection. Based on your knowledge of waste types and appropriate disposal methods, which of the following types of waste is least suited for chemical disinfection?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sewage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Placenta", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stools", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Placenta", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Placenta</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Chemical disinfection employs the use of specific chemical agents to reduce the microbial load of waste to a level where they don't pose a health risk. While it's effective for many waste types like sharps, blood-soaked materials, hospital sewage and microbial specimens , it isn't suitable for large solid wastes like human anatomical waste.</li><li>• Chemical disinfection</li><li>• specific</li><li>• chemical agents</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• microbial load</li><li>• don't pose</li><li>• health risk.</li><li>• effective</li><li>• sharps, blood-soaked materials,</li><li>• hospital sewage</li><li>• microbial specimens</li><li>• isn't</li><li>• large solid</li><li>• human anatomical waste.</li><li>• Standards for Efficacy of Chemical Disinfection as per NEW Standards for BMW Treatment in India are - ≥ 4 Log10 reduction or greater for Bacillus Subtilis</li><li>• Standards</li><li>• Efficacy</li><li>• ≥ 4 Log10 reduction</li><li>• Bacillus Subtilis</li><li>• Examples of Chemical disinfectants : Bleaching powder , Chlorine solution , High test hypochlorite (HTH), Chlorine (Halozone) tablets , Iodine, Potassium permanganate.</li><li>• : Bleaching powder</li><li>• Chlorine solution</li><li>• High test hypochlorite (HTH),</li><li>• Chlorine (Halozone) tablets</li><li>• Iodine, Potassium permanganate.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Chemical disinfection is a widely used method for treating certain types of medical waste in healthcare facilities . It involves the application of chemical agents that are capable of destroying harmful microorganisms , making the waste safe for disposal or further handling . While this method is effective for various types of waste (Discarded linen, mattresses, beddings contaminated with blood or body fluid ), it is not the best suited for all. Specifically, placenta is not ideally suited for chemical disinfection .</li><li>• Chemical disinfection</li><li>• widely used</li><li>• medical waste</li><li>• healthcare facilities</li><li>• chemical agents</li><li>• destroying harmful microorganisms</li><li>• waste safe</li><li>• disposal or further handling</li><li>• method</li><li>• effective</li><li>• types of waste</li><li>• blood</li><li>• body fluid</li><li>• not</li><li>• placenta</li><li>• not</li><li>• chemical disinfection</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 885</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Shruti, a young physician, joins a new hospital in Tamil Nadu. On her first day, she attended a mandatory orientation session about the hospital's protocols. There are specific rules and regulations in India that dictate how biomedical waste should be managed. Who provided the Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ministry of Health and Family welfare", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ministry of environment and forests and climate change.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ministry of Home affairs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ministry of Urban development", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ministry of environment and forests and climate change.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/23/image_V60HOwu.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ministry of environment and forests and climate change</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule was prescribed by the Ministry of Environment and Forests and climate change (MOEFCC), Government of India . Under Legislation - Sections 6, 8 and 25 of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986</li><li>• Bio-Medical Waste</li><li>• Ministry of Environment</li><li>• Forests and climate change (MOEFCC), Government of India</li><li>• Legislation</li><li>• Sections 6, 8</li><li>• 25</li><li>• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986</li><li>• These rules shall not apply to Radioactive wastes, Hazardous chemicals , Municipal solid wastes , Lead acid batteries, Hazardous wastes , e-Waste , Hazardous micro-organisms , Genetically engineered microorganisms.</li><li>• not</li><li>• Radioactive wastes, Hazardous chemicals</li><li>• Municipal solid wastes</li><li>• Lead acid batteries, Hazardous wastes</li><li>• e-Waste</li><li>• Hazardous micro-organisms</li><li>• Genetically engineered microorganisms.</li><li>• BMW - emblem</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Biomedical Wastes (BMW) in India are handled and managed under ‘ Biomedical Waste Management (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998’.</li><li>• Biomedical Wastes (BMW)</li><li>• handled</li><li>• managed</li><li>• Biomedical Waste Management</li><li>• 1998’.</li><li>• Exercising powers : Sections 6, 8, 25 of ‘Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986’ (under the Ministry of Environment and Forests and climate change )</li><li>• Exercising powers</li><li>• 6, 8, 25</li><li>• Act, 1986’</li><li>• Ministry of Environment and Forests and climate change</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 886</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 54-year-old man from Punjab, recently underwent colostomy surgery at a tertiary care hospital in Amritsar. Before the surgery, he was catheterized to ensure proper urinary drainage. On the 5th postoperative day, as he showed signs of recovery, the medical team decided to remove his urinary catheter. The nursing staff, while adhering to the Biomedical Waste Management protocols, planned to discard the used urine bag. In which colored container should they discard the urine bag as per the standard guidelines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "White", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Red", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Red</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• New BMWM Guideline</li><li>• New BMWM Guideline</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Red (BMW category) is for Contaminated waste ( recyclable) tubing, bottles , intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes ( without needles ), vacutainers and gloves.</li><li>• Red</li><li>• recyclable) tubing, bottles</li><li>• intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes</li><li>• without needles</li><li>• gloves.</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 887</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a renowned tertiary care hospital in Lucknow, the staff nurse routinely returns expired medicines from the wards to the central pharmacy for proper disposal. The head pharmacist, wanting to adhere strictly to the Biomedical Waste Management guidelines of India, must decide in which colored container to dispose of these expired medicines before their final disposal. What should be the appropriate color of the container?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yellow", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yellow", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category_A3HOSfx.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Yellow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• New BMWM Guideline</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Yellow bag is for Human &amp; animal anatomical waste , Soiled waste , Expired or discarded medicines, Chemical, Liquid, Micro , biotechnological and other clinical lab waste &amp; Bed lenin, Materesses.</li><li>➤ Yellow bag</li><li>➤ Human &amp; animal anatomical waste</li><li>➤ Soiled waste</li><li>➤ Expired or discarded medicines, Chemical, Liquid, Micro</li><li>➤ biotechnological</li><li>➤ clinical lab waste &amp; Bed lenin, Materesses.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the midst of a busy day at a large tertiary hospital in Uttar Pradesh, the nurse supervisor, Mrs. Gupta, is preparing a checklist for waste management training for new nurses. While listing down the different types of biomedical waste and their appropriate methods of disposal, she recalls that there's a specific type of waste that is typically NOT autoclaved before final disposal. Which of the following types of waste is Mrs. Gupta thinking about?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gloves", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Syringes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Metallic implants", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cytotoxic drugs", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cytotoxic drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cytotoxic drugs.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Expired cytotoxic drugs and items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs to be returned to the manufacturer or supplier for incineration at temperature &gt; 1200° C or to a common bio-medical waste treatment facility or hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility for incineration at &gt; 1200° C or Encapsulation or Plasma Pyrolysis at &gt; 1200°C.</li><li>• Expired cytotoxic drugs</li><li>• items</li><li>• cytotoxic drugs</li><li>• returned</li><li>• manufacturer or supplier</li><li>• incineration</li><li>• 1200° C</li><li>• bio-medical waste</li><li>• waste treatment, storage</li><li>• disposal facility</li><li>• &gt; 1200° C</li><li>• Encapsulation or Plasma</li><li>• &gt; 1200°C.</li><li>• All other discarded medicines shall be either sent back to the manufacturer or disposed of by incineration.</li><li>• discarded medicines</li><li>• either sent back</li><li>• manufacturer or disposed</li><li>• incineration.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Cytotoxic drugs , which are hazardous and used in treatments like chemotherapy , are not suitable for autoclaving due to their chemical properties. Instead, they require alternative disposal methods , such as high-temperature incineration , to ensure safety and environmental protection .</li><li>• Cytotoxic drugs</li><li>• chemotherapy</li><li>• not</li><li>• autoclaving</li><li>• alternative disposal methods</li><li>• high-temperature incineration</li><li>• safety</li><li>• environmental protection</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mahesh, a young physician at a district hospital in Gujarat, has just administered a vaccine to a child. As he's about to dispose of the broken vial, a medical student observing the procedure asks him about the appropriate container for such waste. In accordance with the Biomedical Waste Management guidelines, Dr. Mahesh should dispose of the broken vial in which of the following color-coded containers?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "White", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blue", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Red", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Blue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Category_A9ETOvL.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Blue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Yellow - Human &amp; animal anatomical waste, lab waste , etc</li><li>• Yellow</li><li>• Human &amp; animal anatomical waste, lab waste</li><li>• Red - Plastic &amp; Rubber waste ( tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, etc )</li><li>• Red</li><li>• Plastic &amp; Rubber waste</li><li>• tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, etc</li><li>• Blue - Glass waste (Vials), Metallic implants</li><li>• Blue</li><li>• Glass waste (Vials), Metallic implants</li><li>• White - Sharps (Metallic)</li><li>• White</li><li>• Sharps (Metallic)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 887</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A symbol is displayed during a training session for medical staff. The staff are asked to identify the symbol. Which of the following does the displayed symbol denote?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cytotoxic drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Biohazard", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Genotoxic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radioactive waste", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Biohazard", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/picture96.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture1_fCtJkID.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Biohazard</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• THE BIOHAZARD SYMBOL:</li><li>• THE BIOHAZARD SYMBOL:</li><li>• An image that warns people of possible exposure to biological substances that are harmful to living organisms . These biohazards can be viruses, toxins or medical waste . Symbol was created by Charles Baldwin in 1966.</li><li>• An image that warns people of possible exposure to biological substances that are harmful to living organisms .</li><li>• image</li><li>• warns</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• biological substances</li><li>• harmful</li><li>• living organisms</li><li>• These biohazards can be viruses, toxins or medical waste .</li><li>• biohazards</li><li>• viruses, toxins</li><li>• medical waste</li><li>• Symbol was created by Charles Baldwin in 1966.</li><li>• Symbol</li><li>• Charles Baldwin</li><li>• 1966.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 888</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a medical facility, ensuring the efficacy of sterilization equipment like autoclaves is crucial for maintaining a sterile environment. To verify that an autoclave is functioning effectively, a biological indicator is used. What is the biological indicator commonly employed to test the efficacy of an autoclave?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacillus stearothermophillus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bacillus atrophaeus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bacillus cereus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bacillus subtilis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Bacillus stearothermophillus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20112000.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Bacillus stearothermophillus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Bacillus stearothermophillus is a widely recognized biological indicator for testing the efficacy of autoclaves . This thermophilic bacterium produces highly resistant spores , which can survive at high temperatures . The ability of an autoclave to effectively sterilize is demonstrated by its capacity to destroy these spores . If Bacillus stearothermophillus spores are killed during the autoclave process , it is a reliable indicator that the autoclave is functioning properly and achieving the necessary conditions for sterilization . This makes it a standard biological indicator for monitoring autoclave performance in healthcare settings.</li><li>• Bacillus stearothermophillus</li><li>• biological indicator</li><li>• efficacy</li><li>• autoclaves</li><li>• thermophilic bacterium</li><li>• highly resistant spores</li><li>• survive</li><li>• at high temperatures</li><li>• effectively sterilize</li><li>• its capacity</li><li>• destroy</li><li>• spores</li><li>• Bacillus stearothermophillus spores</li><li>• killed</li><li>• autoclave process</li><li>• reliable indicator</li><li>• properly and achieving</li><li>• sterilization</li><li>• standard biological indicator</li><li>• autoclave performance</li><li>• healthcare settings.</li><li>• Standards for Autoclaving of Bio-Medical Waste:</li><li>• Standards</li><li>• Autoclaving</li><li>• Bio-Medical Waste:</li><li>• Biological indicator: Geobacillus stearothermophilus (GBS) spores using vials or spore Strips ; with at least 1 × 10 6 spores.</li><li>• Geobacillus stearothermophilus</li><li>• spores</li><li>• spore Strips</li><li>• 1 × 10 6 spores.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autoclave - The treatment process is monitored by placing spores of Bacillus stearothermophillus at the center of waste load.</li><li>➤ Autoclave -</li><li>➤ monitored</li><li>➤ spores of Bacillus</li><li>➤ stearothermophillus</li><li>➤ center of waste load.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 316.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 26 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Biostatistics - 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She explains that this particular distribution is ideal for experiments or observations that yield data characterized by two mutually exclusive categories (e.g., success or failure, positive or negative). Which of the following distributions is Dr. Meena referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Binomial distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bimodal distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rectangular distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poisson distribution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Binomial distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Binomial distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Bimodal distribution – It is the arrangement of set of values which has two different observations having maximum frequencies . The data set has value of mode = 2.</li><li>• Option B. Bimodal distribution</li><li>• arrangement</li><li>• two different observations</li><li>• maximum frequencies</li><li>• data set</li><li>• mode = 2.</li><li>• Option C. Rectangular distribution – It is also called as Continuous uniform distribution . It is a probability distribution that has a constant probability .</li><li>• Option C. Rectangular distribution –</li><li>• Continuous uniform</li><li>• distribution</li><li>• probability distribution</li><li>• constant probability</li><li>• Option D. Poisson’s distribution – It is a discrete function which measures the probability of a given number of events that have occurred at a constant rate in a specified period . The events can only take specific values in each list of numbers. It can also be obtained as an approximation of a binomial distribution .</li><li>• Option D. Poisson’s distribution</li><li>• discrete function</li><li>• measures</li><li>• given number of events</li><li>• constant rate</li><li>• specified period</li><li>• specific values</li><li>• list</li><li>• approximation</li><li>• binomial distribution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The binomial distribution is used to model the probability of a certain number of successes (e.g., \"success\" or \"positive\") in a fixed number of independent experiments or trials , where each trial has only two possible outcomes . It is commonly used in situations involving binary or categorical data.</li><li>➤ binomial distribution</li><li>➤ probability</li><li>➤ certain number</li><li>➤ successes</li><li>➤ fixed number</li><li>➤ independent experiments or trials</li><li>➤ two possible outcomes</li><li>➤ binary or categorical data.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 52)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 52)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, a seasoned clinical researcher, is mentoring a group of medical students on their first research project. While discussing the findings, one student points out that their studies mean difference between two groups is 15 with a 95% confidence interval of 10 to 20. Another student, not very familiar with statistical concepts, asks for clarification about confidence intervals. Dr. Mehta decides to test the group's understanding and asks, \"Which of the following statements about confidence interval is incorrect?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Based on critical ratio when sample is large.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gives an indication of the likely magnitude of true value.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gives an indication of certainty of point estimate.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Becomes larger as sample size increases.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Becomes larger as sample size increases.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Becomes larger as sample size increases.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Based on critical ratio when sample is large: This is a correct statement. Confidence intervals are often based on the critical ratio , especially in large samples , using standard error to estimate the precision of the sample mean .</li><li>• Option A. Based on critical ratio when sample is large:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Confidence intervals</li><li>• critical ratio</li><li>• large samples</li><li>• standard error</li><li>• estimate</li><li>• precision</li><li>• sample mean</li><li>• Option B. Gives an indication of the likely magnitude of the true value: This is correct . A confidence interval provides a range within which the true population parameter is likely to fall .</li><li>• Option B. Gives an indication of the likely magnitude of the true value:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• confidence interval</li><li>• range</li><li>• true population parameter</li><li>• fall</li><li>• Option C. Gives an indication of certainty of the point estimate: This is correct . A confidence interval indicates a range in which the true value is likely to lie with a certain level of confidence .</li><li>• Option C. Gives an indication of certainty of the point estimate:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• confidence interval</li><li>• true value</li><li>• lie</li><li>• certain level</li><li>• confidence</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Confidence Interval</li><li>➤ Confidence Interval</li><li>➤ A confidence interval gives an estimated range of values which is likely to include an unknown population parameter , the estimated range being calculated from a given set of sample data.</li><li>➤ confidence interval</li><li>➤ estimated</li><li>➤ values</li><li>➤ unknown population parameter</li><li>➤ calculated</li><li>➤ sample data.</li><li>➤ Confidence Intervals (CI) = Mean ± Z (Standard error), where ‘Z’ is the Critical value for the given CI , and</li><li>➤ Confidence Intervals (CI)</li><li>➤ Mean ± Z (Standard error),</li><li>➤ ‘Z’</li><li>➤ CI</li><li>➤ SE = SD/√n</li><li>➤ SE = SD/√n</li><li>➤ SD Standard deviation, n = Sample size</li><li>➤ n = Sample size</li><li>➤ Hence, As the sample size increases , the confidence interval decreases in size.</li><li>➤ sample size increases</li><li>➤ confidence interval decreases</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 88)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 88)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor is analyzing data from a clinical study in which he's comparing the efficacy of two treatments for a rare disease. Given the small number of patients in his study, he's considering a statistical test which is an alternative to the standard Chi square test, especially when sample sizes are small. Which of the following tests is a variant of the Chi square test and might be more appropriate for Dr. Kapoor's analysis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Student t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fisher’s test", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Wilcoxon signed rank test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fisher’s test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Fisher’s test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Student t-test: This test is used for comparing the means of two groups, typically with continuous data, and is not a variant of the Chi-square test .</li><li>• Option A. Student t-test:</li><li>• comparing</li><li>• two groups,</li><li>• continuous data,</li><li>• not</li><li>• Chi-square test</li><li>• Option C. Wilcoxon signed-rank test: This is a non-parametric test used for comparing two related samples or repeated measurements on a single sample , not a variant of the Chi-square test.</li><li>• Option C. Wilcoxon signed-rank test:</li><li>• non-parametric test</li><li>• two related samples</li><li>• repeated measurements</li><li>• single sample</li><li>• not</li><li>• Chi-square test.</li><li>• Option D. Paired t-test: Similar to the Student t-test, this is used for comparing the means of two related groups , not a direct alternative to the Chi-square test.</li><li>• Option D. Paired t-test:</li><li>• Similar</li><li>• Student t-test,</li><li>• two related groups</li><li>• not</li><li>• direct alternative</li><li>• Chi-square test.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chi-square test - Comparing percentage, proportions &amp; fractions in two or more different group of individuals</li><li>➤ Chi-square test</li><li>➤ percentage, proportions &amp; fractions</li><li>➤ two</li><li>➤ more different group</li><li>➤ Fischer’s test : Is a variant of Chi-square test when sample size is &lt; 30. In a 2 x 2 contingency table of the expected value in any cell is less than 5, Fisher’s exact test is done.</li><li>➤ Fischer’s test</li><li>➤ variant</li><li>➤ Chi-square test</li><li>➤ sample size is &lt; 30.</li><li>➤ 2 x 2</li><li>➤ contingency table</li><li>➤ expected value</li><li>➤ less than 5,</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 97)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 97)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a session on statistical analysis in sports, a cricket analyst introduces a chart that illustrates the accumulation of runs scored across distinct segments of overs during a cricket match. This graphical representation is intended to depict the scoring dynamics as the game progresses. Which type of chart is being exemplified here to demonstrate the incremental scoring pattern over sequential overs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scatter diagram", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Line diagram", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cumulative frequency diagram", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pie diagram", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cumulative frequency diagram", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039005.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/08/image-20230708141628-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-105329.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cumulative frequency diagram</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Data presentation:</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 15)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 15)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In statistical analysis, various methods and tools are employed to detect outliers within a dataset. However, one of the following options is not typically used for identifying outliers. Which of these is not commonly used to detect outliers in a data series?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pierce Test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dixon's Q-test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Grubbs test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shapiro wilk test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Shapiro wilk test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Shapiro wilk test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Dixon's Q test: Dixon's Q test, or simply the Q test , is used for identification and rejection of outliers. This assumes normal distribution and this test should be used sparingly and never more than once in a data set .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Dixon's Q test:</li><li>• Q test</li><li>• identification</li><li>• rejection</li><li>• normal distribution</li><li>• test</li><li>• sparingly</li><li>• never more</li><li>• once</li><li>• data set</li><li>• Option A. Pierce Test: Peirce's criterion is a rigorous method based on probability theory that can be used to eliminate data “outliers ” or spurious data in a rational way.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Pierce Test:</li><li>• rigorous method</li><li>• probability theory</li><li>• eliminate data “outliers</li><li>• spurious data</li><li>• rational way.</li><li>• Option C. Grubbs' test: Grubbs' test is specifically designed to test for outliers in a dataset .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Grubbs' test:</li><li>• specifically designed</li><li>• test</li><li>• dataset</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Statistical Tests for Identification of Outliers are –</li><li>➤ Statistical Tests for Identification of Outliers are –</li><li>➤ Dixon Test Grubbs Test Pearson Test Walsh Test</li><li>➤ Dixon Test</li><li>➤ Grubbs Test</li><li>➤ Pearson Test</li><li>➤ Walsh Test</li><li>➤ It can also be identified by using graphs such as Histogram, Box and Whisker plot, Scatter diagram.</li><li>➤ identified</li><li>➤ graphs</li><li>➤ Histogram, Box</li><li>➤ Whisker plot, Scatter diagram.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics - Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 37)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics - Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 37)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Examine the distribution curve provided. Based on the relative positions of the mean, median, and mode along the x-axis, what can be inferred about the skewness of this distribution?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positively skewed.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negatively skewed.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Non-linear skewed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Linear skewed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Negatively skewed.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/333.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039010.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-110332.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Negatively skewed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Central tendency in various distributions -</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 46)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 46)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Malhotra is examining the relationship between two categorical variables: stages of a disease (early, middle, advanced, terminal) and treatment outcomes (improved, stable, worsened, expired). He collects data and presents them in a 4x4 contingency table. He decides to use the Chi square test to determine any association. While applying the Chi square test to this table, what would be the degree of freedom?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "16", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 9", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-122937.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 9</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Degree of freedom ( df ) = (row – 1) x (column – 1)</li><li>• Degree of freedom</li><li>• (row – 1) x (column – 1)</li><li>• = (4-1) x (4-1) = 3 x 3 = 9.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Degree of freedom - Is the no. of observations in a dataset that can freely vary once the parameters have been estimated.</li><li>➤ Degree of freedom -</li><li>➤ no. of observations</li><li>➤ dataset</li><li>➤ freely vary</li><li>➤ parameters</li><li>➤ estimated.</li><li>➤ Calculation of degree of freedom -</li><li>➤ Calculation of degree of freedom -</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 96)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 96)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Patel, an epidemiologist, is organizing a workshop to train new public health researchers on sampling techniques for community health studies. During the session, he highlights various probability sampling methods and their applications. Which of the following sampling techniques mentioned by a participant is NOT an example of a probability sampling method?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cluster sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stratified random sampling.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quota sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systematic random sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Quota sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-111711.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Quota sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cluster sampling: Cluster sampling is a probability sampling method where the population is divided into clusters , and a random sample of clusters is selected for inclusion in the study .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Cluster sampling:</li><li>• probability sampling method</li><li>• divided</li><li>• clusters</li><li>• random sample</li><li>• clusters</li><li>• inclusion</li><li>• study</li><li>• Option B. Stratified random sampling: Stratified random sampling is a probability sampling technique where the population is divided into strata (subgroups) based on certain characteristics, and then random samples are taken from each stratum.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Stratified random sampling:</li><li>• probability sampling technique</li><li>• divided</li><li>• strata (subgroups)</li><li>• random samples</li><li>• stratum.</li><li>• Option D. Systematic random sampling : Systematic random sampling is a probability sampling method where researchers select every nth individual from a list of the population . It involves random selection and is used when a complete list of the population is available .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Systematic random sampling</li><li>• probability sampling method</li><li>• researchers select</li><li>• list</li><li>• population</li><li>• random selection</li><li>• complete list</li><li>• population</li><li>• available</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of Sampling :</li><li>➤ Types of Sampling</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 67)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 67)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sumit, a young researcher, is examining the relationship between the daily intake of a certain nutrient (Variable 1) and an improvement in cognitive functions (Variable 2) among elderly individuals. He collected data from 100 participants over a month and plotted the results on a scatter plot. Based on his observations, what type of relationship does this scatter plot most likely suggest between Variable 1 and Variable 2?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive correlation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negative correlation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "No correlation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderately positive correlation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. No correlation", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039014.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_GfHXyPX.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. No correlation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In no correlation the points are at random or haphazard not maintaining any pattern . No linear relationship exists between the two variables.</li><li>• no correlation</li><li>• random</li><li>• haphazard not</li><li>• pattern</li><li>• No linear relationship</li><li>• between</li><li>• two variables.</li><li>• Scatter Plot: Used to determine the relationship (if any) between two variables . The nature of the pattern can suggest different types of relationships :</li><li>• Scatter Plot:</li><li>• determine</li><li>• relationship</li><li>• two variables</li><li>• pattern</li><li>• different types</li><li>• relationships</li><li>• Positive Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 also increases. Negative Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 decreases . No Relationship: There is no discernible pattern ; the points seem randomly scattered. Non-linear Relationship: The data points form a curve rather than a straight line.</li><li>• Positive Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 also increases.</li><li>• Positive Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 also increases.</li><li>• Positive Linear Relationship:</li><li>• Variable 1 increases</li><li>• Variable 2</li><li>• increases.</li><li>• Negative Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 decreases .</li><li>• Negative Linear Relationship: As Variable 1 increases , Variable 2 decreases .</li><li>• Negative Linear Relationship:</li><li>• Variable 1 increases</li><li>• Variable 2 decreases</li><li>• No Relationship: There is no discernible pattern ; the points seem randomly scattered.</li><li>• No Relationship: There is no discernible pattern ; the points seem randomly scattered.</li><li>• No Relationship:</li><li>• no discernible pattern</li><li>• randomly scattered.</li><li>• Non-linear Relationship: The data points form a curve rather than a straight line.</li><li>• Non-linear Relationship: The data points form a curve rather than a straight line.</li><li>• Non-linear Relationship:</li><li>• data points</li><li>• curve</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dot-plots : Compare 2 or 3 parameters simultaneously on a two or three dimensional scatter-plot (each event is represented as a single point on a scatter - plot. Intensity of 2 or 3 different channels are represented along the various axes . Events with similar intensities will cluster together in the same region on the scatterplot.)</li><li>➤ Dot-plots</li><li>➤ Compare 2 or 3 parameters</li><li>➤ two</li><li>➤ three dimensional scatter-plot</li><li>➤ single point</li><li>➤ scatter</li><li>➤ plot.</li><li>➤ Intensity</li><li>➤ 2</li><li>➤ 3 different channels</li><li>➤ various axes</li><li>➤ Events</li><li>➤ similar intensities</li><li>➤ cluster together</li><li>➤ same region</li><li>➤ scatterplot.)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 125)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 125)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of researchers is examining the outcomes of several studies on the effectiveness of a new antiviral medication. They compile their findings into a forest plot to visually summarize the collective odds ratios and confidence intervals of these studies. At their team meeting, Dr. Lira, a junior researcher, notices a blue-colored diamond at the bottom of the plot and inquires about its significance. As her mentor, you need to explain the interpretation of this diamond in the context of meta-analysis. Based on the forest plot provided, what does the blue-colored diamond at the bottom of the plot represent?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Odds ratio of individual studies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Confidence interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Overall measure of effect", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "I2 statistic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Overall measure of effect", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/666-1-1.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Overall measure of effect</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Odds ratio of individual studies: Each square on the plot represents the odds ratio of individual studies , not the diamond.</li><li>• Option A. Odds ratio of individual studies:</li><li>• plot represents</li><li>• odds ratio</li><li>• individual studies</li><li>• not</li><li>• Option B. Confidence interval of the largest study: The horizontal lines through the squares represent the confidence intervals of individual studies, not the diamond.</li><li>• Option B. Confidence interval of the largest study:</li><li>• horizontal lines</li><li>• squares</li><li>• confidence intervals</li><li>• not</li><li>• Option D. 12 statistic for heterogeneity: The 12 statistic is not depicted by a diamond; it is a numerical value that indicates the percentage of variation across studies that is due to heterogeneity rather than chance.</li><li>• Option D. 12 statistic for heterogeneity:</li><li>• not</li><li>• numerical value</li><li>• percentage of variation</li><li>• heterogeneity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Forest Plot/ Blobbogram - A graphical display of estimated results from a number of scientific studies addressing the same question , along with the overall results .</li><li>➤ Forest Plot/ Blobbogram -</li><li>➤ estimated</li><li>➤ number</li><li>➤ scientific studies</li><li>➤ same question</li><li>➤ overall results</li><li>➤ Odds ratio of individual studies represented as squares . Confidence interval presented as horizontal lines . Overall measure of effect is plotted as diamond .</li><li>➤ Odds ratio of individual studies represented as squares .</li><li>➤ Odds ratio of individual studies represented as squares .</li><li>➤ Odds ratio</li><li>➤ squares</li><li>➤ Confidence interval presented as horizontal lines .</li><li>➤ Confidence interval presented as horizontal lines .</li><li>➤ Confidence interval</li><li>➤ horizontal lines</li><li>➤ Overall measure of effect is plotted as diamond .</li><li>➤ Overall measure of effect is plotted as diamond .</li><li>➤ Overall measure</li><li>➤ diamond</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 166)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 166)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Isha, a sociologist at the University of Mumbai, is interested in studying the relationship between people's place of residence and their job preferences. She collects data from a diverse sample across Maharashtra and categorizes their residences as urban, semi-urban, and rural. Further, she classifies their jobs as either government or private. To analyze her data, she wants to choose a test that would best determine the association between these variables?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Students t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chi square test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chi square test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Chi square test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chi square test - This is a non-parametric test of significance, and is used to test the significance of association between 2 or more qualitative characteristics; proportions in 2 or more groups . It is used for Non-normal (Non-Gaussian) distributions .</li><li>• Chi square test</li><li>• non-parametric test</li><li>• between 2</li><li>• more qualitative</li><li>• proportions</li><li>• 2</li><li>• more groups</li><li>• Non-normal</li><li>• distributions</li><li>• Applications of Chi-square test:</li><li>• Applications</li><li>• Chi-square test:</li><li>• Test of proportions Test of association Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Test of proportions</li><li>• Test of proportions</li><li>• Test of association</li><li>• Test of association</li><li>• Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Essential requirements for calculation of Chi-square test:</li><li>• Essential</li><li>• calculation</li><li>• Chi-square test:</li><li>• Random sample Qualitative data Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5.</li><li>• Random sample</li><li>• Random sample</li><li>• Qualitative data</li><li>• Qualitative data</li><li>• Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5.</li><li>• Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Chi square test is used for comparing categorical variables . Comparing percentage, proportions &amp; fractions in two or more different group of individuals.</li><li>• Chi square test</li><li>• comparing categorical variables</li><li>• percentage, proportions</li><li>• fractions</li><li>• two</li><li>• more different</li><li>• individuals.</li><li>• Fischer’s test : Is a variant of Chi-square test when sample size is &lt; 30</li><li>• Fischer’s test</li><li>• Chi-square test</li><li>• &lt; 30</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 105)</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 105)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sunita, a biostatistician, is giving a lecture on probability distributions. She describes the normal distribution as a bell-shaped curve characterized by specific properties. However, one of the characteristics she mentions is not true for a normal distribution. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a normal distribution curve?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Continuous", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bilaterally symmetrical", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bell-shaped curve", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bimodal", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Bimodal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039009.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Bimodal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Continuous: A normal distribution is indeed a continuous distribution , meaning that it is defined for all real numbers in a certain interval.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Continuous:</li><li>• continuous distribution</li><li>• real numbers</li><li>• certain interval.</li><li>• Option B. Bilaterally symmetrical: A normal distribution is symmetrical about the mean, with the left and right sides mirroring each other.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Bilaterally symmetrical:</li><li>• symmetrical</li><li>• left and right sides</li><li>• Option C. Bell-shaped curve: A normal distribution typically has the shape of a bell curve , with the highest frequency in the middle tapering off to either side.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Bell-shaped curve:</li><li>• bell curve</li><li>• highest frequency</li><li>• middle tapering</li><li>• Normal Distribution curve is also called Gaussian curve or Standard distribution .</li><li>• Normal Distribution curve</li><li>• Gaussian curve or Standard distribution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Characteristics of Normal curve:</li><li>➤ Characteristics of Normal curve:</li><li>➤ Continuous Bilaterally symmetrical Smooth and cocked hat shaped or bell-shaped curve. Unimoda l Mean, Median and Mode coincide. It has Mean = 0, SD = 1 and Variance = 1</li><li>➤ Continuous</li><li>➤ Continuous</li><li>➤ Bilaterally symmetrical</li><li>➤ Bilaterally symmetrical</li><li>➤ Smooth and cocked hat shaped or bell-shaped curve.</li><li>➤ bell-shaped curve.</li><li>➤ Unimoda l</li><li>➤ Unimoda</li><li>➤ Mean, Median and Mode coincide.</li><li>➤ It has Mean = 0, SD = 1 and Variance = 1</li><li>➤ Ref: Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 45)</li><li>➤ Ref: Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 45)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Arvind, a biostatistician, is analyzing a dataset related to a new cardiac drug trial. He is particularly interested in determining how individual patient outcomes deviate from the average result. He uses a specific statistical measure that allows him to express individual data points in terms of their distance from the mean, measured as multiples of the standard deviation. By doing so, he can identify and interpret both typical and atypical responses to the drug within the context of the entire dataset. What is this measure that Dr. Arvind is using to determine the distance of a value from the mean value in units of standard deviation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Z score", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "P value", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Confidence interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "D score", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Z score", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_OLKxgQg.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Z score</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Z score is also known as critical ratio/ relative deviate/ normal deviate/ standard normal variety . It is the number of standard deviations that a value in a normally distributed population lies away from the mean i.e., distance of a value from mean value of the curve in units of standard deviation .</li><li>• Z score</li><li>• critical ratio/ relative deviate/ normal deviate/ standard</li><li>• normal variety</li><li>• number</li><li>• standard deviations</li><li>• distributed population</li><li>• mean</li><li>• mean value</li><li>• units</li><li>• standard deviation</li><li>• The standard score indicates how many standard deviations an observation is above or below the mean. Z scores are frequently used in assessing how far a child is in his relative growth to a standard Z score = 2: Any measurement of at least 2SD away is considered too far away to be normal.</li><li>• The standard score indicates how many standard deviations an observation is above or below the mean.</li><li>• standard</li><li>• standard deviations</li><li>• above</li><li>• below</li><li>• mean.</li><li>• Z scores are frequently used in assessing how far a child is in his relative growth to a standard</li><li>• Z scores</li><li>• child</li><li>• his relative</li><li>• growth</li><li>• standard</li><li>• Z score = 2: Any measurement of at least 2SD away is considered too far away to be normal.</li><li>• Z score = 2:</li><li>• 2SD</li><li>• too far</li><li>• normal.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Z score is a statistical measure that describes a value's relationship to the mean of a group of values . It is measured in terms of standard deviations from the mean . If a Z score is 0 , it indicates that the data point's score is identical to the mean score. A Z score can be positive or negative, indicating whether the data point is above or below the mean , and by how many standard deviations.</li><li>➤ Z score</li><li>➤ value's</li><li>➤ mean</li><li>➤ group of values</li><li>➤ measured</li><li>➤ standard deviations</li><li>➤ mean</li><li>➤ Z</li><li>➤ 0</li><li>➤ data point's score</li><li>➤ identical</li><li>➤ Z score</li><li>➤ positive</li><li>➤ negative,</li><li>➤ data</li><li>➤ above</li><li>➤ below</li><li>➤ mean</li><li>➤ many standard deviations.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 47)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 47)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a research team meeting at a premier health institution, Dr. Ramanujan is illustrating the statistical methods used to determine variability within the collected data. He lists several statistical measures, emphasizing their utility in understanding the spread and consistency of data points around a central value. While most of the measures he mentions are standard indicators of dispersion, one of them stands out as not typically employed for this purpose. Which of the following measures, as presented by Dr. Ramanujan, is NOT primarily used to describe dispersion?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Standard deviation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of variation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Variance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Geometric mean", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Geometric mean", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Geometric mean</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Standard deviation: This measure quantifies the average distance between each data point and the mean , providing information about data dispersion .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Standard deviation:</li><li>• average</li><li>• data point</li><li>• mean</li><li>• data dispersion</li><li>• Option B. Coefficient of variation: This measure expresses the standard deviation as a percentage of the mean , helping to assess the relative variability in different datasets.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Coefficient of variation:</li><li>• standard deviation</li><li>• percentage</li><li>• mean</li><li>• relative variability</li><li>• different datasets.</li><li>• Option C. Variance: Variance measures the average squared difference between each data point and the mean , providing information about data spread .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Variance:</li><li>• squared difference between each data point</li><li>• the mean</li><li>• data spread</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measures of dispersion:</li><li>➤ Measures of dispersion:</li><li>➤ Range Interquartile range Mean deviation Standard deviation Coefficient of variation Variance</li><li>➤ Range</li><li>➤ Interquartile range</li><li>➤ Mean deviation</li><li>➤ Standard deviation</li><li>➤ Coefficient of variation</li><li>➤ Variance</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 49)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 49)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ravi is planning a study on dietary habits among teenagers in a suburban town. While discussing with his research team, they decide to use a sampling method that selects participants not based on any chance or random mechanism. They list down various non-probability sampling techniques but inadvertently include one method that is based on probability sampling. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Convenience sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Snowball sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quota sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cluster sampling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cluster sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-110835.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cluster sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Convenience sampling : Convenience sampling is a non-probability sampling method where researchers select participants based on their ease of access or availability . It does not involve random selection, making it a non-probability sampling technique.</li><li>• Option A. Convenience sampling</li><li>• non-probability sampling method</li><li>• participants</li><li>• ease</li><li>• access</li><li>• availability</li><li>• not</li><li>• random</li><li>• non-probability sampling technique.</li><li>• Option B. Snowball sampling: Snowball sampling is a non-probability sampling technique where initial participants are chosen, and then additional participants are recruited through referrals from the initial participants ( Ex: drug users or commercial sex workers ). It relies on social networks and is not based on random selection.</li><li>• Option B. Snowball sampling:</li><li>• non-probability</li><li>• initial participants</li><li>• chosen,</li><li>• additional participants</li><li>• recruited</li><li>• referrals</li><li>• initial participants</li><li>• Ex: drug users</li><li>• commercial sex workers</li><li>• relies</li><li>• not</li><li>• random selection.</li><li>• Option C. Quota sampling: Quota sampling is a non-probability sampling method where researchers divide the population into subgroups (quotas) based on certain characteristics and then select participants from each quota. It is not a random selection process and falls under non-probability sampling .</li><li>• Option C. Quota sampling:</li><li>• non-probability</li><li>• divide</li><li>• subgroups (quotas)</li><li>• certain characteristics</li><li>• select participants</li><li>• not</li><li>• random selection</li><li>• falls</li><li>• non-probability sampling</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 67)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 67)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aarav is analyzing data from a recent survey in a metropolitan city. The survey assessed both the dietary habits (vegetarian vs. non-vegetarian) and the prevalence of a specific metabolic disorder. He wishes to use Chi square test for analysis. Here, the Chi square test is most directly used to measure the degree of what?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Causal relationship between exposure and effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Association between two variables", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Correlation between two variables", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Agreement between two variables", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Association between two variables", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Association between two variables</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chi-square test - A ‘ non-parametric test’ of significance, which is used to ‘test significance of association between 2 or more qualitative variables. It is used to compare proportions in 2 or more groups . Applications of Chi-square test -</li><li>• Chi-square test</li><li>• non-parametric test’</li><li>• ‘test significance</li><li>• between 2</li><li>• more qualitative variables.</li><li>• proportions</li><li>• 2 or more groups</li><li>• Applications</li><li>• Chi-square test</li><li>• Test of proportions Test of association Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Test of proportions</li><li>• Test of proportions</li><li>• Test of association</li><li>• Test of association</li><li>• Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Test of goodness of fit</li><li>• Essential requirements for calculation of Chi-square test:</li><li>• Essential requirements</li><li>• calculation</li><li>• Chi-square test:</li><li>• Random sample Qualitative data Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5</li><li>• Random sample</li><li>• Random sample</li><li>• Qualitative data</li><li>• Qualitative data</li><li>• Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5</li><li>• Lowest expected frequency not &lt; 5</li><li>• Fischer’s test is a variant of Chi-square test when sample size is &lt; 30</li><li>• Fischer’s test</li><li>• variant</li><li>• Chi-square test</li><li>• sample size</li><li>• &lt; 30</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Chi-square test is most directly used to measure the association between two variables . This test is particularly useful for categorical data and is used to assess whether the distribution of sample categorical data matches an expected distribution or not.</li><li>➤ Chi-square test</li><li>➤ directly</li><li>➤ between</li><li>➤ two variables</li><li>➤ test</li><li>➤ useful</li><li>➤ categorical data</li><li>➤ used</li><li>➤ distribution</li><li>➤ sample categorical data</li><li>➤ matches</li><li>➤ distribution</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 95)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 95)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ira, a biostatistician, is reviewing a set of data from a recent study investigating the relationship between two variables. She notices that the data does not follow a normal distribution. She wants to compute a correlation coefficient that is appropriate for non-normally distributed data. Which of the following correlation coefficients should Dr. Ira use for this data?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pearson’s correlation coefficient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spearman’s correlation coefficient", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contingency coefficient", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eta coefficient", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Spearman’s correlation coefficient", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/20/1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Spearman’s correlation coefficient</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is a non-parametric measure of correlation , based on the ranks of the data rather than the actual data values . It is appropriate for data that is not normally distributed or has a non-linear relationship.</li><li>• Spearman's rank</li><li>• coefficient</li><li>• non-parametric</li><li>• correlation</li><li>• ranks</li><li>• data</li><li>• actual data values</li><li>• data</li><li>• not</li><li>• non-linear relationship.</li><li>• Correlation</li><li>• Correlation</li><li>• It is a relationship between 2 quantitative or continuous variables and this is represented by Scatter diagram . Correlation coefficient (r) - Measures the degree or strength of the relationship in a correlation . It lies between –1 to +1 (–1 &lt; r &lt; +1) Strength of correlation</li><li>• It is a relationship between 2 quantitative or continuous variables and this is represented by Scatter diagram .</li><li>• relationship between 2 quantitative</li><li>• continuous variables</li><li>• Scatter diagram</li><li>• Correlation coefficient (r) - Measures the degree or strength of the relationship in a correlation . It lies between –1 to +1 (–1 &lt; r &lt; +1)</li><li>• Correlation coefficient (r)</li><li>• degree</li><li>• strength</li><li>• relationship</li><li>• correlation</li><li>• lies</li><li>• –1 to +1</li><li>• Strength of correlation</li><li>• Weak positive correlation: 0 &lt; r &lt; 0.3 Moderate positive correlation: 0.4 &lt; r &lt; 0.6 Strong positive correlation: r &gt; 0.7</li><li>• Pearson's, Spearman's and Kendall's correlation coefficients are the most commonly used measures of correlation , with the latter two usually suggested for non-normally distributed data .</li><li>• Pearson's, Spearman's</li><li>• Kendall's correlation coefficients</li><li>• measures</li><li>• correlation</li><li>• latter two</li><li>• suggested</li><li>• non-normally distributed data</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Correlation coefficients -</li><li>• Correlation coefficients -</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 125)</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 125)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ray is analyzing the results of a clinical trial, evaluating the efficacy of a new medication. He wants to apply a statistical test to determine if the medication significantly impacted the outcome variable. One of his colleagues suggests using a parametric test. Dr. Ray recalls some properties of parametric tests. Which of the following statements about parametric tests of significance is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is done for normally distributed data.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Data belonging to nominal or ordinal scale may be used.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "One-way ANOVA is a parametric test.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Data belonging to interval or ratio scale can be used.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Data belonging to nominal or ordinal scale may be used.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Data belonging to nominal or ordinal scale may be used.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. It is done for normally distributed data: This is true. Parametric tests usually require the assumption of normal distribution.</li><li>• Option A. It is done for normally distributed data:</li><li>• true.</li><li>• assumption</li><li>• normal distribution.</li><li>• Option C. One-way ANOVA is a parametric test: This is also true . One-way ANOVA is used to compare means across more than two groups and is a parametric test.</li><li>• Option C. One-way ANOVA is a parametric test:</li><li>• true</li><li>• One-way ANOVA</li><li>• used</li><li>• means</li><li>• more</li><li>• two groups</li><li>• parametric test.</li><li>• Option D. Data belonging to interval or ratio scale can be used: This is correct. Parametric tests are most appropriate for data on interval or ratio scales.</li><li>• Option D. Data belonging to interval or ratio scale can be used:</li><li>• correct.</li><li>• Parametric tests</li><li>• data</li><li>• interval or ratio scales.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Parametric test of significance:</li><li>➤ Parametric test</li><li>➤ For continuous (normally distributed data) Data belonging to interval or ratio scale . Generally, normality assumption required. More powerful.</li><li>➤ For continuous (normally distributed data)</li><li>➤ continuous</li><li>➤ Data belonging to interval or ratio scale .</li><li>➤ Data</li><li>➤ interval or ratio scale</li><li>➤ Generally, normality assumption required.</li><li>➤ normality assumption</li><li>➤ More powerful.</li><li>➤ powerful.</li><li>➤ Parametric tests are based on assumptions about the distribution and nature of the data . One of the assumptions is that the data should be on an interval or ratio scale. Non-parametric tests are used for ordinal or nominal scale data.</li><li>➤ Parametric tests</li><li>➤ distribution</li><li>➤ nature of</li><li>➤ data</li><li>➤ assumptions</li><li>➤ an interval</li><li>➤ ratio scale.</li><li>➤ Non-parametric tests</li><li>➤ ordinal</li><li>➤ nominal scale data.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 102)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 102)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Roy, a researcher, is analyzing two sets of data, A and B, from a recent study. Set A has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, while Set B has a mean of 200 and a standard deviation of 40. He wants to compare the relative variability of the two sets of data to determine which one is more spread out in relation to its mean. Which of the following formulas should Dr. Roy use to obtain a standardized measure of dispersion that can be used to compare the variability of the two data sets?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "(SD x 100) / Mean", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "(Mean x 100) / SD", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "(Mean x SD) / 100", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "(SD +Mean) / 100", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. (SD x 100) / Mean", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. (SD x 100) / Mean</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Coefficient of variation is the ratio of standard deviation of series to the arithmetic mean of series. It is unit-less . It is calculated using the formula.</li><li>• Coefficient of variation</li><li>• standard deviation</li><li>• arithmetic mean</li><li>• unit-less</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• formula.</li><li>• Coefficient of variation = (SD x 100) / Mean .</li><li>• (SD x 100) / Mean</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coefficient of Variation (COV) is a measure used to compare relative variability (a unit-free measure to compare dispersion of one variable with another ). COV is SD expressed as percentage of mean.</li><li>➤ Coefficient of Variation (COV)</li><li>➤ relative variability</li><li>➤ unit-free measure</li><li>➤ dispersion</li><li>➤ one variable</li><li>➤ another</li><li>➤ COV</li><li>➤ SD expressed</li><li>➤ percentage</li><li>➤ mean.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 51)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 51)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Varun, a public health researcher, is conducting a study on nutritional practices in a densely populated urban area. To ensure that his sample is representative yet manageable, he decides to select one household randomly and then pick every 7th household in a sequence from a list. By doing so, he believes he can achieve a balanced view without going through the exhaustive process of surveying every household. Which of the following best describes the sampling method Dr. Varun is using?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cluster sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple random sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stratified random sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systematic random sampling", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Systematic random sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Systematic Random sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cluster sampling: Cluster sampling involves dividing the population into clusters and randomly selecting entire clusters for inclusion in the study.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Cluster sampling:</li><li>• dividing</li><li>• population</li><li>• clusters</li><li>• randomly</li><li>• clusters</li><li>• inclusion</li><li>• Option B. Simple random sampling: Simple random sampling is a method where each individual or item in the population has an equal chance of being selected independently and randomly.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Simple random sampling:</li><li>• each individual or item</li><li>• equal chance</li><li>• selected independently</li><li>• randomly.</li><li>• Option C. Stratified random sampling: Stratified random sampling divides the population into strata ( subgroups ) based on certain characteristics and then selects random samples from each stratum.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Stratified random sampling:</li><li>• divides</li><li>• population</li><li>• subgroups</li><li>• certain characteristics</li><li>• selects random samples</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key feature of systematic random sampling involves selecting a sample at fixed intervals after an initial random selection . This method ensures a representative and manageable sample size for research , particularly in studies involving large populations, like in public health research.</li><li>➤ systematic random sampling</li><li>➤ fixed intervals</li><li>➤ initial random selection</li><li>➤ method</li><li>➤ representative</li><li>➤ sample size</li><li>➤ research</li><li>➤ large populations,</li><li>➤ public health research.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 69)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 69)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Alisha, a seasoned biostatistician, is supervising a group of researchers conducting a clinical trial on a new antihypertensive drug. The team is keen on reducing the possibility of a Type II error or beta error. In a team meeting, Dr. Alisha quizzes the group to test their understanding about reducing the chances of committing a Type II error. She asks, \"Which of the following methods will not help in reducing the risk of a Type II error?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Decreasing the sample size", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Set less demanding Type I error.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduce variability of measurements (increased accuracy)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Use a one tailed test (directional alternate hypotheses)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Decreasing the sample size", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-120623.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Decreasing the sample size.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Setting a less demanding Type I error: Setting a higher threshold for Type I error (alpha) can sometimes help reduce the Type II error , as it allows for more flexibility in rejecting the null hypothesis.</li><li>• Option B. Setting a less demanding Type I error:</li><li>• higher threshold</li><li>• Type I error (alpha)</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• Type II error</li><li>• more flexibility</li><li>• rejecting</li><li>• null hypothesis.</li><li>• Option C. Reducing variability of measurements (increased accuracy): Increased accuracy and reduced variability in measurements can enhance the study's power , thus decreasing the chance of a Type II error.</li><li>• Option C. Reducing variability of measurements (increased accuracy):</li><li>• Increased accuracy</li><li>• reduced variability</li><li>• can enhance</li><li>• study's power</li><li>• decreasing</li><li>• Type II error.</li><li>• Option D. Using a one-tailed test (directional alternate hypotheses): One-tailed tests , which focus on detecting an effect in a specific direction , can be more powerful than two-tailed tests under certain conditions, thereby potentially reducing Type II error.</li><li>• Option D. Using a one-tailed test (directional alternate hypotheses):</li><li>• One-tailed</li><li>• tests</li><li>• detecting</li><li>• specific direction</li><li>• powerful</li><li>• two-tailed tests</li><li>• reducing Type II error.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type II error or beta error can be reduced by the following ways.</li><li>➤ Type II error</li><li>➤ beta error</li><li>➤ reduced</li><li>➤ Increase the sample size . Set less demanding Type I error. Reduce variability of measurements ( increased accuracy ) Use a one tailed test ( directional alternate hypotheses )</li><li>➤ Increase the sample size .</li><li>➤ Increase the sample size .</li><li>➤ Increase</li><li>➤ sample size</li><li>➤ Set less demanding Type I error.</li><li>➤ Set less demanding Type I error.</li><li>➤ less</li><li>➤ Type I error.</li><li>➤ Reduce variability of measurements ( increased accuracy )</li><li>➤ Reduce variability of measurements ( increased accuracy )</li><li>➤ Reduce</li><li>➤ measurements</li><li>➤ increased accuracy</li><li>➤ Use a one tailed test ( directional alternate hypotheses )</li><li>➤ Use a one tailed test ( directional alternate hypotheses )</li><li>➤ one tailed test</li><li>➤ directional alternate hypotheses</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 89)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 89)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ahmed is conducting a study comparing the mean blood pressure of two independent groups: one on a new antihypertensive drug and another on a placebo. He collects data from both groups and plans to analyze the difference in means between the two. He considers using the student's t-test but recalls some characteristics associated with it. Which of the following statements regarding the student's t-test is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Standard error of mean is estimated.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Standard deviation is used for calculation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Student’s t test table is required for calculation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Three groups are compared.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Three groups are compared.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Three groups are compared.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Standard error of mean is estimated: This is true . The Student's t-test involves estimating the standard error of the mean to understand the variability of the sample mean from the population mean.</li><li>• Option A. Standard error of mean is estimated:</li><li>• true</li><li>• standard error</li><li>• variability</li><li>• sample</li><li>• mean</li><li>• population mean.</li><li>• Option B. Standard deviation is used for calculation: This is also true. The calculation of the t-test involves using the standard deviation of the sample data.</li><li>• Option B. Standard deviation is used for calculation:</li><li>• true.</li><li>• t-test</li><li>• standard deviation</li><li>• sample data.</li><li>• Option C. Student’s t-test table is required for calculation: This is correct . The t-test involves comparing the calculated t-statistic to values in the Student's t-test table to determine statistical significance .</li><li>• Option C. Student’s t-test table is required for calculation:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• t-test</li><li>• calculated t-statistic</li><li>• values</li><li>• Student's t-test</li><li>• statistical significance</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Means of two groups are compared in a student’s t test . ANOVA is used for comparison of three groups.</li><li>➤ Means</li><li>➤ two groups</li><li>➤ student’s t test</li><li>➤ ANOVA</li><li>➤ comparison</li><li>➤ three groups.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 118)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 118)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the field of statistics, Pearson's correlation coefficient is a widely used measure to assess the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables. It's a key concept in many areas of research, including psychology, economics, and the natural sciences. Understanding the range of values that Pearson's correlation coefficient can take is crucial for correctly interpreting its significance in statistical analyses. Given this context, Pearson's correlation coefficient typically lies between which of the following ranges?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Zero to -1.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "- 1.0 to + 1.0", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zero to + 1.0", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "+2.0 to -2.0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. - 1.0 to + 1.0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/24/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. – 1.0 to + 1.0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• PEARSON CORRELATION COEFFICIENT (r) - Is used in ungrouped series , when associated variables are normally distributed.</li><li>• PEARSON CORRELATION COEFFICIENT (r)</li><li>• ungrouped series</li><li>• variables</li><li>• normally</li><li>• A value of r = 0 indicates that there is no association between the two variables A value 0 &lt; r &lt; +1 indicates a positive association; that is, as the value of one variable increases , so does the value of the other variable . A value – 1 &lt; r &lt; 0 indicates a negative association; that is, as the value of one variable increases , the value of the other variable decreases .</li><li>• A value of r = 0 indicates that there is no association between the two variables</li><li>• r = 0</li><li>• no</li><li>• two variables</li><li>• A value 0 &lt; r &lt; +1 indicates a positive association; that is, as the value of one variable increases , so does the value of the other variable .</li><li>• 0 &lt; r &lt; +1</li><li>• positive</li><li>• value</li><li>• one variable increases</li><li>• value</li><li>• other variable</li><li>• A value – 1 &lt; r &lt; 0 indicates a negative association; that is, as the value of one variable increases , the value of the other variable decreases .</li><li>• – 1 &lt; r &lt; 0</li><li>• negative</li><li>• one</li><li>• variable increases</li><li>• other variable decreases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The range and meaning of Pearson's correlation coefficient values helps in determining the strength and direction of relationships in research data, which is crucial for making informed decisions and conclusions in various fields of study.</li><li>➤ range</li><li>➤ meaning</li><li>➤ strength</li><li>➤ direction</li><li>➤ Strength of correlation :</li><li>➤ Strength of correlation</li><li>➤ Weak positive correlation : 0 &lt; r &lt; 0.3 Moderate positive correlation: 0.4 &lt; r &lt; 0.6 Strong positive correlation : r &gt; 0.7</li><li>➤ Weak positive</li><li>➤ : 0 &lt; r &lt; 0.3 Moderate positive</li><li>➤ 0.4 &lt; r &lt; 0.6 Strong positive</li><li>➤ : r &gt; 0.7</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 130)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 130)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aparna, a researcher in Mumbai, is conducting a study on the relationship between daily exercise duration (independent variable) and reduction in systolic blood pressure (dependent variable) in patients with mild hypertension. She wants to quantify the expected reduction in systolic blood pressure for every additional minute of exercise. After completing her statistical analysis, she identified a specific measure that indicates the change in the dependent variable with a one-unit change in the independent variable. Which of the following best describes the measure Dr. Aparna identified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Correlation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Association", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Agreement", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Regression", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Regression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-125200.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Regression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Correlation: While correlation measures the strength and direction of a relationship between two quantitative or continuous variables . Correlation coefficient (r): Lies between – 1 to +1 ( measures the relationship between 2 variables ).</li><li>• Option A. Correlation:</li><li>• measures</li><li>• strength</li><li>• direction</li><li>• two quantitative</li><li>• continuous variables</li><li>• Correlation coefficient</li><li>• 1 to +1</li><li>• measures</li><li>• 2 variables</li><li>• Option B. Association: Association is a broader term that indicates a simultaneous existence of two variables but does not quantify the nature of the relationship in terms of unit changes .</li><li>• Option B. Association:</li><li>• broader term</li><li>• simultaneous existence</li><li>• two variables</li><li>• not</li><li>• nature</li><li>• unit changes</li><li>• Option C. Agreement: Agreement typically refers to the concordance between two measures or ratings , and it is not the correct measure for quantifying change in regression analysis.</li><li>• Option C. Agreement:</li><li>• concordance between two measures</li><li>• ratings</li><li>• not</li><li>• correct</li><li>• quantifying</li><li>• regression analysis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Regression is the measure of change of one dependent variable with one unit change in independent variable . It is used to predict how independent variables affect a dependent variable . Regression provides structure of the relationship between 2 quantitative variables</li><li>➤ Regression</li><li>➤ measure</li><li>➤ one dependent variable</li><li>➤ one unit</li><li>➤ independent variable</li><li>➤ used</li><li>➤ independent variables</li><li>➤ dependent variable</li><li>➤ Regression provides structure of the relationship between 2 quantitative variables</li><li>➤ Regression Coefficient (b): Measure of change of one dependent variable (y) with change in independent variable (x) or variables (x1, x2, x3……)</li><li>➤ Regression Coefficient (b):</li><li>➤ Measure</li><li>➤ one dependent variable (y)</li><li>➤ independent variable (x)</li><li>➤ variables (x1, x2, x3……)</li><li>➤ Types of regression - (Equation)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 133)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 133)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priyanka is a resident doctor at PGIMER, Chandigarh. As part of her thesis, she is conducting a systematic review on the efficacy of a particular intervention for diabetes management. She's attending a workshop on research methodology where the instructor introduces the concept of funnel plots. Curious about this graphical representation, she decides to include one in her research presentation. During her presentation, Professor Dr. Suresh asks, \"Dr. Priyanka, can you explain what the funnel plot in your systematic review measures?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I 2 statistic", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Homogeneity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Publication bias", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Regression analysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Publication bias", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/888.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Publication bias</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A funnel plot shows the relation between a study’s effect size and its precision . It is a scatter plot of the treatment effects estimated from individual studies (horizontal axis) against sample size (vertical axis). It helps to identify publication bias.</li><li>• funnel plot</li><li>• between</li><li>• study’s effect size</li><li>• precision</li><li>• scatter plot</li><li>• treatment effects</li><li>• individual studies</li><li>• sample size</li><li>• identify publication bias.</li><li>• It is used primarily as a visual aid for detecting bias or systematic heterogeneity.</li><li>• visual aid</li><li>• bias</li><li>• systematic heterogeneity.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Forest plot is used to describe the distribution of your effect sizes . Funnel plot is used to check the existence of publication bias</li><li>➤ Forest plot is used to describe the distribution of your effect sizes .</li><li>➤ Forest plot is used to describe the distribution of your effect sizes .</li><li>➤ Forest plot</li><li>➤ distribution</li><li>➤ effect sizes</li><li>➤ Funnel plot is used to check the existence of publication bias</li><li>➤ Funnel plot is used to check the existence of publication bias</li><li>➤ Funnel plot</li><li>➤ publication bias</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 166)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 166)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following is an example of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Simple bar", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Multiple bar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Component bar", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Horizontal bar", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Component bar", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/222.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/picture1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Component bar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• A component bar diagram is also called a stacked bar diagram . Here particular length of each bar represents the number of frequencies associated with each category.</li><li>• component bar diagram</li><li>• stacked bar diagram</li><li>• length</li><li>• each</li><li>• number</li><li>• frequencies</li><li>• each category.</li><li>• Synonym - Sub-divided bar chart</li><li>• Sub-divided bar chart</li><li>• Types of Bar Graph - (included Other Options)</li><li>• Bar Graph</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bar chart</li><li>➤ Bar chart</li><li>➤ Is used for qualitative data representation . A visual tool that uses bars to compare data among categories . Bar graph may run horizontally or vertically. Length of each bar is proportional to the magnitude to be represented.</li><li>➤ Is used for qualitative data representation .</li><li>➤ qualitative data representation</li><li>➤ A visual tool that uses bars to compare data among categories .</li><li>➤ visual tool</li><li>➤ uses</li><li>➤ compare data</li><li>➤ categories</li><li>➤ Bar graph may run horizontally or vertically.</li><li>➤ Bar graph</li><li>➤ horizontally</li><li>➤ vertically.</li><li>➤ Length of each bar is proportional to the magnitude to be represented.</li><li>➤ Length</li><li>➤ proportional</li><li>➤ magnitude</li><li>➤ represented.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 8)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 8)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the box plot provided below, there are several features that represent different statistical measures. While box plots are useful for displaying the distribution of data based on quartiles, there is a common misconception about one of the elements shown in the plot. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the box plot shown? ", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Box plot is representation of quartiles.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The lower hinge corresponds to 25 th percentile.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The upper hinge corresponds to 75 th percentile.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mean is the 50 th percentile.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mean is the 50 th percentile.", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/444.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_2xc09p1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_QaGgfxh.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mean is the 50thpercentile.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option A. Box plot is the representation of quartiles . Side of boxes represent quartiles 1st and 3rd, line inside the box is 2nd quartile (median)</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Box plot is the representation of quartiles</li><li>• Option B. The lower hinge corresponds to 25 th percentile.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• The lower hinge corresponds to 25 th percentile.</li><li>• Option C. The upper hinge corresponds to 75 th percentile.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. The upper hinge corresponds to 75 th percentile.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Box and whisker plot</li><li>➤ Box</li><li>➤ whisker plot</li><li>➤ A convenient way of graphically depicting groups of numerical data through their quartiles . Line in Box: 2nd Quartile (Median). Whiskers end : Minimum &amp; Maximum Values. Edges of box: Ist and 3rd Quartile.</li><li>➤ A convenient way of graphically depicting groups of numerical data through their quartiles .</li><li>➤ convenient</li><li>➤ graphically depicting groups</li><li>➤ numerical data</li><li>➤ quartiles</li><li>➤ Line in Box: 2nd Quartile (Median).</li><li>➤ Line</li><li>➤ 2nd Quartile (Median).</li><li>➤ Whiskers end : Minimum &amp; Maximum Values.</li><li>➤ Whiskers end</li><li>➤ Minimum</li><li>➤ &amp; Maximum Values.</li><li>➤ Edges of box: Ist and 3rd Quartile.</li><li>➤ Edges</li><li>➤ Ist</li><li>➤ 3rd Quartile.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 15)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 15)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Varma, a professor in biostatistics, is discussing various statistical measures during a class. He highlights several measures that describe the central location or typical value of a dataset. However, among the list he provides, one of the measures does not belong to the category of central tendency. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Geometric mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Arithmetic mean", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Median", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Variance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Variance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Variance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Variance is a statistical measurement of the spread between numbers in a data set.</li><li>• Variance</li><li>• statistical</li><li>• spread between numbers</li><li>• data set.</li><li>• It is calculated as: Variance = (Standard deviation) 2</li><li>• Variance = (Standard deviation) 2</li><li>• Central Tendency</li><li>• Central Tendency</li><li>• Distribution of Central Tendency :</li><li>• Distribution</li><li>• Central Tendency</li><li>• Normal (Gaussian) distribution ►Mean = Median = Mode (coincide) Right (Positive) skew distribution ► Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode Left (Negative) skew distribution ► Mean &lt; Median &lt; Mode</li><li>• Normal (Gaussian) distribution ►Mean = Median = Mode (coincide)</li><li>• Right (Positive) skew distribution ► Mean &gt; Median &gt; Mode</li><li>• Left (Negative) skew distribution ► Mean &lt; Median &lt; Mode</li><li>• In a bimodal series, Mode = 3 Median – 2 mean</li><li>• bimodal series, Mode = 3 Median – 2 mean</li><li>• In distribution with extreme values (Outliers):</li><li>• Most affected measure of central tendency: Mean Least affected measure of central tendency : Mode Most preferable measure of central tendency: Median.</li><li>• Most affected measure of central tendency: Mean</li><li>• Most</li><li>• central tendency: Mean</li><li>• Least affected measure of central tendency : Mode</li><li>• Least</li><li>• central tendency</li><li>• Mode</li><li>• Most preferable measure of central tendency: Median.</li><li>• Most preferable</li><li>• Median.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measures of central tendency are Mean, Median, Mode and Geometric mean.</li><li>➤ central tendency</li><li>➤ Mean, Median, Mode</li><li>➤ Geometric mean.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 36)</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 36)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ramesh is a biostatistician teaching his medical students about the normal distribution curve. He discusses a scenario where a drug's effect on lowering blood pressure is measured in a large population. The results form a bell-shaped curve, with most patients experiencing a moderate decrease in blood pressure. However, he emphasizes the importance of understanding outliers and asks his students about the percentage of patients who experience either a very large or very minimal decrease (essentially the tails of the distribution). Specifically, he wants to know the proportion of patients who fall either below z = -2 or above z = +2 in this standard normal distribution. Which of the following is the closest to that percentage?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "95.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "47.2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4.6%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "68.3%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4.6%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh6.googleusercontent.com/2E6Q3766Pij2WiS3gOAZblurFztc8yWfhycss41LtmTw14c53dBgo_WZ_vAErUYUnwwoldafD31UtpFufAss5fNdJrH9UmPJyMBlFkTKVIkK-Lt9AVnH2D_C8irEd-hewJYtKlO9zan6mpGAcKlxaDA"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 4.6%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In a normally distributed population about 95.4% lies within 2 critical ratios of the mean . The percentage of cases failing outside ± 2 is 100-95.4 = 4.6%</li><li>• normally distributed population</li><li>• 95.4% lies</li><li>• 2 critical ratios</li><li>• mean</li><li>• cases failing outside</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Normal Distribution</li><li>➤ Normal Distribution</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 58)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 58)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While overseeing a large-scale health survey, Dr. Rajan, Director of Health Services, emphasized the significance of accounting for variability introduced by specific sampling designs. While discussing this with his team, he referred to a term which measures the efficiency of a complex sampling strategy in comparison to a benchmark strategy. This term describes the ratio of the actual variance under the used strategy to the variance of a specific fundamental sampling approach, when considering an equal number of elements. What is this term Dr. Rajan referred to, which relates the variance of the chosen sampling method to the variance of which of the following basic methods?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cluster sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Simple random sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stratified random sampling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Systematic random sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Simple random sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Simple Random sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cluster sampling: Cluster sampling is a sampling method where the population is divided into clusters , and a random sample of clusters is selected for inclusion in the study. Each selected cluster is then surveyed in its entirety. The design effect (DEFF) can be calculated for cluster sampling to assess the efficiency compared to simple random sampling.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Cluster sampling:</li><li>• sampling method</li><li>• divided</li><li>• clusters</li><li>• random sample</li><li>• selected</li><li>• inclusion</li><li>• Each selected cluster</li><li>• surveyed</li><li>• entirety.</li><li>• design effect</li><li>• cluster sampling</li><li>• efficiency</li><li>• compared</li><li>• simple random sampling.</li><li>• Option C. Stratified random sampling: Stratified random sampling is a sampling technique where the population is divided into strata (subgroups) based on certain characteristics, and then random samples are taken from each stratum. The design effect (DEFF) can also be calculated for stratified random sampling to evaluate its efficiency compared to simple random sampling.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Stratified random sampling:</li><li>• technique</li><li>• population</li><li>• divided into strata</li><li>• random samples</li><li>• taken</li><li>• each stratum.</li><li>• design effect (DEFF)</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• stratified random sampling</li><li>• its efficiency</li><li>• simple random sampling.</li><li>• Option D. Systematic random sampling: Systematic random sampling is a method where researchers select every nth individual from a list of the population. It involves random selection and is used when a complete list of the population is available . The design effect (DEFF) can be applied to systematic random sampling as well to measure its efficiency relative to simple random sampling.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Systematic random sampling:</li><li>• method</li><li>• researchers</li><li>• nth individual</li><li>• list</li><li>• random selection</li><li>• complete list</li><li>• population</li><li>• available</li><li>• design effect (DEFF)</li><li>• systematic</li><li>• random sampling</li><li>• efficiency relative</li><li>• simple random</li><li>• sampling.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Design effect is defined as the ratio of the actual variance of the sample to the variance of simple random sample of the same number of elements.</li><li>➤ Design effect</li><li>➤ ratio</li><li>➤ actual variance</li><li>➤ sample</li><li>➤ variance</li><li>➤ simple random sample</li><li>➤ same number</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 74)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 74)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aarav, a seasoned epidemiologist, is attending a conference on advanced diagnostic techniques. During a breakout session on statistical evaluation of diagnostic tests, a discussion arises about the application of Bayes’ theorem in refining the probability of disease presence based on test results. A fellow epidemiologist mentions that while Bayes’ theorem uses various parameters, there's one common diagnostic metric it doesn't explicitly employ. Which of the following parameters is NOT directly used in Bayes’ theorem to measure disease probability?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Test sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Test specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre-test probability of disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Predictive value of test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Predictive value of test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_qqjP3YF.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/16/image_rgCIa6F.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Predictive value of test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The predictive value of a test, which includes both positive predictive value and negative predictive value , is actually a result calculated from Bayes’ theorem using the other parameters , rather than a direct input into the theorem itself.</li><li>• predictive value</li><li>• both positive predictive value</li><li>• negative predictive value</li><li>• result calculated</li><li>• Bayes’ theorem</li><li>• other parameters</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Bayes’ theorem provides a simple mathematical way to calculate the post-test probability of the disease from three parameters- test sensitivity (the probability of a positive test in a patient with the disease) ( Option A ), test specificity (the probability of a negative test in a patient without the disease) ( Option B ) and pre-test probability of disease (the probability of the disease before considering the test result ) ( Option C ).</li><li>• Bayes’ theorem</li><li>• simple mathematical</li><li>• post-test probability</li><li>• three parameters-</li><li>• test sensitivity</li><li>• positive test</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• test specificity</li><li>• negative test</li><li>• without</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• pre-test</li><li>• probability</li><li>• disease before</li><li>• test result</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Baye’s Theorem : Gives relationship between PPV of a screening test and Sensitivity, Specificity &amp; Prevalence of disease in a population</li><li>• Baye’s Theorem</li><li>• PPV</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• Sensitivity, Specificity</li><li>• Prevalence</li><li>• Actual Baye’s Theorem : Gives relationship between Post-test probability of a disease in a population ( PTP = PPV ) and Sensitivity, Specificity &amp; Pre-test probability o f a disease in a population ( pTP = Prevalence )</li><li>• Actual Baye’s Theorem</li><li>• Post-test probability</li><li>• PTP = PPV</li><li>• Sensitivity, Specificity</li><li>• Pre-test</li><li>• probability o</li><li>• pTP = Prevalence</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 83)</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 83)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kavya, a budding researcher, is going through the results of her recent clinical trial investigating a novel drug's efficacy for hypertension. She decides to compare her findings with the placebo group. Her senior, Dr. Varun, warns her about the potential pitfalls of statistical analyses and the importance of interpreting the p-value correctly. Specifically, he mentions a mistake that researchers might inadvertently make, leading to a claim of significant results when there are none. Which of the following best describes the error where a researcher rejects the null hypothesis when it is, in fact, true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type I error", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type II error", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Power", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Type I error", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-115427.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Type I error</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Type II error: This happens when the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is false , leading to a failure in identifying an effect that actually exists.</li><li>• Option B. Type II error:</li><li>• null hypothesis</li><li>• not rejected</li><li>• false</li><li>• failure</li><li>• identifying</li><li>• actually exists.</li><li>• Option C. Power: The power of a test refers to the probability that it will correctly reject a false null hypothesis (i.e., detect an effect when there is one).</li><li>• Option C. Power:</li><li>• probability</li><li>• correctly reject</li><li>• false null hypothesis</li><li>• Power of a test : 1 – b</li><li>• Power</li><li>• : 1 – b</li><li>• The probability of rejecting a Null hypothesis when a predetermined clinically significant difference is indeed present. Power can be increased by increasing the no. of subjects in a trial.</li><li>• The probability of rejecting a Null hypothesis when a predetermined clinically significant difference is indeed present.</li><li>• rejecting</li><li>• Null hypothesis</li><li>• predetermined</li><li>• significant difference</li><li>• present.</li><li>• Power can be increased by increasing the no. of subjects in a trial.</li><li>• Power</li><li>• increased</li><li>• increasing</li><li>• no.</li><li>• subjects</li><li>• trial.</li><li>• Option D. Specificity: In the context of diagnostic testing , specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease ( true negatives ).</li><li>• Option D. Specificity:</li><li>• diagnostic testing</li><li>• specificity</li><li>• test</li><li>• correctly identify</li><li>• without</li><li>• disease</li><li>• true negatives</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Null hypothesis true (in reality) but rejected (based on our study results ) lead to Type I error. Null hypothesis false ( in reality ) but accepted (based on our study results) lead to Type II error.</li><li>➤ Null hypothesis true (in reality) but rejected (based on our study results ) lead to Type I error.</li><li>➤ Null hypothesis</li><li>➤ true (in reality)</li><li>➤ rejected</li><li>➤ our study results</li><li>➤ Type I error.</li><li>➤ Null hypothesis false ( in reality ) but accepted (based on our study results) lead to Type II error.</li><li>➤ Null hypothesis false</li><li>➤ in reality</li><li>➤ accepted (based on our study results)</li><li>➤ Type II error.</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 88)</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 88)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 88)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student named Arjun is presenting his research findings on the effects of a new dietary supplement on cholesterol levels to his peers. One of his colleagues, Priya, inquires about the variability of the estimated mean cholesterol level reduction due to the dietary supplement from sample to sample. Arjun realizes he's discussing a specific statistical measure that quantifies this variability. Which of the following best describes the measure that Arjun is referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conceptual error", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Observer error", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Instrumental error", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sampling error", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sampling error", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Sampling error</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Conceptual Error: This refers to errors due to a misunderstanding or misapplication of statistical concepts, not relevant to the variability in sample estimates.</li><li>• Option A. Conceptual Error:</li><li>• Option B. Observer Error: This involves variability in measurements due to differences in the person making the observations, not directly relevant to Priya's question.</li><li>• Option B. Observer Error:</li><li>• Option C. Instrumental Error: Refers to inaccuracies in measurements due to faults or limitations in the instruments used, not to the variability between samples.</li><li>• Option C. Instrumental Error:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SAMPLING ERRORS/ Random errors – Is ‘divergence due to chance alone’ of an observation on a sample from true population value, leading to ‘lack of precision’ in measurement. Random error ‘cannot be completely eliminated’</li><li>➤ Best way of reducing sampling errors (increasing precision): Increase the sample size in the study</li><li>➤ Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 85)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 85)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Aman is a cardiology fellow at AIIMS, New Delhi. He is conducting a study to assess the impact of three different dietary interventions (A, B, &amp; C) on blood pressure. After a few months of closely monitoring his participants, he calculates the mean blood pressure for each group and notices that the means are different. During a departmental meeting, he presents his findings and contemplates the next steps for his analysis. In your opinion, which test should be choose ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Students t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ANOVA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Paired t test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chi square test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ANOVA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. ANOVA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Student's t-test: This test is used for comparing the means between two groups, not three.</li><li>• Option A. Student's t-test:</li><li>• Option C. Paired t-test: This test is used for comparing means from the same group at two different times or under two different conditions, not suitable for three independent groups.</li><li>• Option C. Paired t-test:</li><li>• Option D. Chi-square test: This test is used for categorical data to assess the relationship between two categorical variables or to compare the observed frequency with the expected frequency, not for comparing means.</li><li>• Option D. Chi-square test:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• ANOVA test (F-test/F-ratio): Parametric test used to compare means (+ SD) in more than two different group of individuals</li><li>• Ref : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 112)</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Essentials of Biostatistics- Indranil Saha- 2 nd edition (page 112)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 44 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Communicable Diseases - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 60</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 60 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "In a global health lecture, the topic of smallpox eradication is discussed, highlighting one of the major public health achievements of the 20th century. The eradication of smallpox was declared at different times in various countries. A medical student interested in the history of infectious diseases asks about the year in which India, a country with a large population and diverse geographic regions, was declared smallpox-free. In which year was India officially declared free of smallpox?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "May 1975", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "April 1977", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "August 1979", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "May 1980", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. April 1977", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. April 1977</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The last known case of smallpox in India occurred on 24th May 1975 . India was declared smallpox free on 5th July 1975 .</li><li>• last known case of smallpox</li><li>• 24th May 1975</li><li>• India</li><li>• smallpox free on 5th July 1975</li><li>• Epidemiological reasons/basis for Smallpox eradication:</li><li>• Epidemiological reasons/basis for Smallpox eradication:</li><li>• No known animal reservoir</li><li>• No</li><li>• animal reservoir</li><li>• No long term carrier state</li><li>• No long term carrier state</li><li>• Infection provides lifelong immunity</li><li>• Infection</li><li>• lifelong immunity</li><li>• Case detection simple due to characteristic rash</li><li>• Case detection simple</li><li>• rash</li><li>• Subclinical cases did not transmit the disease</li><li>• Subclinical cases</li><li>• not transmit</li><li>• disease</li><li>• A highly effective vaccine was available</li><li>• highly effective vaccine</li><li>• International cooperation</li><li>• Important Pointers about Small Pox -</li><li>• Important Pointers about Small Pox -</li><li>• Last indigenous case of Small pox in India: 17th May 1975 Last [importation] case of Small pox in India: 24th May 1975 India declared Small pox-free : 23 April, 1977 Last case of Small pox globally : 26th October 1977 ( Somalia ) Actual last case of small pox [ Laboratory accident ]: 1978 Global eradication of Small pox: 8th May 1980</li><li>• Last indigenous case of Small pox in India: 17th May 1975</li><li>• Last indigenous</li><li>• Small pox</li><li>• 17th May 1975</li><li>• Last [importation] case of Small pox in India: 24th May 1975</li><li>• Last</li><li>• case of Small pox</li><li>• 24th May 1975</li><li>• India declared Small pox-free : 23 April, 1977</li><li>• India</li><li>• Small pox-free</li><li>• 23 April, 1977</li><li>• Last case of Small pox globally : 26th October 1977 ( Somalia )</li><li>• Last case</li><li>• Small pox</li><li>• globally</li><li>• 26th October 1977</li><li>• Somalia</li><li>• Actual last case of small pox [ Laboratory accident ]: 1978</li><li>• last case</li><li>• Laboratory accident</li><li>• 1978</li><li>• Global eradication of Small pox: 8th May 1980</li><li>• Global eradication of Small pox: 8th May 1980</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India was declared small pox free on - 23 April, 1977</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ declared small pox free</li><li>➤ 23 April, 1977</li><li>➤ Global eradication of Small pox : 8th May 1980</li><li>➤ Global eradication</li><li>➤ Small pox</li><li>➤ 8th May 1980</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 158)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 158)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an infectious disease rotation, a medical resident is learning about varicella (chickenpox), a highly contagious infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The resident is tasked with assessing the risk of transmission within households and communities. A key concept in understanding the spread of chickenpox is the secondary attack rate, which measures the likelihood of the disease spreading to susceptible individuals after exposure to a primary case. What is the secondary attack rate typically associated with chickenpox?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "45%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 90%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-161226.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 90%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SAR is approximately 90 % in susceptible household contacts of chicken pox case .</li><li>• SAR</li><li>• 90 %</li><li>• susceptible household contacts</li><li>• chicken pox case</li><li>• Secondary Attack Rate (SAR): Is no. of exposed persons developing the disease within range of incubation period , following exposure to the primary case . The denominator includes only those susceptible to disease . The primary case is always excluded both from numerator and denominator for SAR calculation.</li><li>• Secondary Attack Rate (SAR):</li><li>• no. of exposed persons</li><li>• disease</li><li>• incubation period</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• primary case</li><li>• denominator</li><li>• susceptible to disease</li><li>• primary</li><li>• excluded</li><li>• numerator and denominator</li><li>• SAR calculation.</li><li>• Secondary attack rate of some important diseases are -</li><li>• Secondary attack rate of some important diseases are -</li><li>• </li><li>• Chickenpox -</li><li>• Chickenpox -</li><li>• Period of Communicability/ infectivity - 1–2 days before to 4–5 days after appearance of rash . Incubation Period - 14-16 days Rash - Chickenpox rash - Dew drop on rose petal appearance Centripetal distribution, Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• Period of Communicability/ infectivity - 1–2 days before to 4–5 days after appearance of rash .</li><li>• Communicability/ infectivity</li><li>• 1–2 days before</li><li>• 4–5 days after</li><li>• rash</li><li>• Incubation Period - 14-16 days</li><li>• Incubation Period</li><li>• 14-16</li><li>• Rash - Chickenpox rash - Dew drop on rose petal appearance Centripetal distribution, Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• Chickenpox rash</li><li>• Dew drop</li><li>• rose petal</li><li>• Centripetal</li><li>• Pleomorphic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The secondary attack rate of Chickenpox is - 90%</li><li>➤ secondary attack rate</li><li>➤ Chickenpox</li><li>➤ 90%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an obstetrics and gynecology rotation, a medical resident is learning about the complications associated with viral infections during pregnancy. A topic of particular interest is the risk of congenital varicella syndrome (CVS) in the fetus when a pregnant woman contracts the Varicella Zoster virus, especially during the first 20 weeks of gestation. The resident is asked about the likelihood of developing CVS in children born to mothers who become infected with Varicella Zoster virus during this critical period. What is the percentage risk of congenital varicella syndrome in these cases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20-40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.4-2%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2-10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "14-25%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 0.4-2%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 0.4-2%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Infection during pregnancy presents a risk for the foetus leading to congenital varicella syndrome . It occurs in 0.4-2.0 percent of children born to mothers who become infected with VZV during the first 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Infection</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• risk</li><li>• foetus</li><li>• congenital varicella syndrome</li><li>• 0.4-2.0 percent</li><li>• children born to mothers</li><li>• infected with VZV</li><li>• first 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>• Congenital Varicella : Most threatening if transmitted in Ist trimester of pregnancy.</li><li>• Congenital Varicella</li><li>• threatening</li><li>• Ist trimester</li><li>• pregnancy.</li><li>• Common Gestational Periods for Vertical Transmission of Diseases -</li><li>• Common Gestational Periods for Vertical Transmission of Diseases -</li><li>• Congenital Varicella: First trimester Congenital Rubella: First trimester Congenital Parvovirus: Second Trimester Congenital Syphilis: Third trimester Congenital Toxoplasmosis: Third trimester Congenital Hepatitis B: Third trimester Congenital CMV: Third trimester Congenital HIV: During delivery Congenital Hepatitis C: During delivery Congenital Herpes: During delivery</li><li>• Congenital Varicella: First trimester</li><li>• Congenital Varicella: First trimester</li><li>• Congenital Rubella: First trimester</li><li>• Congenital Rubella: First trimester</li><li>• Congenital Parvovirus: Second Trimester</li><li>• Congenital Syphilis: Third trimester</li><li>• Congenital Toxoplasmosis: Third trimester</li><li>• Congenital Hepatitis B: Third trimester</li><li>• Congenital Hepatitis B: Third trimester</li><li>• Congenital CMV: Third trimester</li><li>• Congenital HIV: During delivery</li><li>• Congenital HIV: During delivery</li><li>• Congenital Hepatitis C: During delivery</li><li>• Congenital Herpes: During delivery</li><li>• Congenital Herpes: During delivery</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 0.4 - 2% of children who acquire this condition born to mothers who become infected with Varicella Zoster virus during first 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ 0.4 - 2% of children</li><li>➤ acquire</li><li>➤ born to mothers</li><li>➤ infected</li><li>➤ Varicella Zoster virus</li><li>➤ first 20 weeks of gestation.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 158)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 158)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident treating a patient with chickenpox is discussing the case with a senior colleague. They talk about the infectious period of chickenpox, which is important for implementing appropriate isolation measures and preventing the spread of the infection. The resident is asked to identify the typical period during which a patient with chickenpox is infectious to others. When is the period of infectivity in a case of chickenpox?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 to 2 days before rash and 4 to 5 days thereafter", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 to 5 days before rash and 1 to 2 days thereafter", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 to 4 days before rash and 4 to 5 days thereafter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 day before rash and 2 days thereafter", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 to 2 days before rash and 4 to 5 days thereafter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 to 2 days before rash and 4 to 5 days thereafter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The period of communicability of patients with varicella is estimated to range from 1 to 2 days before the appearance of rash , and 4 to 5 days thereafter. The virus tends to die out before the pustular stage . The patient ceases to be infectious once the lesions have crusted.</li><li>• period of communicability</li><li>• varicella</li><li>• 1 to 2 days</li><li>• before</li><li>• rash</li><li>• 4 to 5 days</li><li>• virus</li><li>• die</li><li>• before</li><li>• pustular stage</li><li>• patient ceases</li><li>• infectious</li><li>• lesions</li><li>• crusted.</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Chicken pox rash - Dew drop on rose petal appearance; Centripetal distribution ; Pleomorphic rash False about chickenpox is - Crusts contain live virus Chickenpox Synonym : ‘Varicella’ Causative agent: Varicella zoster virus [Human (alpha) Herpes Virus–3 ] Incubation period: 14–16 days Source of infection: Case ( person-to-person contact ) Mode of transmission : Air droplets (respiratory) Secondary Attack rate : 90%MC late complication of chickenpox : Shingles (caused by reactivation of the virus decades after the initial episode of chickenpox ) Most rapid and sensitive means of diagnosis: Examination of vesicle fluid under electron microscope (shows round particles) Congenital Varicella: Most threatening if transmitted in 1 st trimester of pregnancy Live attenuated Chickenpox Monovalent Vaccine Strain - OKA strain</li><li>• Chicken pox rash - Dew drop on rose petal appearance; Centripetal distribution ; Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• Dew drop</li><li>• rose petal</li><li>• Centripetal distribution</li><li>• Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• False about chickenpox is - Crusts contain live virus</li><li>• False</li><li>• Crusts</li><li>• live virus</li><li>• Chickenpox Synonym : ‘Varicella’</li><li>• Synonym</li><li>• ‘Varicella’</li><li>• Causative agent: Varicella zoster virus [Human (alpha) Herpes Virus–3 ]</li><li>• Varicella zoster virus</li><li>• Herpes Virus–3</li><li>• Incubation period: 14–16 days</li><li>• 14–16 days</li><li>• Source of infection: Case ( person-to-person contact )</li><li>• person-to-person contact</li><li>• Mode of transmission : Air droplets (respiratory)</li><li>• Mode</li><li>• transmission</li><li>• Air droplets</li><li>• Secondary Attack rate : 90%MC late complication of chickenpox : Shingles (caused by reactivation of the virus decades after the initial episode of chickenpox )</li><li>• Secondary Attack rate</li><li>• 90%MC</li><li>• chickenpox</li><li>• Shingles</li><li>• reactivation</li><li>• virus decades</li><li>• initial episode of chickenpox</li><li>• Most rapid and sensitive means of diagnosis: Examination of vesicle fluid under electron microscope (shows round particles)</li><li>• rapid and sensitive</li><li>• vesicle fluid</li><li>• electron microscope</li><li>• Congenital Varicella: Most threatening if transmitted in 1 st trimester of pregnancy</li><li>• Most threatening</li><li>• 1 st</li><li>• trimester</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• Live attenuated Chickenpox Monovalent Vaccine Strain - OKA strain</li><li>• Live attenuated Chickenpox Monovalent Vaccine Strain</li><li>• OKA</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The period of infectivity in a case of Chickenpox - 1 to 2 days before rash and 4 to 5 days thereafter.</li><li>➤ period of infectivity</li><li>➤ Chickenpox</li><li>➤ 1 to 2 days before</li><li>➤ rash</li><li>➤ 4 to 5 days thereafter.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric resident is evaluating a child at a Community Health Center (CHC) who presents with fever and a distinctive rash. Upon examination, the resident notes the simultaneous presence of papules, vesicles, and crusts all in the same area of the skin. This combination of lesions at different stages of development in the same area is characteristic of a specific viral infection. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Small pox", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chickenpox", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chickenpox", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/image_4PQz4JP.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://my.clevelandclinic.org/-/scassets/images/org/health/articles/10855-smallpox", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/28/image-20231128145356-1.jpeg", "https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcRj7uaO9jM9z0k4dHy9_lFnLS9eMRr-Nksglw&usqp=CAU", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture11_HrNvuDK.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Chickenpox</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Small pox: smallpox lesions appear in the same stage of development at the same time all over the body ( non pleomorphic ), unlike chickenpox where different stages are seen in the same area.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Small pox:</li><li>• smallpox lesions</li><li>• same stage of development</li><li>• same time</li><li>• non pleomorphic</li><li>• unlike chickenpox</li><li>• different stages</li><li>• seen</li><li>• same area.</li><li>• Option B. Measles: Maculopapular rash that typically begins on the face and spreads downward . It does not present with lesions at different stages (papules, vesicles, crusts) in the same area.</li><li>• Option B. Measles:</li><li>• Maculopapular rash</li><li>• begins</li><li>• face and spreads downward</li><li>• not</li><li>• lesions at different stages</li><li>• same area.</li><li>• Option C. Dengue: Dengue fever can present with a rash, but it is usually a diffuse erythematous rash , not one with papules, vesicles, and crusts in the same area.</li><li>• Option C. Dengue:</li><li>• Dengue fever</li><li>• rash,</li><li>• diffuse erythematous rash</li><li>• not</li><li>• papules, vesicles, and crusts</li><li>• same area.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chickenpox rash - Dew drop on rose petal appearance ; Centripetal distribution; Pleomorphic rash.</li><li>➤ Chickenpox rash</li><li>➤ Dew drop</li><li>➤ rose</li><li>➤ petal appearance</li><li>➤ Centripetal distribution; Pleomorphic rash.</li><li>➤ Difference between Chicken Pox and Small Pox rash</li><li>➤ Difference between Chicken Pox and Small Pox rash</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 159)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a clinical discussion on the epidemiology of common viral infections, a medical resident asks about the seasonality of varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. Understanding the seasonal trends of infectious diseases is crucial for planning public health interventions and anticipating healthcare needs. Based on epidemiological patterns, in which of the following months is a varicella-zoster virus infection (chickenpox) more likely to occur?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "March", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "August", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "October", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "November", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. March", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. March</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CHICKENPOX:</li><li>• CHICKENPOX:</li><li>• Also known as ‘ Varicella ’ Causative agent: Varicella zoster virus [Human (alpha) Herpes Virus – 3 ] Secondary attack rate: 90% Incubation period: 14–16 days Rash: Dew drop on rose petal appearance ; Centripetal distribution; Pleomorphic rash MC late complication of Chickenpox : Shingles (caused by reactivation of the virus decades after the initial episode of chickenpox ) Aspirin must not be given to children with chickenpox: Risk of Reye’s Syndrome Strain of Live attenuated Chickenpox Vaccine : OKA strain Congenital Varicella : Most threatening if transmitted in 1 st trimester of pregnancy</li><li>• Also known as ‘ Varicella ’</li><li>• Varicella</li><li>• Causative agent: Varicella zoster virus [Human (alpha) Herpes Virus – 3 ]</li><li>• Varicella zoster virus</li><li>• Herpes Virus – 3</li><li>• Secondary attack rate: 90%</li><li>• 90%</li><li>• Incubation period: 14–16 days</li><li>• 14–16 days</li><li>• Rash: Dew drop on rose petal appearance ; Centripetal distribution; Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• Dew drop</li><li>• rose petal appearance</li><li>• Centripetal distribution; Pleomorphic rash</li><li>• MC late complication of Chickenpox : Shingles (caused by reactivation of the virus decades after the initial episode of chickenpox )</li><li>• MC late complication</li><li>• Chickenpox</li><li>• Shingles</li><li>• reactivation of</li><li>• virus decades</li><li>• after</li><li>• initial episode</li><li>• chickenpox</li><li>• Aspirin must not be given to children with chickenpox: Risk of Reye’s Syndrome</li><li>• Aspirin</li><li>• not</li><li>• Risk of Reye’s</li><li>• Syndrome</li><li>• Strain of Live attenuated Chickenpox Vaccine : OKA strain</li><li>• Strain</li><li>• Live attenuated Chickenpox Vaccine</li><li>• OKA strain</li><li>• Congenital Varicella : Most threatening if transmitted in 1 st trimester of pregnancy</li><li>• Congenital Varicella</li><li>• Most threatening</li><li>• 1 st trimester</li><li>• pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Varicella-zoster virus infections ( chickenpox ) are more likely to occur in March, late winter and early spring , which is important for healthcare planning and public health interventions .</li><li>➤ Varicella-zoster virus</li><li>➤ chickenpox</li><li>➤ March,</li><li>➤ late winter and early spring</li><li>➤ healthcare planning</li><li>➤ public health interventions</li><li>➤ Ref : Clinical Maternal-Fetal Medicine by Winn, 1/e p263</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Clinical Maternal-Fetal Medicine by Winn, 1/e p263</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is discussing the administration of the measles vaccine with a supervising physician. The conversation focuses on contraindications to vaccination, which are critical for ensuring patient safety. The resident is asked about definitive contraindications for administering the measles vaccine. Which of the following is considered a definitive contraindication for the measles vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pregnancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "HIV infection- asymptomatic", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Respiratory infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malnutrition", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pregnancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. HIV Infection - Asymptomatic: Can be administered to HIV-infected individuals , especially if they are asymptomatic or not severely immunocompromised . Vaccination should be considered after careful evaluation of the immune status.</li><li>• Option B. HIV Infection - Asymptomatic:</li><li>• administered to HIV-infected individuals</li><li>• asymptomatic</li><li>• not severely immunocompromised</li><li>• Vaccination</li><li>• considered</li><li>• evaluation of the immune status.</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory Infection: Not a contraindication, if the illness is mild and without fever , vaccination can generally proceed .</li><li>• Option C. Respiratory Infection: Not</li><li>• contraindication,</li><li>• illness is mild</li><li>• without fever</li><li>• proceed</li><li>• Option D. Malnutrition: Malnutrition , particularly in countries where measles is endemic , is not a contraindication to measles vaccination. In fact, vaccination is crucial in malnourished individuals due to their increased risk of severe measles .</li><li>• Option D. Malnutrition:</li><li>• ,</li><li>• measles is endemic</li><li>• not</li><li>• contraindication</li><li>• measles</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• malnourished</li><li>• increased risk</li><li>• severe measles</li><li>• Some important pointers regarding vaccine contraindications -</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Pregnancy : All live vaccines EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine Vaccines contraindicated in HIV : Asymptomatic HIV: NONE Symptomatic HIV : All live vaccines EXCEPT MMR, Varicella &amp; Zoster may be given if required Vaccines contraindicated in Immuno-suppression: All live vaccines Vaccines contraindicated in Corticosteroid therapy: All live vaccines Vaccines contraindicated in fever : Typhoid vaccines Vaccines contraindicated in ARTI/diarrhoea: NONE Vaccines contraindicated together: Yellow fever and Cholera vaccine Vaccine contraindicated in Preterm-premature baby with birth weight &lt; 2 kg: Hepatitis B Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 1 year (infants): – Yellow fever vaccine, Meningococcal vaccine, Pneumococcal vaccine Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 2 year (infants): – Meningococcal vaccine, Pneumococcal vaccine, Typhoid vaccines Vaccine contraindicated in progressive neurological disease : Pertussis vaccine (Pertussis vaccine IS NOT CONTRAINDICATED IN epilepsy controlled on medications, Cerebral palsy) Only absolute contraindication to killed vaccines : Severe local or general reaction to a previous dose</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Pregnancy : All live vaccines EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in HIV : Asymptomatic HIV: NONE Symptomatic HIV : All live vaccines EXCEPT MMR, Varicella &amp; Zoster may be given if required</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• HIV</li><li>• Asymptomatic HIV: NONE Symptomatic HIV : All live vaccines EXCEPT MMR, Varicella &amp; Zoster may be given if required</li><li>• Asymptomatic HIV: NONE</li><li>• Symptomatic HIV : All live vaccines EXCEPT MMR, Varicella &amp; Zoster may be given if required</li><li>• Symptomatic HIV</li><li>• All live vaccines</li><li>• MMR, Varicella &amp; Zoster</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Immuno-suppression: All live vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Corticosteroid therapy: All live vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in fever : Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• fever</li><li>• Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in ARTI/diarrhoea: NONE</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated together: Yellow fever and Cholera vaccine</li><li>• Vaccine contraindicated in Preterm-premature baby with birth weight &lt; 2 kg: Hepatitis B</li><li>• Preterm-premature baby</li><li>• Hepatitis B</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 1 year (infants): – Yellow fever vaccine, Meningococcal vaccine, Pneumococcal vaccine</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 2 year (infants): – Meningococcal vaccine, Pneumococcal vaccine, Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• Vaccine contraindicated in progressive neurological disease : Pertussis vaccine (Pertussis vaccine IS NOT CONTRAINDICATED IN epilepsy controlled on medications, Cerebral palsy)</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• progressive neurological disease</li><li>• Pertussis vaccine</li><li>• Only absolute contraindication to killed vaccines : Severe local or general reaction to a previous dose</li><li>• absolute contraindication</li><li>• killed vaccines</li><li>• local or general reaction</li><li>• previous dose</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles vaccine is definitively contraindicated in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Measles vaccine</li><li>➤ definitively</li><li>➤ contraindicated</li><li>➤ pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 729)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 729)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a clinical discussion on the management of measles, particularly in high-risk patients or those with contraindications to the measles vaccine, the topic of passive immunization arises. A medical resident is asked about the appropriate dosing of human immunoglobulin for providing passive immunity against measles. Understanding the correct dosage is crucial for effective post-exposure prophylaxis in susceptible individuals. What is the recommended dose of human immunoglobulin for passive immunization against measles?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.15 ml per kg body weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.25 ml per kg body weight", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.35 ml per kg body weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.45 ml per kg body weight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 0.25 ml per kg body weight", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 0.25 ml per kg body weight</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Measles may be prevented by administration of immunoglobulin (human) early in the incubation period . The dose recommended by WHO is 0.25 ml per kg of body weight should be given within 4 days of exposure.</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• prevented</li><li>• immunoglobulin (human)</li><li>• incubation period</li><li>• dose</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• 0.25 ml</li><li>• body weight</li><li>• within 4 days</li><li>• exposure.</li><li>• The person passively immunized should be given live vaccine, 8-12 weeks later.</li><li>• passively immunized</li><li>• live vaccine, 8-12 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dose of human immunoglobulin for providing passive immunity against measles - 0.25 ml per kg of body weight.</li><li>➤ Dose</li><li>➤ human immunoglobulin</li><li>➤ passive immunity</li><li>➤ against</li><li>➤ measles</li><li>➤ 0.25 ml</li><li>➤ kg of body weight.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 165)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 165)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a pediatric infectious disease rotation, a medical student learns about the natural immunity conferred by viral infections. One topic of interest is the immunity that follows an infection with the measles virus. Understanding the duration of immunity after natural infection is important for patient counseling and future vaccination planning. After a patient recovers from an attack of measles, how long does the immunity typically last?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lifelong", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No immunity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lifelong", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. lifelong</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• No age is immune if there was no previous immunity . One attack of measles generally confers life-long immunity. Second attacks are rare .</li><li>• No age</li><li>• immune</li><li>• no previous immunity</li><li>• One</li><li>• measles</li><li>• life-long immunity.</li><li>• Second attacks</li><li>• rare</li><li>• Other diseases provide lifelong immunity with a single attack - Mumps, Rubella, Yellow fever.</li><li>• Other diseases</li><li>• lifelong immunity</li><li>• single attack</li><li>• Mumps, Rubella, Yellow fever.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In measles disease , both natural infection and vaccination confer lifelong immunity/protection from infection of measles.</li><li>➤ measles disease</li><li>➤ both</li><li>➤ natural infection and vaccination</li><li>➤ lifelong immunity/protection</li><li>➤ measles.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 162)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 162)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is preparing for a public health campaign focused on maternal and child health, which includes educating about vaccine-preventable diseases such as rubella. During a team meeting, the topic of rubella's clinical course and its implications for public health is discussed. The resident is asked to explain the incubation period of rubella, also known as German measles, to help the team develop appropriate educational materials and strategies. What is the average incubation period of rubella?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "18 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "28 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 18 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture12.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 18 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rubella has got an average incubation period of 18 days (14-21 days).</li><li>• Rubella</li><li>• got</li><li>• average incubation period</li><li>• 18 days (14-21 days).</li><li>• Rubella (German Measles) - Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Rubella (German Measles)</li><li>• Causative agent: RNA virus of Togavirus family Source of infection: Cases or subclinical cases – ‘ No known carrier state’ for postnatally acquired rubella Mode of transmission: Air droplets (respiratory) Period of communicability: One week prior to onset of symptoms to one week after rash appears. Immunity for Rubella: – Single attack confers life long immunity (Second attacks rare) 40% of reproductive age group females are susceptible in India Infants protected till 4-6 months of age Most widely used test for diagnosis: Heme-agglutination Inhibition test (HAI) Rubella Vaccine - Type of vaccine : Live attenuated, ‘strain RA 27/3’ [Vaccine virus non-communicable] Dose and route: 0.5 ml, subcutaneous Rubella vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy and not given to infants – If female vaccinated for rubella : Advice against pregnancy for next 3 months Priority groups for rubella vaccination in India: 1st PRIORITY: 15–49 years reproductive age group females 2nd priority : All children 1–14 years age 3rd priority : Routine universal immunization of all children aged 1</li><li>• Causative agent: RNA virus of Togavirus family</li><li>• RNA virus</li><li>• Togavirus family</li><li>• Source of infection: Cases or subclinical cases – ‘ No known carrier state’ for postnatally acquired rubella</li><li>• Cases or subclinical cases</li><li>• No known carrier state’</li><li>• postnatally</li><li>• acquired rubella</li><li>• Mode of transmission: Air droplets (respiratory)</li><li>• Air droplets</li><li>• Period of communicability: One week prior to onset of symptoms to one week after rash appears.</li><li>• One week prior to onset of symptoms</li><li>• one</li><li>• week after rash appears.</li><li>• Immunity for Rubella: – Single attack confers life long immunity (Second attacks rare) 40% of reproductive age group females are susceptible in India Infants protected till 4-6 months of age</li><li>• Single attack confers life long immunity</li><li>• 40% of reproductive age group females are susceptible in India Infants protected till 4-6 months of age</li><li>• 40% of reproductive age group females are susceptible in India</li><li>• 40%</li><li>• females are susceptible</li><li>• Infants protected till 4-6 months of age</li><li>• Infants</li><li>• protected</li><li>• 4-6 months of age</li><li>• Most widely used test for diagnosis: Heme-agglutination Inhibition test (HAI)</li><li>• widely used test</li><li>• Heme-agglutination Inhibition test</li><li>• Rubella Vaccine -</li><li>• Type of vaccine : Live attenuated, ‘strain RA 27/3’ [Vaccine virus non-communicable]</li><li>• Type of vaccine</li><li>• Live attenuated, ‘strain RA 27/3’</li><li>• Dose and route: 0.5 ml, subcutaneous</li><li>• 0.5 ml, subcutaneous</li><li>• Rubella vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy and not given to infants – If female vaccinated for rubella : Advice against pregnancy for next 3 months</li><li>• Rubella vaccine</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• not</li><li>• female vaccinated</li><li>• rubella</li><li>• against pregnancy</li><li>• next 3 months</li><li>• Priority groups for rubella vaccination in India:</li><li>• 1st PRIORITY: 15–49 years reproductive age group females</li><li>• 1st PRIORITY: 15–49 years reproductive age</li><li>• females</li><li>• 2nd priority : All children 1–14 years age</li><li>• 2nd priority</li><li>• 1–14 years age</li><li>• 3rd priority : Routine universal immunization of all children aged 1</li><li>• 3rd priority</li><li>• Routine universal immunization</li><li>• all children aged 1</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Average incubation period for German measles (Rubella) - 18 days (14-21 days)</li><li>➤ incubation period</li><li>➤ German measles (Rubella)</li><li>➤ 18 days (14-21</li><li>➤ days)</li><li>➤ Incubation period of some important diseases -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 166)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 166)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health campaign aimed at increasing vaccination rates, a 30-year-old pediatrician is discussing the rubella vaccine with his interns. He emphasizes the importance of understanding the components of vaccines, including the specific viral strains used, to effectively communicate with the community and address any concerns. He poses a question to his interns about the strain of the virus used in the current rubella vaccines. Which strain of the virus is used in the current rubella vaccines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RA 27/3 strain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jeryll lynn strain", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edmonston Zagreb strain", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "17 D strain", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RA 27/3 strain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture13.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. RA 27/3 strain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Jeryll lynn strain - Mumps vaccine</li><li>• Option B. Jeryll lynn strain</li><li>• Option C. Edmonston Zagreb strain - Measles vaccine</li><li>• Option C. Edmonston Zagreb strain</li><li>• Option D. 17 D strain - Yellow Fever Vaccine</li><li>• Option D. 17 D strain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rubella vaccine strain - RA 27/3</li><li>➤ Rubella</li><li>➤ strain -</li><li>➤ RA 27/3</li><li>➤ Vaccines and different strains :</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 167)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 167)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child presents to the outpatient department (OPD) with a 2-day history of bilateral tender neck swelling, accompanied by low-grade fever, myalgia, and headache. Based on the presentation, a likely diagnosis is a viral infection typically causing parotitis. The medical resident is considering potential complications of the disease and discusses this with a colleague. Which of the following is NOT a recognized complication of this disease, the condition likely affecting this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pancreatitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Orchitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensorineural deafness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholecystitis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cholecystitis", "question_images": ["https://www.cdc.gov/mumps/images/people_mumps.jpg?_=95438"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cholecystitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The complications for mumps include orchitis, ovaritis, pancreatitis, meningoencephalitis, thyroiditis, neuritis, hepatitis and myocarditis . Rarer complications include nerve deafness, polyarthritis, hydrocephalus, encephalitis, cerebellar ataxia, facial palsy and transverse myelitis .</li><li>• complications</li><li>• mumps</li><li>• orchitis, ovaritis, pancreatitis, meningoencephalitis, thyroiditis, neuritis, hepatitis</li><li>• myocarditis</li><li>• Rarer</li><li>• nerve deafness, polyarthritis, hydrocephalus, encephalitis, cerebellar ataxia, facial palsy</li><li>• transverse myelitis</li><li>• Mumps is one of the main infectious causes of sensorineural deafness , which affects approximately 5 per 100,000 mumps cases .</li><li>• Mumps</li><li>• infectious causes of sensorineural deafness</li><li>• 5 per 100,000 mumps cases</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to MUMPS</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to MUMPS</li><li>• Causative agent: Myxovirus parotiditis ( RNA paramyxovirus) Incubation Period: 14-21 days Source of Infection: Clinical &amp; subclinical cases Mode of transmission : Air droplets (respiratory) Period of Communicability: 4-6 days before to 7 days after onset of symptoms Mumps show lifelong immunity Secondary attack rate of Mumps: 86% Clinical features: Salivary (esp. Parotid) glands involvement MC complication: Aseptic meningitis MC complication in adolescents: Orchitis, Oophoritis Mumps is prevented by: Active immunization by Mumps vaccine – Type: Live attenuated vaccine (Strain: Jeryll Lynn strain )</li><li>• Causative agent: Myxovirus parotiditis ( RNA paramyxovirus)</li><li>• Myxovirus parotiditis</li><li>• RNA paramyxovirus)</li><li>• Incubation Period: 14-21 days</li><li>• 14-21</li><li>• Source of Infection: Clinical &amp; subclinical cases</li><li>• Mode of transmission : Air droplets (respiratory)</li><li>• Mode of transmission</li><li>• Air droplets (respiratory)</li><li>• Period of Communicability: 4-6 days before to 7 days after onset of symptoms</li><li>• Period of Communicability:</li><li>• 4-6 days</li><li>• before</li><li>• 7 days after</li><li>• onset</li><li>• symptoms</li><li>• Mumps show lifelong immunity</li><li>• Mumps</li><li>• lifelong immunity</li><li>• Secondary attack rate of Mumps: 86%</li><li>• Secondary attack</li><li>• 86%</li><li>• Clinical features: Salivary (esp. Parotid) glands involvement MC complication: Aseptic meningitis MC complication in adolescents: Orchitis, Oophoritis</li><li>• Salivary (esp. Parotid) glands involvement MC complication: Aseptic meningitis MC complication in adolescents: Orchitis, Oophoritis</li><li>• Salivary (esp. Parotid) glands involvement</li><li>• Salivary (esp. Parotid) glands</li><li>• MC complication: Aseptic meningitis</li><li>• MC complication: Aseptic meningitis</li><li>• MC complication in adolescents: Orchitis, Oophoritis</li><li>• MC</li><li>• adolescents: Orchitis, Oophoritis</li><li>• Mumps is prevented by: Active immunization by Mumps vaccine – Type: Live attenuated vaccine (Strain: Jeryll Lynn strain )</li><li>• prevented</li><li>• Active</li><li>• Mumps vaccine</li><li>• Live attenuated vaccine</li><li>• Jeryll Lynn strain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The complications of Mumps include Orchitis, Pancreatitis, Sensorineural deafness but not Cholecystitis.</li><li>➤ complications of Mumps</li><li>➤ Orchitis, Pancreatitis, Sensorineural deafness</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Cholecystitis.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 168)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 168)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an epidemiology lecture at a medical school, the professor discusses the transmission dynamics of various viral infections. Mumps, a contagious viral infection, is highlighted for its notable secondary attack rate, particularly in settings where close contact occurs, such as schools and family households. A medical student is asked about the secondary attack rate of mumps to understand its transmissibility. What is the secondary attack rate of mumps?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "26%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "66%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "86%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "100%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 86%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture14.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 86%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Secondary attack rate for mumps is estimated to be about 86 percent.</li><li>• Secondary Attack Rate (SAR)</li><li>• Is no. of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period (IP), following exposure to the primary case Denominator includes only those susceptible in close contact Primary case is always excluded both from numerator and denominator for SAR calculation</li><li>• Is no. of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period (IP), following exposure to the primary case</li><li>• Denominator includes only those susceptible in close contact</li><li>• Primary case is always excluded both from numerator and denominator for SAR calculation</li><li>• Secondary Attack Rate of some diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Secondary attack rate of Mumps - 86% (&gt;85%)</li><li>➤ Infectivity is also termed as Secondary attack rate</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 168)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 168)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an infectious disease rotation, a medical resident is tasked with developing a protocol for managing potential outbreaks of Influenza H1N1 in a hospital setting. As part of the protocol, the resident must consider options for chemoprophylaxis, especially for high-risk patients and healthcare workers who may be exposed to the virus. The resident discusses with the supervising physician about the appropriate medication for chemoprophylaxis against Influenza H1N1. Which medication is recommended for chemoprophylaxis against Influenza H1N1?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45 mg OD of Oseltamivir", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "75 mg OD of Oseltamivir", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "45 mg OD of Zanamivir", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70 mg OD of Zanamivir", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 75 mg OD of Oseltamivir", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 75 mg of Oseltamivir</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis to health care personnel and close contacts of suspected, probable or confirmed case of pandemic influenza A (H1N1) 2009. It should be given till 10 days after last exposure .</li><li>• Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis to health care personnel and close contacts</li><li>• probable or confirmed</li><li>• pandemic influenza A (H1N1)</li><li>• 10 days after last exposure</li><li>• For adults above 40 kg the dose is 75 mg OD.</li><li>• For adults</li><li>• 40 kg</li><li>• 75 mg OD.</li><li>• H1N1 (Type A) – Cause of Swine flu</li><li>• H1N1 (Type A)</li><li>• Swine flu</li><li>• Antiviral therapy for H1N1 :</li><li>• Antiviral</li><li>• H1N1</li><li>• Severe/progressive clinical illness: Oseltamivir (if not available or resistant , use Zanamivir ) High risk of severe/complicated illness : Oseltamivir OR Zanamivir Not high risk OR Uncomplicated confirmed/suspected illness: No need of treatment Dosage: Oseltamivir - 75 mg BD × 5 days (DOC) Zanamivir - 2 inhalations ( 2 × 5 mg) BD × 5 days</li><li>• Severe/progressive clinical illness: Oseltamivir (if not available or resistant , use Zanamivir )</li><li>• Severe/progressive</li><li>• Oseltamivir</li><li>• not available</li><li>• resistant</li><li>• Zanamivir</li><li>• High risk of severe/complicated illness : Oseltamivir OR Zanamivir</li><li>• High risk</li><li>• severe/complicated</li><li>• : Oseltamivir OR Zanamivir</li><li>• Not high risk OR Uncomplicated confirmed/suspected illness: No need of treatment</li><li>• Not</li><li>• Uncomplicated</li><li>• No</li><li>• treatment</li><li>• Dosage: Oseltamivir - 75 mg BD × 5 days (DOC) Zanamivir - 2 inhalations ( 2 × 5 mg) BD × 5 days</li><li>• Oseltamivir - 75 mg BD × 5 days (DOC) Zanamivir - 2 inhalations ( 2 × 5 mg) BD × 5 days</li><li>• Oseltamivir - 75 mg BD × 5 days (DOC)</li><li>• Oseltamivir</li><li>• 75 mg BD</li><li>• 5 days</li><li>• Zanamivir - 2 inhalations ( 2 × 5 mg) BD × 5 days</li><li>• Zanamivir</li><li>• 2 inhalations</li><li>• 2 × 5</li><li>• BD</li><li>• 5 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis against H1N1 - Oseltamivir 75 mg OD till 10 days after last exposure.</li><li>➤ Chemoprophylaxis</li><li>➤ H1N1 - Oseltamivir 75 mg OD</li><li>➤ 10 days</li><li>➤ last exposure.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 175)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident in an internal medicine ward is managing a patient suspected of having Influenza H1N1. As part of the management plan, the resident needs to advise the patient and their family about isolation practices to prevent the spread of the virus. Understanding the communicability period of Influenza H1N1 is crucial for implementing effective infection control measures. When does a case of Influenza H1N1 typically become communicable with others?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 days before onset of symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 days before onset of symptoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 day before onset of symptoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "From the day of onset of symptoms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1 day before onset of symptoms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1 day before onset of symptoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Virus is present in the nasopharynx from 1 to 2 days before and 1 to 2 days after onset of symptoms.</li><li>• Virus</li><li>• nasopharynx</li><li>• 1 to 2 days before</li><li>• 1 to 2 days after onset of symptoms.</li><li>• Period of Communicability : Is the time during which an infectious agent may be transferred directly/indirectly from an infected</li><li>• Period of Communicability</li><li>• time during</li><li>• infectious agent</li><li>• transferred</li><li>• infected</li><li>• person to another person , from infected animal to man or from an infected person to animal , including arthropods .</li><li>• person to another person</li><li>• infected animal to man</li><li>• infected person to animal</li><li>• arthropods</li><li>• An important measure of communicability is secondary attack rate.</li><li>• measure of communicability</li><li>• secondary attack rate.</li><li>• Period of Communicability/ Infectivity of some important diseases -</li><li>• Communicability/ Infectivity</li><li>• important diseases</li><li>• Chickenpox : 1–2 days before to 4–5 days after appearance of rash Measles : 4 days before to 5 days after appearance of rash Rubella: 7 days before symptoms to 7 days after appearance of rash Mumps: 4–6 days before symptoms to 7 days thereafter Influenza : 1–2 days before to 1–2 days after onset of symptoms Diphtheria : 14–28 days from disease onset Pertussis: 7 days after exposure to 3 weeks after paroxysmal stage Meningococccus: Until absent from nasal and throat discharges Tuberculosis: As long as not treated Poliomyelitis: 7–10 days before and after onset of symptoms Hepatitis A: 2 weeks before to 1 week after onset of jaundice Hepatitis B: Till disappearance of HBsAg &amp; appearance of anti-HBs Tetanus: None</li><li>• Chickenpox : 1–2 days before to 4–5 days after appearance of rash</li><li>• Chickenpox</li><li>• 1–2 days before</li><li>• 4–5 days after</li><li>• rash</li><li>• Measles : 4 days before to 5 days after appearance of rash</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• 4 days before</li><li>• 5 days after</li><li>• rash</li><li>• Rubella: 7 days before symptoms to 7 days after appearance of rash</li><li>• Mumps: 4–6 days before symptoms to 7 days thereafter</li><li>• Influenza : 1–2 days before to 1–2 days after onset of symptoms</li><li>• Influenza</li><li>• 1–2 days before</li><li>• 1–2 days</li><li>• onset of symptoms</li><li>• Diphtheria : 14–28 days from disease onset</li><li>• Diphtheria</li><li>• 14–28 days</li><li>• disease onset</li><li>• Pertussis: 7 days after exposure to 3 weeks after paroxysmal stage</li><li>• Meningococccus: Until absent from nasal and throat discharges</li><li>• Tuberculosis: As long as not treated</li><li>• Poliomyelitis: 7–10 days before and after onset of symptoms</li><li>• Hepatitis A: 2 weeks before to 1 week after onset of jaundice</li><li>• Hepatitis B: Till disappearance of HBsAg &amp; appearance of anti-HBs</li><li>• Tetanus: None</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Influenza Period of Communicability/ Infectivity - 1–2 days before to 1–2 days after onset of symptoms.</li><li>➤ Influenza</li><li>➤ Communicability/ Infectivity</li><li>➤ 1–2 days before</li><li>➤ 1–2 days after</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 170)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 170)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an infectious disease lecture, a medical resident is learning about Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the bacterium responsible for diphtheria. The discussion focuses on the factors that contribute to the virulence of this pathogen. Understanding the virulence factors of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is crucial for comprehending the pathogenesis of diphtheria and for developing effective treatment and prevention strategies. Which is the most important factor for determining the virulence of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Endotoxin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "O antigens", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Exotoxin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "K antigen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Exotoxin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Exotoxin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Endotoxin: Endotoxins are associated with the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria . Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a Gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxin.</li><li>• Option A. Endotoxin:</li><li>• outer membrane</li><li>• Gram-negative bacteria</li><li>• Corynebacterium diphtheriae</li><li>• Gram-positive</li><li>• bacterium</li><li>• not</li><li>• endotoxin.</li><li>• Option B. O Antigen: It is a cell-wall component and important in the pathogenesis of the disease but not responsible for the major disease signs and symptoms.</li><li>• Option B. O Antigen:</li><li>• cell-wall component</li><li>• pathogenesis</li><li>• disease</li><li>• not</li><li>• major disease signs</li><li>• symptoms.</li><li>• Option D. K Antigen: It is a cell-wall component (capsular polysaccharides) and important in the pathogenesis of the disease but not responsible for the major disease signs and symptoms.</li><li>• Option D. K Antigen:</li><li>• cell-wall component</li><li>• pathogenesis</li><li>• disease</li><li>• not</li><li>• major disease signs</li><li>• symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most important factor for determining virulence of Corynebacterium diphtheria – Exotoxin.</li><li>➤ important factor</li><li>➤ determining virulence</li><li>➤ Corynebacterium diphtheria – Exotoxin.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 749) and WHO Health topics - Diphtheria</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 749) and WHO Health topics - Diphtheria</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident working in a community health center is reviewing the epidemiology and clinical aspects of diphtheria as part of a public health initiative. The resident is presented with a series of statements about diphtheria and is asked to identify which one is NOT true. This exercise is important for ensuring accurate understanding and effective communication about the disease to the public. Which of the following statements about diphtheria is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carriers are more common sources of infection than cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incubation period is 2-6 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-093455.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A . Carriers are more common sources of infection than cases : TRUE . 95% of total disease transmission is due to carriers</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Carriers are more common sources of infection than cases</li><li>• TRUE</li><li>• 95%</li><li>• transmission</li><li>• carriers</li><li>• Nasal carriers are more dangerous than throat carriers Incidence of carriers in a community: 0.5-1% Immunization does not prevent carrier state</li><li>• Nasal carriers are more dangerous than throat carriers</li><li>• Nasal carriers</li><li>• more dangerous</li><li>• throat carriers</li><li>• Incidence of carriers in a community: 0.5-1%</li><li>• Incidence of carriers</li><li>• 0.5-1%</li><li>• Immunization does not prevent carrier state</li><li>• does not</li><li>• carrier state</li><li>• Note - Source of infection : Case or carrier</li><li>• Source of infection</li><li>• Case or carrier</li><li>• Option B. Incubation period is 2-6 days : TRUE</li><li>• Option B. Incubation period is 2-6 days</li><li>• TRUE</li><li>• Mode of transmission : droplet infection (main mode), directly from cutaneous lesions and fomites Period of Infectivity : 14-28 days from onset of disease ; longer for carriers. A case/carrier may be considered non-communicable when at least 2 cultures from nose and throat , 24 hrs apart , are negative. MC Subtype: Faucial ( Tonsillar + Pharyngeal )</li><li>• Mode of transmission : droplet infection (main mode), directly from cutaneous lesions and fomites</li><li>• Mode</li><li>• transmission</li><li>• droplet infection</li><li>• cutaneous lesions and fomites</li><li>• Period of Infectivity : 14-28 days from onset of disease ; longer for carriers. A case/carrier may be considered non-communicable when at least 2 cultures from nose and throat , 24 hrs apart , are negative.</li><li>• Period of Infectivity</li><li>• 14-28 days</li><li>• onset of disease</li><li>• A case/carrier may be considered non-communicable when at least 2 cultures from nose and throat , 24 hrs apart , are negative.</li><li>• A case/carrier may be considered non-communicable when at least 2 cultures from nose and throat , 24 hrs apart , are negative.</li><li>• case/carrier</li><li>• non-communicable</li><li>• 2 cultures</li><li>• nose and throat</li><li>• 24 hrs apart</li><li>• negative.</li><li>• MC Subtype: Faucial ( Tonsillar + Pharyngeal )</li><li>• MC</li><li>• Faucial</li><li>• Tonsillar + Pharyngeal</li><li>• Option D. Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India : TRUE</li><li>• Option D. Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India</li><li>• TRUE</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DPT vaccine - 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per 0.5 ml i.e. per dose.</li><li>➤ DPT</li><li>➤ 25 Lf</li><li>➤ diphtheria toxoid</li><li>➤ 0.5 ml</li><li>➤ per dose.</li><li>➤ DT Vaccine - Contains up to 2 Lf of diphtheria toxoid per dose.</li><li>➤ DT</li><li>➤ 2 Lf</li><li>➤ diphtheria toxoid</li><li>➤ dose.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th edition (page 180)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27 th edition (page 180)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident working in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the National Immunization Schedule as part of a public health initiative to improve vaccination rates in the community. Recently, there have been updates to the schedule, particularly regarding the measles vaccine. The resident is discussing these changes with a senior pediatrician to ensure accurate information is provided to patients and their families. In the National Immunization Schedule, the measles vaccine has been replaced by which of the following vaccines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MMR vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMRV vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hexavalent vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MR vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-125017_KHN9A8u.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. MR vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. MMR : Is a type of live attenuated vaccine , recommended at the age of 15–18 months.</li><li>• Option B. MMR</li><li>• live attenuated vaccine</li><li>• 15–18 months.</li><li>• NOTE - In Delhi’s Immunization Schedule , there are 2 additional vaccines – MMR ( single dose at 15 months of age) and Typhoid ( single dose between 2-5 years of age)</li><li>• Delhi’s Immunization Schedule</li><li>• 2 additional vaccines</li><li>• MMR</li><li>• single</li><li>• 15 months</li><li>• Typhoid</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• 2-5</li><li>• years</li><li>• Option C. MMRV Combination Vaccine:</li><li>• Option C. MMRV Combination Vaccine:</li><li>• Given at age group of 9 months–12 years Minimum interval between 2 doses : 4 weeks Preferable schedule: 2nd dose 6 weeks-3 months later or at 4-6 years age.</li><li>• Given at age group of 9 months–12 years</li><li>• Given</li><li>• 9 months–12 years</li><li>• Minimum interval between 2 doses : 4 weeks</li><li>• Minimum</li><li>• 2 doses</li><li>• 4 weeks</li><li>• Preferable schedule: 2nd dose 6 weeks-3 months later or at 4-6 years age.</li><li>• 2nd dose</li><li>• 6 weeks-3 months later</li><li>• 4-6 years age.</li><li>• The maximum age for administration of MMRV is 12 years . It should not be administered to anyone 13 years of age or older .</li><li>• The maximum</li><li>• MMRV</li><li>• 12 years</li><li>• not</li><li>• anyone 13 years of age or older</li><li>• Option D. Hexavalent Vaccine:</li><li>• Option D. Hexavalent Vaccine:</li><li>• There is no hexavalent vaccine available in India that contains MMR in combination.</li><li>• no hexavalent vaccine</li><li>• India</li><li>• MMR</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In National Immunisation Schedule , Measles vaccine has been replaced by Measles Rubella (MR) vaccine .</li><li>➤ National Immunisation Schedule</li><li>➤ Measles vaccine</li><li>➤ replaced by</li><li>➤ Measles Rubella (MR) vaccine</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ National Immunization Schedule</li><li>➤ 2023-24</li><li>➤ NOTE -</li><li>➤ JE vaccine only in Endemic districts HiB Vaccine introduced as Pentavalent vaccine – DPT + HepB + HiB vaccine in 16 states. fIPV is fractionated intradermal at 6 weeks &amp; 14 weeks or IPV Intramuscular only at 14 weeks Rotaviral vaccine introduced in 9 States – Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Tripura. Measles-Rubella/ MR vaccine started from 5 States/UTs - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Lakshadweep and Puducherry. Pneumococcal conjugate PCV vaccine introduced in all 12 districts of Himachal Pradesh, 6 districts of Uttar Pradesh and 17 districts of Bihar Adult JE Vaccine introduced in 31 high burden districts from Assam , Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal for adult . JE vaccination in the age-group of 15-65 years. MoHFW-GOI ( August 2018 ) - TT be replaced by Td ; Replacement for TT booster doses given at 10 years, 16 years age and Pregnant women (incl . booster dose ).</li><li>➤ JE vaccine only in Endemic districts</li><li>➤ JE vaccine</li><li>➤ Endemic districts</li><li>➤ HiB Vaccine introduced as Pentavalent vaccine – DPT + HepB + HiB vaccine in 16 states.</li><li>➤ HiB Vaccine</li><li>➤ Pentavalent vaccine</li><li>➤ DPT + HepB + HiB</li><li>➤ 16 states.</li><li>➤ fIPV is fractionated intradermal at 6 weeks &amp; 14 weeks or IPV Intramuscular only at 14 weeks</li><li>➤ fIPV</li><li>➤ intradermal at 6 weeks</li><li>➤ 14 weeks</li><li>➤ IPV Intramuscular</li><li>➤ 14 weeks</li><li>➤ Rotaviral vaccine introduced in 9 States – Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Tripura.</li><li>➤ Rotaviral vaccine</li><li>➤ 9 States</li><li>➤ Measles-Rubella/ MR vaccine started from 5 States/UTs - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Lakshadweep and Puducherry.</li><li>➤ Measles-Rubella/ MR vaccine</li><li>➤ 5 States/UTs</li><li>➤ Pneumococcal conjugate PCV vaccine introduced in all 12 districts of Himachal Pradesh, 6 districts of Uttar Pradesh and 17 districts of Bihar</li><li>➤ Pneumococcal conjugate</li><li>➤ Adult JE Vaccine introduced in 31 high burden districts from Assam , Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal for adult . JE vaccination in the age-group of 15-65 years.</li><li>➤ Adult JE Vaccine</li><li>➤ 31 high burden districts</li><li>➤ Assam</li><li>➤ Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal</li><li>➤ adult</li><li>➤ JE vaccination</li><li>➤ 15-65 years.</li><li>➤ MoHFW-GOI ( August 2018 ) - TT be replaced by Td ; Replacement for TT booster doses given at 10 years, 16 years age and Pregnant women (incl . booster dose ).</li><li>➤ MoHFW-GOI</li><li>➤ August 2018</li><li>➤ TT</li><li>➤ replaced</li><li>➤ Td</li><li>➤ TT booster</li><li>➤ at 10 years, 16 years</li><li>➤ Pregnant women</li><li>➤ . booster dose</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 732)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 732)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident working in a community health center is involved in planning a measles immunization program. As part of the program, various strategies are being considered to effectively increase measles immunity in the community. The resident is tasked with identifying key components of the immunization strategy, particularly activities that are unique and not regularly repeated. In the context of a measles immunization program, which of the following activities is considered a ‘one-time activity’ aimed at rapidly increasing community immunity levels?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Catch up", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Follow up", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outreach vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "High risk immunisation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Catch up", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Catch up</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Follow up: Subsequent nationwide vaccination campaigns conducted every 2–4 years (not one-time event) targeting usually all children born after the catch-up campaign . (Part of WHO Measles Elimination Strategy: ‘Catch up, keep up, Follow up’)</li><li>• Option B. Follow up:</li><li>• Subsequent nationwide vaccination campaigns</li><li>• 2–4 years</li><li>• children born</li><li>• after</li><li>• catch-up campaign</li><li>• Option C. Outreach vaccination : While outreach vaccination is important for reaching underserved or hard-to-reach populations , it is generally an ongoing activity rather than a one-time event.</li><li>• Option C. Outreach vaccination</li><li>• reaching underserved</li><li>• hard-to-reach populations</li><li>• ongoing activity</li><li>• Option D. High risk immunization: Immunization of high-risk groups is an important part of any immunization strategy but is typically an ongoing effort rather than a one-time activity.</li><li>• Option D. High risk immunization:</li><li>• part</li><li>• any immunization strategy</li><li>• ongoing effort</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Measles Catch-up campaigns - One time Nationwide , vaccination campaign targeting all children 9 months to 14 years of age , irrespective of history of Measles disease or vaccination status.</li><li>➤ Measles Catch-up campaigns</li><li>➤ One time Nationwide</li><li>➤ vaccination campaign</li><li>➤ 9 months to 14 years of age</li><li>➤ irrespective</li><li>➤ Measles disease or vaccination status.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 730)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 730)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident in a family practice clinic is discussing influenza vaccination with patients as part of an annual public health campaign. One of the patients, a 45-year-old woman, asks about the effectiveness of the inactivated influenza vaccine. The resident recalls recent studies and guidelines to provide an informed answer, emphasizing the importance of vaccination in preventing influenza and its complications, especially in adults younger than 65 years of age. What is the effectiveness of the inactivated influenza vaccine in adults younger than 65 years of age?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "70%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 60%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 60%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Inactivated influenza vaccine : The vaccine is about 60 percent effective among healthy persons younger than 65 years of age. On vaccination, the vaccine becomes effective after 14 days . The immunity lasts from 6-12 months . The vaccine is 50-60 percent effective in preventing hospitalization and 80 percent effective in preventing death among elderly persons.</li><li>• Inactivated influenza vaccine</li><li>• 60 percent effective</li><li>• healthy</li><li>• younger than 65 years</li><li>• vaccine</li><li>• effective</li><li>• 14 days</li><li>• immunity lasts</li><li>• 6-12 months</li><li>• 50-60 percent effective</li><li>• preventing hospitalization</li><li>• 80 percent</li><li>• effective</li><li>• preventing death</li><li>• Inactivated Influenza vaccine - Trivalent Flu Vaccine</li><li>• Inactivated Influenza vaccine</li><li>• Trivalent Flu Vaccine</li><li>• • Protection: – Two influenza A viruses (an H1N1 and an H3N2 ) – An influenza B virus</li><li>• Two</li><li>• influenza A viruses</li><li>• H1N1</li><li>• H3N2</li><li>• influenza B virus</li><li>• • Types of Trivalent vaccine : – Standard-dose trivalent shots: Approved for people of different ages. – High-dose trivalent shot : Approved for people 65 and older. – Trivalent shot : Approved for people 18 and older. – Recombinant trivalent shot : Approved for people 18 years and older.</li><li>• Trivalent vaccine</li><li>• Standard-dose</li><li>• different ages.</li><li>• High-dose trivalent shot</li><li>• 65 and older.</li><li>• Trivalent shot</li><li>• 18 and older.</li><li>• Recombinant trivalent shot</li><li>• 18 years</li><li>• and older.</li><li>• Contraindications to Inactivated Influenza vaccines - Severe allergy to chicken eggs. History of hypersensitivity/anaphylactic reactions previously. Development of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) within 6 weeks of vaccine. Infants less than 6 month’s age. Moderate-to-severe illness with fever .</li><li>• Contraindications to Inactivated Influenza vaccines - Severe allergy to chicken eggs. History of hypersensitivity/anaphylactic reactions previously. Development of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) within 6 weeks of vaccine. Infants less than 6 month’s age. Moderate-to-severe illness with fever .</li><li>• Contraindications</li><li>• Inactivated Influenza vaccines -</li><li>• Severe allergy to chicken eggs. History of hypersensitivity/anaphylactic reactions previously. Development of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) within 6 weeks of vaccine. Infants less than 6 month’s age. Moderate-to-severe illness with fever .</li><li>• Severe allergy to chicken eggs.</li><li>• allergy</li><li>• chicken eggs.</li><li>• History of hypersensitivity/anaphylactic reactions previously.</li><li>• hypersensitivity/anaphylactic reactions</li><li>• Development of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) within 6 weeks of vaccine.</li><li>• Guillain-Barré Syndrome</li><li>• 6 weeks</li><li>• Infants less than 6 month’s age.</li><li>• Infants less</li><li>• 6 month’s age.</li><li>• Moderate-to-severe illness with fever .</li><li>• Moderate-to-severe illness</li><li>• fever</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The effectiveness of the inactivated influenza vaccine in adults younger than 65 years of age is typically around - 50-60%.</li><li>➤ effectiveness</li><li>➤ inactivated influenza vaccine</li><li>➤ adults younger</li><li>➤ 65 years of age</li><li>➤ - 50-60%.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 173)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 173)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an infectious disease rotation, a medical resident is consulted about a patient who is identified as a carrier of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the bacterium responsible for diphtheria. While the patient is asymptomatic, the resident understands the importance of treating carriers to prevent the spread of the infection. The resident discusses with the supervising physician about the appropriate pharmacological intervention for carriers of diphtheria. What is the recommended drug for treating carriers of diphtheria?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Penicillin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Erythromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-155339.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-155111.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Erythromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Penicillin: can be used as DOC for treating Diphtheria Cases not carriers.</li><li>• Option A. Penicillin:</li><li>• DOC</li><li>• Diphtheria</li><li>• Cases</li><li>• Option C. Doxycycline: Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis for Malaria , if needed for &lt;6 weeks (not for diphtheria)</li><li>• Option C. Doxycycline:</li><li>• Drug of choice</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis</li><li>• Malaria</li><li>• &lt;6 weeks</li><li>• Option D. Rifampicin: Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis for Meningococcal meningitis (not for diphtheria)</li><li>• Option D. Rifampicin:</li><li>• Drug of choice</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis</li><li>• Meningococcal</li><li>• meningitis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug of Choice in Diphtheria:-</li><li>➤ Drug of Choice</li><li>➤ Diphtheria:-</li><li>➤ Drugs for Chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>➤ Drugs for Chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 177)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 177)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health seminar focusing on vaccine-preventable diseases, a discussion arises about the global efforts to eliminate measles. A medical resident is reviewing various factors that support the potential elimination of measles in the near future. The resident considers the key elements that contribute to the successful control and eventual elimination of measles but also recognizes challenges that might impede these efforts. Which of the following points is NOT in favor of the elimination of measles in the near future?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human and animals are the reservoirs of infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "There are no subclinical cases.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The incubation period is fairly fixed at ten days.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Effective vaccine is available.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Human and animals are the reservoirs of infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Human and animals are the reservoirs of infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. There are no subclinical cases: Correct.</li><li>• Option B. There are no subclinical cases:</li><li>• Option C. The incubation period is fairly fixed at ten days: Correct</li><li>• Option C. The incubation period is fairly fixed at ten days:</li><li>• Option D. Effective vaccine is available: Correct. Very effective vaccine is available.</li><li>• Option D. Effective vaccine is available:</li><li>• Eradication of Measles : Requires a vaccination coverage &gt;96%. Epidemic of measles occur: If the proportion of susceptible children is &gt;40%. If Measles is introduced in a virgin community : it infects &gt;90% children.</li><li>• Eradication of Measles : Requires a vaccination coverage &gt;96%.</li><li>• Eradication</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• vaccination coverage &gt;96%.</li><li>• Epidemic of measles occur: If the proportion of susceptible children is &gt;40%.</li><li>• Epidemic</li><li>• measles</li><li>• susceptible children is &gt;40%.</li><li>• If Measles is introduced in a virgin community : it infects &gt;90% children.</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• introduced</li><li>• virgin community</li><li>• infects &gt;90%</li><li>• The experience of eradicating polio and small pox using similar strategies of vaccination combined with surveillance and contamination already exist.</li><li>• eradicating polio</li><li>• small pox</li><li>• similar strategies</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• surveillance and contamination</li><li>• Other reasons for the elimination of measles in the future:</li><li>• Other reasons</li><li>• elimination of measles</li><li>• future:</li><li>• Source of Infection are only cases (carriers are not known to occur) Measles has no second attacks ( lifelong immunity seen) Manifestations of disease are well known to the community .</li><li>• Source of Infection are only cases (carriers are not known to occur)</li><li>• Source</li><li>• only cases</li><li>• Measles has no second attacks ( lifelong immunity seen)</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• no second attacks</li><li>• lifelong immunity</li><li>• Manifestations of disease are well known to the community .</li><li>• Manifestations</li><li>• well known</li><li>• community</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reasons for the elimination of measles in the future:</li><li>➤ Reasons</li><li>➤ elimination of measles</li><li>➤ future:</li><li>➤ Human beings are the only reservoir of infection. Man is Obligate Host. Source of Infection are ONLY CASES (carriers are not known to occur). There are no subclinical cases. Manifestations of disease are well known to the community. Measles has no second attacks (lifelong immunity seen). The incubation period is fairly fixed at ten days . Very effective vaccine is available.</li><li>➤ Human beings are the only reservoir of infection. Man is Obligate Host.</li><li>➤ Human beings</li><li>➤ only reservoir</li><li>➤ Man</li><li>➤ Obligate Host.</li><li>➤ Source of Infection are ONLY CASES (carriers are not known to occur).</li><li>➤ Source of Infection</li><li>➤ ONLY CASES</li><li>➤ There are no subclinical cases.</li><li>➤ no subclinical cases.</li><li>➤ Manifestations of disease are well known to the community.</li><li>➤ Manifestations</li><li>➤ well known</li><li>➤ Measles has no second attacks (lifelong immunity seen).</li><li>➤ no second attacks</li><li>➤ The incubation period is fairly fixed at ten days .</li><li>➤ incubation period</li><li>➤ fairly fixed at ten days</li><li>➤ Very effective vaccine is available.</li><li>➤ Very effective</li><li>➤ available.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 731)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 731)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While attending a lecture on respiratory illnesses in children, a medical student learns about various infectious diseases that present with prolonged coughing. The lecturer emphasizes the importance of recognizing specific clinical patterns in diagnosis. One disease, known for its characteristic and protracted cough, is highlighted for being notoriously referred to as the \"Hundred-day cough.\" The student is asked to identify this disease based on its distinctive clinical presentation. Which respiratory illness is commonly known as the \"Hundred-day cough\" due to its prolonged and characteristic coughing episodes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pertussis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plague", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pertussis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pertussis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Tuberculosis: Incorrect. Serious respiratory illness caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis . TB symptoms include a persistent cough , but the disease is known for its systemic symptoms and potential for severe lung damage rather than the duration of coughing episodes .</li><li>• Option B. Tuberculosis: Incorrect.</li><li>• respiratory illness</li><li>• Mycobacterium tuberculosis</li><li>• persistent cough</li><li>• its systemic symptoms</li><li>• severe lung damage</li><li>• duration of coughing episodes</li><li>• Option C. Plague: Incorrect. Caused by Yersinia pestis , can have a respiratory form known as pneumonic plague .</li><li>• Option C. Plague:</li><li>• Incorrect.</li><li>• Yersinia pestis</li><li>• pneumonic plague</li><li>• Option D. Diphtheria: Incorrect . Bacterial infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae . While it affects the respiratory system, it is not associated with the prolonged cough , as characteristic of pertussis .</li><li>• Option D. Diphtheria: Incorrect</li><li>• Corynebacterium diphtheriae</li><li>• not</li><li>• prolonged cough</li><li>• pertussis</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to Pertussis/Whooping Cough -</li><li>• • Causative agent: Bordetella pertussis ( 5% cases by B. parapertussis ) • Also known as ‘ Whooping Cough’ or ‘ 100 Day Cough’ – Paroxysms of cough are followed by an inspiratory whoop (high pitch) • Incubation period : 7–14 days • Source of Infection: Case There is no subclinical or chronic carrier state. Neither vaccination nor infection confers long-term immunity. • Secondary Attack rate: &gt; 90% • Incidence and fatality: Females &gt; Males. • Leukocytosis does not correlates with the severity of cough. • Chief complications: Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia, bronchiectasis, subconjunctival hemorrhages , epistaxis, hemoptysis , punctuate cerebral hemorrhages, convulsions and coma . • Laboratory diagnosis: Culturing of nasopharyngeal swabs on Bordet-Gengou medium, polymerase chain reaction ( PCR ), immunofluorescence (DFA), and serological methods • Drug of choice: Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID × 10 days)</li><li>• Bordetella pertussis</li><li>• 5%</li><li>• B. parapertussis</li><li>• Whooping Cough’</li><li>• 100 Day Cough’</li><li>• Paroxysms</li><li>• inspiratory whoop</li><li>• : 7–14 days</li><li>• Case</li><li>• no subclinical or chronic carrier state.</li><li>• Neither</li><li>• vaccination nor infection</li><li>• confers long-term immunity.</li><li>• Secondary Attack rate: &gt; 90%</li><li>• Leukocytosis</li><li>• not</li><li>• severity of cough.</li><li>• bronchopneumonia,</li><li>• subconjunctival hemorrhages</li><li>• hemoptysis</li><li>• convulsions and coma</li><li>• nasopharyngeal swabs</li><li>• Bordet-Gengou medium,</li><li>• PCR</li><li>• immunofluorescence (DFA),</li><li>• serological methods</li><li>• Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID × 10 days)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hundred Day Cough is - Pertussis (Whooping Cough ) - caused by Bordetella pertussis).</li><li>➤ Hundred Day Cough</li><li>➤ Pertussis (Whooping Cough</li><li>➤ Bordetella</li><li>➤ pertussis).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident in a pediatric clinic is reviewing epidemiological data on pertussis (whooping cough) as part of his research project. Pertussis, caused by Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease. While vaccination has significantly reduced its incidence, there are concerns about increasing cases in certain populations. The resident is analyzing trends in the incidence and fatality of pertussis, particularly in vulnerable groups, to better understand the current challenges in managing and preventing this disease. Which statement accurately reflects the current trends in the incidence and fatality of pertussis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More in Males", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More in Females", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Equal in Males and females", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Differs in Males and Females in different states", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. More in Females", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. More in females</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Incidence and fatality of Pertussis are observed to be more among female than male children.</li><li>• Incidence and fatality</li><li>• Pertussis</li><li>• more</li><li>• female</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to Pertussis/Whooping Cough -</li><li>• Important</li><li>• Pertussis/Whooping Cough</li><li>• Causative agent: Bordetella pertussis (5% cases by B. parapertussis) Also known as ‘ Whooping Cough’ or ‘100 Day Cough’ – Paroxysms of cough are followed by an inspiratory whoop (high pitch) . Incubation period: 7–14 days Source of Infection : Case There is no subclinical or chronic carrier state Neither vaccination nor infection confers long-term immunity. Secondary Attack rate: &gt; 90% Incidence and fatality: Females &gt; Males Leukocytosis does not correlates with the severity of cough . Chief complications: Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia , bronchiectasis, subconjunctival hemorrhages , epistaxis, hemoptysis, punctuate cerebral hemorrhages, convulsions and coma. Laboratory diagnosis: Culturing of nasopharyngeal swabs on Bordet-Gengou medium , polymerase chain reaction ( PCR) , immunofluorescence ( DFA ), and serological methods . Drug of choice: Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID × 10 days)</li><li>• Causative agent: Bordetella pertussis (5% cases by B. parapertussis)</li><li>• Bordetella pertussis</li><li>• Also known as ‘ Whooping Cough’ or ‘100 Day Cough’ – Paroxysms of cough are followed by an inspiratory whoop (high pitch) .</li><li>• Whooping Cough’ or ‘100 Day Cough’</li><li>• Paroxysms</li><li>• cough</li><li>• inspiratory whoop (high pitch)</li><li>• Incubation period: 7–14 days</li><li>• 7–14 days</li><li>• Source of Infection : Case There is no subclinical or chronic carrier state Neither vaccination nor infection confers long-term immunity.</li><li>• Source of Infection</li><li>• Case</li><li>• There is no subclinical or chronic carrier state Neither vaccination nor infection confers long-term immunity.</li><li>• There is no subclinical or chronic carrier state</li><li>• no subclinical or chronic carrier state</li><li>• Neither vaccination nor infection confers long-term immunity.</li><li>• Neither vaccination nor infection</li><li>• long-term immunity.</li><li>• Secondary Attack rate: &gt; 90%</li><li>• Secondary</li><li>• 90%</li><li>• Incidence and fatality: Females &gt; Males</li><li>• Females</li><li>• Leukocytosis does not correlates with the severity of cough .</li><li>• Leukocytosis</li><li>• not</li><li>• severity of cough</li><li>• Chief complications: Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia , bronchiectasis, subconjunctival hemorrhages , epistaxis, hemoptysis, punctuate cerebral hemorrhages, convulsions and coma.</li><li>• bronchopneumonia</li><li>• subconjunctival hemorrhages</li><li>• hemoptysis,</li><li>• punctuate cerebral</li><li>• Laboratory diagnosis: Culturing of nasopharyngeal swabs on Bordet-Gengou medium , polymerase chain reaction ( PCR) , immunofluorescence ( DFA ), and serological methods .</li><li>• Culturing</li><li>• nasopharyngeal swabs</li><li>• Bordet-Gengou</li><li>• medium</li><li>• PCR)</li><li>• DFA</li><li>• serological methods</li><li>• Drug of choice: Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID × 10 days)</li><li>• Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID × 10 days)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incidence and fatality of Pertussis are observed to be more among female than male children.</li><li>➤ Incidence and fatality of Pertussis</li><li>➤ more</li><li>➤ female than</li><li>➤ male</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a primary care setting, a family medicine physician encounters a family where one child has been diagnosed with pertussis. Recognizing the contagious nature of the disease, the physician considers the appropriate treatment protocol not only for the affected child but also for the family members who have been in close contact. The physician reviews the latest treatment guidelines to ensure the recommended first-line therapy is provided to both the patient and the contacts to effectively control the spread of the disease. What is the recommended first-line therapy for treating individuals diagnosed with pertussis and their close contacts?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cotrimoxazole", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Doxycycline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythromycin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ciprofloxacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Erythromycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Erythromycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cotrimoxazole: Incorrect. Not the first-line treatment for pertussis.</li><li>• Option A. Cotrimoxazole:</li><li>• Not</li><li>• first-line</li><li>• pertussis.</li><li>• Option B. Doxycycline: Incorrect. Doxycycline can be used in certain cases, especially in older children and adults , but it is not typically the first-line treatment for pertussis.</li><li>• Option B. Doxycycline:</li><li>• used</li><li>• certain cases,</li><li>• older children and adults</li><li>• not</li><li>• first-line</li><li>• pertussis.</li><li>• Option D. Ciprofloxacin : Incorrect. Not used as the first-line treatment for pertussis.</li><li>• Option D. Ciprofloxacin</li><li>• Not</li><li>• first-line treatment</li><li>• pertussis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug of choice for Pertussis Case and Contact : Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID X 10 days)</li><li>➤ Drug of choice</li><li>➤ Pertussis Case</li><li>➤ Contact</li><li>➤ Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID X 10 days)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 180)</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th edition (page 180)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident in a public health clinic is advising parents about pertussis (whooping cough) as part of an educational initiative. Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium responsible for pertussis, has a specific period during which it is infectious. The resident needs to be well-informed about this infective period to provide accurate advice on prevention and control measures, such as isolation and treatment. However, there are some misconceptions about the infective period of B. pertussis. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the infective period of Bordetella pertussis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Whooping cough is more infectious during catarrhal stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infective period may extend from a week after exposure to about 3 weeks after the onset of paroxysmal stage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asymptomatic chronic carriers of B. pertussis are common", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary attack rate is 90%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Asymptomatic chronic carriers of B. pertussis are common", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture17.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Asymptomatic chronic carriers of B. pertussis are common</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Whooping cough is more infectious during the catarrhal stage: True . The catarrhal stage , which is the early phase of whooping cough , is characterized by symptoms similar to a common cold . During this stage, the disease is highly infectious. Catarrhal stage ( 1 week after exposure to 3 weeks after onset of paroxysmal stage , although communicability diminishes rapidly after the catarrhal stage ).</li><li>• Option A. Whooping cough is more infectious during the catarrhal stage:</li><li>• True</li><li>• catarrhal stage</li><li>• early</li><li>• whooping cough</li><li>• symptoms</li><li>• common cold</li><li>• disease</li><li>• highly infectious.</li><li>• Catarrhal stage</li><li>• 1 week after exposure</li><li>• 3 weeks after</li><li>• onset of paroxysmal stage</li><li>• diminishes</li><li>• rapidly after the catarrhal stage</li><li>• Option B. Infective period may extend from a week after exposure to about 3 weeks after the onset of paroxysmal stage: True . The infective period for whooping cough can last from the initial exposure through the paroxysmal stage , during which severe coughing fits occur.</li><li>• Option B. Infective period may extend from a week after exposure to about 3 weeks after the onset of paroxysmal stage:</li><li>• True</li><li>• infective period</li><li>• whooping</li><li>• last</li><li>• initial exposure</li><li>• paroxysmal stage</li><li>• severe coughing</li><li>• Option D. Secondary attack rate is 90%: True . The secondary attack rate for whooping cough is very high , meaning that the disease is highly contagious within households or close-contact settings.</li><li>• Option D. Secondary attack rate is 90%: True</li><li>• whooping cough</li><li>• very high</li><li>• highly contagious</li><li>• households or close-contact settings.</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to PERTUSSIS -</li><li>• Drug of choice : Erythromycin (40 mg/kg in 4 divided doses X 10 days) Complications: Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia , bronchiectasis, convulsions, coma</li><li>• Drug of choice : Erythromycin (40 mg/kg in 4 divided doses X 10 days)</li><li>• Drug of choice</li><li>• Erythromycin (40 mg/kg in 4 divided doses X 10 days)</li><li>• Complications: Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia , bronchiectasis, convulsions, coma</li><li>• bronchopneumonia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While whooping cough is highly contagious during the catarrhal stage and has a high secondary attack rate, the asymptomatic chronic carriers of B. pertussis are uncommon .</li><li>➤ whooping</li><li>➤ highly contagious</li><li>➤ catarrhal stage</li><li>➤ high secondary attack</li><li>➤ asymptomatic chronic carriers</li><li>➤ B. pertussis</li><li>➤ uncommon</li><li>➤ SAR of some diseases are:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 179)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intern, as part of their pediatric clinic rotation, is focusing on the safety profiles of childhood vaccines. This review is crucial to enhance their understanding of vaccine safety and to better counsel parents effectively. In particular, the intern is examining the rare but serious side effects that can occur post-vaccination. The topic of discussion shifts to convulsions, a serious complication that can be associated with certain vaccines, albeit rarely. The intern is tasked with identifying the specific vaccine linked to this adverse effect. Which vaccine is known to have a rare association with convulsions as a serious post-immunization complication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DPT", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningococcal vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles Rubella (MR)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. DPT", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-154619.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. DPT</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin): Incorrect . The complications associated with BCG vaccine are Prolonged severe ulceration at site of vaccination , Suppurative lymphadenitis , Osteomyelitis , Disseminated BCG infection and Death .</li><li>• Option B. BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin):</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• Prolonged severe ulceration</li><li>• site</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• lymphadenitis</li><li>• Osteomyelitis</li><li>• Disseminated BCG infection</li><li>• Death</li><li>• Option C. Meningococcal vaccine: Incorrect . In rare cases, a meningococcal vaccine may cause a severe allergic reaction (Hypersensitivity).</li><li>• Option C. Meningococcal vaccine:</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• severe allergic reaction</li><li>• Option D. MR (Measles and Rubella): Incorrect . Although febrile convulsions can occur following the MR vaccine due to fever , the association is less prominent compared to the DPT vaccine . Measles (&amp; MMR) vaccine can lead to Toxic Shock Syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. MR (Measles and Rubella):</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• febrile convulsions</li><li>• MR vaccine</li><li>• fever</li><li>• less prominent</li><li>• DPT vaccine</li><li>• Measles (&amp; MMR)</li><li>• Toxic Shock Syndrome.</li><li>• Some Specific side effects of important vaccines are:</li><li>• Specific side effects</li><li>• • Guillian Barre Syndrome: Killed influenza vaccine</li><li>• Guillian Barre Syndrome: Killed influenza vaccine</li><li>• • Vaccine associated paralysis: OPV (Sabin)</li><li>• • Vaccine associated paralysis: OPV (Sabin)</li><li>• • Shock: DPT, Pertussis vaccine</li><li>• • Hypersensitivity: Hep-B, Meningococcal vaccine, DPT, dT</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The rare vaccine reactions post DPT vaccination are persistent (more than 3 hours ) inconsolable screaming, seizures, hypotonic hypo-responsive episodes, anaphylactic reaction, and very rarely encephalopathy.</li><li>➤ rare</li><li>➤ post DPT vaccination</li><li>➤ persistent</li><li>➤ 3 hours</li><li>➤ screaming, seizures, hypotonic hypo-responsive episodes, anaphylactic reaction,</li><li>➤ encephalopathy.</li><li>➤ Some important Rare vaccine reactions:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 180)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 180)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an epidemiology lecture at a medical school, the topic of Neisseria meningitidis (the causative agent of meningococcal meningitis) is being discussed. The professor explains that various serotypes of N. meningitidis are responsible for the disease's epidemiology, including both endemic cases and outbreaks. A medical student, interested in infectious diseases, is asked to identify the serotype of N. meningitidis that is less commonly associated with causing both endemic disease and outbreaks. Which serotype of Neisseria meningitidis is typically NOT associated with causing both endemic disease and outbreaks?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Y", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Z", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "W135", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Z", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Z</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 12 serotypes have been identified , viz. Groups A, B, C, 29E, H, I, K, L, W135, X, Y, Z based on the structure of the polysaccharide capsule.</li><li>• 12 serotypes</li><li>• identified</li><li>• Groups</li><li>• A, B, C, 29E, H, I, K, L, W135, X, Y, Z</li><li>• polysaccharide capsule.</li><li>• The majority of invasive meningococcal infections are caused by organisms of serogroups A, B, C, X, W135 and Y . Meningococci of these serogroups have the potential to cause both endemic disease and outbreaks .</li><li>• meningococcal infections</li><li>• serogroups A, B, C, X, W135</li><li>• Y</li><li>• Meningococci</li><li>• serogroups</li><li>• both endemic disease and outbreaks</li><li>• Most lethal form is B</li><li>• lethal</li><li>• B</li><li>• Epidemics - A, C &gt; B &gt; W-135, Y</li><li>• In African meningitis belt , subgroup A has been the most important cause of disease .</li><li>• African meningitis belt</li><li>• subgroup A</li><li>• important</li><li>• disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitides Serotype not associated with endemics and outbreaks - Serotype Z.</li><li>➤ Neisseria meningitides</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ endemics and outbreaks - Serotype Z.</li><li>➤ MC serotype of Meningococcus causing epidemics worldwide is A and the most lethal form is B.</li><li>➤ MC serotype</li><li>➤ Meningococcus</li><li>➤ epidemics</li><li>➤ worldwide</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ lethal form</li><li>➤ B.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 181)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 181)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a paediatric immunization clinic, a nurse practitioner is educating a group of new parents about the vaccination schedule for their infants. One of the vaccines discussed is the quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine, which offers protection against four strains of Neisseria meningitidis. A parent inquires about the appropriate age to start this vaccination for their child. The nurse practitioner knows that the vaccine's efficacy and safety are age-dependent and prepares to explain the age guidelines. At what minimum age is the quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine typically not recommended in children?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Quadrivalent vaccines are administered as a single dose to individuals aged &gt; 2 years .</li><li>• Quadrivalent vaccines</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• &gt; 2 years</li><li>• Important pointers regarding Meningococcal Vaccine -</li><li>• Meningococcal Vaccine</li><li>• Type of Vaccine: killed vaccine, cellular fraction Dose: 0.5 ml Route: Subcutaneous Site: Antero-lateral thigh (Middle one-third) Booster every 3 years Available for group A, C, W135 and Y meningococci Vaccine is not available for Group B meningococcus : Group B polysaccharide is non-immunogenic. Contraindications: Pregnancy Infants and children &lt; 2 years of age (due to development of immunologic tolerance )</li><li>• Type of Vaccine: killed vaccine, cellular fraction</li><li>• killed vaccine, cellular fraction</li><li>• Dose: 0.5 ml</li><li>• Dose: 0.5 ml</li><li>• Route: Subcutaneous</li><li>• Subcutaneous</li><li>• Site: Antero-lateral thigh (Middle one-third)</li><li>• Site: Antero-lateral thigh (Middle one-third)</li><li>• Booster every 3 years</li><li>• 3 years</li><li>• Available for group A, C, W135 and Y meningococci Vaccine is not available for Group B meningococcus : Group B polysaccharide is non-immunogenic.</li><li>• group A, C, W135 and Y meningococci</li><li>• Vaccine is not available for Group B meningococcus : Group B polysaccharide is non-immunogenic.</li><li>• Vaccine is not available for Group B meningococcus : Group B polysaccharide is non-immunogenic.</li><li>• not</li><li>• Group B meningococcus</li><li>• non-immunogenic.</li><li>• Contraindications: Pregnancy Infants and children &lt; 2 years of age (due to development of immunologic tolerance )</li><li>• Pregnancy Infants and children &lt; 2 years of age (due to development of immunologic tolerance )</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• Infants and children &lt; 2 years of age (due to development of immunologic tolerance )</li><li>• Infants and children &lt; 2 years</li><li>• immunologic tolerance</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Meningococcal Vaccine - Contraindications - Pregnant women, Infants and children &lt;2 years of age.</li><li>➤ Meningococcal Vaccine</li><li>➤ Contraindications</li><li>➤ Pregnant women, Infants</li><li>➤ &lt;2 years</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 182)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 182)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health department meeting, a medical officer is discussing strategies for controlling an outbreak of meningococcal meningitis in a community. Various measures are considered, including vaccination and antibiotic prophylaxis. However, certain interventions are not recommended in the control of meningococcal meningitis epidemics. The medical officer is reviewing these strategies to ensure that the response is evidence-based and effective. In the control of an epidemic of meningococcal meningitis, which of the following interventions is NOT recommended?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mass vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health education", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Isolation of cases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mass chemoprophylaxis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Isolation of cases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Isolation of Cases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mass vaccination: This is a recommended intervention in the control of a meningococcal meningitis epidemic . Vaccination is effective in preventing the spread of the disease , especially in areas with high incidence rates .</li><li>• Option A. Mass vaccination:</li><li>• meningococcal meningitis epidemic</li><li>• effective</li><li>• preventing</li><li>• spread</li><li>• disease</li><li>• areas</li><li>• high incidence rates</li><li>• Option B. Health education: HE is an important component of epidemic control . Educating the public about the symptoms of meningococcal meningitis and the importance of seeking timely medical care can help in early detection and treatment of cases .</li><li>• Option B. Health education: HE</li><li>• component</li><li>• epidemic control</li><li>• symptoms</li><li>• meningococcal meningitis</li><li>• medical care</li><li>• early detection</li><li>• treatment of cases</li><li>• Option D. Mass chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis, using antibiotics like rifampicin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone , can be recommended in certain situations during a meningococcal meningitis epidemic . It is particularly used for close contacts of infected individuals to prevent the spread of the disease .</li><li>• Option D. Mass chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>• antibiotics</li><li>• rifampicin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone</li><li>• meningococcal meningitis epidemic</li><li>• close contacts of infected individuals</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• spread</li><li>• disease</li><li>• Some Important Pointers</li><li>• DOC for Chemoprophylaxis of Meningococcal Meningitis - Rifampicin (600 mg BD × 2 days). Meningococcal disease is endemic in India. Treatment with Penicillin doesn’t eradicate the carrier state in meningococcal meningitis. Meningococcal Meningitis Prevention &amp; Control</li><li>• DOC for Chemoprophylaxis of Meningococcal Meningitis - Rifampicin (600 mg BD × 2 days).</li><li>• DOC</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis</li><li>• Meningococcal Meningitis</li><li>• Rifampicin (600 mg BD × 2 days).</li><li>• Meningococcal disease is endemic in India.</li><li>• Meningococcal disease</li><li>• endemic</li><li>• Treatment with Penicillin doesn’t eradicate the carrier state in meningococcal meningitis.</li><li>• Penicillin doesn’t eradicate</li><li>• carrier state</li><li>• meningococcal meningitis.</li><li>• Meningococcal Meningitis Prevention &amp; Control</li><li>• Treatment of cases:</li><li>• Treatment of cases:</li><li>• Antibiotics started &lt; 48 hours of illness save 95% lives. Drug of choice: Penicillin (Ceftriaxone if allergic to Penicillin) Epidemics : Single dose Long-acting Chloramphenicol or Ceftriaxone Treatment of carriers: Rifampici</li><li>• Antibiotics started &lt; 48 hours of illness save 95% lives.</li><li>• Antibiotics</li><li>• started &lt; 48 hours</li><li>• 95% lives.</li><li>• Drug of choice: Penicillin (Ceftriaxone if allergic to Penicillin)</li><li>• Penicillin</li><li>• Epidemics : Single dose Long-acting Chloramphenicol or Ceftriaxone</li><li>• Epidemics</li><li>• Single dose</li><li>• Chloramphenicol or Ceftriaxone</li><li>• Treatment of carriers: Rifampici</li><li>• Treatment of carriers: Rifampici</li><li>• Treatment of contacts:</li><li>• Treatment of contacts:</li><li>• Start treatment &lt; 24 hours of identification of index case Drugs used: Rifampicin, Ciprofloxacin, Ceftriaxone, Azithromycin</li><li>• Start treatment &lt; 24 hours of identification of index case</li><li>• Start treatment &lt; 24 hours</li><li>• index case</li><li>• Drugs used: Rifampicin, Ciprofloxacin, Ceftriaxone, Azithromycin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the control of a meningococcal meningitis epidemic , isolation of individual cases is not a typically recommended intervention. Mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis , along with health education , are key strategies in controlling and preventing the spread of the disease.</li><li>➤ meningococcal meningitis epidemic</li><li>➤ isolation</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Mass vaccination</li><li>➤ chemoprophylaxis</li><li>➤ health education</li><li>➤ controlling and preventing</li><li>➤ spread of the disease.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 757)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 757)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric resident is evaluating a 6-month-old infant in a community health center. The infant presents with high fever, rapid breathing, and a convulsion. The resident refers to the IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses) chart for guidance on management. According to the IMNCI chart, what does the pink color indicate regarding the necessary action for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Outpatient treatment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Give injection/ oral drops", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Home management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Urgent referral", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Urgent referral", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Urgent referral</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Outpatient treatment: Yellow color</li><li>• Option A. Outpatient treatment:</li><li>• Option B. Give injection/ oral drops - yellow color</li><li>• Option B. Give injection/ oral drops -</li><li>• Option C. Home management - green color</li><li>• Option C. Home management -</li><li>• Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childness illness (IMNCI)</li><li>• Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childness illness (IMNCI)</li><li>• IMNCI is a strategy for reducing morbidity and mortality associated with major causes of childhood illness.</li><li>• IMNCI</li><li>• reducing morbidity and mortality</li><li>• major</li><li>• childhood illness.</li><li>• Curative component includes management of:</li><li>• Curative component</li><li>• 1. Diarrhoea</li><li>• 2. Measles</li><li>• 3. Pneumonia</li><li>• 4. Malaria</li><li>• 5. Severe malnutrition and nutritional counseling</li><li>• Case management process : Is presented in a series of charts (Mnemonic: A Case Is Treated &amp; Care Given ).</li><li>• Case management process</li><li>• A Case Is Treated &amp; Care Given</li><li>• Assess the young infant or child Classify the illness Identify the treatment Treat the infant or child Counsel the mother Give follow-up care</li><li>• Assess the young infant or child</li><li>• Classify the illness</li><li>• Identify the treatment</li><li>• Treat the infant or child</li><li>• Counsel the mother</li><li>• Give follow-up care</li><li>• Example - IMNCI guidelines for Pneumonia</li><li>• IMNCI</li><li>• Pneumonia</li><li>• Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 428)</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 428)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a pediatric clinic, a medical resident is evaluating a series of infants under 2 months old as part of an initiative to enhance early disease detection and management. The resident is utilizing the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI) guidelines to classify the severity of illnesses in these young patients. While discussing the cases with a senior pediatrician, the resident is asked to identify which classification is not typically used in the IMNCI guidelines for infants less than 2 months old. Which of the following is NOT a classification under the IMNCI for this age group?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Very severe disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Severe pneumonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "No pneumonia- cough or cold", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pneumonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/28/image_bI6qll7.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-154152.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Very severe disease : Incorrect . This includes critical signs like Stopped feeding well , convulsions , abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake , stridor in calm child, wheezing</li><li>• Option A. Very severe disease</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• critical signs</li><li>• Stopped feeding well</li><li>• convulsions</li><li>• difficult</li><li>• wake</li><li>• stridor</li><li>• calm</li><li>• child, wheezing</li><li>• Option B. Severe pneumonia: Incorrect . 'Severe pneumonia' characterized by symptoms like chest indrawing and fast breathing ( 60 per minute or more )</li><li>• Option B. Severe pneumonia: Incorrect</li><li>• chest indrawing</li><li>• fast breathing</li><li>• 60 per minute or more</li><li>• Option D. No pneumonia-cough or cold: Incorrect . This term is used when an infant presents with a cough or cold but does not show signs of pneumonia or very severe disease i.e. No severe chest indrawing and no fast breathing.</li><li>• Option D. No pneumonia-cough or cold:</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• used</li><li>• infant</li><li>• cough or cold</li><li>• does not</li><li>• signs of pneumonia</li><li>• very severe disease</li><li>• No</li><li>• chest indrawing</li><li>• no fast breathing.</li><li>• IMNCI guidelines for pneumonia (NEW, 2017 Guideline)</li><li>• IMNCI</li><li>• pneumonia</li><li>• If 0-2 months old Young Infant</li><li>• 0-2 months</li><li>• Young Infant</li><li>• • Count the breaths (recount, if &gt;60/min ) • Look for severe chest indrawing .</li><li>• breaths</li><li>• &gt;60/min</li><li>• severe</li><li>• chest indrawing</li><li>• 2 month - 5 year child</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the IMNCI classification for infants less than 2 months old, the specific category of ' Pneumonia ' is not used. Instead, respiratory conditions are classified as 'Severe pneumonia' or 'Very severe disease.</li><li>➤ IMNCI</li><li>➤ infants less than 2 months</li><li>➤ Pneumonia</li><li>➤ not used.</li><li>➤ respiratory conditions</li><li>➤ classified</li><li>➤ 'Severe pneumonia' or 'Very severe disease.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 187)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 187)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical residents participating in a public health initiative are tasked with developing a protocol for the administration of cotrimoxazole in pediatric patients. They are focusing on standardizing treatment according to the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI) guidelines. The residents are reviewing the dosing guidelines for different age groups and weights. According to the IMNCI guidelines, what is the recommended dosage of pediatric cotrimoxazole tablets for children aged 1 to 5 years with a body weight of 10-19 kg?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "One tablet twice a day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Two tablets twice a day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Three tablets twice a day", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Four tablets twice a day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Three tablets twice a day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture20_RImCV8I.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Three tablets twice a day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. 1 tablet twice a day: Incorrect. This dosage is appropriate for infants &lt;2 months , weight 3-5 kg.</li><li>• Option A. 1 tablet twice a day:</li><li>• Incorrect.</li><li>• dosage</li><li>• infants &lt;2 months</li><li>• 3-5 kg.</li><li>• Option B. 2 tablets twice a day: Incorrect . This dosage is less than the recommended amount for an infant 2-12 months , weighing between 6 and 9 kg as per IMNCI guidelines .</li><li>• Option B. 2 tablets twice a day:</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• dosage</li><li>• less</li><li>• infant 2-12 months</li><li>• weighing</li><li>• 6 and 9</li><li>• kg</li><li>• IMNCI guidelines</li><li>• Option D. 4 tablets twice a day: Incorrect . This dosage exceeds the recommended amount for a child in the specified weight range according to IMNCI guidelines .</li><li>• Option D. 4 tablets twice a day:</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• dosage exceeds</li><li>• recommended</li><li>• child</li><li>• specified weight</li><li>• IMNCI guidelines</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pediatric Cotrimoxazole Dosage - (as per age and weight)</li><li>➤ Pediatric Cotrimoxazole Dosage</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 187)</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th edition (page 187)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of medical residents is participating in a global health challenge competition, where they are tasked with developing innovative strategies to achieve the targets set by the Integrated Global Plan for the Prevention and Control of Pneumonia and Diarrhoea by 2025. As part of the challenge, they are given a quiz to test their knowledge of the plan's objectives. The team needs to identify which of the following objectives for 2025 is not included in the plan. Which goal is NOT a part of the Integrated Global Plan for the Prevention and Control of Pneumonia and Diarrhoea?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reduce pneumonia mortality in under 5 children to &lt; 3 per 1000 live births", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduce diarrhoea mortality in under 5 children to &lt; 3 per 1000 live births", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reduce incidence of severe pneumonia by 75% as compared to 2010 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reduce incidence of severe diarrhoea by 75% as compared to 2010 levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reduce diarrhoea mortality in under 5 children to < 3 per 1000 live births", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-125739.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Reduce diarrhoea mortality in under 5 children to &lt; 3 per 1000 live births</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Reduce Pneumonia mortality in Under-five &lt; 3 per 1000 LB , Reduce Diarrhoea mortality in Infants &lt; 1 per 1000 LB</li><li>• Option A. Reduce Pneumonia mortality</li><li>• in Under-five &lt; 3 per 1000 LB</li><li>• Reduce Diarrhoea mortality</li><li>• &lt; 1 per 1000 LB</li><li>• Option C. Reduce Incidence of Severe Pneumonia in Under- fives by 75% (2010 baseline)</li><li>• Option C. Reduce Incidence of Severe Pneumonia in Under-</li><li>• 75%</li><li>• Option D. Reduce Incidence of Severe Diarrhoea in Under -fives by 75% (2010 baseline)</li><li>• Option D. Reduce Incidence of Severe Diarrhoea in Under</li><li>• 75%</li><li>• Reduce Global no. of Stunted Under-fives by 40% (2010 baseline)</li><li>• Reduce</li><li>• Stunted Under-fives</li><li>• 40%</li><li>• • Coverage targets:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Integrated Global Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Pneumonia &amp; Diarrhoea (GAPPD) Specific Goals for 2025 are</li><li>➤ Integrated Global Action Plan</li><li>➤ Prevention</li><li>➤ Control of Pneumonia</li><li>➤ Diarrhoea</li><li>➤ 2025</li><li>➤ Reduce Pneumonia mortality in Under-five &lt; 3 per 1000 LB Reduce Diarrhoea mortality in Infants &lt; 1 per 1000 LB Reduce Incidence of Severe Diarrhoea in Under-fives by 75% (2010 baseline) Reduce Incidence of Severe Pneumonia in Under-fives by 75% (2010 baseline) Reduce Global no. of Stunted Under-fives by 40% (2010 baseline)</li><li>➤ Reduce Pneumonia mortality in Under-five &lt; 3 per 1000 LB</li><li>➤ Pneumonia</li><li>➤ &lt; 3 per 1000 LB</li><li>➤ Reduce Diarrhoea mortality in Infants &lt; 1 per 1000 LB</li><li>➤ Diarrhoea</li><li>➤ &lt; 1 per 1000 LB</li><li>➤ Reduce Incidence of Severe Diarrhoea in Under-fives by 75% (2010 baseline)</li><li>➤ Severe Diarrhoea</li><li>➤ 75%</li><li>➤ Reduce Incidence of Severe Pneumonia in Under-fives by 75% (2010 baseline)</li><li>➤ Severe Pneumonia</li><li>➤ 75%</li><li>➤ Reduce Global no. of Stunted Under-fives by 40% (2010 baseline)</li><li>➤ Global no. of Stunted</li><li>➤ 40%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 189)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 189)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar on the recent advancements in COVID-19 vaccine technology. One of the topics discussed is the variety of vaccine platforms used to combat the pandemic. A particular focus is given to a vaccine developed using a recombinant chimpanzee adenovirus vector. Which COVID-19 vaccine is developed using a recombinant chimpanzee adenovirus vector?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Covishield vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Covaxin vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pfizer BioNtech vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderna COVID 19 vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Covishield vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-125437.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Covishield vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Covaxin vaccine: Whole Virion Inactivated vaccine, strain is \" Niv-2020-770 \". Manufactured by Bharat Biotech BSL-3 facility &amp; ICMR &amp; NIV ( 100 % Indigenous vaccine of India). This is for Individuals ≥18 years old, given in 2 doses ( 0.5 mL each) 4-6 weeks apart (Route - ONLY Intramuscular, at Deltoid muscle ). Protective efficacy is 86-96%.</li><li>• Option B. Covaxin vaccine:</li><li>• Virion</li><li>• Niv-2020-770</li><li>• Bharat Biotech BSL-3 facility</li><li>• ICMR</li><li>• NIV</li><li>• 100</li><li>• ≥18</li><li>• 2 doses</li><li>• 0.5</li><li>• 4-6</li><li>• Deltoid muscle</li><li>• 86-96%.</li><li>• Option C. Pfizer BioNTech vaccine: mRNA vaccine. It uses messenger RNA to instruct cells to produce the spike protein of the virus, triggering an immune response .</li><li>• Option C. Pfizer BioNTech vaccine:</li><li>• mRNA</li><li>• messenger RNA</li><li>• spike protein</li><li>• triggering</li><li>• immune response</li><li>• Option D. Moderna COVID-19 vaccine: Similar to the Pfizer BioNTech vaccine, this is also an mRNA vaccine and operates on the same principle.</li><li>• Option D. Moderna COVID-19 vaccine:</li><li>• Pfizer BioNTech vaccine,</li><li>• mRNA vaccine</li><li>• operates</li><li>• same principle.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Covishield vaccine is a recombinant chimpanzee adenovirus vector vaccine</li><li>➤ Covishield vaccine</li><li>➤ recombinant</li><li>➤ adenovirus</li><li>➤ Comparison of some important COVID vaccines</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 203)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 203)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health seminar, a medical student is learning about the timeline of significant events in the COVID-19 pandemic. One of the key moments in the pandemic was when the World Health Organization (WHO) officially declared COVID-19 as a pandemic. This declaration had substantial implications for public health responses worldwide. The student is asked to recall the specific date on which WHO made this declaration. On what date did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare COVID-19 as a pandemic?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "11 February 2020", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "21 February 2020", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "11 March 2020", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "21 March 2020", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 11 March 2020", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 11 March 2020</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• COVID-19 since its first detection in China, spread to over 200 countries /territories. COVID-19. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared COVID-19 as a pandemic on March 11, 2020. This declaration was a response to the rapid global spread and severe impact of the virus , signaling a heightened level of concern and the need for countries worldwide to take urgent and aggressive action to control the spread of the virus .</li><li>• COVID-19</li><li>• first detection</li><li>• China,</li><li>• 200 countries</li><li>• World Health Organization</li><li>• COVID-19</li><li>• pandemic</li><li>• March 11, 2020.</li><li>• rapid global spread</li><li>• , signaling</li><li>• heightened level</li><li>• concern</li><li>• worldwide</li><li>• take urgent and aggressive action</li><li>• control the spread of the virus</li><li>• January 30, 2020 - WHO declared COVID-19 a Public Health Emergency of International Concern , not a pandemic.</li><li>• January 30, 2020</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• COVID-19</li><li>• Public Health Emergency</li><li>• International Concern</li><li>• February 11, 2020 - The disease caused by the novel coronavirus was officially named COVID-19 by WHO.</li><li>• February 11, 2020</li><li>• novel coronavirus</li><li>• COVID-19</li><li>• WHO.</li><li>• December 08, 2020 : First dose of Covid vaccine administered globally (in United Kingdom)</li><li>• December 08, 2020</li><li>• First dose</li><li>• Covid vaccine</li><li>• globally</li><li>• Indian</li><li>• Indian</li><li>• 30 January 2020 : India reports its First cases of COVID-19 from Thrissur, Kerala</li><li>• 30 January 2020</li><li>• First cases of COVID-19</li><li>• Thrissur, Kerala</li><li>• 25 March 2020 : Nation-wide lockdown imposed</li><li>• 25 March 2020</li><li>• Nation-wide lockdown</li><li>• 16 January 2021 : First dose of Covid vaccine administered in India ; India begins one of the world’s biggest COVID-19 vaccination programs</li><li>• 16 January 2021</li><li>• First</li><li>• Covid vaccine</li><li>• India</li><li>• India</li><li>• world’s biggest COVID-19 vaccination</li><li>• December 2021 : DGCI approves Covaxin for use in 12-18 years old children</li><li>• December 2021</li><li>• Covaxin</li><li>• 12-18 years old children</li><li>• December 2021 : Booster drive , 15-18 years old children vaccination drive announced</li><li>• December 2021</li><li>• Booster drive</li><li>• 15-18 years old children</li><li>• According to CDC ( Centre for Disease Control ) “ Pandemic is an epidemic spread over several countries or continents , usually affecting a large number of people .</li><li>• Centre for Disease Control</li><li>• Pandemic</li><li>• epidemic spread</li><li>• several countries</li><li>• continents</li><li>• affecting</li><li>• large number of people</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ World Health Organization (WHO) declared COVID-19 as a pandemic on March 11, 2020.</li><li>➤ World Health Organization</li><li>➤ COVID-19</li><li>➤ a pandemic</li><li>➤ March 11, 2020.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 191)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 191)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student, studying for a public health exam, is reviewing the National Immunisation Schedule. While familiarizing themselves with the various vaccines included in the schedule, the student is also trying to identify vaccines that are not typically part of this standard schedule but may be recommended in certain specific situations or risk groups. Understanding what is and isn't included in the national schedule is essential for future clinical practice, especially in pediatrics and family medicine. Which of the following vaccines is NOT typically included in the National Immunisation Schedule?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rota virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Meningococcal meningitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Meningococcal meningitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-125017_3PDctN8.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Meningococcal meningitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Rota virus: 3 doses at 6, 10 and 14 weeks under NIS.</li><li>• Option A. Rota virus:</li><li>• 3 doses</li><li>• 6, 10 and 14 weeks</li><li>• Option B. Rubella : ( MR vaccine) 2 doses at 9 months and 16-24 months under NIS.</li><li>• Option B. Rubella</li><li>• MR</li><li>• 2 doses</li><li>• 9 months</li><li>• 16-24 months</li><li>• Option D. Hepatitis B : 4 doses at Birth, 6, 10 and 14 weeks under NIS.</li><li>• Option D. Hepatitis B</li><li>• 4 doses</li><li>• Birth, 6, 10 and 14 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ JE vaccine only in Endemic districts. HiB Vaccine introduced as Pentavalent vaccine – DPT + HepB + HiB vaccine in 16 states fIPV is fractionated intradermal at 6 weeks &amp; 14 weeks or IPV Intramuscular only at 14 weeks. Rotaviral vaccine introduced in 9 States – Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Tripura. Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine started from 5 States/UTs - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Lakshadweep and Puducherry. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine PCV introduced in all 12 districts of Himachal Pradesh, 6 districts of Uttar Pradesh and 17 districts of Bihar. Adult JE Vaccine introduced in 31 high burden districts from Assam, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal for adult JE vaccination in the age-group of 15-65 years.</li><li>➤ JE vaccine only in Endemic districts.</li><li>➤ JE vaccine</li><li>➤ Endemic districts.</li><li>➤ HiB Vaccine introduced as Pentavalent vaccine – DPT + HepB + HiB vaccine in 16 states</li><li>➤ HiB Vaccine</li><li>➤ Pentavalent vaccine</li><li>➤ fIPV is fractionated intradermal at 6 weeks &amp; 14 weeks or IPV Intramuscular only at 14 weeks.</li><li>➤ fIPV</li><li>➤ fractionated intradermal</li><li>➤ 6 weeks &amp; 14 weeks</li><li>➤ IPV Intramuscular</li><li>➤ 14 weeks.</li><li>➤ Rotaviral vaccine introduced in 9 States – Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Tripura.</li><li>➤ Rotaviral vaccine</li><li>➤ 9 States</li><li>➤ Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine started from 5 States/UTs - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Lakshadweep and Puducherry.</li><li>➤ Measles-Rubella</li><li>➤ Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine PCV introduced in all 12 districts of Himachal Pradesh, 6 districts of Uttar Pradesh and 17 districts of Bihar.</li><li>➤ Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine</li><li>➤ Adult JE Vaccine introduced in 31 high burden districts from Assam, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal for adult JE vaccination in the age-group of 15-65 years.</li><li>➤ Adult JE Vaccine</li><li>➤ 31 high burden districts</li><li>➤ adult JE vaccination</li><li>➤ 15-65 years.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 756)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 756)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar (4 th edition) (page 756)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident, specializing in cardiology, is attending a seminar on the changing trends in coronary heart disease (CHD) over the years. The seminar highlights how shifts in socio-economic status and advancements in science and technology have impacted the patterns and prevalence of CHD globally. One of the key points of discussion is a significant project carried out by the World Health Organization (WHO) to study these changing trends in CHD. The resident is interested in knowing the specific project initiated by WHO for this purpose. Which project was carried out by the World Health Organization (WHO) to elucidate the changing trends in coronary heart disease (CHD) in light of evolving socio-economic conditions and technological advancements?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "North Kerelia project", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "MONICA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oslow", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MRFIT", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. MONICA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. MONICA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. North Kerelia project: Risk factor intervention trial aimed to reduce cardiovascular risk factor levels and to promote early diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation of patients . The result showed the reduction of CHD deaths in 10 years.</li><li>• Option A. North Kerelia project:</li><li>• Risk factor</li><li>• intervention</li><li>• reduce cardiovascular risk</li><li>• promote early diagnosis, treatment</li><li>• rehabilitation of patients</li><li>• reduction of CHD deaths</li><li>• 10 years.</li><li>• Option C. Oslow : Oslow diet/smoking intervention study aimed to determine if serum lipids lowering and smoking-cessation would reduce incidence of first attack of CHD in 40-50 yrs males . The result showed that there is reduction of MI by 47%. With this study, primary prevention of CHD entered practical field of preventive medicine in an impressive manner.</li><li>• Option C. Oslow</li><li>• Oslow diet/smoking intervention</li><li>• determine</li><li>• serum lipids lowering</li><li>• smoking-cessation</li><li>• reduce incidence</li><li>• CHD</li><li>• 40-50 yrs males</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• MI by 47%.</li><li>• primary prevention of CHD</li><li>• practical field</li><li>• preventive medicine</li><li>• impressive manner.</li><li>• Option D. MRFIT: Multiple risk factor intervention trial , The study aim was to reduce cardiovascular risk factor levels ( smoking, high BP, hypercholesterolemia ). The study showed the non-significant reduction seen in CHD deaths in 10 years. – Interpretation : Control group was not properly chosen ( changed habits and lifestyle to an extent not anticipated by designers of trial )</li><li>• Option D. MRFIT:</li><li>• Multiple risk factor intervention trial</li><li>• study aim</li><li>• reduce cardiovascular risk factor levels</li><li>• smoking, high BP,</li><li>• hypercholesterolemia</li><li>• non-significant reduction</li><li>• CHD</li><li>• deaths</li><li>• 10</li><li>• years.</li><li>• Interpretation</li><li>• not</li><li>• changed habits</li><li>• lifestyle</li><li>• not anticipated</li><li>• designers of trial</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Project that was carried out by the World Health Organization (WHO) to elucidate the changing trends in coronary heart disease (CHD) in light of evolving socio-economic conditions and technological advancements - MONICA</li><li>➤ Project</li><li>➤ carried</li><li>➤ World Health Organization (WHO)</li><li>➤ elucidate</li><li>➤ coronary heart disease (CHD)</li><li>➤ socio-economic conditions</li><li>➤ technological advancements</li><li>➤ MONICA</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 413.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 413.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health policy meeting, a medical resident reviewed various initiatives and campaigns launched to combat significant health issues in children. One of the initiatives discussed is the SAANS campaign, launched in November 2019. The resident is tasked with identifying the specific disease targeted by the SAANS initiative, as understanding these campaigns is crucial for effective public health planning and patient education. The SAANS initiative, launched in November 2019, was aimed at combating which disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pneumonia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diarrhoea", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Meningitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pneumonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture22.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/19/image_4j10Igd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pneumonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SAANS Campaign 2019 (Launched on 16th November 2019 )</li><li>• SAANS</li><li>• 2019</li><li>• 16th November 2019</li><li>• SAANS : Social Awareness and Action plan to Neutralise pneumonia Successfully Target: To reduce Childhood mortality due to Pneumonia to less than 3 per 1000 Live Birth by 2025 Objectives: Awareness in community Awareness of care gives to identify early Dispels myths and notions and trigger behaviour change Target beneficiaries: Primary beneficiaries: All care givers, Mothers, Fathers Secondary beneficiaries: Key Opinion Leaders (Gram Panchayat Leaders, Local Administration, Religious Leaders, Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee Members, ICDS, Private practitioners)</li><li>• SAANS : Social Awareness and Action plan to Neutralise pneumonia Successfully</li><li>• SAANS</li><li>• Social Awareness and Action plan to Neutralise pneumonia Successfully</li><li>• Target: To reduce Childhood mortality due to Pneumonia to less than 3 per 1000 Live Birth by 2025</li><li>• reduce Childhood mortality</li><li>• Pneumonia</li><li>• less</li><li>• 3 per</li><li>• 1000 Live Birth by 2025</li><li>• Objectives: Awareness in community Awareness of care gives to identify early Dispels myths and notions and trigger behaviour change</li><li>• Awareness in community Awareness of care gives to identify early Dispels myths and notions and trigger behaviour change</li><li>• Awareness in community</li><li>• Awareness in community</li><li>• Awareness of care gives to identify early</li><li>• Awareness of care</li><li>• identify early</li><li>• Dispels myths and notions and trigger behaviour change</li><li>• Dispels myths</li><li>• notions and trigger</li><li>• Target beneficiaries:</li><li>• Primary beneficiaries: All care givers, Mothers, Fathers</li><li>• Secondary beneficiaries: Key Opinion Leaders (Gram Panchayat Leaders, Local Administration, Religious Leaders, Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee Members, ICDS, Private practitioners)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SAANS Campaign 2019 - for Childhood Pneumonia.</li><li>➤ SAANS</li><li>➤ 2019</li><li>➤ Childhood Pneumonia.</li><li>➤ Ref :https://nhm.gov.in/index1.php?lang=1&amp;level=4&amp;sublinkid=1336&amp;lid=716</li><li>➤ Ref :https://nhm.gov.in/index1.php?lang=1&amp;level=4&amp;sublinkid=1336&amp;lid=716</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student, preparing for a presentation on public health achievements, is researching significant milestones in the eradication of infectious diseases. One of the notable successes discussed is India's achievement in polio eradication. The student needs to pinpoint the year when India was officially certified as polio-free, which represents a major public health triumph. In which year was India officially certified as polio-free?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "27 January 2014", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "27 February 2014", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "27 March 2014", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "27 April 2014", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 27 March 2014", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 27 March 2014</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• India was declared ‘ POLIO-FREE’ on 27 March 2014 by WHO</li><li>• India</li><li>• POLIO-FREE’</li><li>• 27 March 2014</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• Poliomyelitis 2023 [No case has been reported in India from 13 January 2011 onwards] -</li><li>• Poliomyelitis 2023</li><li>• No. of Polio cases: ZERO No. of Vaccine derived Polio virus (VDPV) cases: Zero No. of AFP cases: 9150 Non-polio AFP rate: 5.79</li><li>• No. of Polio cases: ZERO</li><li>• No. of Vaccine derived Polio virus (VDPV) cases: Zero</li><li>• No. of AFP cases: 9150</li><li>• Non-polio AFP rate: 5.79</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to Poliomyelitis –</li><li>• Causative agent : Poliovirus (serotypes 1, 2 and 3) P1 is MCC of epidemics P2 is most antigenic and most easily eradicable P3 is MCC of VAPP (Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis) – 1 per 2.7 million chance Reservoir: Man ( No chronic carriers ) MC clinical occurrence: Subclinical cases For every 1 clinical case of polio : there are 1000 subclinical cases in children and 75 subclinical cases in adults Infectious material : Faeces and oro-pharyngeal secretions</li><li>• Causative agent : Poliovirus (serotypes 1, 2 and 3) P1 is MCC of epidemics P2 is most antigenic and most easily eradicable P3 is MCC of VAPP (Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis) – 1 per 2.7 million chance</li><li>• Causative agent</li><li>• Poliovirus</li><li>• P1 is MCC of epidemics P2 is most antigenic and most easily eradicable P3 is MCC of VAPP (Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis) – 1 per 2.7 million chance</li><li>• P1 is MCC of epidemics</li><li>• P1</li><li>• MCC</li><li>• epidemics</li><li>• P2 is most antigenic and most easily eradicable</li><li>• P2</li><li>• most antigenic</li><li>• easily eradicable</li><li>• P3 is MCC of VAPP (Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis) – 1 per 2.7 million chance</li><li>• P3</li><li>• MCC</li><li>• VAPP</li><li>• 1 per 2.7 million chance</li><li>• Reservoir: Man ( No chronic carriers )</li><li>• Reservoir: Man</li><li>• No chronic carriers</li><li>• MC clinical occurrence: Subclinical cases For every 1 clinical case of polio : there are 1000 subclinical cases in children and 75 subclinical cases in adults</li><li>• Subclinical cases</li><li>• For every 1 clinical case of polio : there are 1000 subclinical cases in children and 75 subclinical cases in adults</li><li>• For every 1 clinical case of polio : there are 1000 subclinical cases in children and 75 subclinical cases in adults</li><li>• 1 clinical case</li><li>• polio</li><li>• 1000 subclinical cases</li><li>• children</li><li>• 75 subclinical</li><li>• adults</li><li>• Infectious material : Faeces and oro-pharyngeal secretions</li><li>• Infectious material</li><li>• Faeces and oro-pharyngeal secretions</li><li>• (Polio diagnosis : Isolation of wild poliovirus from stool is the recommended method). Virus usually can be found in the feces from onset to up to &lt; 8 weeks after paralysis , with the highest probability of detection during the first 2 weeks from onset of Paralysis .</li><li>• : Isolation</li><li>• wild poliovirus</li><li>• stool</li><li>• Virus</li><li>• found</li><li>• feces</li><li>• onset to up to &lt; 8 weeks</li><li>• paralysis</li><li>• highest probability</li><li>• first 2 weeks</li><li>• onset of Paralysis</li><li>• Period of communicability: 7-10 days before and after onset of symptoms Risk factors for precipitation of an attack: Fatigue Trauma Intramuscular injections Operative procedures ( Tonsillectomy ) esp. in epidemics of polio Administration of Alum containing DPT vaccine Incubation period : 3 – 35 days (usually 7 – 14 days )</li><li>• Period of communicability: 7-10 days before and after onset of symptoms</li><li>• communicability:</li><li>• 7-10 days before and after</li><li>• Risk factors for precipitation of an attack: Fatigue Trauma Intramuscular injections Operative procedures ( Tonsillectomy ) esp. in epidemics of polio Administration of Alum containing DPT vaccine</li><li>• precipitation</li><li>• Fatigue Trauma Intramuscular injections Operative procedures ( Tonsillectomy ) esp. in epidemics of polio Administration of Alum containing DPT vaccine</li><li>• Fatigue</li><li>• Trauma</li><li>• Intramuscular injections</li><li>• Operative procedures ( Tonsillectomy ) esp. in epidemics of polio</li><li>• Tonsillectomy</li><li>• epidemics of polio</li><li>• Administration of Alum containing DPT vaccine</li><li>• Alum</li><li>• DPT vaccine</li><li>• Incubation period : 3 – 35 days (usually 7 – 14 days )</li><li>• Incubation period</li><li>• 3 – 35 days</li><li>• 7 – 14 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India was declared ‘POLIO-FREE’ on 27 March 2014</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ ‘POLIO-FREE’</li><li>➤ 27 March 2014</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 236)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 236)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical consultant working with a non-governmental organization (NGO) is involved in a project focused on assessing the surveillance capacity for poliomyelitis (polio) in various regions. A critical aspect of this project is the analysis of the reporting rate of acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) cases, which serves as a key surveillance indicator for polio. Accurate detection and reporting of AFP cases are essential for monitoring potential polio outbreaks and guiding eradication efforts. The consultant is tasked with reviewing and understanding the established guidelines for AFP case detection to ensure the efficacy of the surveillance program. What are the established guidelines for detecting AFP cases as part of polio surveillance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 AFP case for every 100000 children under 15 years of age.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 AFP case for every 1000 children under 15 years of age.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 AFP case for every 200000 children under 15 years of age.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 AFP case for every 10000 children under 15 years of age.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 AFP case for every 100000 children under 15 years of age.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-113435.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 AFP case for every 100000 children under 15 years of age.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The number of AFP cases reported each year is used as an indicator of a country's ability to detect polio - even in countries where the disease no longer occurs . A country's surveillance system needs to be sensitive enough to detect at least one case of AFP for every 100,000 children under 15, even in the absence of polio.</li><li>• AFP cases</li><li>• each year</li><li>• indicator</li><li>• country's ability</li><li>• detect polio</li><li>• disease no longer occurs</li><li>• country's surveillance system</li><li>• sensitive</li><li>• detect at least</li><li>• one</li><li>• AFP</li><li>• 100,000 children</li><li>• 15,</li><li>• polio.</li><li>• Surveillance Indicators -</li><li>• Surveillance Indicators -</li><li>• Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Surveillance</li><li>• Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Surveillance</li><li>• Nationwide AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) surveillance is the gold standard for detecting cases of poliomyelitis . The four steps of surveillance are:</li><li>• Nationwide AFP</li><li>• gold standard</li><li>• poliomyelitis</li><li>• four steps</li><li>• Finding and reporting children with acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) Transporting stool samples for analysis Isolating and identifying poliovirus in the laboratory Mapping the virus to determine the origin of the virus strain.</li><li>• Finding and reporting children with acute flaccid paralysis (AFP)</li><li>• Finding and reporting children</li><li>• acute flaccid paralysis (AFP)</li><li>• Transporting stool samples for analysis</li><li>• stool samples</li><li>• analysis</li><li>• Isolating and identifying poliovirus in the laboratory</li><li>• Isolating and identifying</li><li>• poliovirus</li><li>• laboratory</li><li>• Mapping the virus to determine the origin of the virus strain.</li><li>• Mapping</li><li>• virus strain.</li><li>• (All reported cases of AFP should be investigated by DIO ‘within 48 hours’ after notification )</li><li>• AFP</li><li>• DIO</li><li>• 48 hours’</li><li>• notification</li><li>• Available diagnostic tests for Poliomyelitis –</li><li>• diagnostic</li><li>• tests</li><li>• Poliomyelitis</li><li>• Stool examination (recommended in every case of AFP) CSF examination Throat examination Blood examination</li><li>• Stool examination (recommended in every case of AFP)</li><li>• CSF examination</li><li>• Throat examination</li><li>• Blood examination</li><li>• Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP): Acute onset ( &lt; 4 weeks ) in a child aged &lt;15 years , or any case of paralytic illness in a person of any age when polio is suspected.</li><li>• Acute Flaccid Paralysis</li><li>• Acute onset</li><li>• &lt; 4 weeks</li><li>• &lt;15 years</li><li>• paralytic illness</li><li>• polio is suspected.</li><li>• Acute : rapid progression of from onset to maximum paralysis. Flaccid : loss of muscle tone , ‘ floppy’ as opposed to spastic or rigid. Paralysis : weakness , loss of voluntary movement. Differential diagnosis of AFP: Descending asymmetric flaccid LMN paralysis Guillain Barre Syndrome (Cytologico-albuminic dissociation). Transverse myelitis (Normal CSF, sensory loss +, bladder dysfunction +). Traumatic neuritis (any age, only one leg involved). Other Non-polio enteric viruses : Coxsackie-B , ECHO, Enterovirus type 70 and 71, Mumps.</li><li>• Acute : rapid progression of from onset to maximum paralysis.</li><li>• Acute</li><li>• rapid progression</li><li>• onset to maximum paralysis.</li><li>• Flaccid : loss of muscle tone , ‘ floppy’ as opposed to spastic or rigid.</li><li>• Flaccid</li><li>• loss of muscle tone</li><li>• floppy’</li><li>• spastic or rigid.</li><li>• Paralysis : weakness , loss of voluntary movement.</li><li>• Paralysis</li><li>• weakness</li><li>• loss of voluntary movement.</li><li>• Differential diagnosis of AFP: Descending asymmetric flaccid LMN paralysis Guillain Barre Syndrome (Cytologico-albuminic dissociation). Transverse myelitis (Normal CSF, sensory loss +, bladder dysfunction +). Traumatic neuritis (any age, only one leg involved). Other Non-polio enteric viruses : Coxsackie-B , ECHO, Enterovirus type 70 and 71, Mumps.</li><li>• Differential diagnosis</li><li>• Descending</li><li>• asymmetric flaccid LMN paralysis</li><li>• Guillain Barre Syndrome (Cytologico-albuminic dissociation). Transverse myelitis (Normal CSF, sensory loss +, bladder dysfunction +). Traumatic neuritis (any age, only one leg involved). Other Non-polio enteric viruses : Coxsackie-B , ECHO, Enterovirus type 70 and 71, Mumps.</li><li>• Guillain Barre Syndrome (Cytologico-albuminic dissociation).</li><li>• Guillain Barre Syndrome</li><li>• Transverse myelitis (Normal CSF, sensory loss +, bladder dysfunction +).</li><li>• Transverse myelitis</li><li>• Traumatic neuritis (any age, only one leg involved).</li><li>• Traumatic neuritis</li><li>• Other Non-polio enteric viruses : Coxsackie-B , ECHO, Enterovirus type 70 and 71, Mumps.</li><li>• Non-polio enteric viruses</li><li>• Coxsackie-B</li><li>• ECHO, Enterovirus type 70 and 71, Mumps.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A country's surveillance system needs to be sensitive enough to detect at least one case of AFP for every 100,000 children under 15 , even in the absence of polio .</li><li>➤ country's surveillance</li><li>➤ sensitive</li><li>➤ detect</li><li>➤ least</li><li>➤ one case of AFP</li><li>➤ 100,000 children</li><li>➤ 15</li><li>➤ absence</li><li>➤ polio</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 237)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 237)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a postgraduate teaching seminar focused on infectious diseases, a junior resident is presenting on the various strategies employed in the global initiative to eradicate polio. A significant portion of the presentation is dedicated to discussing 'the switch' – a pivotal moment in the history of polio eradication efforts. This strategy has played an essential role in the worldwide campaign to halt the transmission of all poliovirus types. The resident aims to explain the specifics of 'the switch' to the attendees, emphasizing its impact on the global fight against polio. In the global efforts to eradicate polio, what specifically does 'the switch' refer to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Replacement of tOPV with bOPV.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Replacement of OPV with IPV.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Replacement of tOPV with bOPV.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture23.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Replacement of tOPV with bOPV.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The first stage of OPV withdrawal involved a global synchronized cessation of tOPV use between 18th April and 1st May 2016 , replacing tOPV with bOPV containing only type 1 and 3 polioviruses and withdrawing OPV type 2 from all immunization activities called “ the Switch ”. Once switch is made, tOPV will no longer be used anywhere in the world and manufacturers will no longer supply tOPV.</li><li>• first stage of OPV</li><li>• withdrawal</li><li>• global synchronized cessation</li><li>• tOPV</li><li>• 18th April and 1st May 2016</li><li>• replacing tOPV with bOPV</li><li>• type 1 and 3 polioviruses</li><li>• withdrawing OPV type 2</li><li>• all immunization</li><li>• the Switch</li><li>• Once switch</li><li>• tOPV</li><li>• no</li><li>• used</li><li>• world</li><li>• manufacturers</li><li>• no</li><li>• longer</li><li>• tOPV.</li><li>• “SWITCH” - Replacing Trivalent OPV with Bivalent OPV.</li><li>• “SWITCH”</li><li>• Replacing Trivalent OPV</li><li>• Bivalent OPV.</li><li>• Concept: An important transition in the vaccines used to eradicate polio requires removal of all OPVs in the long‑term to eliminate rare risks of VAPP and cVDPV Strategy: Withdrawal of OPVs must occur in a globally synchronized manner, starting in April 2016 with a switch from trivalent OPV (tOPV) to bivalent OPV (bOPV), removing the type 2 component (OPV2) from immunization programs of countries. Preparation for the removal of OPVs also includes the introduction of at least one dose of IPV in routine immunization programs in all countries by end of 2015. Indian “Switch”: National Switch Date : April 25, 2016 National Validation Day : May 09, 2016 (India to be declared free of tOPV) Destroy all tOPV on/after 25th April 2016 IPV in 6 states (UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Assam): One Intramuscular dose given along with 3rd dose of DTP at 14 weeks IPV in other states (Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Puducherry): Fractional dose ( 0.1 mL instead of 0.5 mL) by intradermal route at 6 and 14 weeks from April, 2016 (Right deltoid upper arm)</li><li>• Concept: An important transition in the vaccines used to eradicate polio requires removal of all OPVs in the long‑term to eliminate rare risks of VAPP and cVDPV</li><li>• vaccines</li><li>• eradicate polio</li><li>• all OPVs</li><li>• long‑term</li><li>• eliminate rare risks</li><li>• VAPP</li><li>• cVDPV</li><li>• Strategy: Withdrawal of OPVs must occur in a globally synchronized manner, starting in April 2016 with a switch from trivalent OPV (tOPV) to bivalent OPV (bOPV), removing the type 2 component (OPV2) from immunization programs of countries. Preparation for the removal of OPVs also includes the introduction of at least one dose of IPV in routine immunization programs in all countries by end of 2015.</li><li>• Withdrawal of OPVs must occur in a globally synchronized manner, starting in April 2016 with a switch from trivalent OPV (tOPV) to bivalent OPV (bOPV), removing the type 2 component (OPV2) from immunization programs of countries. Preparation for the removal of OPVs also includes the introduction of at least one dose of IPV in routine immunization programs in all countries by end of 2015.</li><li>• Withdrawal of OPVs must occur in a globally synchronized manner, starting in April 2016 with a switch from trivalent OPV (tOPV) to bivalent OPV (bOPV), removing the type 2 component (OPV2) from immunization programs of countries.</li><li>• Withdrawal</li><li>• OPVs</li><li>• globally synchronized</li><li>• starting</li><li>• April 2016</li><li>• switch from trivalent OPV</li><li>• bivalent OPV</li><li>• removing</li><li>• type 2</li><li>• from immunization</li><li>• Preparation for the removal of OPVs also includes the introduction of at least one dose of IPV in routine immunization programs in all countries by end of 2015.</li><li>• removal of OPVs</li><li>• introduction</li><li>• one dose of IPV</li><li>• routine immunization programs</li><li>• all countries</li><li>• 2015.</li><li>• Indian “Switch”: National Switch Date : April 25, 2016 National Validation Day : May 09, 2016 (India to be declared free of tOPV) Destroy all tOPV on/after 25th April 2016 IPV in 6 states (UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Assam): One Intramuscular dose given along with 3rd dose of DTP at 14 weeks IPV in other states (Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Puducherry): Fractional dose ( 0.1 mL instead of 0.5 mL) by intradermal route at 6 and 14 weeks from April, 2016 (Right deltoid upper arm)</li><li>• National Switch Date : April 25, 2016 National Validation Day : May 09, 2016 (India to be declared free of tOPV) Destroy all tOPV on/after 25th April 2016 IPV in 6 states (UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Assam): One Intramuscular dose given along with 3rd dose of DTP at 14 weeks IPV in other states (Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Puducherry): Fractional dose ( 0.1 mL instead of 0.5 mL) by intradermal route at 6 and 14 weeks from April, 2016 (Right deltoid upper arm)</li><li>• National Switch Date : April 25, 2016</li><li>• National Switch Date</li><li>• April 25, 2016</li><li>• National Validation Day : May 09, 2016 (India to be declared free of tOPV)</li><li>• National Validation Day</li><li>• May 09, 2016</li><li>• Destroy all tOPV on/after 25th April 2016</li><li>• Destroy</li><li>• tOPV</li><li>• 25th April 2016</li><li>• IPV in 6 states (UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Assam): One Intramuscular dose given along with 3rd dose of DTP at 14 weeks</li><li>• IPV</li><li>• One Intramuscular</li><li>• with 3rd dose</li><li>• DTP at 14 weeks</li><li>• IPV in other states (Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Puducherry): Fractional dose ( 0.1 mL instead of 0.5 mL) by intradermal route at 6 and 14 weeks from April, 2016 (Right deltoid upper arm)</li><li>• IPV</li><li>• Fractional dose</li><li>• 0.1 mL</li><li>• by intradermal</li><li>• at 6 and 14 weeks</li><li>• April, 2016</li><li>• (Right deltoid upper arm)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A critical step in eradication of Polio , is ‘the switch’ which refers to - Replacement of tOPV with bOPV.</li><li>➤ eradication of Polio</li><li>➤ ‘the switch’</li><li>➤ Replacement of tOPV</li><li>➤ bOPV.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 236)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 236)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an immunization clinic, a junior resident in community medicine is preparing for a training session with interns. The focus is on educating them about the National Immunisation Schedule, specifically the correct administration routes and techniques for various vaccines. An important part of this session is the fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV), a key vaccine in polio eradication efforts. The resident needs to ensure that the interns understand the specific route of administration for fIPV as per the National Immunisation Schedule, as this knowledge is crucial for effective vaccine delivery and patient care. According to the NIS, what is the recommended route of administration for fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intramuscular", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": " Intradermal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Subcutaneous", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Intradermal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-124535.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-125017.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Intradermal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• IPV Vs Fractionated IPV (fIPV)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fractionated inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV) is administered intradermally according to the National Immunisation Schedule.</li><li>➤ Fractionated inactivated Polio Vaccine</li><li>➤ intradermally</li><li>➤ National Immunisation Schedule.</li><li>➤ NEW National Immunization Schedule (NIS) 2023-24</li><li>➤ Note - Age Limits for Delayed Immunization in NIS, India for fIPV is 1 year.</li><li>➤ Age Limits</li><li>➤ Delayed Immunization</li><li>➤ NIS, India</li><li>➤ fIPV is 1 year.</li><li>➤ fIPV is fractionated intradermal at 6 weeks, 14 weeks &amp; 9 months ( 3 doses ).</li><li>➤ fIPV</li><li>➤ fractionated intradermal</li><li>➤ 6 weeks, 14 weeks &amp; 9 months</li><li>➤ 3 doses</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 237)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 237)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident specializing in infectious diseases is preparing a presentation on cholera, focusing on the differences between the El Tor and classical biotypes of Vibrio cholerae. Understanding these differences is important for epidemiology, clinical presentation, and public health response. The resident aims to clarify common misconceptions and highlight key characteristics that are similar or different between these two biotypes. Which of the following characteristics is NOT a difference between cases of cholera caused by the El Tor biotype and the classical biotype of Vibrio cholerae?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Classical signs of cholera is absent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Higher rates of carriers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More number of secondary cases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chick erythrocyte agglutination is positive", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. More number of secondary cases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. More number of secondary cases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In El tor type:</li><li>• El tor</li><li>• Higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic infections. Classical picture of cholera may not be seen often. Fewer secondary cases in affected families. Chronic carriers are common. More resistant than classical cholera.</li><li>• Higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic infections.</li><li>• Higher incidence</li><li>• mild and asymptomatic infections.</li><li>• Classical picture of cholera may not be seen often.</li><li>• Classical</li><li>• of cholera</li><li>• not</li><li>• Fewer secondary cases in affected families.</li><li>• Fewer</li><li>• affected families.</li><li>• Chronic carriers are common.</li><li>• Chronic carriers</li><li>• common.</li><li>• More resistant than classical cholera.</li><li>• More resistant</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to Cholera -</li><li>• Cholera is an acute diarrhoel disease caused by Vibrio cholera. Vibrio cholerae : ‘ Gram-negative bacterium’ that produces cholera toxin (enterotoxin), which act on c-AMP system of mucosal cells of epithelium lining of the small intestine (to cause massive diarrhea - Rice-watery diarrhoea ) Classical biotype El Tor biotype [Serotypes: Ogawa (Earlier MC in India ), Inaba and Hikojima ] Recently El Tor Hybrid subtype has become MC in India Incubation period: 1–2 days (Few hours–5 days) Reservoir: Human beings only Essentials for treatment of cholera : Water and electrolyte replacement ( ORS ) Father of Public Health: Cholera (although some regard John Snow as the same) Most susceptible blood group to cholera : Blood group O (&gt;B &gt; A &gt; AB) History of cholera : – John Snow (1813-1858): Found the link between cholera and contaminated drinking water (1854 using Spot maps) Robert Koch identified V. cholerae with a microscope as the bacillus causing the disease ( 1885 ). Cholera morbus : Used in 19th and early 20th centuries for both non-epidemic cholera and other gastrointestinal diseases (sometimes epidemic) that resembled cholera.</li><li>• Cholera is an acute diarrhoel disease caused by Vibrio cholera.</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• acute diarrhoel disease</li><li>• Vibrio cholera.</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae : ‘ Gram-negative bacterium’ that produces cholera toxin (enterotoxin), which act on c-AMP system of mucosal cells of epithelium lining of the small intestine (to cause massive diarrhea - Rice-watery diarrhoea ) Classical biotype El Tor biotype [Serotypes: Ogawa (Earlier MC in India ), Inaba and Hikojima ] Recently El Tor Hybrid subtype has become MC in India</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae</li><li>• Gram-negative bacterium’</li><li>• cholera toxin</li><li>• c-AMP system</li><li>• mucosal cells</li><li>• small intestine</li><li>• massive diarrhea -</li><li>• Rice-watery diarrhoea</li><li>• Classical biotype El Tor biotype [Serotypes: Ogawa (Earlier MC in India ), Inaba and Hikojima ] Recently El Tor Hybrid subtype has become MC in India</li><li>• Classical biotype</li><li>• Classical biotype</li><li>• El Tor biotype [Serotypes: Ogawa (Earlier MC in India ), Inaba and Hikojima ]</li><li>• El Tor biotype</li><li>• Ogawa</li><li>• India</li><li>• Inaba</li><li>• Hikojima</li><li>• Recently El Tor Hybrid subtype has become MC in India</li><li>• El Tor Hybrid</li><li>• MC in India</li><li>• Incubation period: 1–2 days (Few hours–5 days)</li><li>• 1–2 days</li><li>• Reservoir: Human beings only</li><li>• Human beings only</li><li>• Essentials for treatment of cholera : Water and electrolyte replacement ( ORS )</li><li>• treatment of cholera</li><li>• Water and electrolyte replacement</li><li>• ORS</li><li>• Father of Public Health: Cholera (although some regard John Snow as the same)</li><li>• Father of Public Health: Cholera</li><li>• Most susceptible blood group to cholera : Blood group O (&gt;B &gt; A &gt; AB)</li><li>• blood group to cholera</li><li>• Blood group O</li><li>• History of cholera : – John Snow (1813-1858): Found the link between cholera and contaminated drinking water (1854 using Spot maps)</li><li>• History of cholera</li><li>• John Snow</li><li>• link</li><li>• cholera and contaminated drinking water</li><li>• Robert Koch identified V. cholerae with a microscope as the bacillus causing the disease ( 1885 ).</li><li>• Robert Koch</li><li>• V. cholerae</li><li>• microscope</li><li>• bacillus</li><li>• disease</li><li>• 1885</li><li>• Cholera morbus : Used in 19th and early 20th centuries for both non-epidemic cholera and other gastrointestinal diseases (sometimes epidemic) that resembled cholera.</li><li>• Cholera morbus</li><li>• 19th</li><li>• early 20th centuries</li><li>• non-epidemic cholera</li><li>• gastrointestinal diseases</li><li>• resembled cholera.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important Pointers related to El tor type Cholera</li><li>➤ Higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic infections. Classical picture of cholera may not be seen often. Fewer secondary cases in affected families . Chronic carriers are common. More resistant than classical cholera.</li><li>➤ Higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic infections.</li><li>➤ Higher incidence</li><li>➤ mild and asymptomatic infections.</li><li>➤ Classical picture of cholera may not be seen often.</li><li>➤ Classical picture of cholera</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Fewer secondary cases in affected families .</li><li>➤ Fewer secondary cases</li><li>➤ affected families</li><li>➤ Chronic carriers are common.</li><li>➤ Chronic carriers</li><li>➤ common.</li><li>➤ More resistant than classical cholera.</li><li>➤ More resistant</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is working on a cholera outbreak response in a region. One of the key aspects of managing the outbreak is determining when the area can be declared free of cholera. This involves understanding the criteria based on the time elapsed since the last confirmed case. The officer is reviewing these criteria to ensure that the declaration of cholera freedom in the area is based on sound epidemiological principles and to plan for post-outbreak surveillance. When can an area be declared free of cholera after the death or isolation of the last confirmed case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "28 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 10 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-114333.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 10 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An area is declared free of cholera when twice the incubation period (i.e., 10 days ) has elapsed since the death, recovery or isolation of the last case</li><li>• An area</li><li>• free of cholera</li><li>• twice</li><li>• incubation period</li><li>• 10 days</li><li>• elapsed</li><li>• death, recovery or isolation</li><li>• last case</li><li>• Incubation period of Cholera - 1–2 days (Few hours–5 days)</li><li>• Incubation period</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• 1–2 days</li><li>• Guidelines for Cholera Control (WHO)</li><li>• Guidelines for Cholera Control (WHO)</li><li>• Verification of diagnosis : Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient It is ‘not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’ Notification: Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally Under International Health Regulations, Cholera is notifiable to WHO by national govt within 24 hours ( no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly) An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case. Early case finding: through aggressive case search Establishment of treatment centres Rehydration therapy: through ORS Adjuncts to therapy: Only antibiotics may be used when vomiting stops</li><li>• Verification of diagnosis : Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient It is ‘not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’</li><li>• Verification of diagnosis</li><li>• Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient It is ‘not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’</li><li>• Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools</li><li>• few patients</li><li>• sufficient</li><li>• It is ‘not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’</li><li>• ‘not</li><li>• culture stools</li><li>• all cases or contacts’</li><li>• Notification: Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally Under International Health Regulations, Cholera is notifiable to WHO by national govt within 24 hours ( no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly) An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• Notification:</li><li>• Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally Under International Health Regulations, Cholera is notifiable to WHO by national govt within 24 hours ( no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly) An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• locally, nationally and internationally</li><li>• Under International Health Regulations, Cholera is notifiable to WHO by national govt within 24 hours ( no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly)</li><li>• International Health Regulations, Cholera</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• national govt</li><li>• 24 hours</li><li>• no. of cases &amp; deaths</li><li>• daily and weekly)</li><li>• An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• area</li><li>• declared free of Cholera</li><li>• twice</li><li>• IP</li><li>• elapsed since last case.</li><li>• Early case finding: through aggressive case search</li><li>• Early case</li><li>• aggressive case</li><li>• Establishment of treatment centres</li><li>• Establishment</li><li>• treatment centres</li><li>• Rehydration therapy: through ORS</li><li>• Rehydration</li><li>• ORS</li><li>• Adjuncts to therapy: Only antibiotics may be used when vomiting stops</li><li>• Adjuncts</li><li>• antibiotics</li><li>• vomiting stops</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations : General sanitation measures, epidemiological studies Sanitation measures: Water control, excreta disposal, food sanitation, disinfection Chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community . Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline To prevent one case of cholera, 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis. Vaccination Health education : Most effective prophylactic measure</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations : General sanitation measures, epidemiological studies</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations</li><li>• sanitation</li><li>• Sanitation measures: Water control, excreta disposal, food sanitation, disinfection</li><li>• Water control, excreta disposal, food sanitation, disinfection</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community . Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline To prevent one case of cholera, 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>• Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community . Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline To prevent one case of cholera, 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community .</li><li>• Mass</li><li>• not advised</li><li>• total community</li><li>• household contacts</li><li>• closed community</li><li>• Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline</li><li>• Drug of choice</li><li>• Tetracycline</li><li>• To prevent one case of cholera, 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• To prevent</li><li>• 10,000</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• Vaccination</li><li>• Vaccination</li><li>• Health education : Most effective prophylactic measure</li><li>• Health education</li><li>• Most effective</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case (i.e . 10 days )</li><li>➤ declared free of Cholera</li><li>➤ twice</li><li>➤ IP</li><li>➤ elapsed since last</li><li>➤ case</li><li>➤ . 10 days</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 270)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 270)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An epidemiologist working with a global health organization is developing a training module on outbreak response strategies for various infectious diseases. One of the diseases being focused on is cholera, known for its potential to cause rapid and severe outbreaks, especially in areas with poor water and sanitation facilities. The training module aims to outline the key steps and interventions necessary for an effective response to a cholera outbreak. However, it is also important to clarify common misconceptions about what should not be included in these response strategies. The epidemiologist is preparing a question to test the trainees' understanding of these concepts. In the context of an effective response strategy for a cholera outbreak, which of the following steps is NOT typically recommended?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Food safety", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunisation with whole cell killed parenteral vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Proper excreta disposal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Super chlorination of water", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Immunisation with whole cell killed parenteral vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-114613.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Immunisation with whole cell killed parenteral vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mass vaccination is not recommended in an outbreak of cholera.</li><li>• Mass vaccination</li><li>• not</li><li>• outbreak of cholera.</li><li>• Guidelines for Cholera Control (WHO):</li><li>• Cholera Control (WHO):</li><li>• Verification of diagnosis: Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient. It is ‘ not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’. Notification: Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Under International Health Regulations , Cholera is notifiable to WHO by National Govt within 24 hours (no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly). An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case. Early case finding: through aggressive case search Establishment of treatment centres Rehydration therapy: through ORS Adjuncts to therapy: Only antibiotics may be used when vomiting stops.</li><li>• Verification of diagnosis: Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient. It is ‘ not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’.</li><li>• Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient. It is ‘ not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’.</li><li>• Identifying Vibrio cholerae 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient.</li><li>• Vibrio cholerae 01</li><li>• stools</li><li>• few patients</li><li>• It is ‘ not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts’.</li><li>• not necessary</li><li>• culture</li><li>• all cases or contacts’.</li><li>• Notification: Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Under International Health Regulations , Cholera is notifiable to WHO by National Govt within 24 hours (no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly). An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• Notification:</li><li>• Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Under International Health Regulations , Cholera is notifiable to WHO by National Govt within 24 hours (no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly). An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally.</li><li>• Cholera is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally.</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• disease locally, nationally and internationally.</li><li>• Under International Health Regulations , Cholera is notifiable to WHO by National Govt within 24 hours (no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly).</li><li>• Under International Health Regulations , Cholera is notifiable to WHO by National Govt within 24 hours (no. of cases &amp; deaths to be reported daily and weekly).</li><li>• International Health Regulations</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• National Govt</li><li>• 24 hours</li><li>• An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• An area is declared free of Cholera when twice the IP has elapsed since last case.</li><li>• free of Cholera</li><li>• twice</li><li>• IP</li><li>• elapsed</li><li>• last case.</li><li>• Early case finding: through aggressive case search</li><li>• Establishment of treatment centres</li><li>• Rehydration therapy: through ORS</li><li>• ORS</li><li>• Adjuncts to therapy: Only antibiotics may be used when vomiting stops.</li><li>• antibiotics</li><li>• vomiting stops.</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations : General sanitation measures, epidemiological studies . Sanitation measures: Water control, excreta disposal , food sanitation, disinfection Chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community. Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline To prevent one case of cholera , 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis. Health education : most effective prophylactic measure Vaccination - Mass vaccination is not recommended</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations : General sanitation measures, epidemiological studies .</li><li>• Epidemiological investigations</li><li>• General sanitation</li><li>• epidemiological studies</li><li>• Sanitation measures: Water control, excreta disposal , food sanitation, disinfection Chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community. Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline</li><li>• Sanitation</li><li>• Water control, excreta disposal</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis: Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community. Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>• Chemoprophylaxis:</li><li>• Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised for total community ; is only advisable for household contacts or a closed community.</li><li>• not advised</li><li>• total community</li><li>• household contacts</li><li>• closed community.</li><li>• Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis: Tetracycline</li><li>• Drug of choice</li><li>• Tetracycline</li><li>• To prevent one case of cholera , 10,000 persons need to be given chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• prevent one case of cholera</li><li>• 10,000 persons</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis.</li><li>• Health education : most effective prophylactic measure</li><li>• Health education</li><li>• most effective</li><li>• Vaccination - Mass vaccination is not recommended</li><li>• Mass vaccination</li><li>• not</li><li>• CHOLERA ORAL VACCINES</li><li>• Dukoral * (WC-rBS): Monovalent , V cholera O1 plus Recombinant toxin B subunit Sanchol : Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit, No buffer required mORCVAX : Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit, No buffer required CVD103-HgR : Live attenuated, single dose , not produced now</li><li>• Dukoral * (WC-rBS): Monovalent , V cholera O1 plus Recombinant toxin B subunit</li><li>• Dukoral</li><li>• Monovalent</li><li>• V cholera O1</li><li>• toxin B</li><li>• Sanchol : Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit, No buffer required</li><li>• Sanchol</li><li>• Bivalent,</li><li>• Serogroups O1 &amp; O139</li><li>• mORCVAX : Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit, No buffer required</li><li>• mORCVAX</li><li>• Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139</li><li>• CVD103-HgR : Live attenuated, single dose , not produced now</li><li>• CVD103-HgR</li><li>• Live attenuated, single dose</li><li>• not</li><li>• * Dukoral ® is mainly used for travellers . Two doses of Dukoral® provide protection against cholera for 2 years.</li><li>• Dukoral</li><li>• travellers</li><li>• Two doses</li><li>• protection</li><li>• cholera</li><li>• for 2 years.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Steps taken during an outbreak of cholera - Verification of diagnosis , Notification , early case finding, treatment &amp; chemoprophylaxis for household contacts, sanitation measures and health education.</li><li>➤ Steps</li><li>➤ outbreak of cholera</li><li>➤ Verification</li><li>➤ diagnosis</li><li>➤ Notification</li><li>➤ early case</li><li>➤ treatment &amp; chemoprophylaxis</li><li>➤ household contacts,</li><li>➤ sanitation</li><li>➤ health education.</li><li>➤ Mass vaccination is not recommended.</li><li>➤ Mass vaccination</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nurse educator is conducting a training session for a group of nursing students who are about to start their clinical rotations in a travel medicine clinic. The focus of the session is on vaccines, particularly those administered orally, as travellers often seek advice on preventive measures against diseases like cholera. The educator wants to ensure that the students can correctly identify which oral vaccines are specifically for cholera and which are not, as this knowledge is crucial for providing accurate travel health advice. In the context of travel medicine, which of the following oral vaccines is NOT used for the prevention of cholera?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dukoral", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Euvichol", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lakichol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sanchol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lakichol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lakichol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CHOLERA ORAL VACCINES</li><li>• CHOLERA ORAL VACCINES</li><li>• Option A. Dukoral (WC-rBS): Monovalent, V cholera O1 plus Recombinant toxin B subunit. Dukoral® is mainly used for travellers . Two doses of Dukoral ® provide protection against cholera for 2 years .</li><li>• Option A. Dukoral (WC-rBS):</li><li>• Monovalent, V cholera O1 plus</li><li>• Recombinant toxin B subunit.</li><li>• travellers</li><li>• Two doses of Dukoral</li><li>• protection</li><li>• cholera for 2 years</li><li>• Option B. Euvichol and Option D. Sanchol: Bivalent , Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit , No buffer required Shanchol™ and Euvichol® are essentially the same vaccine produced by two different manufacturers . They do not require a buffer solution for administration. They are given to all individuals over the age of one year . Shanchol™ and Euvichol ® provide protection against cholera for 3 years , while a single dose provides short term protection . Shanchol™ and Euvichol® are the vaccines currently available for mass vaccination campaigns through the Global OCV Stockpile , which is supported by Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance.</li><li>• Option B. Euvichol and Option D. Sanchol: Bivalent</li><li>• Serogroups O1 &amp; O139</li><li>• No toxin B subunit</li><li>• No buffer</li><li>• same vaccine</li><li>• two different manufacturers</li><li>• do not</li><li>• buffer solution</li><li>• administration.</li><li>• all individuals</li><li>• over</li><li>• one year</li><li>• Shanchol™ and Euvichol ®</li><li>• cholera</li><li>• 3 years</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• short term</li><li>• protection</li><li>• mass vaccination</li><li>• Global OCV Stockpile</li><li>• supported</li><li>• Gavi,</li><li>• Other Vaccines:</li><li>• Other Vaccines:</li><li>• Morcvax : Bivalent, Serogroups O1 &amp; O139 , No toxin B subunit , No buffer required</li><li>• Morcvax</li><li>• Bivalent,</li><li>• O1 &amp; O139</li><li>• No toxin B subunit</li><li>• No buffer</li><li>• CVD103-HgR : Live attenuated, single dose , NOT produced now</li><li>• CVD103-HgR</li><li>• Live attenuated, single dose</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Three types of oral cholera vaccines are available: (A) Dukoral (WC-rBS). (D) Sanchol and mORCVAX and (B) Euvichol. The live attenuated single-dose vaccine (CVD103-HgR) is no longer produced.</li><li>➤ oral cholera vaccines</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 267)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 267)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical researcher is reviewing diagnostic protocols for various bacterial infections. One of the conditions under discussion is typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella typhi. Accurate and timely diagnosis is crucial for the effective management of typhoid fever. The researcher is learning about the various methods used to diagnose this condition and is asked to identify the mainstay of diagnosis for typhoid fever. What is the mainstay of diagnosis for typhoid fever?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blood culture", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gastric aspirate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stool culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Widal test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Blood culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-124354.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Blood culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Gastric aspirate: Not used due to low yield</li><li>• Option B. Gastric aspirate:</li><li>• Option C. Stool Culture : Stool cultures can be used for the diagnosis of typhoid fever, particularly in the later stages (3rd week) of the disease.</li><li>• Option C. Stool Culture</li><li>• diagnosis</li><li>• typhoid fever,</li><li>• later stages (3rd week)</li><li>• Option D. Widal test: The Widal test, which measures agglutinating antibody levels against Salmonella antigens , It has Moderate sensitivity &amp; specificity . It is used in settings where blood culture facilities are not available.</li><li>• Option D. Widal test:</li><li>• agglutinating antibody levels</li><li>• Salmonella antigens</li><li>• Moderate sensitivity &amp; specificity</li><li>• blood culture</li><li>• not</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mainstay of diagnosis of Typhoid fever - Blood Culture</li><li>➤ Laboratory Diagnosis: ‘BASU’ Mnemonic</li><li>➤ ‘BASU’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 273)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 273)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a session on vaccine-preventable diseases in a medical school, a professor is discussing various vaccines used for the prevention of typhoid fever. Typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella typhi, can be effectively prevented with vaccination. However, not all types of vaccines are used for this purpose. The professor presents a question to the medical students to identify which of the listed vaccines is not typically used for the prevention of typhoid fever. Which of the following vaccines is NOT used for the prevention of typhoid fever?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat killed whole cell vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Live oral vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Typhoid conjugate vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Heat killed whole cell vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-123808.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Heat killed whole cell vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Live Oral Vaccine : Typhoral Ty21a vaccine . Contains &gt;109 viable organism of attenuated S. typhi . Schedule: One capsule each on days 1, 3, 5 ( booster of 3 doses , once every 3 years ).</li><li>• Option B. Live Oral Vaccine</li><li>• Typhoral Ty21a vaccine</li><li>• &gt;109</li><li>• attenuated S. typhi</li><li>• days 1, 3, 5</li><li>• booster</li><li>• 3 doses</li><li>• once</li><li>• 3 years</li><li>• Option C. Typhoid conjugate vaccine - TYPHIM Vi Vaccine. Vi- Polysaccharide containing single dose I/m or subcutaneous. Not given in age &lt; 2 years.</li><li>• Option C. Typhoid conjugate vaccine</li><li>• TYPHIM Vi</li><li>• Vi- Polysaccharide</li><li>• single</li><li>• I/m or subcutaneous.</li><li>• Not</li><li>• &lt; 2 years.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Two safe and effective vaccines are now licensed and available against typhoid - Vi polysaccharide vaccine and Ty21a vaccine</li><li>➤ Two safe and effective</li><li>➤ licensed</li><li>➤ available</li><li>➤ typhoid - Vi polysaccharide vaccine</li><li>➤ Ty21a vaccine</li><li>➤ Immunization for Typhoid Fever -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 275)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 275)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An infectious disease specialist is giving a lecture to medical students about various vaccination strategies for preventing globally prevalent diseases. The discussion includes vaccines that are not routinely administered in all countries but are crucial for specific diseases in endemic areas or for travelers. A focus of the lecture is on the Ty21a vaccine for typhoid fever. The specialist aims to test the students' understanding of the unique attributes of the Ty21a vaccine, particularly how it differs from other common vaccines in terms of administration and scheduling. In a lecture about vaccination strategies against typhoid fever, which point should the infectious disease specialist emphasize to highlight a unique characteristic of the Ty21a vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Is orally administered.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Given for individuals aged more than 2 years.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 dose regimen is recommended on alternate days.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Protective immunity is achieved 7 days after last dose.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Given for individuals aged more than 2 years.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-155851.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Given for individuals aged more than 2 years.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The vaccine is licensed for use in individual aged &gt; 5 years.</li><li>• licensed</li><li>• individual aged &gt; 5 years.</li><li>• Other 3 options are correct</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Ty21a vaccine:</li><li>• Ty21a vaccine:</li><li>• Orally administered (Option A) live attenuated , lyophilized vaccine for Typhoid. Contains &gt;10 9 viable organism of attenuated S. typhi.</li><li>• Orally administered (Option A)</li><li>• live attenuated</li><li>• lyophilized</li><li>• &gt;10 9 viable organism</li><li>• attenuated S. typhi.</li><li>• The capsules are licensed for use in individuals aged &gt;5 years.</li><li>• capsules</li><li>• licensed</li><li>• aged &gt;5 years.</li><li>• The vaccine is administered every other day; on 1, 3, and 5th day ; a 3-dose regimen is recommended . (Option C)</li><li>• vaccine</li><li>• administered</li><li>• 1, 3, and 5th day</li><li>• 3-dose</li><li>• regimen</li><li>• . (Option C)</li><li>• With the 3-dose regimen , protective immunity is achieved 7 days after the last dose . (Option D)</li><li>• 3-dose regimen</li><li>• immunity</li><li>• 7 days after</li><li>• last dose</li><li>• (Option D)</li><li>• The recommendation is to repeat this series every 3 years for people living in endemic areas , and every year for individuals travelling ; from non-endemic to endemic countries .</li><li>• recommendation</li><li>• 3 years</li><li>• endemic areas</li><li>• every year</li><li>• individuals travelling</li><li>• non-endemic</li><li>• endemic countries</li><li>• The Ty21a vaccine may be given simultaneously with other vaccines , including live vaccines against polio, cholera, and yellow fever , or the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) combination.</li><li>• Ty21a vaccine</li><li>• simultaneously</li><li>• other vaccines</li><li>• live vaccines</li><li>• polio, cholera, and yellow fever</li><li>• measles, mumps</li><li>• rubella (MMR)</li><li>• Note - Stop Proguanil and antibacterial drugs 3 days before and until 3 days later of administration.</li><li>• Stop Proguanil</li><li>• antibacterial drugs 3 days before</li><li>• 3 days</li><li>• later of administration.</li><li>• Immunization for Typhoid Fever</li><li>• Immunization for Typhoid Fever</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ty21a vaccine - Orally administered, live attenuated, lyophilized vaccine , for individuals aged &gt;5 years , 3-dose regimen (administered every other day</li><li>➤ Ty21a vaccine</li><li>➤ Orally</li><li>➤ live attenuated, lyophilized vaccine</li><li>➤ &gt;5 years</li><li>➤ 3-dose regimen</li><li>➤ on 1, 3, and 5th day ), protective immunity is achieved 7 days after the last dose .</li><li>➤ 1, 3, and 5th day</li><li>➤ protective immunity</li><li>➤ 7 days after the last dose</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 275)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 275)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of individuals presented to a clinic with symptoms of abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and vomiting approximately 2 hours after consuming a milkshake from a local eatery. As a medical resident in gastroenterology, you are tasked with determining the most likely etiological agent responsible for these symptoms. Given the rapid onset of symptoms and the nature of the consumed product, you consider various foodborne pathogens that could be involved. Based on the symptoms and their rapid onset following the consumption of a milkshake, what is the most likely etiological agent responsible for the illness in these individuals?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Campylobacter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Salmonella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Staphylococcus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-123108_XcxG8VU.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-123453.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Staphylococcus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Campylobacter: An infection caused by gram negative bacteria usually from contaminated food and water. Infections are often associated with international travel, undercooked poultry, unpasteurized milk, untreated water, and contact with farm animals . It causes diarrhea which may be bloody, cramping, abdominal pain, and fever within two to five days after exposure to the bacteria . Nausea (a feeling of sickness in the stomach) and vomiting may also occur. The illness typically lasts about one week.</li><li>• Option A. Campylobacter:</li><li>• gram negative bacteria</li><li>• contaminated food and water.</li><li>• undercooked poultry, unpasteurized milk, untreated</li><li>• water, and contact</li><li>• farm animals</li><li>• diarrhea</li><li>• bloody,</li><li>• cramping, abdominal pain, and fever</li><li>• two to five days</li><li>• . Nausea</li><li>• vomiting</li><li>• lasts</li><li>• one week.</li><li>• Option B. Clostridium 2 types: Botulism food poisoning by Clostridium botulinum type A, B, E ; IP 12–36 hours ; food poisoning is due to Intra-dietetic toxins ; prominent symptoms are Dysphagia, Diplopia and Dysarthria (GIT SYMPOTOMS ARE SLIGHT).</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Clostridium 2 types: Botulism food poisoning</li><li>• Clostridium botulinum</li><li>• A, B, E</li><li>• IP 12–36 hours</li><li>• Intra-dietetic</li><li>• toxins</li><li>• Dysphagia, Diplopia and Dysarthria</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens food poisoning by Clostridium perfringens (welchii); IP 6–24 hours , found on raw meat and poultry , in the soil , excreta . Symptoms are watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps . Rapid recovery with no deaths.</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens food poisoning</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens</li><li>• IP 6–24 hours</li><li>• raw meat and poultry</li><li>• soil</li><li>• excreta</li><li>• watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps</li><li>• Rapid recovery</li><li>• no deaths.</li><li>• Option C. Salmonella: Salmonella bacteria spread by improper handling and cooking of food . Occurs by eating contaminated food such as undercooked pork and poultry meat, dairy products made from unpasteurized milk , chocolate or raw fruit and vegetables . IP 12-24 hr . Some people with salmonella infection have no symptoms . Most people develop diarrhea , fever and stomach (abdominal) cramps within 12 to 72 hours after exposure. Most healthy people recover within a few days to a week without specific treatment.</li><li>• Option C. Salmonella:</li><li>• improper handling</li><li>• cooking of food</li><li>• eating contaminated food</li><li>• undercooked pork</li><li>• poultry meat, dairy products</li><li>• unpasteurized milk</li><li>• chocolate</li><li>• raw fruit and vegetables</li><li>• 12-24 hr</li><li>• Some people</li><li>• no symptoms</li><li>• develop diarrhea</li><li>• fever and stomach</li><li>• cramps</li><li>• 12 to 72 hours</li><li>• healthy</li><li>• recover within a few days</li><li>• week</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incubation period of food poisoning:</li><li>➤ Incubation period of food poisoning:</li><li>➤ Some food poisoning causing organisms</li><li>➤ Some food poisoning causing organisms</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 276)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 276)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of an epidemiology class focusing on foodborne illnesses, medical students are learning about various pathogens and their associated incubation periods. Understanding these incubation periods is crucial for diagnosing foodborne illnesses and identifying the likely causative agents. The professor has provided a list of common foodborne pathogens and a separate list of their typical incubation periods. The students are asked to match each pathogen with its corresponding incubation period. Task: Match the following pathogens with their respective incubation periods for food poisoning.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i- c, ii- b, iii- a, iv-d", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i- c, ii- a, iii- b, iv-d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv-c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i- d, ii- a, iii- b, iv-c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. i- c, ii- b, iii- a, iv-d", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-120803.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-123108.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. i- c, ii- b, iii- a, iv-d</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Incubation Period of Food Poisonings</li><li>• Some Important Pointers on Food Poisoning -</li><li>• MC food poisoning - Staphylococcus Food poisoning in less than 6 hours - Staphylococcal FP Prominent symptoms in Botulism FP: Dysphagia, Diplopia, Dysarthria (GIT sympotoms are slight) Food poisoning is an example of: Common source, single exposure epidemic.</li><li>• MC food poisoning - Staphylococcus</li><li>• MC food poisoning</li><li>• Staphylococcus</li><li>• Food poisoning in less than 6 hours - Staphylococcal FP</li><li>• less than 6 hours</li><li>• Staphylococcal FP</li><li>• Prominent symptoms in Botulism FP: Dysphagia, Diplopia, Dysarthria (GIT sympotoms are slight)</li><li>• Botulism FP:</li><li>• Dysphagia, Diplopia, Dysarthria</li><li>• Food poisoning is an example of: Common source, single exposure epidemic.</li><li>• Food poisoning</li><li>• Common source, single exposure epidemic.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incubation period of food poisoning : Salmonella 12–24 hours , Staphylococcal 1–6 hours, Botulism 12–36 hours, Cl. perfirengens 6–24 hours, B. cereus (emetic form) 1–6 hours , B. cereus (diarrhoel form) 12–24 hours</li><li>➤ Incubation period</li><li>➤ food poisoning</li><li>➤ Salmonella 12–24 hours</li><li>➤ Staphylococcal 1–6 hours, Botulism 12–36 hours, Cl. perfirengens 6–24 hours, B. cereus</li><li>➤ 1–6 hours</li><li>➤ B. cereus</li><li>➤ 12–24 hours</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 277)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 277)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is participating in an epidemiology training focused on the investigation of food poisoning outbreaks. Understanding the investigative process is crucial for identifying the source of the outbreak, implementing control measures, and preventing future occurrences. The training covers various aspects of outbreak investigation, including the identification of the pathogen, interviewing affected individuals, and inspecting food handling facilities. The resident is asked to identify a true statement regarding the investigation of a food poisoning outbreak. Which of the following statements is true regarding the investigation of a food poisoning outbreak?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Both affected and not affected persons are interviewed", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hospitalized persons are interviewed", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only affected persons are interviewed", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Only not affected persons are interviewed", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Both affected and not affected persons are interviewed", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Both affected and not affected persons are interviewed</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Getting food history about suspected meal in a food poisoning outbreak:</li><li>• food history</li><li>• suspected meal in a food poisoning</li><li>• List of each and every dish which was served during that meal is made. Each and every person who attended the meal is interviewed. History of consumption of each and every food item that was served during that meal is noted. Information is recorded.</li><li>• List of each and every dish which was served during that meal is made.</li><li>• List of each and every dish</li><li>• served</li><li>• meal</li><li>• made.</li><li>• Each and every person who attended the meal is interviewed.</li><li>• Each</li><li>• every person</li><li>• attended the meal</li><li>• interviewed.</li><li>• History of consumption of each and every food item that was served during that meal is noted.</li><li>• History of consumption</li><li>• food item</li><li>• served</li><li>• meal is noted.</li><li>• Information is recorded.</li><li>• Information</li><li>• recorded.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ During the Investigation of food poisoning outbreak - Both affected and not affected persons must be interviewed</li><li>➤ During the Investigation</li><li>➤ food poisoning outbreak</li><li>➤ Both affected and not affected</li><li>➤ must</li><li>➤ interviewed</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 672)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 672)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health policy analyst is evaluating various national health initiatives to provide recommendations for resource allocation. One of the programs under review is the National Viral Hepatitis Control Program, which aims to address the public health challenge of viral hepatitis. The analyst is assessing the program's objectives to determine how well they align with broader public health goals. Understanding the specific aims of the program is crucial for this evaluation, and the analyst needs to identify a goal that is not a part of the program’s objectives. In the context of evaluating the National Viral Hepatitis Control Program, which of the following is NOT an objective of the program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "To eliminate viral hepatitis as a public health problem.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To ensure universal access to hepatitis C vaccines", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "To provide accessible and affordable treatment for hepatitis B and C.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To promote awareness and screening for viral hepatitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. To ensure universal access to hepatitis C vaccines", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://nvhcp.mohfw.gov.in/assets/images/mainlogo.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. To ensure universal access to hepatitis C vaccines</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. To eliminate viral hepatitis as a public health problem: This is typically a primary objective of national viral hepatitis programs , aiming to reduce the incidence and impact of the disease to non-threatening levels .</li><li>• Option A. To eliminate viral hepatitis as a public health problem:</li><li>• primary objective of national viral hepatitis programs</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• incidence and impact</li><li>• disease</li><li>• non-threatening levels</li><li>• Option C. To provide accessible and affordable treatment for hepatitis B and C : One of the key objectives of program is to ensure that treatment for Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C is accessible and affordable , aiming to ending Viral Hepatitis by 2030 (SDG 3.3).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• To provide accessible and affordable treatment for hepatitis B and C</li><li>• treatment</li><li>• Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C</li><li>• accessible and affordable</li><li>• ending Viral Hepatitis</li><li>• 2030 (SDG 3.3).</li><li>• Option D. To promote awareness and screening for viral hepatitis: Raising awareness and promoting screening are common objectives, as early detection and public knowledge are crucial for control and prevention.</li><li>• Option D. To promote awareness and screening for viral hepatitis:</li><li>• Raising awareness</li><li>• promoting screening</li><li>• early detection</li><li>• public knowledge</li><li>• control and prevention.</li><li>• Some important Pointers</li><li>• Some important Pointers</li><li>• The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program has been launched by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare , Government of India on the occasion of the World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.</li><li>• National Viral Hepatitis Control Program</li><li>• Ministry of</li><li>• Health and Family Welfare</li><li>• India</li><li>• World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.</li><li>• Aim:</li><li>• Combat hepatitis and achieve country-wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030; Achieve significant reduction in the infected population , morbidity , and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C Viz. Cirrhosis and Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer); Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.</li><li>• Combat hepatitis and achieve country-wide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030;</li><li>• Combat hepatitis</li><li>• country-wide elimination of Hepatitis C</li><li>• 2030;</li><li>• Achieve significant reduction in the infected population , morbidity , and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C Viz. Cirrhosis and Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer);</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• infected population</li><li>• morbidity</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• Hepatitis B and C</li><li>• Cirrhosis and Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer);</li><li>• Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.</li><li>• Reduce</li><li>• risk, morbidity and mortality</li><li>• Hepatitis A and E.</li><li>• The key components include:</li><li>• 1. Preventive component : This remains the cornerstone of the NVHCP . It will include</li><li>• Preventive component</li><li>• NVHCP</li><li>• Awareness generation Immunization of Hepatitis B (birth dose, high risk groups, health care workers) Safety of blood and blood products Injection safety , safe socio-cultural practices Safe drinking water, hygiene and sanitary toilets</li><li>• Awareness generation</li><li>• Immunization of Hepatitis B (birth dose, high risk groups, health care workers)</li><li>• Hepatitis B</li><li>• Safety of blood and blood products</li><li>• Safety of blood and blood products</li><li>• Injection safety , safe socio-cultural practices</li><li>• Injection safety</li><li>• Safe drinking water, hygiene and sanitary toilets</li><li>• Safe drinking water, hygiene and sanitary toilets</li><li>• 2 . Diagnosis and Treatment :</li><li>• . Diagnosis and Treatment</li><li>• Screening of pregnant women for HBsAg to be done in areas where institutional deliveries are &lt; 80% to ensure their referral for institutional delivery for birth dose Hepatitis B vaccination. Free screening, diagnosis and treatment for both hepatitis B and C would be made available at all levels of health care in a phased manner. Provision of linkages , including with private sector and not-for-profit institutions , for diagnosis and treatment. Engagement with community/peer support to enhance and ensure adherence to treatment and demand generation .</li><li>• Screening of pregnant women for HBsAg to be done in areas where institutional deliveries are &lt; 80% to ensure their referral for institutional delivery for birth dose Hepatitis B vaccination.</li><li>• Screening</li><li>• pregnant women</li><li>• HBsAg</li><li>• &lt; 80%</li><li>• referral</li><li>• institutional delivery for birth</li><li>• Hepatitis B vaccination.</li><li>• Free screening, diagnosis and treatment for both hepatitis B and C would be made available at all levels of health care in a phased manner.</li><li>• Free screening, diagnosis and treatment</li><li>• both hepatitis B and C</li><li>• at all levels</li><li>• health care</li><li>• Provision of linkages , including with private sector and not-for-profit institutions , for diagnosis and treatment.</li><li>• linkages</li><li>• private sector</li><li>• not-for-profit</li><li>• institutions</li><li>• diagnosis and treatment.</li><li>• Engagement with community/peer support to enhance and ensure adherence to treatment and demand generation .</li><li>• Engagement</li><li>• community/peer support</li><li>• treatment and demand generation</li><li>• 3. Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance and Research Effective linkages to the surveillance system would be established and operational research would be undertaken through Department of Health Research (DHR). Standardised M&amp;E framework would be developed and an online web based system established.</li><li>• Monitoring and Evaluation, Surveillance</li><li>• Research Effective</li><li>• surveillance system</li><li>• established</li><li>• operational research</li><li>• Department of Health Research (DHR).</li><li>• Standardised M&amp;E</li><li>• developed</li><li>• online web</li><li>• established.</li><li>• 4. Training and Capacity Building:</li><li>• Training and Capacity Building:</li><li>• This would be a continuous process and will be supported by NCDC, ILBS and state tertiary care institutes and coordinated by NVHCP . The hepatitis induction and update programs for all level of health care workers would be made available using both, the traditional cascade model of training through master trainers and various platforms available for enabling electronic , e-learning and e-courses.</li><li>• continuous process</li><li>• NCDC, ILBS</li><li>• state tertiary care institutes</li><li>• coordinated by NVHCP</li><li>• hepatitis induction</li><li>• update programs</li><li>• all level of health care workers</li><li>• traditional cascade</li><li>• training</li><li>• master trainers</li><li>• enabling electronic</li><li>• e-learning and e-courses.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National viral hepatitis control programs aim to eliminate the disease as a public health problem , provide treatment, and promote awareness and screening , they do not typically include the objective of ensuring universal access to hepatitis C vaccines , mainly due to the current unavailability of such vaccines.</li><li>➤ National viral hepatitis</li><li>➤ aim</li><li>➤ eliminate</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ public health problem</li><li>➤ provide treatment,</li><li>➤ promote awareness</li><li>➤ screening</li><li>➤ do not</li><li>➤ objective</li><li>➤ ensuring universal access to hepatitis C vaccines</li><li>➤ due</li><li>➤ unavailability</li><li>➤ vaccines.</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.nhp.gov.in/national-viral-hepatitis-control-program-(nvhcp)_pg</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.nhp.gov.in/national-viral-hepatitis-control-program-(nvhcp)_pg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical intern is conducting a session for healthcare workers on the management of dehydration in diarrheal diseases, emphasizing the use of Oral Rehydration Solutions (ORS). The session includes a discussion on the composition of reduced osmolarity ORS, which is designed to be more effective and have fewer side effects than standard ORS formulations. The intern is aware of some common misconceptions about the composition of reduced osmolarity ORS and aims to address these during the session. Which of the following statements about the composition of reduced osmolarity ORS is NOT correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chloride – 65 mmol/ litre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Citrate – 10 mmol/ litre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Potassium – 10 mmol/ litre", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sodium – 75 mmol/ litre", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Potassium – 10 mmol/ litre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture32_SCVUL8k.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Potassium – 10 mmol/litre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Chloride – 65 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Option A. Chloride – 65 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Option B. Citrate – 10 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Option B. Citrate – 10 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Option D. Sodium – 75 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Option D. Sodium – 75 mmol/ litre. Correct</li><li>• Reduced osmolarity ORS: Total osmolarity - 245 mmol/ litre</li><li>• Comparison of different types of ORS solutions -</li><li>• -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO Reduced Osmolarity ORS contains (in mmol/L) - Sodium 75, Potassium 20 , Chloride 65 , Citrate 10 , Glucose 75; Total Osmolar concentration is 245 mmol/L. Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in WHO Reduced Osmolarity ORS - 1 : 1</li><li>➤ WHO Reduced Osmolarity ORS contains (in mmol/L) - Sodium 75, Potassium 20 , Chloride 65 , Citrate 10 , Glucose 75; Total Osmolar concentration is 245 mmol/L.</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ Reduced Osmolarity ORS</li><li>➤ Sodium 75,</li><li>➤ Potassium 20</li><li>➤ Chloride 65</li><li>➤ Citrate 10</li><li>➤ Glucose 75;</li><li>➤ Total Osmolar</li><li>➤ concentration</li><li>➤ 245 mmol/L.</li><li>➤ Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in WHO Reduced Osmolarity ORS - 1 : 1</li><li>➤ Ratio of Sodium</li><li>➤ Glucose</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ 1 : 1</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 261)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 261)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A two-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by his parents with symptoms of diarrhea and vomiting for the past 24 hours. The child appears lethargic, and the parents report that he has not had a wet diaper in over 6 hours. The medical team is assessing the child for dehydration, a common complication of gastrointestinal illness in young children. One of the residents is tasked with evaluating the severity of the child's dehydration to determine the appropriate treatment plan. In assessing the severity of dehydration in this two-year-old child, which of the following is NOT a clinical findings would most likely indicate SEVERE dehydration?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rapid and feeble pulse", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Skin pinch retracts on 4 seconds", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thirsty and restless", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Very dry tongue", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Thirsty and restless", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture33.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Thirsty and restless</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Thirsty and restless is symptom of Some Dehydration , NOT Severe</li><li>• Thirsty and restless</li><li>• Some Dehydration</li><li>• NOT</li><li>• Other 3 options are sign/ symptoms of Severe Dehydration.</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• sign/ symptoms</li><li>• Severe Dehydration.</li><li>• Sign/ symptom of Severe dehydration :</li><li>• Sign/ symptom</li><li>• Severe dehydration</li><li>• Patient appearance- Drowsy, limp, cold, sweaty, maybe comatose. Radial pulse- Rapid, feeble , sometimes impalpable Blood pressure- Less than 80 mmHg , may be unrecordable Skin elasticity - Pinch retracts very slowly (more than 2 seconds) Tongue- Very dry Anterior fontanelle - Very sunken</li><li>• Patient appearance- Drowsy, limp, cold, sweaty, maybe comatose.</li><li>• Drowsy, limp, cold, sweaty,</li><li>• comatose.</li><li>• Radial pulse- Rapid, feeble , sometimes impalpable</li><li>• Rapid, feeble</li><li>• impalpable</li><li>• Blood pressure- Less than 80 mmHg , may be unrecordable</li><li>• Less than 80 mmHg</li><li>• unrecordable</li><li>• Skin elasticity - Pinch retracts very slowly (more than 2 seconds)</li><li>• Skin elasticity</li><li>• Pinch retracts very slowly</li><li>• Tongue- Very dry</li><li>• Tongue- Very dry</li><li>• Anterior fontanelle - Very sunken</li><li>• Anterior fontanelle</li><li>• Very sunken</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ IMNCI guidelines for dehydration and diarrhoea</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 262)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child presents to the pediatric clinic with a 2-day history of diarrhea. The mother reports that the child has had several episodes of loose stools, some of which contained blood. The child does not have a fever and appears otherwise healthy. The pediatric resident examining the child is considering various infectious causes of bloody diarrhea (dysentery) and recalls that certain pathogens are more commonly associated with this presentation than others. The resident needs to identify which pathogen is least likely to be the cause of this child's bloody diarrhea. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following pathogens is the least likely cause of bloody diarrhea in this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Campylobacter jejuni", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Entamoeba histolytica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shigella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rotavirus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rotavirus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Campylobacter jejuni - Campylobacter infection usually have diarrhea (often bloody) , fever , and stomach cramps . Nausea and vomiting may accompany the diarrhea . Symptoms usually start two to five days after infection and last about one week .</li><li>• Option A. Campylobacter jejuni</li><li>• Campylobacter infection</li><li>• diarrhea</li><li>• bloody)</li><li>• fever</li><li>• stomach cramps</li><li>• Nausea and vomiting</li><li>• accompany</li><li>• diarrhea</li><li>• start two to five days</li><li>• infection</li><li>• last about one week</li><li>• Option B. Entamoeba histolytica: Invasive intestinal parasitic infection can result in symptoms of fulminant dysentery , such as fever, chills, bloody or mucous diarrhea , and abdominal discomfort .</li><li>• Option B. Entamoeba histolytica: Invasive intestinal parasitic infection</li><li>• fulminant dysentery</li><li>• fever, chills, bloody</li><li>• mucous diarrhea</li><li>• abdominal discomfort</li><li>• Option D. Shigella: Shigellosis usually start experiencing symptoms 1 to 2 days after contact with the germ . These symptoms include: Diarrhea that can be bloody or prolonged (lasting more than 3 days ).</li><li>• Option D. Shigella: Shigellosis</li><li>• symptoms 1 to 2 days</li><li>• contact</li><li>• the germ</li><li>• Diarrhea</li><li>• bloody or prolonged</li><li>• more than 3 days</li><li>• Causes of acute gastroenteritis with blood in stool:</li><li>• Causes of acute gastroenteritis with blood in stool:</li><li>• Bacteria - Shigellosis, enterohemorrhagic E coli, C. jejuni, Salmonella spp, Yersinia enterocolitica</li><li>• Bacteria</li><li>• Protozoa- Entamoeba histolytica, Balantidium coli</li><li>• Protozoa-</li><li>• Helminths - Massive trichuris infection, Schistosoma mansoni, S.japonicum</li><li>• Helminths</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rota virus , Noro virus is the least likely cause of bloody diarrhea.</li><li>➤ Rota virus</li><li>➤ Noro virus</li><li>➤ least</li><li>➤ bloody diarrhea.</li><li>➤ Causes of acute gastroenteritis with blood in stool - Shigellosis, enterohemorrhagic E coli, C. jejuni , Salmonella spp, Yersinia enterocolitica, Entamoeba histolytica, Balantidium coli, Massive trichuris infection, Schistosoma mansoni, S.japonicum</li><li>➤ acute gastroenteritis</li><li>➤ blood in stool</li><li>➤ Shigellosis,</li><li>➤ enterohemorrhagic E coli, C. jejuni</li><li>➤ Salmonella spp, Yersinia enterocolitica, Entamoeba histolytica, Balantidium coli, Massive trichuris infection, Schistosoma mansoni, S.japonicum</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 661)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 661)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric resident is managing a 7-month-old child who presented to the clinic with acute diarrhea. As part of the treatment plan, the resident decides to include zinc supplementation, which is recommended for the management of acute diarrhea in children to reduce the duration and severity of the episode. The resident is aware that the dose of zinc supplementation varies based on the age of the child and is determining the appropriate dose for this 7-month-old patient. What is the recommended dose of zinc supplementation for a 7-month-old child with acute diarrhea, to be given for a duration of 14 days?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 mg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 mg", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 20 mg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 20 mg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• When a zinc supplement is given during an episode of acute diarrhoea , it reduces the episode's duration and severity . In addition, zinc supplements given for 10 to 14 days to lower the incidence of diarrhoea in the following 2 to 3 months.</li><li>• zinc supplement</li><li>• acute diarrhoea</li><li>• reduces</li><li>• episode's duration and severity</li><li>• zinc supplements</li><li>• 10 to 14 days</li><li>• lower</li><li>• incidence of diarrhoea</li><li>• 2 to 3 months.</li><li>• WHO and UNICEF therefore recommend daily - 10 mg of zinc for infants under 6 months of age , and 20 mg for children older than 6 months for 10-14 days.</li><li>• WHO and UNICEF</li><li>• 10 mg of zinc</li><li>• infants</li><li>• 6 months of age</li><li>• 20 mg</li><li>• children older</li><li>• 6 months for 10-14 days.</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Micronutrient Zinc deficiency associated with rash and diarrhea Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to Zinc deficiency (Clinical triad of acral dermatitis, alopecia and diarrhea ) Zinc deficiency : Growth failure, Sexual infantilism , Loss of taste , Delayed wound healing , Loss of integrity of immune system , Spontaneous abortions, Congenital malformations, Low birth weight , IUGR, Preterm delivery, Skin lesions , Depressed appetite , Skeletal abnormalities Banana is not a good source of: Calcium, Iron (Due to presence of phytates ) and Zinc.</li><li>• Micronutrient Zinc deficiency associated with rash and diarrhea</li><li>• Micronutrient Zinc deficiency associated with rash and diarrhea</li><li>• Micronutrient Zinc deficiency</li><li>• rash and diarrhea</li><li>• Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to Zinc deficiency (Clinical triad of acral dermatitis, alopecia and diarrhea )</li><li>• Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to Zinc deficiency (Clinical triad of acral dermatitis, alopecia and diarrhea )</li><li>• Acrodermatitis enteropathica</li><li>• Zinc deficiency</li><li>• acral dermatitis, alopecia and diarrhea</li><li>• Zinc deficiency : Growth failure, Sexual infantilism , Loss of taste , Delayed wound healing , Loss of integrity of immune system , Spontaneous abortions, Congenital malformations, Low birth weight , IUGR, Preterm delivery, Skin lesions , Depressed appetite , Skeletal abnormalities</li><li>• Zinc deficiency : Growth failure, Sexual infantilism , Loss of taste , Delayed wound healing , Loss of integrity of immune system , Spontaneous abortions, Congenital malformations, Low birth weight , IUGR, Preterm delivery, Skin lesions , Depressed appetite , Skeletal abnormalities</li><li>• Zinc deficiency</li><li>• Growth failure, Sexual infantilism</li><li>• Loss of taste</li><li>• wound healing</li><li>• immune system</li><li>• Low birth weight</li><li>• Skin lesions</li><li>• Depressed appetite</li><li>• Banana is not a good source of: Calcium, Iron (Due to presence of phytates ) and Zinc.</li><li>• Banana is not a good source of: Calcium, Iron (Due to presence of phytates ) and Zinc.</li><li>• Banana</li><li>• not</li><li>• good source</li><li>• presence</li><li>• phytates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zinc supplementation :</li><li>➤ Zinc supplementation</li><li>➤ Infants &lt; 6 months age: 10 mg/day × 10–14 days. Children &gt; 6 months age: 20 mg/day × 10–14 days.</li><li>➤ Infants &lt; 6 months age: 10 mg/day × 10–14 days.</li><li>➤ Infants &lt; 6 months</li><li>➤ 10 mg/day × 10–14 days.</li><li>➤ Children &gt; 6 months age: 20 mg/day × 10–14 days.</li><li>➤ Children &gt; 6 months</li><li>➤ 20 mg/day × 10–14 days.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 264)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 264)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is consulting on a case in the emergency department involving a group of individuals who presented with symptoms of food poisoning after attending a buffet. The resident is considering the various pathogens that could be responsible based on the type of onset and nature of the toxins involved. While some foodborne illnesses are caused by preformed toxins, others result from toxins produced in the body after consuming contaminated food. The resident needs to determine which pathogen in this scenario is least likely to be associated with preformed toxins in the context of food poisoning. In the case of the group presenting with food poisoning after a buffet, which pathogen is least likely to be associated with illness caused by preformed toxins?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Bacillus cereus", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Botulism", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Clostridium Perfringens", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Staphylococcus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Clostridium Perfringens", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Clostridium perfringens</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Bacillus cereus: Emetic type causes illness through the ingestion of preformed toxins</li><li>• Option A. Bacillus cereus: Emetic type</li><li>• preformed toxins</li><li>• Option B. Botulism: Is caused by the ingestion of a preformed toxin in contaminated food . The toxin is produced when the bacteria grow in food that has been improperly preserved , or stored under anaerobic conditions .</li><li>• Option B. Botulism:</li><li>• preformed toxin</li><li>• contaminated food</li><li>• bacteria grow in food</li><li>• improperly preserved</li><li>• stored under anaerobic conditions</li><li>• Option D. Staphylococcus - Mechanism of food poisoning: Intra-dietetic toxins (ingestion of toxins pre-formed in food, in which bacteria have grown ). Incubation period ( 1–6 hours ) is short because of ‘preformed toxin ’. Toxins are relatively heat stable and resist boiling for 30 min or more.</li><li>• Option D. Staphylococcus</li><li>• Mechanism</li><li>• Intra-dietetic toxins</li><li>• bacteria</li><li>• grown</li><li>• 1–6 hours</li><li>• short</li><li>• ‘preformed</li><li>• toxin</li><li>• relatively heat stable</li><li>• resist</li><li>• 30 min</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, and Bacillus cereus ( emetic type ) cause illness through the ingestion of preformed toxins present in the food .</li><li>➤ Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, and Bacillus cereus</li><li>➤ emetic type</li><li>➤ illness</li><li>➤ ingestion</li><li>➤ preformed toxins</li><li>➤ food</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 276)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 276)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health physician is managing a recent outbreak of cholera in a coastal community. One of the patients, a 40-year-old man, has recently recovered from a severe case of cholera. Despite clinical recovery, follow-up testing reveals that he is still excreting Vibrio cholerae in his stool. This information is critical for the public health team in understanding the dynamics of disease transmission post-recovery. The physician needs to categorize this patient correctly in terms of carrier status to inform further public health actions. In the context of a cholera outbreak, how should the public health physician categorize a patient who continues to excrete Vibrio cholerae in his stool 2 to 3 weeks after clinical recovery?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chronic carrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Contact carrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Convalescent carrier", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incubatory carrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Convalescent carrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/08/screenshot-2024-08-08-122809.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Convalescent carrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Chronic carrier: Excretes infectious agents for indefinite periods (&gt; 6 months). Example - Typhoid, Hepatitis-B, Dysentery, Meningococcal Meningitis, Malaria, Gonorrhoea, etc.</li><li>• Option A. Chronic carrier: Excretes infectious agents</li><li>• indefinite periods</li><li>• Option B. Contact carrier: Carrier who gets infected from a case.</li><li>• Option B. Contact carrier:</li><li>• infected from a case.</li><li>• Option D. Incubatory carrier: Shed infectious agent during incubation period of disease. Example - Measles, Mumps, Polio, Pertussis, Influenza, Diphtheria, Hepatitis-B</li><li>• Option D. Incubatory carrier: Shed infectious agent</li><li>• incubation period</li><li>• Measles, Mumps, Polio, Pertussis, Influenza, Diphtheria, Hepatitis-B</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Convalescent Carriers : Shed the disease agent during the period of Convalescence , e.g. Typhoid, Bacillary Dysentery, Amoebic Dysentery, Cholera, Diphtheria &amp; Pertussis (Clinical recovery does not coincide with bacteriological recovery)</li><li>➤ Convalescent Carriers</li><li>➤ disease agent</li><li>➤ period</li><li>➤ Convalescence</li><li>➤ Typhoid, Bacillary Dysentery, Amoebic Dysentery, Cholera, Diphtheria &amp; Pertussis</li><li>➤ Different types of carriers of a disease</li><li>➤ Different types of carriers of a disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 267)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 70 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Demography And Health - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 50</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 50 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "While studying population dynamics in a global health lecture, you were asked to describe the term \"Demographic Transition\" as this phenomenon is observed in several countries. Which of the following statements best describes this phenomenon?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transition from high birth rate and death rate to low birth and death rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transition from communicable diseases to non-communicable diseases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transition from High mortality to high morbidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transition from low sex ratio to high sex ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Transition from high birth rate and death rate to low birth and death rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720095728-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Transition from high birth rate and death rate to low birth and death rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Demographic transition is a model used to explain the process of transition from high BR and high DR (Stage 1 demographic cycle – High stationary) to low BR and low DR (Stage 4 Demographic cycle – Low stationary) as part of the economic development of a country from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economy</li><li>• Demographic transition</li><li>• model</li><li>• explain the process of transition</li><li>• high BR and high DR</li><li>• low BR and low DR</li><li>• economic development</li><li>• country</li><li>• pre-industrial</li><li>• industrialized economy</li><li>• India is in Stage III (Late Expanding Phase) of Demographic cycle Stage V (Decline Phase): Germany, Italy, Spain, Portugal, Greece, United Kingdom and Japan (populations are reproducing well &lt; replacement levels)</li><li>• India is in Stage III</li><li>• Demographic cycle</li><li>• Stage V</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demographic transition is a model used to explain the process of transition from high BR &amp; DR to low BR &amp; DR</li><li>➤ Demographic transition</li><li>➤ model</li><li>➤ explain the process of transition</li><li>➤ high BR</li><li>➤ DR</li><li>➤ low BR &amp; DR</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunderlal, 4 th ed. p76; Park 27/e pg.554</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunderlal, 4 th ed. p76; Park 27/e pg.554</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify which of the following is not considered one of the core demographic processes that influence the population structure. Which of the following should be correctly excluded?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fertility", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Migration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social mobility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Morbidity", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Morbidity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Morbidity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• There are five Demographic processes that work continuously affecting the size, composition and distribution of a population in that particular geographical area over a defined period of time .</li><li>• five Demographic processes</li><li>• work continuously</li><li>• size, composition</li><li>• distribution of a population</li><li>• particular geographical area</li><li>• period of time</li><li>• Five demographic processes are:</li><li>• Fertility (Option A) Mortality Marriage Migration (Option B) Social Mobility (Option C)</li><li>• Fertility (Option A)</li><li>• Mortality</li><li>• Marriage</li><li>• Migration (Option B)</li><li>• Social Mobility (Option C)</li><li>• Other 3 options are the part of core demographic process.</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• Demography : Is the scientific study of human population ; It focuses attention on Changes in population size , Composition of population and Distribution of population in space</li><li>• Demography</li><li>• scientific study of human population</li><li>• focuses attention</li><li>• Changes in population size</li><li>• Composition of population</li><li>• Distribution of population</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Five demographic processes are – Fertility, Mortality, Marriage, Migration and Social Mobility.</li><li>➤ Fertility, Mortality, Marriage, Migration</li><li>➤ Social Mobility.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg 560</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg 560</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In your grand viva examination, having studied global population patterns and demography in detail, you are asked to consider the current demographic transition model. In which stage would India be categorized?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High stationary", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early expanding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Late expanding", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low stationary", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Late expanding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720100037-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Late expanding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Demographic transition : is a model used to explain the process of transition from high BR and high DR to low BR and low DR as part of the economic development of a country from a preindustrial to an industrialized economy .</li><li>• Demographic transition</li><li>• model</li><li>• process of transition</li><li>• high BR</li><li>• high DR</li><li>• low BR</li><li>• low DR</li><li>• economic development of a country</li><li>• preindustrial</li><li>• industrialized economy</li><li>• Five stages of Demographic Transition -</li><li>• Five stages of Demographic Transition -</li><li>• (1) FIRST STAGE (High stationary) (Option A) - High birth rate and a high death rate. India was in this stage till 1920.</li><li>• (1) FIRST STAGE (High stationary)</li><li>• (Option A)</li><li>• (2) SECOND STAGE (Early expanding) (Option B) - Death rate begins to decline but birth rate remains unchanged. Many countries in South Asia, and Africa are in this phase.</li><li>• (2) SECOND STAGE (Early expanding)</li><li>• (Option B)</li><li>• (3) THIRD STAGE (Late expanding) - Death rate declines still further, and the birth rate tends to fall. However, birth rate exceeds death rate. India has entered this phase.</li><li>• (3) THIRD STAGE (Late expanding) -</li><li>• India has entered this phase.</li><li>• (4) FOURTH STAGE (Low stationary) (Option D) - Low birth and low death- UK, Denmark, Sweden and Belgium, Austria.</li><li>• (4) FOURTH STAGE (Low stationary) (Option D) -</li><li>• (5) FIFTH STAGE (Declining) - Birth rate is lower than the death rate. Ex-Germany and Hungary</li><li>• (5) FIFTH STAGE (Declining)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India is in Stage III (Late Expanding Phase) of Demographic cycle</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Stage III</li><li>➤ Demographic cycle</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 560</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 560</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are reviewing the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin for 2022 and notes the reported statistics for India. The bulletin indicates a crude birth rate of 19.5 births per 1,000 mid-year population and a crude death rate of 6 deaths per 1,000 mid-year population. Assuming there is no significant migration into or out of the country, which of the following best represents the natural growth rate of India's population for that year?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12.75", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "13.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "13.7", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "14.0", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 13.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 13.5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Natural Growth Rate = Birth rate - Death Rate.</li><li>• = 19.5 - 6</li><li>• = 13.5</li><li>• UPDATED IMPORTANT PUBLIC HEALTH DATA OF INDIA 2022–23</li><li>• UPDATED IMPORTANT PUBLIC HEALTH DATA OF INDIA 2022–23</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): 97 per 100,000 Live births (SRS, March 2022) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) India: 28 per 1000 Live births (SRS, May 2022) Crude Birth Rate (CBR): 19.5 per 1000 Mid-year population (SRS, May 2022) Crude Death Rate (CDR): 6.0 per 1000 Mid-year population (SRS, May 2022) Natural Growth Rate: 13.5% (SRS, May 2022) Under Five Mortality Rate (U5MR): 32 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022) Neonatal Mortality Rate (NNMR): 20 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022) Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR): 18 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022) Still Birth Rate (SBR): 3 per Total births (SRS, September 2022) Human Development Index (HDI): 0.633 (Rank 132 Medium Development, 2021–22) Multidimensional Poverty Index (MDPI): 0.069 (16.4% Poor) GDP Per Capita: 2,257 US Dollars (2021) Total Fertility Rate (TFR): 2.0 (NFHS-5, 2019–21)</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): 97 per 100,000 Live births (SRS, March 2022)</li><li>• 97</li><li>• 100,000 Live births</li><li>• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) India: 28 per 1000 Live births (SRS, May 2022)</li><li>• 28</li><li>• 1000 Live births</li><li>• Crude Birth Rate (CBR): 19.5 per 1000 Mid-year population (SRS, May 2022)</li><li>• 19.5</li><li>• 1000 Mid-year population</li><li>• Crude Death Rate (CDR): 6.0 per 1000 Mid-year population (SRS, May 2022)</li><li>• 6.0</li><li>• 1000 Mid-year population</li><li>• Natural Growth Rate: 13.5% (SRS, May 2022)</li><li>• 13.5%</li><li>• Under Five Mortality Rate (U5MR): 32 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022)</li><li>• 32</li><li>• 1000 Live births</li><li>• Neonatal Mortality Rate (NNMR): 20 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022)</li><li>• 20</li><li>• 1000 Live births</li><li>• Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR): 18 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022)</li><li>• 18</li><li>• 1000 Live births</li><li>• Still Birth Rate (SBR): 3 per Total births (SRS, September 2022)</li><li>• 3 per Total births</li><li>• Human Development Index (HDI): 0.633 (Rank 132 Medium Development, 2021–22)</li><li>• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MDPI): 0.069 (16.4% Poor)</li><li>• GDP Per Capita: 2,257 US Dollars (2021)</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR): 2.0 (NFHS-5, 2019–21)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Natural growth rate of a population is calculated by subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate and express it per 1,000 mid-year population . As per SRS May 2022 Bulletin, India Natural Growth Rate is 13.5%</li><li>➤ Natural growth rate</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ calculated by subtracting the crude death rate</li><li>➤ crude birth rate</li><li>➤ express it per 1,000 mid-year population</li><li>➤ Ref : SRS 2022 Bulletin, Park 26 th ed, pg 562</li><li>➤ Ref : SRS 2022 Bulletin, Park 26 th ed, pg 562</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old epidemiologist is analyzing data trends from various countries to understand the demographic transition. He notices that in countries classified in the early expanding stage of the demographic cycle, certain causes of death are more prevalent than others. Which of the following is the primary contributor to the Crude Death Rate (CDR) in these countries?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Deaths occurring in elderly population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Accidents at young age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deaths occurring in infants and child", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Deaths due to non-communicable disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Deaths occurring in infants and child", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Deaths occurring in infants and child.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Countries in stage 1, 2 and 3 of demographic cycle have relatively more young population , whereas in stage 4 have mixed population and stage 5 have more of elderly population .</li><li>• Countries in stage 1, 2 and 3</li><li>• demographic cycle</li><li>• more young population</li><li>• stage 4 have mixed population</li><li>• stage 5 have more of elderly population</li><li>• In countries with a relatively young population , crude death rates are mainly affected by infant , child mortality , maternal and perinatal mortality</li><li>• countries</li><li>• young population</li><li>• crude death rates</li><li>• affected by infant</li><li>• child mortality</li><li>• maternal</li><li>• perinatal mortality</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The main contributors to the Crude Death Rate in countries that are in the early expanding stage of the demographic transition , are primarily affected by infant and child mortality.</li><li>➤ main contributors to the Crude Death Rate</li><li>➤ countries</li><li>➤ early expanding stage</li><li>➤ demographic transition</li><li>➤ affected by infant</li><li>➤ child mortality.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical researcher is analyzing the impact of population dynamics on economic growth. Which statement best captures the essence of the \"demographic dividend\" that they might expect to observe in a country undergoing demographic transition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More young population compared to Elderly resulting in economic growth", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "More migrant population moving out of the country resulting in economic growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More migrant population moving into the country resulting in economic growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Increase in total population resulting in increased economic growth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. More young population compared to Elderly resulting in economic growth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. More young population compared to Elderly resulting in economic growth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Demographic dividend : A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working-age people in a population</li><li>• Demographic dividend</li><li>• rise in the rate of economic growth</li><li>• rising share</li><li>• working-age people</li><li>• population</li><li>• – It usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth DR declines – In this demographic window opportunity, output per capita rises</li><li>• late in the demographic transition</li><li>• fertility rate falls</li><li>• youth DR declines</li><li>• Other Important terms</li><li>• Other Important terms</li><li>• Demographic gift: The initially favorable effect of falling fertility rates on the ratio of the working population to the dependent population</li><li>• Demographic transition: is a model used to explain the process of transition from high BR and high DR to low BR and low DR as part of the economic development of a country from a preindustrial to an industrialized economy</li><li>• Demographic Window: Period of time in a nation’s demographic evolution when the proportion of population of the working age group is particularly prominent. Typically, the demographic window of opportunity lasts 30–40 years.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working-age people in a population is known as Demographic dividend</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is preparing a presentation on the various components that are commonly included in vital statistics. Which of the following would be accurate to exclude from the presentation as it is not typically considered a part of vital statistics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fertility rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sex ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Life expectancy at birth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sex ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sex ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options are part of vital statistics. Despription is given below-</li><li>• Vital statistics encompass a range of parameters used to collect and analyze essential demographic data . The key parameters used in vital statistics include:</li><li>• Vital statistics encompass</li><li>• parameters</li><li>• collect and analyze</li><li>• demographic data</li><li>• Births:</li><li>• Births:</li><li>• Number of live births Birth rate (number of live births per 1,000 population) (option A)</li><li>• Number of live births</li><li>• Birth rate (number of live births per 1,000 population) (option A)</li><li>• (option A)</li><li>• Fertility rate : (number of live births per 1,000 women of childbearing age, usually 15-49) (option B)</li><li>• Fertility rate</li><li>• (option B)</li><li>• Deaths:</li><li>• Deaths:</li><li>• Number of deaths Death rate (number of deaths per 1,000 population) Cause of death (e.g., diseases, accidents, etc.) Age at death</li><li>• Number of deaths</li><li>• Death rate (number of deaths per 1,000 population)</li><li>• Cause of death (e.g., diseases, accidents, etc.)</li><li>• Age at death</li><li>• Marriages:</li><li>• Marriages:</li><li>• Number of marriages Marriage rate (number of marriages per 1,000 population) Age at marriage Marital status (e.g., first marriage, remarriage)</li><li>• Number of marriages</li><li>• Marriage rate (number of marriages per 1,000 population)</li><li>• Age at marriage</li><li>• Marital status (e.g., first marriage, remarriage)</li><li>• Divorces:</li><li>• Divorces:</li><li>• Number of divorces Divorce rate (number of divorces per 1,000 population or per 1,000 married couples) Duration of marriage before divorce Reasons for divorce (in some cases)</li><li>• Number of divorces</li><li>• Divorce rate (number of divorces per 1,000 population or per 1,000 married couples)</li><li>• Duration of marriage before divorce</li><li>• Reasons for divorce (in some cases)</li><li>• Population:</li><li>• Population:</li><li>• Total population Population growth rate (percentage change in population over a specific period)</li><li>• Total population</li><li>• Population growth rate (percentage change in population over a specific period)</li><li>• Age-specific rates:</li><li>• Age-specific rates:</li><li>• Birth rate and death rate specific to certain age groups (e.g., infant mortality rate, elderly mortality rate)</li><li>• Birth rate and death rate specific to certain age groups (e.g., infant mortality rate, elderly mortality rate)</li><li>• Sex-specific rates:</li><li>• Sex-specific rates:</li><li>• Birth rate and death rate specific to males and females</li><li>• Birth rate and death rate specific to males and females</li><li>• Option D. Life expectancy:</li><li>• Option D. Life expectancy:</li><li>• Average number of years a person is expected to live based on current mortality rates</li><li>• Average number of years a person is expected to live based on current mortality rates</li><li>• Migration:</li><li>• Migration:</li><li>• Net migration rate (difference between immigration and emigration per 1,000 population)</li><li>• Net migration rate (difference between immigration and emigration per 1,000 population)</li><li>• Total fertility rate (TFR):</li><li>• Total fertility rate (TFR):</li><li>• The average number of children a woman is expected to have in her lifetime if the current birth rates persist.</li><li>• The average number of children a woman is expected to have in her lifetime if the current birth rates persist.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vital statistics include indicators such as birth rate, death rate , natural growth rate , life expectancy at birth , mortality , and fertility rates .</li><li>➤ Vital statistics</li><li>➤ indicators</li><li>➤ birth rate, death rate</li><li>➤ natural growth rate</li><li>➤ life expectancy at birth</li><li>➤ mortality</li><li>➤ fertility rates</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A demographer is reviewing the population data of India for a study. When representing the age and sex distribution graphically, which of the following patterns would be expected?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Broad tip and narrow base", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cylindrical", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Broad base and narrow tip", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Broad centre and tapering tip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Broad base and narrow tip", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720103947-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720103947-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720103947-2.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Broad base and narrow tip</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The graphical representation of age and sex of the population of India shows youngest at the bottom to oldest at the top forms a shape of pyramid with broad base and narrow tip .</li><li>• graphical representation</li><li>• age and sex</li><li>• population of India</li><li>• youngest</li><li>• bottom to oldest</li><li>• top forms a shape of pyramid</li><li>• broad base</li><li>• narrow tip</li><li>• The population pyramid showing a broad base and a narrow tip . It is seen in developing countries .</li><li>• population pyramid</li><li>• broad base</li><li>• narrow tip</li><li>• developing countries</li><li>• Population pyramid : (age-sex pyramid and age structure diagram) Is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population which normally forms the shape of a pyramid .</li><li>• Population pyramid</li><li>• graphical illustration</li><li>• distribution of various age groups</li><li>• population</li><li>• normally forms</li><li>• shape of a pyramid</li><li>• Double Histogram : 2 back-to-back histograms - one showing the number of males and one showing females in a particular population ( Males are conventionally shown on left and females on right ). Population (%) is plotted on the X-axis and age on the Y-axis (in 5-year age group intervals)</li><li>• Double Histogram</li><li>• 2 back-to-back histograms</li><li>• number of males</li><li>• females in a particular population</li><li>• Males</li><li>• left</li><li>• females</li><li>• right</li><li>• Population</li><li>• X-axis</li><li>• age</li><li>• Y-axis</li><li>• Types of Population pyramid:</li><li>• Types of Population pyramid:</li><li>• Stationary pyramid : A population pyramid showing an unchanging pattern of fertility and mortality</li><li>• Stationary pyramid</li><li>• population pyramid</li><li>• unchanging pattern of fertility</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• Expansive pyramid : A population pyramid showing a broad base , indicating a high proportion of children, a rapid rate of population growth , and a low proportion of older people . It indicates a population in which there is a high birth rate, a high death rate and a short life expectancy. Typical pattern for less economically developed countries.</li><li>• Expansive pyramid</li><li>• population pyramid</li><li>• broad base</li><li>• high proportion of children,</li><li>• rapid rate</li><li>• population growth</li><li>• low proportion</li><li>• older people</li><li>• Constrictive pyramid : A population pyramid showing lower numbers or percentages of younger people. Country will have a greying population which means that people are generally older</li><li>• Constrictive pyramid</li><li>• population pyramid</li><li>• lower numbers</li><li>• The population pyramid showing a broad base and a narrow tip . It is seen in developing countries.</li><li>• population pyramid</li><li>• broad base</li><li>• narrow tip</li><li>• Patterns of Population Pyramid as seen in different countries.</li><li>• Utility of Population pyramid:</li><li>• Utility of Population pyramid:</li><li>• Shape of population pyramid indicates fertility pattern</li><li>• Shape of population pyramid indicates fertility pattern</li><li>• Broad base, Narrow top (upright triangle): High proportion of younger population (developing countries) Bulge in Middle, Spindle shape: High proportion of adults (developed countries)</li><li>• Broad base, Narrow top (upright triangle): High proportion of younger population (developing countries)</li><li>• (developing countries)</li><li>• Bulge in Middle, Spindle shape: High proportion of adults (developed countries)</li><li>• (developed countries)</li><li>• Span (height) of population pyramid indicates life expectancy</li><li>• Taller pyramid: Higher life expectancy (developed countries) Shorter pyramid: Lower life expectancy (developing countries)</li><li>• Taller pyramid: Higher life expectancy (developed countries)</li><li>• (developed countries)</li><li>• Shorter pyramid: Lower life expectancy (developing countries)</li><li>• (developing countries)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The graphical representation of age and sex of the population of India shows youngest at the bottom to oldest at the top forms a shape of pyramid with broad base and narrow tip .</li><li>➤ graphical representation</li><li>➤ age</li><li>➤ sex of the population</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ youngest at the bottom</li><li>➤ oldest</li><li>➤ top forms</li><li>➤ shape of pyramid</li><li>➤ broad base</li><li>➤ narrow tip</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 564.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 564.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student preparing for postgraduate exams encounters a question about the historical demographic shifts in India. The question reads: \"In the context of India's demographic history, when did the 'Big Divide' occur, marking a significant change in population growth trends?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1911", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1921", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1945", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1950", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1921", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/whatsapp-image-2023-07-20-at-105254-am.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1921</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• India's population has been steadily increasing since 1921 . The year 1921 is called “big divide ” as the occurrence of famines and epidemics was effectively controlled through better nutrition and improved health care services , with the result that the death rate declined more steeply than the birth rates . Consequently, there was a net gain in births over deaths, leading to rapid growth in population since 1921.</li><li>• India's population</li><li>• steadily increasing since 1921</li><li>• year 1921</li><li>• “big divide</li><li>• occurrence of famines</li><li>• epidemics</li><li>• effectively controlled</li><li>• better nutrition</li><li>• improved health care services</li><li>• death rate declined more steeply</li><li>• birth rates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Year of Big divide for India is 1921 AD</li><li>➤ Year of Big divide</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ 1921 AD</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is analyzing population trends and estimates that India's current annual population growth rate is 1.35%. Assuming this rate remains constant, in how many years is India's population expected to double?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "70-140 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "47-70 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "35-47 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "28-35 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 47-70 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720110729-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 47-70 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rule of 70</li><li>• Rule of 70</li><li>• Doubling time (in years) = 70 / Annual growth rate</li><li>• Given the annual growth rate of 1.35%: Doubling time = 70 / 1.35 ≈ 51.85. (comes in b/w range of 47-70 Years)</li><li>• Note - As per 2011 Census, India GR was 1.65% (Very Rapid Growth), so doubling time is b/w 35-47 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rule of 70 to estimate the doubling time of a population given a constant annual growth rate i.e.</li><li>➤ Rule of 70</li><li>➤ estimate the doubling time</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ constant annual growth rate</li><li>➤ Doubling time (in years) = 70 / Annual growth rate</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health seminar, you learn about the socioeconomic challenges posed by population demographics. Which of the following age groups primarily contributes to the demographic burden?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Under five children", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Adolescents", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Elderly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pregnant women", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Elderly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720110841-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Elderly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The demographic burden is the increase in the total dependency ratio (DR) during any period of time, mostly caused by increased old age dependency ratio .</li><li>• demographic burden</li><li>• increase in the total dependency ratio</li><li>• mostly</li><li>• increased old age dependency ratio</li><li>• Societal DR/ Economic DR is given by –</li><li>• Societal DR/ Economic DR is given by</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demographic burden on a society's economy includes age groups that are typically non-working , such as children and the elderly , who are financially dependent on the working-age population.</li><li>➤ Demographic burden</li><li>➤ society's economy</li><li>➤ age groups</li><li>➤ non-working</li><li>➤ children and the elderly</li><li>➤ financially dependent</li><li>➤ working-age population.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In managing a healthcare system, understanding the demographic pressure on the working-age population is crucial. The societal dependency ratio helps in assessing this pressure. Which groups should a healthcare administrator include in the numerator when calculating this ratio for policy planning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Population Less than 15 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Population between 15 to 65 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Population Above 65 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Population Less than 15 years and more than 65 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Population Less than 15 years and more than 65 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/image_aqXdGqi.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Population Less than 15 years and more than 65 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on the economically productive age group (15 64 years). The ratio of the combined age groups 0-14 years plus 65 years and above to the 15-65 years’ age group is referred to as the total dependency ratio , it is also referred to as the societal dependency ratio and reflects the need for a society to provide for their younger and older population groups.</li><li>• proportion of persons above 65 years of age</li><li>• children below 15 years of age</li><li>• dependent on the economically productive age group</li><li>• ratio</li><li>• combined age groups 0-14 years plus 65 years</li><li>• above to the 15-65 years’</li><li>• total dependency ratio</li><li>• societal dependency ratio</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The numerator for societal dependency ratio is - Population Less than 15 years and more than 65 years</li><li>➤ numerator for societal dependency ratio</li><li>➤ Population Less than 15 years</li><li>➤ more than 65 years</li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health worker is analyzing the demographic data of a village in India with a total population of 20,000. The sex ratio, defined as the number of females per 1000 males, is reported to be greater than 1000. Which of the following statements accurately interprets this demographic data?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "More than 10,000 population were males", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "More than 10,000 population were females", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Males and Females were equal.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. More than 10,000 population were females", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720111159-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. More than 10,000 population were females</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males</li><li>• Sex ratio</li><li>• number of females per 1000 males</li><li>• Currently in India, according to NFHS 5 (2020-2021), Sex ratio in 2023 is 1020 females per 1000 males; Sex ratio at birth (females per 1,000 males) is 929</li><li>• Types of sex ratio:</li><li>• Types of sex ratio:</li><li>• – Primary sex ratio : Ratio at the time of conception – Secondary sex ratio : Ratio at time of birth – Tertiary sex ratio : Ratio of mature organisms</li><li>• Primary sex ratio</li><li>• Secondary sex ratio</li><li>• Tertiary sex ratio</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Interpretation of Sex ratio:</li><li>➤ Interpretation of Sex ratio:</li><li>➤ – Ideal Sex Ratio : Sex ratio of 1000 (equal no. of males &amp; females) – Favourable Sex Ratio : Sex ratio &gt; 1000 (Females &gt; Males) – Unfavourable Sex Ratio : Sex ratio &lt; 1000 (Females &lt; Males)</li><li>➤ Ideal Sex Ratio</li><li>➤ 1000</li><li>➤ Favourable Sex Ratio</li><li>➤ &gt; 1000</li><li>➤ Unfavourable Sex Ratio</li><li>➤ &lt; 1000</li><li>➤ Sex ratio is an important and sensitive indicator of status of women</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 564</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 564</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a demographic health survey, a researcher found that in a given state, 25% of the population were children under the age of 15, and 11% were elderly individuals above the age of 65. Calculate the total dependency ratio for this state.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "52.4%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "58.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "56.2%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "64%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 56.2%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720111752-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 56.2%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• % of population in 0-14 years age group – 25% percent</li><li>• 0-14 years age group</li><li>• 25% percent</li><li>• % of population above 65 years of age – 11% percent</li><li>• above 65 years of age</li><li>• 11% percent</li><li>• Therefore, % of population in 15-64 years age group = 64% per cent [100- (25+11)]</li><li>• 15-64 years age group</li><li>• 64% per cent</li><li>• Total Dependency ratio = {(25 + 11) / 64} x100</li><li>• = 56.2%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The dependency ratio measures the ‘need for society to provide for its’ younger and older groups’</li><li>➤ dependency ratio measures</li><li>➤ ‘need for society to provide for its’ younger</li><li>➤ older groups’</li><li>➤ Dependency Ratio (DR): The proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on the economically productive age group (15–64 years)</li><li>➤ Dependency Ratio</li><li>➤ proportion of persons above 65 years</li><li>➤ age and children below 15 years</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a demographic survey in a rural village, it was documented that 22% of the population were children below the age of 15 years, and 8.6% were elderly individuals above the age of 65 years. What are the young age dependency ratio and the old age dependency ratio in this village?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "34.2% and 13.9% respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "31.7% and 12.4% respectively", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "22% and 8.6% respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "29.4% and 11.6% respectively.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 31.7% and 12.4% respectively", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 31.7% and 12.4% respectively</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• % Of population in 0-14 years age group – 22% percent</li><li>• 0-14 years age group</li><li>• 22% percent</li><li>• % Of population above 65 years of age – 8.6% percent</li><li>• 65 years of age</li><li>• 8.6% percent</li><li>• % Of population in 15-64 years’ age group – 69.4% percent</li><li>• 15-64 years’ age group</li><li>• 69.4% percent</li><li>• Young age Dependency ratio = (22/69.4) *100 = 31.7%</li><li>• Old age Dependency ratio = (8.6/69.4) *100 = 12.4%</li><li>• Dependency Ratio (DR): The proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on economically productive age group (15–64 years). DR is the ‘age-wise’ ratio of non-earning to earning population .</li><li>• Dependency Ratio</li><li>• proportion of persons</li><li>• above 65 years of age</li><li>• children below 15 years of age</li><li>• dependent on economically productive age group</li><li>• DR</li><li>• ‘age-wise’ ratio</li><li>• non-earning</li><li>• earning population</li><li>• DR is ratio of the economically dependent part of the population to the productive part</li><li>• DR</li><li>• ratio of the economically dependent part</li><li>• population to the productive part</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dependency Ratio (DR) is the proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on economically productive age group (15–64 years)</li><li>➤ Dependency Ratio</li><li>➤ proportion of persons above 65 years</li><li>➤ children below 15 years of age</li><li>➤ dependent on economically productive age group</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the context of a country's demographic profile, a demographic bonus is mainly contributed by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Increase in elderly age group", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decrease in total dependency ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Decrease in child dependency ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Decrease in Old age dependency ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Decrease in total dependency ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Decrease in total dependency ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The term ‘demographic bonus’ also called as ‘Demographic dividend’ refers to the period when the dependency ratio (the ratio of the dependent individuals - Children &amp; Elderly to the working-age individuals) in a population declines because of decline in birth rates and death rates , until it starts to rise again because of increasing longevity .</li><li>• ‘demographic bonus’</li><li>• ‘Demographic dividend’</li><li>• period when the dependency ratio</li><li>• population declines</li><li>• decline in birth rates</li><li>• death rates</li><li>• starts to rise again</li><li>• increasing longevity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demographic bonus is Increase in productive-age population</li><li>➤ Demographic bonus</li><li>➤ Increase in productive-age population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a national census survey, enumerators were instructed to classify individuals as literate based on which of the following criteria", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A person who can be able to read, write and understand any one language.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "A person who knows to read any language, but not able to write.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A person who cannot able to read and write any language but speaks fluently.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A person who cannot able to read and write but knows to sign the legal documents.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. A person who can be able to read, write and understand any one language.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720112524-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. A person who can be able to read, write and understand any one language</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any language . A person who can merely read but cannot write is not considered literate.</li><li>• person is deemed literate</li><li>• read and write with understanding</li><li>• any language</li><li>• Literate (India): Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years of age (definition used in 1991 &amp; 2001 Censuses)</li><li>• Literate</li><li>• read AND write</li><li>• WITH understanding</li><li>• IN ANY ONE language of India</li><li>• &gt; 7 years of age</li><li>• Literacy Rate : Denominator is population &gt; 7 years age Crude Literacy Rate : Denominator is total population (used earlier) UN definition of Literacy : Ability to read and write a simple sentence in any language</li><li>• Literacy Rate : Denominator is population &gt; 7 years age</li><li>• Literacy Rate</li><li>• Crude Literacy Rate : Denominator is total population (used earlier)</li><li>• Crude Literacy Rate</li><li>• UN definition of Literacy : Ability to read and write a simple sentence in any language</li><li>• UN definition of Literacy</li><li>• Literacy Rate (India): 74% [Census 2011]</li><li>• Literacy Rate</li><li>• Literacy rate by sex : Males – 82% &amp; Females – 65% Literacy rate by state : Maximum 94% (Kerala) &amp; Least 64% (Bihar) A recent report suggests Tripura (94.6%) may have become the most literate state in India</li><li>• Literacy rate by sex : Males – 82% &amp; Females – 65%</li><li>• Literacy rate by sex</li><li>• Literacy rate by state : Maximum 94% (Kerala) &amp; Least 64% (Bihar)</li><li>• Literacy rate by state</li><li>• A recent report suggests Tripura (94.6%) may have become the most literate state in India</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Literate (India): Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years if age</li><li>➤ Literate</li><li>➤ person</li><li>➤ read AND write</li><li>➤ WITH understanding</li><li>➤ IN ANY ONE language</li><li>➤ India AND who is &gt; 7 years if age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is conducting a cross-sectional study to examine the correlation between educational status and knowledge about a particular disease in a rural village. To accurately calculate the effective literacy rate as part of this study, which group of individuals should be included in the denominator of this calculation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total population at the beginning of the year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total Mid-year population in a given year", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Population aged 7 years and above", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adults aged 18 years and above.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Population aged 7 years and above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720112609-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Population aged 7 years and above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Crude literacy rate - The literacy rate taking in account the total population in the denominator</li><li>• Crude literacy rate</li><li>• literacy rate</li><li>• account the total population</li><li>• denominator</li><li>• Effective literacy rate - The literacy rate calculated considering the 7 years and above population in the denominator .</li><li>• Effective literacy rate</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• 7 years</li><li>• above population</li><li>• denominator</li><li>• Literacy Rate (India): 74.04% [Census 2011]</li><li>• Literacy rate by sex: Males – 82% &amp; Females – 65% Literacy rate by state: Maximum 94% (Kerala) &amp; Least 64% (Bihar)</li><li>• Literacy rate by sex: Males – 82% &amp; Females – 65%</li><li>• Literacy rate by state: Maximum 94% (Kerala) &amp; Least 64% (Bihar)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Literate (India): Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years of age (definition used in 1991 &amp; 2001 Censuses)</li><li>➤ Literate</li><li>➤ person</li><li>➤ read AND write</li><li>➤ WITH understanding</li><li>➤ IN ANY ONE language</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ &gt; 7 years of age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician working with an international health organization is tasked with evaluating the level of development in several countries to allocate resources appropriately. Which of the following indicators is considered one of the best comprehensive indicator of a country's level of development?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Maternal Mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Literacy rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Child Survival index", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Life expectancy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Life expectancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Life expectancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options are not considered as the comprehensive indicator for the country's development.</li><li>• Option A. Maternal Mortality rate - (MMRate): Dividing the average annual number of maternal deaths in a population by the average number of women of reproductive age (typically those aged 15 to 49 years) who are alive during the observation period</li><li>• Option A. Maternal Mortality rate - (MMRate):</li><li>• Dividing the average annual number</li><li>• maternal deaths</li><li>• population</li><li>• average number of women</li><li>• reproductive age</li><li>• alive</li><li>• observation period</li><li>• MMRate reflects not only the risk of maternal death per pregnancy or per birth , but also the level of fertility in a population</li><li>• MMRate reflects</li><li>• risk of maternal death per pregnancy</li><li>• per birth</li><li>• level of fertility</li><li>• population</li><li>• Option B. literacy rate: Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years of age (definition used in 1991 &amp; 2001 Censuses)</li><li>• Option B. literacy rate:</li><li>• person</li><li>• read AND write</li><li>• WITH understanding</li><li>• IN ANY ONE language</li><li>• India</li><li>• &gt; 7 years of age</li><li>• – Literacy Rate: Denominator is population &gt; 7 years age – Crude Literacy Rate: Denominator is total population (used earlier)</li><li>• Option C. Child Survival index: Child survival rate (CSR) is calculated by following formula -</li><li>• Option C. Child Survival index:</li><li>• CSR = 1000—U5MR 10</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Life expectancy (LE) - The number of years which an individual at a given age could expect to live at present mortality levels</li><li>➤ Life expectancy</li><li>➤ number of years</li><li>➤ individual at a given age</li><li>➤ expect to live</li><li>➤ present mortality levels</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a survey to find out the number of role of literacy on knowledge about healthy diet, it was found that out of 1000 population, 10% of the population was less than 7 years and 687 aged above 7 years knows to read and write at least one language. What is the effective literacy rate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "68.7%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "76.3%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "75.4%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "72.3%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 76.3%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720113055-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 76.3%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Literate (India): Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years of age .</li><li>• Literate</li><li>• Any person</li><li>• read AND write</li><li>• WITH understanding</li><li>• IN ANY ONE language</li><li>• India</li><li>• &gt; 7 years of age</li><li>• Effective literacy rate = (Number of literate individuals aged 7+ / Total population aged 7+) × 100</li><li>• Effective literacy rate = (687*100) / 900</li><li>• = 76.3%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Literate (India): Any person who can read AND write , WITH understanding , IN ANY ONE language of India AND who is &gt; 7 years of age .</li><li>➤ Literate</li><li>➤ Any person</li><li>➤ read AND write</li><li>➤ WITH understanding</li><li>➤ IN ANY ONE language</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ &gt; 7 years of age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 566.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "What is the current Sex ratio in India (As per NFHS 5)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "995", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "991", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1020", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "989", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1020", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/24/screenshot-2024-08-24-123207.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1020</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sex ratio , according to the NFHS-5 (2019-21) report , is 1020 females per 1000 males .</li><li>• Sex ratio</li><li>• NFHS-5</li><li>• report</li><li>• 1020 females per 1000 males</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sex Ratio : Is defined as number of females per thousand males</li><li>➤ Sex Ratio</li><li>➤ number of females per thousand males</li><li>➤ Ref : NFHS 5 India factsheet</li><li>➤ Ref : NFHS 5 India factsheet</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is studying the demographic profile of a country to assess its healthcare needs. She constructs a population pyramid that shows a broad base that gradually tapers off with each successive age group. Which of the following characteristics is most likely represented in this population pyramid?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fertility pattern", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sex ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720113258-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fertility pattern - Shape of pyramid</li><li>• Fertility pattern - Shape of pyramid</li><li>• Broad base, Narrow top- High proportion of younger population Bulge in Middle- High proportion of adults</li><li>• Broad base, Narrow top- High proportion of younger population</li><li>• Bulge in Middle- High proportion of adults</li><li>• Life expectancy - Height of the pyramid</li><li>• Life expectancy - Height of the pyramid</li><li>• Taller pyramid: Higher life expectancy Shorter pyramid: Lower life expectancy</li><li>• Taller pyramid: Higher life expectancy</li><li>• Shorter pyramid: Lower life expectancy</li><li>• Sex ratio - Symmetry of pyramid</li><li>• Sex ratio - Symmetry of pyramid</li><li>• Symmetric pyramid: ideal sex ratio Asymmetric pyramid: unfavorable sex ratio &lt;1000</li><li>• Symmetric pyramid: ideal sex ratio</li><li>• Asymmetric pyramid: unfavorable sex ratio &lt;1000</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Population pyramid is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population which normally forms the shape of a pyramid . Population pyramid is Double Histogram</li><li>➤ Population pyramid</li><li>➤ graphical illustration</li><li>➤ shows the distribution of various age groups</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ shape of a pyramid</li><li>➤ Population pyramid</li><li>➤ Double Histogram</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the course of conducting a needs assessment, a Female Health Assistant meticulously collects data on each household within her assigned region. When she compiles the information to determine the average family size, which of the following would she need to include in her calculations?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total number of persons in the family at a point", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total number of eligible couples in the family at that point", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Total number of children borne by a female at a point", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Total number of adults in the family at a point", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Total number of children borne by a female at a point", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Total number of children borne by a female at a point</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In demography , Family size indicates total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time .</li><li>• demography</li><li>• Family size</li><li>• total number of children</li><li>• woman has borne</li><li>• point in time</li><li>• The completed family size indicates the total number of children borne by a woman during her child-bearing age , which is generally assumed to be between 15 and 45 years . This is known as Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</li><li>• completed family size</li><li>• total number of children borne</li><li>• woman</li><li>• child-bearing age</li><li>• assumed to be between 15 and 45 years</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate is a standardized index for fertility level . It is obtained by summing the single year age specific rates (ASFRs) at a given time . It gives the magnitude of approximately ‘completed family size’.</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate is a standardized index for fertility level .</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate</li><li>• standardized index</li><li>• fertility level</li><li>• It is obtained by summing the single year age specific rates (ASFRs) at a given time .</li><li>• summing the single year age specific rates</li><li>• given time</li><li>• It gives the magnitude of approximately ‘completed family size’.</li><li>• magnitude</li><li>• ‘completed family size’.</li><li>• Currently the TFR of India, according to NFHS (2019-21) is 2.0</li><li>• Currently the TFR of India, according to NFHS (2019-21) is 2.0</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Family size indicates total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time .</li><li>➤ Family size</li><li>➤ total number of children</li><li>➤ woman</li><li>➤ borne at a point in time</li><li>➤ Total Fertility Rate (TFR) gives magnitude of approximately ‘completed family size’</li><li>➤ Total Fertility Rate</li><li>➤ magnitude</li><li>➤ ‘completed family size’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 565</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You need to analyze the fertility trends within a population but you acknowledge the fact that birth rate alone cannot provide a satisfactory measure of fertility. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this limitation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unaffected by age distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Denominator includes the entire population", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Excludes the still births", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Denominator includes the entire population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Denominator includes the entire population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The birth rate is an unsatisfactory measure of fertility because the total population is not exposed to child bearing . Therefore, it does not give a true idea of the fertility of a population.</li><li>• birth rate</li><li>• unsatisfactory measure</li><li>• fertility</li><li>• total population</li><li>• not exposed to child bearing</li><li>• not give a true idea</li><li>• fertility</li><li>• population.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Birth rate is Live birth per 1000 mid-year population</li><li>➤ Birth rate</li><li>➤ Live birth per 1000 mid-year population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is analyzing a population's reproductive health programs and aiming to reach a Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of 1. At what level must the Couple Protection Rate (CPR) be set to achieve an NRR of 1?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "55%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "75%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 60%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720113816-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 60%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Couple Protection Rate (CPR) - It is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community .</li><li>• Couple Protection Rate (CPR)</li><li>• indicator of the prevalence</li><li>• contraceptive practice</li><li>• community</li><li>• NRR = 1 can be achieved only if the CPR &gt; 60%</li><li>• Value of NRR = 1 is equivalent to 2-child norm. This goal of NRR was to be achieved by 2017.</li><li>• Net reproduction rate (NRR): Expected number of daughters, per newborn prospective mother, who may or may not survive to and through the ages of childbearing.</li><li>• Net reproduction rate</li><li>• Replacement level of fertility (TFR = 2.1, i.e. NRR = 1): TFR at which newborn girls would have an average of exactly 1 daughter over their lifetimes (women have just enough babies to replace themselves). This is also known as ‘Adequate level’</li><li>• Replacement level of fertility</li><li>• CPR is percent of eligible couples (ECs) protected against one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. condoms, OCPs, IUDs, sterilization</li><li>• Effective Couple Protection Rate (ECPR) – ECPR is the percent of eligible couples (ECs) protected against one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. condoms, OCPs, IUDs, sterilization, taking into account their effectivity</li><li>• Effective Couple Protection Rate (ECPR) –</li><li>• Effectivity of approved contraceptive methods -</li><li>• Effectivity of approved contraceptive methods</li><li>• 1. Condoms: 50%</li><li>• 2. IUDs: 95%</li><li>• 3. OCPs: 100%</li><li>• 4. Sterilization (Vasectomy or Tubectomy): 100%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Achieving a Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of 1 generally requires a high Couple Protection Rate (CPR) &gt; 60%</li><li>➤ Net Reproduction Rate</li><li>➤ 1</li><li>➤ high Couple Protection Rate</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 23/e pg. 493, 27/e pg. 567</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 23/e pg. 493, 27/e pg. 567</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community health class, medical students are learning about various demographic indicators. They are asked about the Net Reproduction Rate (NRR). Which of the following best defines the Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Number of girls born to a mother in her reproductive age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Number of children born to a mother in her reproductive age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Number of daughters a new born girl will bear in her lifetime", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Number of boys born to a mother in her reproductive age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Number of daughters a new born girl will bear in her lifetime", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Number of daughters a newborn girl will bear in her lifetime</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates .</li><li>• Net Reproduction Rate</li><li>• number of daughters a newborn girl will bear</li><li>• lifetime</li><li>• fixed age-specific fertility</li><li>• mortality rates</li><li>• NRR = 1 can be achieved if: CPR &gt;60%</li><li>• Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR): Measures the no. of daughters a woman would have in her lifetime if she experiences prevailing age-specific fertility , assuming no mortality .</li><li>• Gross Reproduction Rate</li><li>• no. of daughters a woman</li><li>• have in her lifetime</li><li>• experiences prevailing age-specific fertility</li><li>• no mortality</li><li>• Gross reproduction rate (GRR) or Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is almost equal to the half of the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).</li><li>• Gross reproduction rate</li><li>• equal to the half of the Total Fertility Rate</li><li>• GRR is same as the NRR, except that, like the TFR, it ignores life expectancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates . NRR = 1 can be achieved if: CPR &gt;60%</li><li>➤ Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates .</li><li>➤ Net Reproduction Rate</li><li>➤ number of daughters a newborn girl</li><li>➤ bear</li><li>➤ lifetime</li><li>➤ fixed age-specific fertility</li><li>➤ mortality rates</li><li>➤ NRR = 1 can be achieved if: CPR &gt;60%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old female community health worker is assigned to a rural health promotion project in India. Part of her responsibility is to educate women about family planning and reproductive health. The state she works in has been identified as having one of the highest Total Fertility Rates (TFR) in the country, which measures the average number of children a woman would have during her childbearing years. Public health officials are concerned about the implications of this high TFR on maternal and child health resources. Which of the following states in India is she most likely working in, known for a TFR of more than 3?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Assam", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bihar", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rajasthan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Madhya Pradesh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bihar", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bihar</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Based on TFR, the following states were categorized as very high-focus and high focus are as follows -</li><li>• TFR 2.2-3.0 -</li><li>• Assam-2.3 Dadra &amp; Nagar Haveli-2.3 Mizoram-2.3 Chhattisgarh-2.5 Jharkhand-2.6 Manipur-2.6 Rajasthan-2.7 Nagaland-2.7 Madhya Pradesh-2.8</li><li>• Assam-2.3</li><li>• Dadra &amp; Nagar Haveli-2.3</li><li>• Mizoram-2.3</li><li>• Chhattisgarh-2.5</li><li>• Jharkhand-2.6</li><li>• Manipur-2.6</li><li>• Rajasthan-2.7</li><li>• Nagaland-2.7</li><li>• Madhya Pradesh-2.8</li><li>• TFR more than or equal to 3—</li><li>• Bihar-3.3, Uttar Pradesh-3.1 Meghalaya-3.0</li><li>• Bihar-3.3,</li><li>• Uttar Pradesh-3.1</li><li>• Meghalaya-3.0</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</li><li>• Is a STANDARDIZED INDEX FOR FERTILITY LEVEL Average no. of children a woman would bear in her reproductive life span; Also known as the Period Total Fertility Rate Gives magnitude of approximately completed family size – no. of alive children in a family Obtained by summing single-year age-specific rates (ASFRs) at a given time TFR is a synthetic rate: It is not counted, as this would involve waiting until women complete childbearing TFR (India): 2.0 (2019-21, NFHS-5)</li><li>• Is a STANDARDIZED INDEX FOR FERTILITY LEVEL</li><li>• STANDARDIZED INDEX FOR FERTILITY LEVEL</li><li>• Average no. of children a woman would bear in her reproductive life span; Also known as the Period Total Fertility Rate</li><li>• Period Total Fertility Rate</li><li>• Gives magnitude of approximately completed family size – no. of alive children in a family</li><li>• magnitude</li><li>• approximately completed family size</li><li>• Obtained by summing single-year age-specific rates (ASFRs) at a given time</li><li>• summing single-year age-specific rates</li><li>• TFR is a synthetic rate: It is not counted, as this would involve waiting until women complete childbearing</li><li>• TFR is a synthetic rate:</li><li>• TFR (India): 2.0 (2019-21, NFHS-5)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Total Fertility Rate (TFR) gives magnitude of approximately ‘completed family size’</li><li>➤ Total Fertility Rate</li><li>➤ magnitude</li><li>➤ ‘completed family size’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 563</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is analyzing the reproductive health data of a particular region in India over the past year. She is focusing on understanding the patterns and frequencies of abortion in relation to live births to assess reproductive health services' efficacy and family planning choices. The researcher needs to calculate the ratio that reflects the number of abortions performed for every live birth during the same period. Which of the following indicators should she use to represent this statistic accurately?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abortion Incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Abortion Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abortion prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abortion ratio", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Abortion ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Abortion ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Abortion Ratio - This is calculated by dividing the number of abortions performed during a particular time period by the number of live births over the same period.</li><li>• Abortion Ratio</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• dividing the number of abortions</li><li>• particular time period</li><li>• number of live births</li><li>• same period.</li><li>• Abortion Rate - The annual number of all types of abortions, usually per 1000 women of child-bearing age.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The abortion ratio indicates the number of abortions per 1,000 live births , providing insight into the prevalence of abortions in relation to live births .</li><li>➤ abortion ratio</li><li>➤ number of abortions per 1,000 live births</li><li>➤ prevalence of abortions</li><li>➤ relation to live births</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 570</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 570</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the realm of demography and public health, the General Fertility Rate (GFR) is often utilized to provide insights into the fertility patterns within a specific population. This rate is crucial for understanding the reproductive behavior of the population of childbearing age. When calculating the General Fertility Rate, demographers must choose an appropriate denominator that accurately reflects the segment of the population at risk of giving birth. Which demographic group is typically included in the denominator when defining the General Fertility Rate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Midyear population between 15 to 49 years of age in the same year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Midyear women population between 15 to 49 years of age in the same year", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Midyear married women between 15 to 49 years of age in the same year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Live births in the same year", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Midyear women population between 15 to 49 years of age in the same year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720114832-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Midyear women population between 15 to 49 years of age in the same year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• General fertility Rate is the “number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age-group (15 to 44 or 49 years) in a given year ”.</li><li>• General fertility Rate</li><li>• “number of live births per 1000 women</li><li>• reproductive age-group</li><li>• given year</li><li>• </li><li>• It is a better measure of fertility than Crude birth rate , but its limitation is that not all women are exposed to risk of child birth .</li><li>• better measure of fertility</li><li>• Crude birth rate</li><li>• limitation</li><li>• not all women</li><li>• exposed to risk of child birth</li><li>• Other related terms -</li><li>• Other related terms -</li><li>• General marital fertility rate (GMFR): Annual number of live births per 1000 married women of childbearing age (15–49 years old) mid-year population</li><li>• General marital fertility rate</li><li>• Annual number of live births</li><li>• 1000 married women</li><li>• childbearing age</li><li>• Age-specific fertility rates (ASFR): Annual number of live births per 1000 women in particular age groups (usually age 15–19 years, 20–24 years have higher)</li><li>• Age-specific fertility rates</li><li>• Annual number</li><li>• live births per 1000 women</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Denominator of GFR is the Women in reproductive age group (15–49 years)</li><li>➤ Denominator of GFR</li><li>➤ Women in reproductive age group</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The child-women ratio is an alternative demographic measure used to assess the number of children in relation to the number of women within a population. This ratio can provide insights into the general fertility trends and potential future birth rates. What does the child-women ratio accurately represent in demographic studies?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0-4 years of children per 1000 unmarried women of 15-49 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0-5 years of children per 1000 women of child bearing age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0-4 years of children per 1000 married women of 15-49 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0-4 years of children per 1000 women of 15-49 years of age", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 0-4 years of children per 1000 women of 15-49 years of age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720115924-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 0-4 years of children per 1000 women of 15-49 years of age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Child Women ratio is the number of children 0-4 years of age per 1000 women of child-bearing age , usually defined as 15-44 or 49 years of age . This ratio is used where birth registration statistics either do not exist or are inadequate.</li><li>• Child Women ratio</li><li>• number of children 0-4 years of age</li><li>• 1000 women of child-bearing age</li><li>• 15-44</li><li>• 49 years of age</li><li>• ratio</li><li>• birth registration statistics</li><li>• not exist</li><li>• are inadequate.</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Child Women ratio is the number of children 0-4 years of age per 1000 women of child-bearing age (15-49 year)</li><li>➤ Child Women ratio</li><li>➤ number of children 0-4 years of age</li><li>➤ 1000 women</li><li>➤ child-bearing age</li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In demographic studies, various fertility indicators are used to assess the reproductive behavior of a population. One of these indicators specifically utilizes the number of women of reproductive age as its denominator. Which of the following indicator employs the number of women within the reproductive age group as its denominator?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "General Fertility rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Net reproductive rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abortion ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. General Fertility rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720120016-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720120016-2.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720120016-3.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. General Fertility rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• General fertility Rate is the “number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age-group (15 to 44 or 49 years) in a given year”.</li><li>• General fertility Rate</li><li>• “number of live births per 1000 women</li><li>• reproductive age-group</li><li>• </li><li>• It is a better measure of fertility than Crude birth rate , but its limitation is that not all women are exposed to risk of child birth .</li><li>• better measure of fertility</li><li>• Crude birth rate</li><li>• limitation</li><li>• not all women</li><li>• exposed to risk of child birth</li><li>• Other Options –</li><li>• Other Options –</li><li>• Option A. Birth Rate: It is the total number of live births per thousand individuals of a mid-year population in a specified time period occurring within a defined geographical area .</li><li>• Option A. Birth Rate:</li><li>• total number of live births</li><li>• thousand individuals</li><li>• mid-year population</li><li>• specified time period</li><li>• geographical area</li><li>• Option C. Net Reproduction Rate: Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates . If NRR is 1, it indicates a stable population where each woman, on an average, has enough daughters to replace herself and her partner in the next generation.</li><li>• Option C. Net Reproduction Rate:</li><li>• number of daughters a newborn girl will bear</li><li>• lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility</li><li>• mortality rates</li><li>• Gross reproduction rate (GRR) or Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is almost equal to the half of the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).</li><li>• Option D. Abortion Ratio: The Abortion Ratio is a demographic indicator that measures the number of induced abortions performed in a specified time period per 1,000 live births in the same time frame . It provides insights into the frequency of induced abortions in relation to live births within a population.</li><li>• Option D. Abortion Ratio:</li><li>• demographic indicator</li><li>• number of induced abortions</li><li>• specified time period per 1,000 live births</li><li>• same time frame</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ General fertility Rate is the number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age-group (15 to 44 or 49 years) in a given year</li><li>➤ General fertility Rate</li><li>➤ number of live births</li><li>➤ 1000 women</li><li>➤ reproductive age-group</li><li>➤ given year</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 569- 570.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 569- 570.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a research intern, you are analyzing the trends in population growth and family planning practices in India. The aim is to assess the completed family size as a measure of fertility. Based on the latest data from 2019-2021, what is the current Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2.2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2.1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2.0", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2.3", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2.0", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/26/screenshot-2024-07-26-163310.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2.0</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR) represents the total number of children born to a woman during her reproductive years (15-49 years).</li><li>• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)</li><li>• total number of children born</li><li>• woman</li><li>• reproductive years</li><li>• It is obtained by summing the age-specific fertility rates for all ages . This gives the approximate magnitude of ‘completed family size’.</li><li>• summing the age-specific fertility rates</li><li>• all ages</li><li>• magnitude of ‘completed family size’.</li><li>• In India, currently the value of TFR is 2.0, (NFHS 5, 2019-2021). It is slightly higher in rural areas (TFR – 2.1) than the urban areas (TFR – 1.6).</li><li>• Total cohort fertility rate (TCFR) is a better estimate of completed family size than TFR</li><li>• Total cohort fertility rate</li><li>• better estimate</li><li>• completed family size</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TFR (India): 2.0 (2019-21, NFHS-5)</li><li>➤ Ref : NFHS 5 Fact sheet</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : NFHS 5 Fact sheet</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A demographer is evaluating the future implications of population dynamics in a given region. To determine whether the population is replacing itself adequately, they focus on the Net Reproduction Rate (NRR). At which value of NRR would they conclude that the population growth is less than adequate, signaling a potential future decrease in population size?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NRR&lt; 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "NRR &gt; 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NRR=1", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NRR=1.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. NRR< 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. NRR&lt; 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• If the NRR is less than 1 , then the reproductive performance of the population is said to be below replacement level .</li><li>• NRR is less than 1</li><li>• reproductive performance</li><li>• population</li><li>• below replacement level</li><li>• Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates . If NRR is 1 , it indicates a stable population where each woman , on an average , has enough daughters to replace herself and her partner in the next generation.</li><li>• Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)</li><li>• number of daughters</li><li>• newborn girl will bear</li><li>• lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility</li><li>• mortality rates</li><li>• NRR is 1</li><li>• stable population</li><li>• each woman</li><li>• average</li><li>• enough daughters to replace herself</li><li>• her partner</li><li>• next generation.</li><li>• NRR = 1 - Each generation of women is exactly reproducing itself</li><li>• To achieve NRR =1 - Couple Protection Rate (CPR) should be &gt;60%</li><li>• GRR is same as the NRR, except that, like the TFR, it ignores life expectancy</li><li>• Gross reproduction rate (GRR) or Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is almost equal to the half of the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).</li><li>• Gross reproduction rate</li><li>• equal to the half of the Total Fertility Rate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 2 child norm means NRR = 1</li><li>➤ 2 child norm</li><li>➤ NRR = 1</li><li>➤ Best indicator of fertility is Net reproduction rate (NRR)</li><li>➤ Best indicator of fertility</li><li>➤ Net reproduction rate</li><li>➤ If the NRR is less than 1, then the reproductive performance of the population is said to be below replacement level.</li><li>➤ To achieve NRR =1 - Couple Protection Rate (CPR) should be &gt;60%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 563</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 563</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An urban health department is reviewing its annual report from 2018. The city, with a population of 12,000, reported 1,580 births within that year, of which 20 were stillbirths. Given that the mid-year female population in the childbearing age group (usually considered as ages 15-49) was 4,500, calculate the General Fertility Rate (GFR) for the area.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "421", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "346", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "392", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "484", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 346", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720121258-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 346</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• General fertility rate (GFR): Annual number of live births per 1000 women of childbearing age (15–49 years old, or 15–44 years old) mid-year population</li><li>• General fertility rate</li><li>• Annual number of live births</li><li>• 1000 women of childbearing age</li><li>• mid-year population</li><li>• Calculation</li><li>• No of live births = 1580 – 20 = 1560</li><li>• General fertility rate = (1560*1000) / 4500</li><li>• = 346.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ General fertility rate (GFR): Annual number of live births per 1000 women of childbearing age (15–49 years old, or 15–44 years old) mid-year population</li><li>➤ General fertility rate</li><li>➤ Annual number of live births</li><li>➤ 1000 women</li><li>➤ childbearing age</li><li>➤ mid-year population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 569.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 569.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the study of population dynamics, the concept of a demographic gap refers to the difference between birth and death rates. In certain conditions, particularly when a country undergoes significant social and health challenges, this gap may become negative. Such a situation is indicative of a unique phase in demographic transition, characterized by a higher number of deaths than births over a certain period, potentially leading to a decline in population size. Considering this context, which stage of the demographic transition would most likely be associated with a negative demographic gap, taking into account that none of the traditional four stages of the demographic transition model explicitly describe this phenomenon?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stage 1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stage 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stage 4", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage 5", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Stage 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720121345-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Stage 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Demographic cycle is based on: Demographic gap (DG = Crude Birth Rate (CBR) – Crude Death Rate)</li><li>• Demographic cycle is based on: Demographic gap (DG = Crude Birth Rate (CBR) – Crude Death Rate)</li><li>• – DG starts increasing: Early Stage II (early expanding phase) – DG is Maximum: Late Stage II (early expanding phase) – DG starts declining: Early Stage III (late expanding phase) – DG is Negative: Stage V (Declining phase) – DG is Narrow: Stage I (high stationary); Stage IV (low stationary)</li><li>• DG is Negative: Stage V (Declining phase)</li><li>• Demographic cycle -</li><li>• Demographic cycle -</li><li>• (1) FIRST STAGE (Option A) ( High stationary ) - High birth rate and a high death rate. India was in this stage till 1920.</li><li>• FIRST STAGE</li><li>• High stationary</li><li>• (2) SECOND STAGE (Option B) ( Early expanding ) - Death rate begins to decline but birth rate remains unchanged. Many countries in South Asia, and Africa are in this phase.</li><li>• SECOND STAGE</li><li>• Early expanding</li><li>• (3) THIRD STAGE ( Late expanding ) - Death rate declines still further, and the birth rate tends to fall. However, birth rate exceeds death rate. India has entered this phase.</li><li>• THIRD STAGE</li><li>• Late expanding</li><li>• India has entered this phase.</li><li>• (4) FOURTH STAGE (Option C) ( Low stationary ) - Low birth and low death- UK, Denmark, Sweden and Belgium, Austria.</li><li>• FOURTH STAGE</li><li>• Low stationary</li><li>• (5) FIFTH STAGE ( Declining ): Birth rate is lower than the death rate. Ex - Germany, Italy, Spain, Portugal, Greece, United Kingdom and Japan (populations are reproducing well &lt; replacement levels)</li><li>• FIFTH STAGE</li><li>• Declining</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demographic Gap (DG) = Crude Birth Rate (CBR) – Crude Death Rate</li><li>➤ DG is Negative : Stage V (Declining phase)</li><li>➤ DG is Negative</li><li>➤ Stage V</li><li>➤ India is in Stage III (Late Expanding Phase) of Demographic cycle</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg 560</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : park 26 th ed pg 560</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Census has been a cornerstone in the gathering of demographic data, helping governments plan and allocate resources. In the context of India, the census has played a crucial role in demographic and socio-economic planning. With a heritage of British administrative practices, India initiated its own series of nationwide censuses. The very first of these censuses was conducted under British governance. When was the first comprehensive census, which laid the groundwork for demographic analysis in India, conducted?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1851", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1881", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1871", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1901", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1871", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1871.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The first regular census in India was taken in 1871, and others took place at 10-year intervals . The last census was held in March 2011.</li><li>• first regular census</li><li>• India</li><li>• 1871,</li><li>• took place at 10-year intervals</li><li>• last census</li><li>• March 2011.</li><li>• Census: Total process of collecting , compiling, analyzing or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining , at a specific time , of all persons in a country or a well-defined part of a country . This provides a snapshot of the country’s population and housing at a given point of time.</li><li>• Census:</li><li>• Total process of collecting</li><li>• compiling,</li><li>• analyzing</li><li>• disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining</li><li>• specific time</li><li>• all persons</li><li>• country or a well-defined part of a country</li><li>• First census in India was done in 1871</li><li>• First census in India was done in 1871</li><li>• First Disability census was done in the year 1881</li><li>• First Disability census was done in the year 1881</li><li>• The census is usually conducted at the end of the first quarter of the first year in each decade , the reason being, most people are usually resident in their own homes during that period.</li><li>• end of the first quarter of the first year in each decade</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ First census in India was done in 1871 and First Disability census was done in the year 1881</li><li>➤ First census</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ 1871</li><li>➤ First Disability census</li><li>➤ year 1881</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed . pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed . pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In order to facilitate strategic planning and implementation of national development programs, a comprehensive enumeration of the population is essential. The Indian government undertakes this mammoth task through the national census, which is the largest source of a variety of statistical information on different characteristics of the people of India. As per the established practice, when is the national census of India usually conducted?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "At the beginning of the first year in each decade", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "At the end of first quarter of the first year in each decade", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "At the beginning of the second quarter of the first year in each decade", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "At the end of first quarter of the last year in each decade", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. At the end of first quarter of the first year in each decade", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/04/image_yUqw0GP.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. At the end of first quarter of the first year in each decade</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The census is usually conducted at the end of the first quarter of the first year in each decade , the reason being, most people are usually resident in their own homes during that period.</li><li>• census</li><li>• end of the first quarter of the first year in each decade</li><li>• Census: Total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining, at a specific time , of all persons in a country or a well-defined part of a country . This provides a snapshot of the country’s population and housing at a given point of time.</li><li>• Census:</li><li>• Total process</li><li>• collecting, compiling, analyzing</li><li>• disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining,</li><li>• specific time</li><li>• country or a well-defined part of a country</li><li>• First census in India was done in 1871</li><li>• First census in India was done in 1871</li><li>• First Disability census was done in the year 1881</li><li>• First Disability census was done in the year 1881</li><li>• Key Facts of Census (India) 2011 (Last Census - 15th Census)</li><li>• Key Facts of Census (India) 2011 (Last Census - 15th Census)</li><li>• Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal) Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948 The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011 Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011 Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011 Districts covered: 640 Census Stop (Census Movement) : 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken) FIRST-TIME ACTIVITIES EVER DONE: BIOMETRY</li><li>• Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal)</li><li>• Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948</li><li>• The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner</li><li>• Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011</li><li>• Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011</li><li>• Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011</li><li>• Districts covered: 640</li><li>• Census Stop (Census Movement) : 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken)</li><li>• Census Stop (Census Movement)</li><li>• FIRST-TIME ACTIVITIES EVER DONE: BIOMETRY</li><li>• – Fingerprints – 10</li><li>• – Iris scan – National Population Register (NPR) – UID – Unique identification number – Photograph</li><li>• Key findings - Census 2011</li><li>• Key findings - Census 2011</li><li>• Total population: 1210 million population as on 00.00 hrs 1st March 2011 Sex ratio: 943 females per 1000 males</li><li>• Total population: 1210 million population as on 00.00 hrs 1st March 2011</li><li>• Sex ratio: 943 females per 1000 males</li><li>• – Child-sex ratio: 919 girls per 1000 boys (0-6 yrs age)</li><li>• Dependency ratio: 54 per 100 (0.54) Density of population: 382 persons per square km Literacy Level (aged 7 yrs and older): 74% (Males 82% &amp; Females 65%) Growth rate: Decadal Growth Rate: 17.64% ; Annual Growth Rate: 1.64%</li><li>• Dependency ratio: 54 per 100 (0.54)</li><li>• Density of population: 382 persons per square km</li><li>• Literacy Level (aged 7 yrs and older): 74% (Males 82% &amp; Females 65%)</li><li>• Growth rate: Decadal Growth Rate: 17.64% ; Annual Growth Rate: 1.64%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The census is usually conducted at the end of the first quarter of the first year of each decade</li><li>➤ census</li><li>➤ conducted at the end of the first quarter</li><li>➤ first year of each decade</li><li>➤ The census organization set up and working under Ministry of Home Affairs and the Head of census organization is the Registrar General and Census Commissioner</li><li>➤ census organization set up</li><li>➤ working under Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>➤ Head of census organization</li><li>➤ Registrar General</li><li>➤ Census Commissioner</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed. Pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed. Pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a public health initiative, a group of healthcare providers is tasked with developing a new health policy to address the rising incidence of tuberculosis in a resource-limited setting. They begin by gathering various data on the current situation, analyzing it, and planning strategic steps to form an effective policy. Which of the following sequences best represents the logical progression from initial data gathering to policy formulation in public health practice?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Data- intelligence- Information- Policy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Policy- Data- Information- Intelligence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Data- Information- Intelligence- Policy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Information- Data- Intelligence-Policy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Data- Information- Intelligence- Policy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Data - Information - Intelligence - Policy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Data consists of discrete observations of attributes or events that carry little meaning when considered alone.</li><li>• Data</li><li>• discrete observations</li><li>• attributes or events</li><li>• little meaning</li><li>• Data is transformed into Information by reducing them , summarizing them , and adjusting them for variations.</li><li>• Data</li><li>• transformed</li><li>• Information</li><li>• reducing them</li><li>• summarizing them</li><li>• adjusting them</li><li>• Information is then transformed through integration and processing with experience and perceptions based on social and political values that produces Intelligence.</li><li>• Information</li><li>• transformed</li><li>• integration</li><li>• processing</li><li>• experience</li><li>• perceptions</li><li>• social and political values</li><li>• Intelligence.</li><li>• Finally, intelligence is viewed against various socio-economic and political considerations , and depending upon the priorities allocated by the society and government, a “ policy ” is finally developed.</li><li>• intelligence is viewed</li><li>• socio-economic</li><li>• political considerations</li><li>• priorities allocated</li><li>• policy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The logical progression from data collection to policy development in public health is: Data → Information → Intelligence → Policy .</li><li>➤ logical progression</li><li>➤ data collection</li><li>➤ policy development</li><li>➤ public health</li><li>➤ Data</li><li>➤ Information</li><li>➤ Intelligence</li><li>➤ Policy</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, p 935, Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 134</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, p 935, Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 134</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of public health researchers is collaborating with the Indian government to evaluate the process used to collect and record population data for the national census. Understanding this process is crucial for the effective planning of healthcare services and the allocation of resources across diverse and populous regions. Which method is primarily used in India to collect and record data during the Census enumeration?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "De jure method", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "De Facto method", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. De Facto method", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. De Facto method</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• De - jure method : This method is used in developed countries like the U.S.A . The persons are assigned according to their “usual” place of residence and not according to their location at the time of census, as practiced in de - facto method.</li><li>• De - jure method</li><li>• developed countries like the U.S.A</li><li>• persons</li><li>• assigned</li><li>• “usual” place of residence</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ De - facto method is primarily used in India to collect and record data during the Census enumeration</li><li>➤ De - facto method</li><li>➤ India to collect</li><li>➤ record data</li><li>➤ Census enumeration</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 135.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 135.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is conducting a study on the logistics and management of population health data as part of a public health internship. The student is tasked with understanding the governance and administrative structures in different countries that oversee the collection and utilization of census data. In India, which authority is responsible for the overall administration and conduct of the population census?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Union health minister", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Home minister", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Census commissioner of India", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ministry of Health and Family welfare", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Census commissioner of India", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Census commissioner of India</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India , under the Ministry of Home Affairs , is the authority responsible for the overall administration and conduct of the population census in India . This includes the planning, coordination, and execution of the decadal census, which is crucial for formulating policies related to population control, healthcare, education, and various other aspects of public welfare.</li><li>• Registrar General</li><li>• Census Commissioner, India</li><li>• Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• authority responsible</li><li>• overall administration</li><li>• conduct of the population census in India</li><li>• Key Facts of Census (India) 2011</li><li>• Key Facts of Census (India) 2011</li><li>• Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal) Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948 The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011 Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011 Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011 Districts covered: 640 Census Stop (Census Movement): 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken)</li><li>• Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal)</li><li>• Every 10 years</li><li>• Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948</li><li>• Census Act, 1948</li><li>• The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner</li><li>• Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner</li><li>• Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011</li><li>• 9th–28th February 2011</li><li>• Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011</li><li>• 1st–5th March 2011</li><li>• Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011</li><li>• Night of 28th February 2011</li><li>• Districts covered: 640</li><li>• 640</li><li>• Census Stop (Census Movement): 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken)</li><li>• FIRST TIME ACTIVITIES EVER DONE: BIOMETRY</li><li>• – Finger prints – 10 – Iris scan – National population register (NPR) – UID – Unique identification number – Photograph</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India , as the authority for the administration and conduct of the census in India.</li><li>➤ Registrar General</li><li>➤ Census Commissioner, India</li><li>➤ authority for the administration</li><li>➤ conduct of the census</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed. Pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed. Pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a public health specialist interested in analyzing the trends in healthcare delivery and disease prevalence across India. You aim to utilize a comprehensive source of health data that can aid in the assessment of health status and health systems at various administrative levels. You recall that a regular publication provides detailed insights on a wide range of health metrics, including disease incidence, healthcare finance, and human resources in health. Which authority is responsible for the publication of the annual National Health Profile, which provides extensive data on India’s health status?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Indian Council of Medical Research", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Director general of armed forces", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central health education bureau", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central bureau of health intelligence", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Central bureau of health intelligence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Central bureau of health intelligence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is the national nodal institution for health intelligence in India , functioning under the Directorate General of Health Services , Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is responsible for the publication of the annual National Health Profile , which is a comprehensive compilation of national data on demographics, socioeconomic status, disease incidence, healthcare delivery systems, and human resources in health.</li><li>• Central Bureau of Health Intelligence</li><li>• health intelligence in India</li><li>• functioning</li><li>• Directorate General of Health Services</li><li>• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.</li><li>• publication of the annual National Health Profile</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) as the publisher of the annual National Health Profile in India.</li><li>➤ Central Bureau of Health Intelligence</li><li>➤ publisher</li><li>➤ annual National Health Profile in India.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 140</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 140</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is tasked with planning a large-scale national health survey that aims to collect comprehensive demographic data for policymaking. They are evaluating different enumeration methods and are concerned about the legality and authority of the data collection process. The official wants to ensure that the methodology chosen is in compliance with governmental regulations and has the support of national law. Which of the following enumeration methods is mandated and supported by a specific act passed by the legislative branch of the government?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Census", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SRS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "NFHS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Facilities survey", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Census", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Census</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• No legal backing / legislation for other 3 options.</li><li>• No legal backing</li><li>• Option B. SRS: Sample Registration System (SRS) was initiated in 1964–65 (on a pilot basis; full scale from 1969–70) to provide national as well as state-level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality . SRS is a dual record system -</li><li>• Option B. SRS:</li><li>• Sample Registration System</li><li>• 1964–65</li><li>• national as well as state-level reliable estimates</li><li>• fertility</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• – Field Investigation : Continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator</li><li>• Field Investigation</li><li>• – Independent retrospective survey : Every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>• Independent retrospective survey</li><li>• Option C. NFHS: Is a large-scale , multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India . This is conducted to provide state and national information for India on fertility, infant and child mortality, the practice of family planning, maternal and child health, reproductive health, nutrition, anaemia, utilization and quality of health and family planning services. The Nodal agency for NFHS is the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai.</li><li>• Option C. NFHS:</li><li>• large-scale</li><li>• multi-round survey</li><li>• representative sample</li><li>• households throughout India</li><li>• Option D. Facilities survey : Is an on-site inspection of a Facility by a Healthcare Authority with jurisdiction over such Facility to determine if the facility is meeting minimum quality and performance standards.</li><li>• Option D. Facilities survey</li><li>• on-site inspection</li><li>• Facility</li><li>• Healthcare Authority</li><li>• jurisdiction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key Facts of Census (India) 2011</li><li>➤ Key Facts of Census (India) 2011</li><li>➤ Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal) Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948 The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011 Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011 Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011 Districts covered: 640 Census Stop (Census Movement): 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken) FIRST TIME ACTIVITIES EVER DONE: BIOMETRY Finger prints – 10 Iris scan National population register (NPR) UID – Unique identification number Photograph</li><li>➤ Frequency of census in India: Every 10 years (decadal)</li><li>➤ Every 10 years</li><li>➤ Legal basis of conducting census: The Census Act, 1948</li><li>➤ Census Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The census organization set up and working under: Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>➤ Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>➤ Head of census organization: Registrar General and Census Commissioner</li><li>➤ Registrar General</li><li>➤ Census Commissioner</li><li>➤ Population enumeration: 9th–28th February 2011</li><li>➤ 9th–28th February 2011</li><li>➤ Revisional round: 1st–5th March 2011</li><li>➤ 1st–5th March 2011</li><li>➤ Houseless population enumeration: Night of 28th February 2011</li><li>➤ Night of 28th February 2011</li><li>➤ Districts covered: 640</li><li>➤ 640</li><li>➤ Census Stop (Census Movement): 00.00 hrs 01 March 2011 (The referral time and date at which snapshot of the population is taken)</li><li>➤ FIRST TIME ACTIVITIES EVER DONE: BIOMETRY Finger prints – 10 Iris scan National population register (NPR) UID – Unique identification number Photograph</li><li>➤ Finger prints – 10 Iris scan National population register (NPR) UID – Unique identification number Photograph</li><li>➤ Finger prints – 10</li><li>➤ Iris scan</li><li>➤ National population register (NPR)</li><li>➤ UID – Unique identification number</li><li>➤ Photograph</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-week-old infant is brought to the outpatient clinic for a well-baby visit. During the visit, the mother mentions that she has not yet registered the child's birth due to a lack of clarity about the legal time frame for such registration. She expresses concern about potential legal issues and asks for advice on the matter. As a physician aware of public health mandates, you discuss the legal requirements for registering births in the country. According to the Births and Deaths Registration Act, within how many days of the event must a birth be registered to comply with the legal requirements?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14 and 21 days respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "21 and 14 days respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Both 21 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both 14 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Both 21 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/27/screenshot-2024-07-27-095318.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Both 21 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The time limit for registering the event of births and deaths is 21 days uniformly all over India . In case of default late fee can be imposed .</li><li>• time limit</li><li>• registering the event of births</li><li>• deaths is 21 days</li><li>• uniformly</li><li>• India</li><li>• default late fee</li><li>• imposed</li><li>• Civil Registration System</li><li>• Civil Registration System</li><li>• Civil Registration System (CRS): Birth and death registration system is technically known as CRS Registration of births and deaths (Birth and Death Registration Act, 1969) and marriages is compulsory at their place of occurrence with the local registrar in India Births must be registered within: 21 days Deaths must be registered within: 21 days Marriages must be registered within: Variable limits within India In cases of delayed registration for birth/death:</li><li>• Civil Registration System (CRS): Birth and death registration system is technically known as CRS</li><li>• Birth and death registration system</li><li>• Registration of births and deaths (Birth and Death Registration Act, 1969) and marriages is compulsory at their place of occurrence with the local registrar in India Births must be registered within: 21 days Deaths must be registered within: 21 days Marriages must be registered within: Variable limits within India</li><li>• Registration of births</li><li>• deaths</li><li>• marriages</li><li>• compulsory</li><li>• Births must be registered within: 21 days Deaths must be registered within: 21 days Marriages must be registered within: Variable limits within India</li><li>• Births must be registered within: 21 days</li><li>• Deaths must be registered within: 21 days</li><li>• Marriages must be registered within: Variable limits within India</li><li>• In cases of delayed registration for birth/death:</li><li>• Registration of name of the child :</li><li>• Registration of name of the child :</li><li>• Registration of name of the child</li><li>• – Within 12 months of birth registration: Free of charge – After 12 months of birth registration till 15 years: Rs 5.00</li><li>• Coverage of registration of births and deaths in India</li><li>• Coverage of registration of births and deaths in India</li><li>• Coverage of registration of births and deaths in India</li><li>• – Coverage of births registration in India: 89% – Coverage of deaths registration in India: 74%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to The Registration of Births &amp; Deaths Act 1969 , both births and deaths are to be registered within 21 days each.</li><li>➤ Registration of Births &amp; Deaths Act 1969</li><li>➤ births and deaths</li><li>➤ registered within 21 days each.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer working in a rural health center is discussing with the staff about the periodicity of independent surveys conducted under the Sample Registration System (SRS) for monitoring the demographic changes in their region. These surveys are crucial for planning and implementing public health interventions effectively. In the Sample Registration System (SRS), an independent survey by an investigator is conducted at what frequency to ensure accurate monitoring of demographic statistics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The SRS is a dual-record system , consisting of continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator and an independent survey every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor . The half-yearly survey , in addition to serving as an independent check on the events recorded by the enumerator , produces the denominator required for computing rates.</li><li>• SRS is a dual-record system</li><li>• continuous enumeration</li><li>• births and deaths</li><li>• enumerator</li><li>• independent survey every 6 months</li><li>• investigator-supervisor</li><li>• half-yearly survey</li><li>• independent check</li><li>• events recorded</li><li>• enumerator</li><li>• Sample Registration System</li><li>• Sample Registration System</li><li>• Sample Registration System (SRS) was initiated in 1964–65 (on a pilot basis; full scale from 1969–70) to provide national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality</li><li>• initiated in 1964–65</li><li>• national as well as state level reliable estimates</li><li>• fertility</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• SRS is a dual record system: Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor Advantages of SRS as a dual record system : Elimination of errors of duplication Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of record making it a self-evaluating technique. Primary objective : To build up statistics on ‘Most Probable Causes of Death’ for rural and urban areas using lay diagnosis reporting (Post Death Verbal Autopsy)’ method Main objective of SRS : To provide reliable estimates of BR, DR and IMR at the natural division level for rural areas and at the state level for urban areas Main components of SRS :</li><li>• SRS is a dual record system: Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>• dual record system:</li><li>• Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>• Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator</li><li>• Independent retrospective survey: every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>• Advantages of SRS as a dual record system : Elimination of errors of duplication Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of record making it a self-evaluating technique.</li><li>• Advantages of SRS as a dual record system</li><li>• Elimination of errors of duplication Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of record making it a self-evaluating technique.</li><li>• Elimination of errors of duplication</li><li>• Leads to a quantitative assessment of the sources of distortion in the two sets of record making it a self-evaluating technique.</li><li>• Primary objective : To build up statistics on ‘Most Probable Causes of Death’ for rural and urban areas using lay diagnosis reporting (Post Death Verbal Autopsy)’ method</li><li>• Primary objective</li><li>• Main objective of SRS : To provide reliable estimates of BR, DR and IMR at the natural division level for rural areas and at the state level for urban areas</li><li>• Main objective of SRS</li><li>• Main components of SRS :</li><li>• Main components of SRS</li><li>• – Base-line survey of the sample units to obtain usual resident population of the sample areas</li><li>• – Continuous (longitudinal) enumeration of vital events pertaining to usual resident population by the enumerator</li><li>• – Independent retrospective half-yearly surveys for recording births and deaths that occurred during the half-year under reference and updating the Houselist, Household schedule and the list of women in the reproductive age group along with their pregnancy status by the Supervisor</li><li>• Independent retrospective half-yearly surveys</li><li>• – Matching of events recorded during continuous enumeration and those listed in course of half-yearly survey</li><li>• – Field verification of unmatched and partially matched events</li><li>• – Filling of Verbal Autopsy forms for finalized deaths</li><li>• Sample design adopted for SRS : A unistage stratified simple random sample</li><li>• Sample design adopted for SRS : A unistage stratified simple random sample</li><li>• Sample design adopted for SRS</li><li>• – Infant Mortality is the decisive indicator for estimation of sample size at Natural Division</li><li>• SRS now covers the entire country Findings of SRS Bulletin : [2022]: Crude Birth Rate (CBR): 19.5 per 1000 mid-year population Crude Death Rate (CDR): 6.0 per 1000 mid-year population Natural Growth Rate: 13.5% Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): 28 per 1000 live births</li><li>• SRS now covers the entire country</li><li>• SRS now covers the entire country</li><li>• Findings of SRS Bulletin : [2022]:</li><li>• Findings of SRS Bulletin</li><li>• Crude Birth Rate (CBR): 19.5 per 1000 mid-year population</li><li>• Crude Death Rate (CDR): 6.0 per 1000 mid-year population</li><li>• Natural Growth Rate: 13.5%</li><li>• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): 28 per 1000 live births</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SRS is a dual record system - Field Investigation : continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator and an Independent retrospective survey : every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor</li><li>➤ dual record system</li><li>➤ Field Investigation</li><li>➤ continuous enumeration</li><li>➤ births</li><li>➤ deaths</li><li>➤ enumerator</li><li>➤ Independent retrospective survey</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 937</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 937</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an academic discussion on health information systems, a group of health informatics students is examining different methods of data collection and their practical applications in various health settings. In the context of health information systems, which method of data enumeration utilizes the 'lay reporting approach' for gathering health-related information?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Census", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SRS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Registration of vital events", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "DLHS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Registration of vital events", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Registration of vital events</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Because of slow progress in the development of a comprehensive vital registration system , lay reporting approach has been developed in several countries .</li><li>• slow progress</li><li>• development of a comprehensive vital registration system</li><li>• developed in several countries</li><li>• Lay reporting is a style of journalism or news reporting that aims to present information in a simple and accessible manner , making it understandable to the general public . It is the collection, use and transmission of the data to the other levels of the health system.</li><li>• Lay reporting</li><li>• style of journalism</li><li>• news reporting</li><li>• present information</li><li>• simple</li><li>• accessible manner</li><li>• understandable</li><li>• general public</li><li>• It aims at bridging the gap between the experts and the general audience .</li><li>• aims at bridging the gap</li><li>• experts</li><li>• general audience</li><li>• The lay reporting approach is commonly associated with the Civil Registration System (CRS). In the CRS , the reporting of events such as births and deaths is usually done by individuals who are not healthcare professionals , such as relatives or other laypersons responsible for reporting these events to local authorities or registrars. The emphasis is on the legal requirement for citizens to report vital events, and this system is critical for maintaining legal documentation and generating vital statistics for public health purposes.</li><li>• lay reporting approach</li><li>• Civil Registration System</li><li>• CRS</li><li>• reporting of events</li><li>• births and deaths</li><li>• done by individuals</li><li>• not healthcare professionals</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Registration of vital events in India : 100% registration of 4 vital events by 2010 (under National Population Policy 2000)</li><li>➤ Registration of vital events in India</li><li>➤ 100% registration</li><li>➤ 4 vital events by 2010</li><li>➤ – Birth : Central Births and Deaths Registration Act’ 1969 (REGISTER &lt; 21 DAYS) – Death : Central Births and Deaths Registration Act’ 1969 (REGISTER &lt; 21 DAYS) – Marriage : The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 – Pregnancy : No legislation yet in India</li><li>➤ Birth</li><li>➤ Death</li><li>➤ Marriage</li><li>➤ Pregnancy</li><li>➤ The agency collects data and publishes large-scale surveys continuously regarding morbidity, family planning, vital events in India - National Sample Survey</li><li>➤ agency collects data</li><li>➤ publishes large-scale surveys</li><li>➤ regarding morbidity, family planning, vital events in India</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is conducting a study to determine the prevalence of non-communicable disease (NCD) risk factors within an adult population in a given district. The study design includes the selection of households through a random sampling method to collect information directly from the individuals living there. What type of data collection method is being utilized in this study?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary data", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary data", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aggregate data", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Individual data", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Primary data", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Primary data</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Secondary data: Data collected from existing records</li><li>• Option B. Secondary data:</li><li>• existing records</li><li>• Option C. Aggregated data : Is defined as data that has been collected and combined from multiple individuals from a population and then is used to create a statistical report that makes inferences about the population. Aggregate data is usually presented as an average, percentage, or proportion of some factor of interest.</li><li>• Option C. Aggregated data</li><li>• data that has been collected</li><li>• combined from multiple individuals</li><li>• population</li><li>• create a statistical report</li><li>• Option D. Individual data: Is defined as collected data that can be associated with a single element in a sample .</li><li>• Option D. Individual data:</li><li>• collected data</li><li>• single element in a sample</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary Data collected directly from the participants , while secondary is from the existing records .</li><li>➤ Primary Data</li><li>➤ directly from the participants</li><li>➤ secondary</li><li>➤ existing records</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 134</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 134</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health department is planning to enhance its surveillance capabilities for monitoring critical health conditions within the community. They are considering the establishment of a sentinel surveillance system. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for developing such a system?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "NFHS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hospital records", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SRS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Census", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hospital records", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hospital records.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A study of hospital data provides information on the following aspects:</li><li>• A study of hospital data provides information on the following aspects:</li><li>• Geographic sources of patients Age and sex distribution of different diseases and duration of hospital stay Distribution of diagnosis Association between different diseases The period between disease and hospital admission The distribution of patients according to different social and biological characteristics The cost of hospital care.</li><li>• Geographic sources of patients</li><li>• Age and sex distribution of different diseases and duration of hospital stay</li><li>• Distribution of diagnosis</li><li>• Association between different diseases</li><li>• The period between disease and hospital admission</li><li>• The distribution of patients according to different social and biological characteristics</li><li>• The cost of hospital care.</li><li>• Hospital data can be used for the following purposes:</li><li>• Hospital data can be used for the following purposes:</li><li>• For establishing sentinel surveillance For establishing registries For studying the epidemiology of hospital-acquired infections and studies on drug resistance pattern</li><li>• For establishing sentinel surveillance</li><li>• For establishing registries</li><li>• For studying the epidemiology of hospital-acquired infections and studies on drug resistance pattern</li><li>• Sentinel Surveillance: Monitoring of rate of occurrence of specific conditions to assess the stability or change in health levels of a population , it is also the study of disease rates in a specific population to estimate trends in the larger population .</li><li>• Sentinel Surveillance:</li><li>• Monitoring of rate of occurrence</li><li>• specific conditions</li><li>• assess</li><li>• stability</li><li>• change in health levels</li><li>• population</li><li>• study of disease rates</li><li>• specific population</li><li>• estimate trends</li><li>• larger population</li><li>• – Example: Use of health practitioners to monitor trends of a health event in a population – Helps in ‘identifying missing cases’ and ‘supplementing notified cases’ – Sentinel Surveillance is done in the National AIDS Control Program wherein STD Clinics, ANC Clinics are sentinel sites to monitor trends</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sentinel surveillance is used for Supplementary to routine notification</li><li>➤ Sentinel surveillance</li><li>➤ Supplementary</li><li>➤ Sentinel Surveillance helps in ‘identifying missing cases’ and ‘supplementing notified cases.</li><li>➤ Sentinel Surveillance</li><li>➤ ‘identifying missing cases’</li><li>➤ ‘supplementing notified cases.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 140, Park 26 th ed, pg 937</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 140, Park 26 th ed, pg 937</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer is tasked with gathering comprehensive data on the incidence, prevalence, and mortality rates of cardiovascular diseases within a metropolitan area over the past decade. To achieve a robust understanding of these patterns for improved public health planning, which of the following sources would most likely provide the most extensive morbidity and mortality data for these specific diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DLHS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidemiological Surveillance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "SRS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Civil registration system", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epidemiological Surveillance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Epidemiological Surveillance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• All of the above-mentioned options – DLHS, Epidemiological surveillance , SRS and CRS – have contributed to yielding considerable mortality and morbidity data for the specific diseases, but the single best answer would be Epidemiological surveillance .</li><li>• DLHS, Epidemiological surveillance</li><li>• SRS and CRS</li><li>• contributed to yielding</li><li>• mortality and morbidity data</li><li>• Epidemiological surveillance</li><li>• Epidemiological surveillance is specifically designed to capture disease-related information . It focuses on monitoring and understanding the patterns and impact of diseases , including morbidity (incidence and prevalence) and mortality rates . By actively collecting data on disease cases, outbreaks, and associated risk factors, epidemiological surveillance provides detailed and specialized insights into specific diseases and their impact on public health.</li><li>• Epidemiological surveillance</li><li>• designed to capture disease-related information</li><li>• focuses on monitoring</li><li>• understanding the patterns</li><li>• impact of diseases</li><li>• morbidity</li><li>• mortality rates</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. DLHS (District Level Household and Facility Survey) : The DLHS is a large-scale survey conducted in India that provides information on various health indicators , including morbidity and mortality data . It collects data directly from households, enabling the assessment of disease prevalence, health-seeking behavior, and utilization of healthcare services.</li><li>• Option A. DLHS (District Level Household and Facility Survey)</li><li>• large-scale survey</li><li>• India</li><li>• provides information</li><li>• health indicators</li><li>• morbidity</li><li>• mortality data</li><li>• Option C. SRS (Sample Registration System) : The SRS is a demographic survey conducted by the Government of India to estimate various vital statistics , including birth rates, death rates, and causes of death. It covers a representative sample of the population, providing valuable morbidity and mortality data that can be used for public health planning and policy formulation.</li><li>• Option C. SRS (Sample Registration System)</li><li>• demographic survey</li><li>• Government of India</li><li>• estimate various vital statistics</li><li>• Option D. Civil Registration System: The Civil Registration System is a governmental system that records and registers vital events such as births, deaths, marriages , and divorces . It serves as a primary source of data for collecting morbidity and mortality statistics. By capturing information on causes of death, it contributes to understanding disease patterns and mortality rates.</li><li>• Option D. Civil Registration System:</li><li>• governmental system</li><li>• records and registers vital events</li><li>• births, deaths, marriages</li><li>• divorces</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidemiological surveillance involves the systematic collection , analysis , and interpretation of health-related data to monitor the occurrence and distribution of diseases within a population . This surveillance system, which can be conducted at various levels (local, national, or global), helps identify disease outbreaks, track disease trends, and generate morbidity and mortality data for specific diseases.</li><li>➤ Epidemiological surveillance</li><li>➤ systematic collection</li><li>➤ analysis</li><li>➤ interpretation</li><li>➤ health-related data</li><li>➤ monitor the occurrence</li><li>➤ distribution of diseases</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed. Pg 937.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed. Pg 937.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health expert is tasked with analyzing the socio-demographic targets set by the National Population Policy (NPP) of 2000 in a South Asian country. Which of the following goals does NOT align with the socio-demographic objectives outlined in the NPP 2000?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Achieve TFR of 2.1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promote delayed marriage for boys, not earlier than 21 years of age.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevent and control communicable diseases.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Achieve 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Promote delayed marriage for boys, not earlier than 21 years of age.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Promote delayed marriage for boys, not earlier than 21 years of age.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Population Policy</li><li>• National Population Policy</li><li>• National Population Policy was formulated or started from year 1976</li><li>• National Population Policy</li><li>• formulated</li><li>• 1976</li><li>• NPP 2000</li><li>• NPP 2000</li><li>• Objective</li><li>• Objective</li><li>• Immediate : To address the unmet needs for contraception , health care infrastructure , and health personnel , and to provide integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child health care</li><li>• Immediate</li><li>• address the unmet needs</li><li>• contraception</li><li>• health care infrastructure</li><li>• health personnel</li><li>• provide integrated service delivery</li><li>• basic reproductive</li><li>• child health care</li><li>• Mid-term: To bring the TFR to replacement levels (TFR = 2.1) by 2010</li><li>• Mid-term: To bring the TFR to replacement levels (TFR = 2.1) by 2010</li><li>• Long term : To achieve a stable population by 2045</li><li>• Long term</li><li>• stable population by 2045</li><li>• The National Socio-Demographic Goals to be achieved by the year 2010 were as follows:</li><li>• National Socio-Demographic Goals to be achieved by the year 2010</li><li>• (1) Address the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and infrastructure.</li><li>• (2) Make school education upto the age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drop-outs at primary and secondary school levels to below 20 percent for both boys and girls.</li><li>• (3) Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.</li><li>• (4) Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live births.</li><li>• (5) Achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.</li><li>• (6) Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.</li><li>• Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.</li><li>• (7) Achieve 80% institutional deliveries and 100% deliveries by trained persons.</li><li>• (8) Achieve universal access to information/ counselling and services for fertility regulation and contraception with a wide basket of choices.</li><li>• (9) Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths marriage, and pregnancy.</li><li>• Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths marriage, and pregnancy.</li><li>• (10) Contain the spread of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), and promote greater integration between the management of reproductive tract infections (RTI) and sexually transmitted infections (STI) and the National AIDS Control Organization.</li><li>• (11) Prevent and control communicable diseases.</li><li>• (12) Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health services, and in reaching out to households.</li><li>• (13) Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR.</li><li>• (14) Bring about convergence in implementation of related social sector programmes so that family welfare becomes a people centered programme.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Population Policy was formulated or started from year 1976</li><li>➤ National Population Policy</li><li>➤ formulated</li><li>➤ 1976</li><li>➤ Mid-term objective of NPP 2000 - To bring the TFR to replacement levels (TFR = 2.1) by 2010</li><li>➤ Mid-term objective</li><li>➤ NPP 2000</li><li>➤ TFR to replacement levels</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 574.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 574.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is analyzing demographic data to predict future healthcare needs. The researcher notes that the current population of the country is 5 million. If the population doubles in 30 years, the researcher is interested in determining the annual growth rate to estimate the potential increase in demand for healthcare services. Which of the following is the closest estimate of the country's annual population growth rate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Explosive growth", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rapid growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Very rapid growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Moderate growth", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Explosive growth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/15/picture57.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Explosive growth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The doubling time of a population can be roughly estimated using the rule of 70 , also known as the doubling time formula , which states that if you divide the number 70 by the number of years it takes for the population to double , you will get an approximate annual growth rate . Using this formula (70 / 30 years), we get an approximate annual growth rate of 2.3% i.e. Explosive GR</li><li>• doubling time</li><li>• population</li><li>• roughly estimated</li><li>• rule of 70</li><li>• doubling time formula</li><li>• if you divide the number 70</li><li>• number of years</li><li>• takes for the population to double</li><li>• approximate annual growth rate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RULE OF 70 : explains the time periods involved in exponential growth at a constant rate .</li><li>➤ RULE OF 70</li><li>➤ time periods</li><li>➤ exponential growth</li><li>➤ constant rate</li><li>➤ Since India’s AGR (Annual Growth Rate) is 1.64%, it is in very rapid growth phase ; Population of India will double in 35–47 years</li><li>➤ India’s AGR</li><li>➤ 1.64%,</li><li>➤ very rapid growth phase</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 562</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 60 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Disaster Management - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 17</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 17 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Dr. Aman is the newly appointed director of a national agency responsible for coordinating disaster management plans at the country's level. Recently, the country has witnessed an upsurge in natural disasters, including floods and earthquakes. As a part of his role, Dr. Aman is working with various stakeholders to ensure seamless coordination during any disaster to minimize loss of life and property. Which of the following entities is responsible for the overall coordination of the disaster management plan at the national level for natural disasters?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ministry of Agriculture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ministry of Home Affairs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ministry of Rural Development", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ministry of Health and Family welfare", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ministry of Home Affairs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcQyX3YDhn9dy-uNhsaSqqyAgUiykXgfo8YIjoR95LRU4w&s"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ministry of Home Affairs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In India, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) , established under the Disaster Management Act of 2005 (DM Act of 2005), and chaired by Hon'ble Prime Minister , is the apex body responsible for the formulation of policies, plans, and programs for disaster management . It has a holistic and integrated approach to reduce the impact of disasters and enhance disaster resilience. Although it works in close coordination with various ministries and state agencies , the NDMA is the primary body responsible for the overall coordination at the national level . This works under the Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)</li><li>• Disaster Management</li><li>• 2005</li><li>• chaired by Hon'ble Prime Minister</li><li>• policies, plans, and programs</li><li>• disaster management</li><li>• holistic</li><li>• integrated</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• disasters</li><li>• enhance disaster</li><li>• resilience.</li><li>• close coordination</li><li>• various ministries</li><li>• state agencies</li><li>• NDMA</li><li>• coordination</li><li>• national level</li><li>• Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• The NDMA Logo reflects the aspirations of this National Vision , of empowering all stakeholders to improve the effectiveness of Disaster Management in India:</li><li>• NDMA Logo</li><li>• National Vision</li><li>• empowering</li><li>• stakeholders</li><li>• improve</li><li>• effectiveness</li><li>• Disaster</li><li>• Management</li><li>• India:</li><li>• Outer circle is a Golden Ring of Partnership of all Stakeholders. Inner circle in tranquil Blue integrates the entire process by empowering all stakeholders at the local, district, state and national levels.</li><li>• Outer circle is a Golden Ring of Partnership of all Stakeholders.</li><li>• Outer circle</li><li>• Golden Ring</li><li>• Partnership</li><li>• all Stakeholders.</li><li>• Inner circle in tranquil Blue integrates the entire process by empowering all stakeholders at the local, district, state and national levels.</li><li>• Inner circle</li><li>• tranquil Blue</li><li>• empowering</li><li>• stakeholders</li><li>• local, district, state</li><li>• national levels.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NDMA Ministry In-charge : Ministry of Home Affairs.</li><li>➤ NDMA Ministry In-charge</li><li>➤ Ministry</li><li>➤ Home Affairs.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 1 st ed. pg 714</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is attending a workshop on disaster preparedness. The facilitator presents various scenarios to the group for classification. Which of the following would not be considered a natural disaster?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Meteorological Disasters", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Geophysical Disasters", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radiological Disaster", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Biological Disasters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radiological Disaster", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-113007.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Radiological Disaster</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Meteorological Disasters: Incorrect, as these are caused by climatic or weather - related phenomena and are considered natural disasters.</li><li>• Option A. Meteorological Disasters:</li><li>• Incorrect,</li><li>• climatic or weather</li><li>• related phenomena</li><li>• natural disasters.</li><li>• Option B. Geophysical Disasters: Incorrect because they result from geological processes of the Earth, like earthquakes and volcanoes and are natural disasters .</li><li>• Option B. Geophysical Disasters:</li><li>• Incorrect</li><li>• geological</li><li>• earthquakes and volcanoes</li><li>• natural disasters</li><li>• Option D. Biological Disasters: Incorrect as they are caused by biological hazards like pandemics or infestations and are considered natural disasters.</li><li>• Option D. Biological Disasters: Incorrect</li><li>• biological hazards</li><li>• pandemics</li><li>• infestations</li><li>• natural disasters.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Classification of Disasters</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed p 889</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old emergency physician is assigned as the medical team leader in response to a massive cyclone that has hit the coastal region. She's coordinating with various agencies to ensure optimal medical relief to affected individuals. Which of the following would be the nodal peripheral unit for providing medical relief in such disaster scenarios in the area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sub-center", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anganwadi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary Health Centre", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "District hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Primary Health Centre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Primary Health Centre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The nodal peripheral unit for providing medical relief will be the PHC of the area and the MO in charge of the PHC will coordinate all activities and seek assistance from the CMO as and when required . The subcenter staff will support him in all activities.</li><li>• nodal peripheral unit</li><li>• medical relief</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• area</li><li>• MO</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• activities</li><li>• seek assistance</li><li>• CMO</li><li>• required</li><li>• subcenter staff</li><li>• support</li><li>• all activities.</li><li>• The district hospital will act as NODAL CENTRE, and will be responsible for providing curative care as well as deployment of outreach teams .</li><li>• district hospital</li><li>• curative care</li><li>• deployment</li><li>• outreach teams</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The nodal peripheral unit for providing medical relief - PHC of the area .</li><li>• nodal peripheral unit</li><li>• medical relief</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• area .</li><li>• Reference: Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 1 st ed pg 717</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following triage categories with their appropriate descriptions –", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i-a, ii- d, iii-b, iv- c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i-b, ii- c, iii-a, iv- d", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i-b, ii- a, iii-d, iv- c", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "i-a, ii- b, iii-d, iv- c", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. i-b, ii- a, iii-d, iv- c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20141658.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20142308.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-24%20142346.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) i- b, ii- a, iii-d, iv- c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In Disaster management , maximum benefit is provided to the greatest number of injured in a major disaster situation by categorization of the patients and treating them not according to the severity of their injuries But according to the likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention . This categorization is called Triage.</li><li>• Disaster management</li><li>• maximum benefit</li><li>• greatest</li><li>• injured</li><li>• major disaster</li><li>• categorization</li><li>• treating</li><li>• severity</li><li>• injuries</li><li>• likelihood</li><li>• survival</li><li>• prompt medical intervention</li><li>• categorization</li><li>• Triage.</li><li>• In Triage, these patients are given different color codings as mentioned below –</li><li>• color codings</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triage is done on basis of 'Likelihood of Survival'</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 891.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A city is struck by a massive flood and earthquakes. You have been transported there for the management of the victims. There are four patients that you have encountered at the same time - Patient A: A 25-year-old male with an obstructed airway. Patient B: A 20-year-old female with bilaterally dilated and non-reactive pupil and absent pulse rate. Patient C: A 20-year-old male with Minor Abrasions over the legs Patient D: A 21-year-old female with Fracture of both the humerus How will you approach these patients in this scenario?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patient A followed by Patient B, then Patient C and lastly Patient D", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Patient B followed by Patient A, then Patient C and lastly Patient D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Patient A followed by Patient D, then Patient C and lastly Patient B", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Patient C followed by Patient D, then Patient A and lastly Patient B", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Patient A followed by Patient D, then Patient C and lastly Patient B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-115656.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Patient A followed by Patient D, then Patient C and lastly Patient B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In Disaster management , maximum benefit is provided to the greatest number of injured in a major disaster situation by categorization of the patients and treating them NOT according to the severity of their injuries but according to their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention . This categorization is called Triage.</li><li>• Disaster management</li><li>• maximum benefit</li><li>• greatest</li><li>• injured</li><li>• categorization</li><li>• patients</li><li>• treating</li><li>• severity</li><li>• injuries</li><li>• likelihood</li><li>• survival</li><li>• prompt medical intervention</li><li>• Triage.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In Triage, these patients are given different color coding as mentioned below -</li><li>➤ In Triage, these patients are given different color coding as mentioned below -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park's 26th edition page 891</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the aftermath of a disaster, various health issues often emerge due to the disruption of normal living conditions and services. In the post-disaster phase, public health professionals monitor and respond to a range of health concerns. Based on historical data and common occurrences, which is the most commonly reported disease in the post-disaster phase?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Respiratory Infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastroenteritis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholera", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gastroenteritis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Gastroenteritis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory Infections: Incorrect, although common , respiratory infections are not typically the most reported disease in post-disaster settings .</li><li>• Option A. Respiratory Infections:</li><li>• Incorrect,</li><li>• common</li><li>• respiratory infections</li><li>• not</li><li>• most reported disease</li><li>• post-disaster settings</li><li>• Option B. Malaria: Incorrect , malaria may increase in certain post-disaster situations, particularly where standing water increases, but it is not the most commonly reported.</li><li>• Option B. Malaria: Incorrect</li><li>• Option D. Cholera : Incorrect, while cholera outbreaks can occur post-disaster , especially in flood-affected areas, gastroenteritis is more commonly reported overall.</li><li>• Option D. Cholera</li><li>• Incorrect,</li><li>• outbreaks</li><li>• post-disaster</li><li>• flood-affected areas, gastroenteritis</li><li>• commonly</li><li>• reported overall.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gastroenteritis (Typhoid, cholera) is the most commonly reported disease in the post-disaster phase. This emphasizes the importance of ensuring clean water supply and proper sanitation in disaster-affected areas to prevent the spread of diseases associated with contaminated water and poor hygiene .</li><li>➤ Gastroenteritis (Typhoid, cholera)</li><li>➤ most commonly</li><li>➤ post-disaster</li><li>➤ phase.</li><li>➤ ensuring clean water supply</li><li>➤ proper sanitation</li><li>➤ disaster-affected areas</li><li>➤ prevent</li><li>➤ spread</li><li>➤ diseases</li><li>➤ contaminated water</li><li>➤ poor hygiene</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed 892</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old Community Health Officer is attending a state-level workshop on disaster preparedness. Her district is frequently affected by natural calamities. Tasked with creating a community engagement program to manage the aftermath of potential disasters, she begins by devising strategies aimed at reducing the harmful impacts of potential future catastrophes. This initial focus is most accurately termed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disaster Response", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disaster Mitigation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disaster Preparedness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disaster Prevention.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Disaster Mitigation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-115229.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Disaster Mitigation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mitigation involves measures designed either to prevent hazards from causing emergencies or to lessen the likely effects of emergencies . In most cases mitigation measures aim to reduce the vulnerability of the system.</li><li>• Mitigation</li><li>• measures</li><li>• designed</li><li>• prevent hazards</li><li>• emergencies</li><li>• lessen</li><li>• effects of emergencies</li><li>• mitigation measures</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• vulnerability</li><li>• system.</li><li>• In Disaster Cycle, the steps involved are –</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: It involves search, rescue, first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention, tagging and identification of dead. Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination, nutritional support. Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It considers assessment and restoration of water supply, food safety and supply, basic sanitation, personal hygiene , vector control. Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or dampening the effects of emergencies. It involves flood mitigation works, appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures. Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to manage all the emergencies efficiently and effectively.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: It involves search, rescue, first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention, tagging and identification of dead.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response:</li><li>• search, rescue, first aid</li><li>• triaging</li><li>• severity</li><li>• injuries</li><li>• survival with prompt medical intervention, tagging</li><li>• identification</li><li>• dead.</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination, nutritional support.</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment</li><li>• assistance,</li><li>• epidemiological surveillance and disease control</li><li>• vaccination, nutritional support.</li><li>• Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It considers assessment and restoration of water supply, food safety and supply, basic sanitation, personal hygiene , vector control.</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• pre-disaster conditions</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• water supply, food safety</li><li>• basic sanitation, personal hygiene</li><li>• vector control.</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or dampening the effects of emergencies. It involves flood mitigation works, appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures.</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• preventing</li><li>• hazards</li><li>• emergency</li><li>• dampening</li><li>• flood mitigation</li><li>• land-use</li><li>• planning</li><li>• improved building codes</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• protection</li><li>• vulnerable population</li><li>• structures.</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to manage all the emergencies efficiently and effectively.</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• long-term programme</li><li>• activities</li><li>• strengthening</li><li>• capacity</li><li>• capability</li><li>• emergencies efficiently</li><li>• effectively.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation : Measures designed to either prevent hazards from causing emergency or to lessen the effects of emergency (Minimise Damage).</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• Measures</li><li>• prevent hazards</li><li>• emergency</li><li>• lessen</li><li>• effects</li><li>• emergency (Minimise Damage).</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed 893</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Nuclear Physicist is giving a lecture on the historical events surrounding nuclear disasters. When discussing the infamous Chernobyl disaster, which occurred on April 26, 1986, he mentions that the catastrophe resulted in the largest reported emission of a specific radioactive material. Which of the following radioactive materials was predominantly released during this disaster?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "U-234, U-235, H-3, C-14", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I-131, Cs-134, Cs-137, Sr-90", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "In-115, Te-123, Te-130", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rn-222, Ra-226, Th-230, Th-232", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I-131, Cs-134, Cs-137, Sr-90", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. I-131, Cs-134, Cs-137, Sr-90</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The accident at reactor 4 of the Chernobyl nuclear power station in the Soviet Union on April 26, 1986 , in Russia (now Ukraine) is the largest reported accidental release of radioactive material in the history of nuclear power . It deposited more than 7 million curies of Iodine 131, Cesium 134 and 137, Strontium 90 and other isotopes throughout the northern hemisphere. It is the only instance so far of level 7 on the International Nuclear Event Scale for nuclear accidents .</li><li>• Chernobyl nuclear power station</li><li>• Soviet</li><li>• April 26, 1986</li><li>• Russia (now Ukraine)</li><li>• largest</li><li>• accidental release</li><li>• radioactive material</li><li>• nuclear power</li><li>• more</li><li>• 7 million</li><li>• Iodine 131, Cesium 134 and 137,</li><li>• Strontium 90</li><li>• isotopes</li><li>• northern hemisphere.</li><li>• level 7</li><li>• International Nuclear Event Scale</li><li>• nuclear accidents</li><li>• World’s worst man-made disaster is Bhopal gas Tragedy , 3rd December 1984</li><li>• World’s worst man-made disaster</li><li>• Bhopal gas Tragedy</li><li>• 3rd December 1984</li><li>• Methylisocyanate (MIC) gas leaked from Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal, India . It resulted in resulting in the death of about 3,000 people according to the Indian Supreme Court .</li><li>• Methylisocyanate (MIC) gas leaked from Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal, India . It resulted in resulting in the death of about 3,000 people according to the Indian Supreme Court .</li><li>• Methylisocyanate (MIC) gas</li><li>• Union Carbide pesticide</li><li>• Bhopal, India</li><li>• death</li><li>• 3,000</li><li>• Indian Supreme Court</li><li>• Fukushima Daichii Tragedy - 11 March 2011 - Released substance - I131, Cs134, Cs137.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chernobyl nuclear explosion accident occurred on 26th April, 1986 . It resulted in emission of: I131, Cs134, Cs137, Sr90</li><li>➤ Chernobyl nuclear explosion</li><li>➤ accident</li><li>➤ 26th April, 1986</li><li>➤ resulted</li><li>➤ emission</li><li>➤ I131, Cs134, Cs137, Sr90</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 890</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Parker is delivering a lecture on the principles of disaster management to medical students preparing for their postgraduate examinations. She emphasizes that several aspects are fundamental to effective disaster management. Which of the following is NOT considered a fundamental aspect of disaster management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disaster Treatment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disaster Preparedness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disaster Response", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disaster Mitigation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Disaster Treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-113349.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Disaster Treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In Disaster Cycle, the steps involved are –</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: it involves search , rescue , first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention , tagging and identification of dead. Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination , nutritional support . Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It takes into account assessment and restoration of water supply , food safety and supply, basic sanitation , personal hygiene, vector control . Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or to dampen the effects of emergencies. It involves flood mitigation works , appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures. Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to efficiently and effectively manage all the emergencies.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: it involves search , rescue , first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention , tagging and identification of dead.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response:</li><li>• search</li><li>• rescue</li><li>• first aid</li><li>• triaging</li><li>• severity of their injuries</li><li>• likelihood of survival</li><li>• medical intervention</li><li>• tagging</li><li>• identification</li><li>• dead.</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination , nutritional support .</li><li>• Relief Phase</li><li>• Disaster Containment</li><li>• prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance</li><li>• disease control</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• nutritional support</li><li>• Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It takes into account assessment and restoration of water supply , food safety and supply, basic sanitation , personal hygiene, vector control .</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• pre-disaster conditions</li><li>• assessment</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• water supply</li><li>• food safety</li><li>• basic sanitation</li><li>• personal hygiene, vector control</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or to dampen the effects of emergencies. It involves flood mitigation works , appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures.</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• preventing</li><li>• hazards</li><li>• emergency</li><li>• dampen</li><li>• emergencies.</li><li>• flood mitigation works</li><li>• land-use planning</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• protection</li><li>• vulnerable population</li><li>• structures.</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to efficiently and effectively manage all the emergencies.</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• long-term programme</li><li>• strengthening</li><li>• capacity</li><li>• capability</li><li>• efficiently and effectively</li><li>• emergencies.</li><li>• PLEASE NOTE: RECOVERY PHASE include Responce, Rehabilitation and Reconstruction (Mnemonic: 3R)</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The Disaster Cycle comprises various steps: Disaster Impact and Response (including search, rescue and triaging ), Relief Phase (with assistance and disease control ), Rehabilitation (restoring like water supply and sanitation ), Disaster Mitigation (to reduce hazards ), and Disaster Preparedness ( long-term activities to enhance emergency management capabilities ).</li><li>• Disaster Cycle</li><li>• Disaster Impact</li><li>• Response</li><li>• search, rescue</li><li>• triaging</li><li>• Relief Phase</li><li>• disease control</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• water supply and sanitation</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• reduce hazards</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• long-term</li><li>• emergency management capabilities</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed p 891</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A coastal town recently experienced a major hurricane causing significant structural damage, flooding, and loss of life. As the local health director, Dr. Sai is assigned to lead the recovery and planning efforts to mitigate future disasters. He aims to implement a structured approach to disaster management. Which of the following sequences of disaster management steps should Dr. Sai prioritize following the immediate impact of this hurricane?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Response- Mitigation- Reconstruction- Rehabilitation- Preparedness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mitigation- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Preparedness- response", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Response- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Mitigation- Preparedness", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mitigation- Preparedness- Reconstruction- Rehabilitation- Response", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Response- Rehabilitation- Reconstruction- Mitigation- Preparedness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-113632.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Response – Rehabilitation – Reconstruction – Mitigation – Preparedness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Disaster Cycle –</li><li>• PLEASE NOTE: RECOVERY PHASE include 3R's [Responce, Rehabilitation and Reconstruction]</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The Disaster Cycle comprises various steps: Disaster Impact and Response (including search, rescue, and triaging ), Relief Phase (with assistance and disease control ), Rehabilitation ( restoring like water supply and sanitation) , Disaster Mitigation (to reduce hazards ), and Disaster Preparedness ( long-term activities to enhance emergency management capabilities ).</li><li>• Disaster Cycle</li><li>• Disaster Impact</li><li>• Response</li><li>• search, rescue, and triaging</li><li>• Relief Phase</li><li>• assistance</li><li>• disease control</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• restoring</li><li>• water supply</li><li>• sanitation)</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• reduce hazards</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• long-term</li><li>• enhance emergency management capabilities</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 891</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a major train derailment in a metropolitan city, Dr. Amit is the Chief medical officer on site. He needs to prioritize medical resources to ensure that care is provided to the maximum number of injured individuals. Which principle should Dr. Amit adhere to while making decisions regarding the allocation of resources and prioritizing care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Treating the most serious cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Categorization of the patients and treating them according to the available resource", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Searching for the cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treating mentally ill patients", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Categorization of the patients and treating them according to the available resource", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-113819.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Categorization of the patients and treating them according to the available resource.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The principle of “ first come, first treated ”, is not followed in mass emergencies. Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured not based on the severity of their injuries but on the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention . It must be adopted to locally available skills. Triage is the only approach that can provide maximum benefit to the greatest number of injured in a major disaster situation.</li><li>• first come, first treated</li><li>• not</li><li>• mass emergencies. Triage</li><li>• rapidly</li><li>• classifying</li><li>• injured</li><li>• not</li><li>• severity</li><li>• survival with prompt</li><li>• medical intervention</li><li>• adopted</li><li>• locally</li><li>• skills.</li><li>• Triage</li><li>• maximum benefit</li><li>• greatest number</li><li>• injured</li><li>• major disaster</li><li>• Triage system: Most commonly uses four color code system -</li><li>• Triage system:</li><li>• four color code</li><li>• Red (Highest Priority): Immediate resuscitation or limb/life saving surgery in next 6hrs Yellow (High Priority): Possible resuscitation or limb/ life saving surgery in next 24 hours Green (Low Priority): Minor illness/ambulatory patients Black (Least Priority): Dead and moribund patients</li><li>• Red (Highest Priority): Immediate resuscitation or limb/life saving surgery in next 6hrs</li><li>• Red (Highest Priority):</li><li>• Immediate resuscitation</li><li>• limb/life saving</li><li>• surgery</li><li>• next 6hrs</li><li>• Yellow (High Priority): Possible resuscitation or limb/ life saving surgery in next 24 hours</li><li>• Yellow (High Priority):</li><li>• Possible resuscitation</li><li>• life saving surgery</li><li>• next 24 hours</li><li>• Green (Low Priority): Minor illness/ambulatory patients</li><li>• Green (Low Priority):</li><li>• Minor illness/ambulatory</li><li>• Black (Least Priority): Dead and moribund patients</li><li>• Black (Least Priority): Dead</li><li>• moribund</li><li>• Triage sieve: Quick survey to separate the dead and the walking from the injured.</li><li>• Triage sieve:</li><li>• Quick survey</li><li>• dead</li><li>• walking</li><li>• injured.</li><li>• Triage sort : Remaining casualties are assessed and allocated to categories.</li><li>• Triage sort</li><li>• casualties</li><li>• assessed</li><li>• allocated</li><li>• categories.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Triage is done on basis of 'Likelihood of Survival'</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 891.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old relief worker is deployed to an area recently hit by a devastating earthquake. While there, he's tasked with monitoring the health of survivors residing in temporary shelters. He's aware that certain factors can exacerbate the spread of communicable diseases post-disaster. Which of the following factors is least likely to increase the transmission of communicable diseases in the context of this natural disaster?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Damage to public Utilities", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Population Movements", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Interruption in Public Health Services", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Social reactions", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Social reactions", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Social reactions.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Disasters can increase the transmission of communicable diseases through following mechanisms:</li><li>• Disasters can increase the transmission of communicable diseases through following mechanisms:</li><li>• Overcrowding and poor sanitation in temporary resettlements . Population displacement. Disruption and the contamination of water supply , damage to sewerage system. Disruption of routine control programs as funds and personnel are usually diverted to relief work. Ecological changes may favor breeding of vectors and increase the vector population density. Displacement of domestic and wild animals . Provision of emergency food , water , and shelter in disaster situations from different or new sources may itself be a source of infectious disease.</li><li>• Overcrowding and poor sanitation in temporary resettlements .</li><li>• Overcrowding</li><li>• poor sanitation</li><li>• temporary resettlements</li><li>• Population displacement.</li><li>• Disruption and the contamination of water supply , damage to sewerage system.</li><li>• Disruption</li><li>• contamination</li><li>• water supply</li><li>• sewerage system.</li><li>• Disruption of routine control programs as funds and personnel are usually diverted to relief work.</li><li>• Disruption</li><li>• funds</li><li>• personnel</li><li>• diverted</li><li>• relief work.</li><li>• Ecological changes may favor breeding of vectors and increase the vector population density.</li><li>• Ecological</li><li>• favor breeding</li><li>• vectors</li><li>• increase</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Displacement of domestic and wild animals .</li><li>• domestic</li><li>• wild animals</li><li>• Provision of emergency food , water , and shelter in disaster situations from different or new sources may itself be a source of infectious disease.</li><li>• emergency food</li><li>• water</li><li>• shelter</li><li>• different</li><li>• new sources</li><li>• source of infectious disease.</li><li>• Note - The most commonly reported disease in post-disaster phase is Gastroenteritis</li><li>• The most practical and effective strategy of disease prevention and control in post-disaster phase is - supplying safe drinking water and proper disposal of excreta. The foremost step for disease prevention and control in post-disaster phase is chlorination of all water bodies (Level of residual chlorine in post-disaster phase is &gt; 0.7 mg/l / &gt; 0.7 ppm ) A common micronutrient deficiency in disasters is Vitamin A deficiency - It occurs due to deficient relief diets , measles and diarrhoea (gastroenteritis).</li><li>• The most practical and effective strategy of disease prevention and control in post-disaster phase is - supplying safe drinking water and proper disposal of excreta.</li><li>• practical</li><li>• effective strategy</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• control</li><li>• post-disaster phase</li><li>• safe drinking water</li><li>• disposal</li><li>• excreta.</li><li>• The foremost step for disease prevention and control in post-disaster phase is chlorination of all water bodies (Level of residual chlorine in post-disaster phase is &gt; 0.7 mg/l / &gt; 0.7 ppm )</li><li>• disease prevention</li><li>• control</li><li>• post-disaster</li><li>• phase</li><li>• chlorination</li><li>• water bodies</li><li>• residual chlorine</li><li>• 0.7 mg/l / &gt; 0.7 ppm</li><li>• A common micronutrient deficiency in disasters is Vitamin A deficiency - It occurs due to deficient relief diets , measles and diarrhoea (gastroenteritis).</li><li>• micronutrient deficiency</li><li>• Vitamin A deficiency</li><li>• deficient</li><li>• relief diets</li><li>• measles</li><li>• diarrhoea</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Disasters can heighten the risk of communicable diseases due to overcrowding, poor sanitation, water supply contamination, disruption of routine control programs, ecological changes increasing vector populations, animal displacement , and the use of new emergency resources for food, water and shelter.</li><li>• Disasters</li><li>• risk</li><li>• communicable diseases</li><li>• overcrowding, poor sanitation, water supply contamination,</li><li>• routine</li><li>• ecological changes</li><li>• increasing vector populations,</li><li>• animal displacement</li><li>• new emergency resources</li><li>• food,</li><li>• water</li><li>• shelter.</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed 892</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old Medical Officer is deployed to a region that recently experienced a catastrophic flood. Within the first few days, he notices a trend in the types of diseases presenting to the makeshift medical tent. Given the context of the acute phase post-disaster, which of the following diseases is he most likely observing in a significant number of the affected population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leptospirosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acute Watery diarrhea", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Acute Watery diarrhea", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Acute Watery diarrhea</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In acute phase of an emergency, the major diseases/syndromes that should be reported are.</li><li>• acute phase</li><li>• major diseases/syndromes</li><li>• Bloody diarrhea Acute watery diarrhea (Most common) Suspected cholera Lower respiratory infections Measles Meningitis</li><li>• Bloody diarrhea</li><li>• Bloody diarrhea</li><li>• Acute watery diarrhea (Most common)</li><li>• Acute watery diarrhea (Most common)</li><li>• Suspected cholera</li><li>• cholera</li><li>• Lower respiratory infections</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• Meningitis</li><li>• After the second / third week following diseases are added on:</li><li>• second / third week</li><li>• Malaria Dengue Japanese encephalitis Typhoid Leptospirosis Dermatological vaccination.</li><li>• Malaria</li><li>• Malaria</li><li>• Dengue</li><li>• Dengue</li><li>• Japanese encephalitis</li><li>• Japanese encephalitis</li><li>• Typhoid</li><li>• Typhoid</li><li>• Leptospirosis</li><li>• Dermatological vaccination.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most commonly reported disease in the post-disaster phase is Gastroenteritis. Most practical and effective strategy of disease prevention and control in the post-disaster phase is supplying safe drinking water and proper disposal of excreta The foremost step for disease prevention and control in the post-disaster phase is the chlorination of all water bodies (Residual chlorine&gt; 0.7 mg/l (&gt; 0.7 ppm) ) A common micronutrient deficiency in disasters is Vitamin A deficiency : It occurs due to deficient relief diets , measles and diarrhoea (gastroenteritis) Other common deficiencies include scurvy (Vitamin C), anemia (iron) and pellagra ( Vitamin B3 –niacin ).</li><li>➤ The most commonly reported disease in the post-disaster phase is Gastroenteritis.</li><li>➤ most commonly</li><li>➤ post-disaster phase</li><li>➤ Gastroenteritis.</li><li>➤ Most practical and effective strategy of disease prevention and control in the post-disaster phase is supplying safe drinking water and proper disposal of excreta</li><li>➤ practical</li><li>➤ effective strategy</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ control</li><li>➤ post-disaster phase</li><li>➤ safe drinking water</li><li>➤ disposal</li><li>➤ excreta</li><li>➤ The foremost step for disease prevention and control in the post-disaster phase is the chlorination of all water bodies (Residual chlorine&gt; 0.7 mg/l (&gt; 0.7 ppm) )</li><li>➤ disease prevention</li><li>➤ control</li><li>➤ post-disaster phase</li><li>➤ chlorination</li><li>➤ water bodies</li><li>➤ A common micronutrient deficiency in disasters is Vitamin A deficiency : It occurs due to deficient relief diets , measles and diarrhoea (gastroenteritis)</li><li>➤ micronutrient deficiency</li><li>➤ Vitamin A deficiency</li><li>➤ deficient relief diets</li><li>➤ measles</li><li>➤ diarrhoea</li><li>➤ Other common deficiencies include scurvy (Vitamin C), anemia (iron) and pellagra ( Vitamin B3 –niacin ).</li><li>➤ deficiencies</li><li>➤ scurvy (Vitamin C),</li><li>➤ anemia</li><li>➤ pellagra</li><li>➤ Vitamin B3 –niacin</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 1 st ed. pg 715</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anita, a public health specialist, is conducting a seminar on disaster management for newly inducted health officers. She emphasizes on key principles and facts associated with disaster management. Which of the following statements, as mentioned by one of the attendees, is NOT accurate concerning disaster management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Field care and response occurs during Disaster impact and response phase.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidemiological surveillance and disease control occurs during relief phase.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rehabilitation is the final phase in a disaster leading to restoration of the pre-disaster conditions.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Food safety and vector control activities should be done during Relief phase of disaster cycle.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Food safety and vector control activities should be done during Relief phase of disaster cycle.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-114807_QVizuNC.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Food safety and vector control activities should be done during Relief phase of disaster cycle.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Food safety, water supply and vector control activities are done during the Rehabilitation phase of disaster cycle.</li><li>• Food safety, water supply</li><li>• vector control</li><li>• Rehabilitation phase</li><li>• disaster cycle.</li><li>• In Disaster Cycle, the steps involved are –</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: It involves search, rescue, first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention , tagging and identification of dead. Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination, nutritional support. Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It considers assessment and restoration of water supply, food safety and supply, basic sanitation, personal hygiene, vector control . Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or dampening the effects of emergencies . It involves flood mitigation works , appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures . Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to manage all the emergencies efficiently and effectively.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response: It involves search, rescue, first aid of the patients, triaging them according to the severity of their injuries and their likelihood of survival with prompt medical intervention , tagging and identification of dead.</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response:</li><li>• search, rescue, first aid</li><li>• triaging</li><li>• severity</li><li>• their injuries</li><li>• survival with prompt medical intervention</li><li>• tagging</li><li>• identification</li><li>• dead.</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment by prompt assistance, epidemiological surveillance and disease control , vaccination, nutritional support.</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment</li><li>• epidemiological surveillance</li><li>• disease control</li><li>• vaccination,</li><li>• nutritional support.</li><li>• Rehabilitation involves restoration of the pre-disaster conditions . It considers assessment and restoration of water supply, food safety and supply, basic sanitation, personal hygiene, vector control .</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• pre-disaster conditions</li><li>• restoration</li><li>• water supply, food safety</li><li>• basic sanitation, personal hygiene, vector control</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation involves measures aimed at reducing or preventing the hazards from causing any emergency or dampening the effects of emergencies . It involves flood mitigation works , appropriate land-use planning , improved building codes and reduction or protection of vulnerable population and structures .</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• reducing or preventing</li><li>• hazards</li><li>• emergency</li><li>• dampening</li><li>• emergencies</li><li>• flood mitigation works</li><li>• land-use</li><li>• planning</li><li>• improved</li><li>• codes</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• protection</li><li>• population and structures</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness is a long-term programme of developmental activities which aims at strengthening the overall capacity and capability of the country to manage all the emergencies efficiently and effectively.</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• long-term</li><li>• developmental</li><li>• activities</li><li>• strengthening</li><li>• overall capacity</li><li>• capability</li><li>• country</li><li>• emergencies efficiently</li><li>• effectively.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed, 893.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, a district health officer, is attending a national workshop on disaster management strategies. During one of the discussions, a fellow delegate mentions the pivotal role of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in coordinating response mechanisms. Dr. Sharma, being new to the field, is curious about the leadership hierarchy of NDMA. Who is at the helm of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "President", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prime Minister", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Home minister", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Directorate General Civil Defense", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prime Minister", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcQyX3YDhn9dy-uNhsaSqqyAgUiykXgfo8YIjoR95LRU4w&s"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Prime Minister</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Disaster Management Authority is located in New Delhi . It was formed in the year 2005 under the Ministry of Home Affairs . NDMA is headed by Prime Minister . NDMA is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.</li><li>• National Disaster Management Authority</li><li>• New Delhi</li><li>• 2005</li><li>• Ministry of Home Affairs</li><li>• headed</li><li>• Prime Minister</li><li>• Ministry of Home Affairs.</li><li>• At the district level , the District Collector is the chief executive of the disaster management cell.</li><li>• district level</li><li>• District Collector</li><li>• chief executive</li><li>• disaster management cell.</li><li>• Medical response would be headed by the Chief medical officer of the district.</li><li>• Medical response</li><li>• headed</li><li>• Chief medical officer</li><li>• district.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) - Headed by the Prime Minister of India</li><li>➤ National Disaster Management Authority</li><li>➤ Headed</li><li>➤ Prime Minister of India</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 1 st ed, Pg 717</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, the Chief of emergency services, was overseeing a training session on disaster management. As the training progressed, he touched upon the topic of managing casualties at disaster sites. \"One of the challenges we face during disasters is the presence of deceased individuals at the site, which can hinder rescue operations,\" Dr. Kapoor explained. He then posed a question to the trainees, \"Which of the following is NOT a standard practice in the care of the deceased during disaster management?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Removal of the dead from the disaster scene.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shifting to the mortuary.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Identification.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disposal of the dead at the earliest.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Disposal of the dead at the earliest.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Disposal of the dead at the earliest.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Care of the dead includes:</li><li>• Removal of the dead from the disaster scene Shifting to the mortuary Identification Reception of bereaved relatives .</li><li>• Removal of the dead from the disaster scene</li><li>• dead</li><li>• disaster scene</li><li>• Shifting to the mortuary</li><li>• mortuary</li><li>• Identification</li><li>• Identification</li><li>• Reception of bereaved relatives .</li><li>• bereaved relatives</li><li>• Proper respect for the dead is of great importance.</li><li>• Proper respect</li><li>• dead</li><li>• great importance.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• In disaster management , the immediate disposal of the dead is not a standard practice . Instead, a focus on respectful handling, identification, preservation , and documentation is essential to uphold human dignity , assist grieving families, and meet legal and ethical responsibilities .</li><li>• disaster management</li><li>• dead</li><li>• not</li><li>• standard practice</li><li>• focus</li><li>• respectful handling, identification, preservation</li><li>• documentation</li><li>• uphold human dignity</li><li>• grieving</li><li>• families,</li><li>• meet legal</li><li>• ethical responsibilities</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 891.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a regional conference on disaster management, a 40-year-old public health official emphasized the importance of consistent and sustained efforts to enhance a nation's resilience against various emergencies. He discusses investing in infrastructure, training, and resources not just for immediate response but for the holistic improvement of a nation's ability to manage any crisis. Which of the following terms best describes this approach?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disaster Mitigation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disaster Preparedness", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disaster Prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risk Management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Disaster Preparedness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/02/screenshot-2024-08-02-115502.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Disaster Preparedness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Disaster preparedness is a program of long-term development activities whose goals are to strengthen the overall capacity and capability of a country to manage efficiently all types of emergencies . It should bring about an orderly transition from relief through recovery , and back to sustained development.</li><li>• Disaster preparedness</li><li>• long-term development activities</li><li>• goals</li><li>• strengthen</li><li>• capacity</li><li>• capability</li><li>• efficiently</li><li>• emergencies</li><li>• orderly transition</li><li>• relief</li><li>• recovery</li><li>• sustained development.</li><li>• In Disaster Cycle, the steps involved are –</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response Relief Phase or Disaster Containment Rehabilitation Disaster Mitigation Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• Disaster Impact and Response</li><li>• Relief Phase or Disaster Containment</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• Disaster Mitigation</li><li>• Disaster Preparedness</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The objective of disaster preparedness is to ensure that appropriate systems, procedures , and resources are in place to provide prompt effective assistance to disaster victims , thus facilitating relief measures and rehabilitation services .</li><li>• objective</li><li>• disaster preparedness</li><li>• appropriate systems,</li><li>• procedures</li><li>• resources</li><li>• prompt effective assistance</li><li>• disaster victims</li><li>• facilitating relief</li><li>• rehabilitation services</li><li>• Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 893</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 27 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Environment And Health - 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Anopheles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/image_CGA7c9U.png", "https://entnemdept.ufl.edu/creatures/aquatic/Figure_2_Raft_of_eggs_of_the_northern_house_mosquito_Cx_pipiens.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-091817.png", "https://pgblazer.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/08/Mansonia-egg-microscopic-view1-300x289.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Picture1_lVOTxTt.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Anopheles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Culex - Eggs - Laid in small clusters/rafts</li><li>• Option B. Culex</li><li>• small clusters/rafts</li><li>• Option C. Aedes - Eggs - Laid singly, cigar-shaped</li><li>• Option C. Aedes</li><li>• Laid singly, cigar-shaped</li><li>• Option D. Mansonia - Laid in star-shaped clusters</li><li>• Option D. Mansonia</li><li>• star-shaped clusters</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an intensive larval survey in a rural village, public health officials inspected 70 houses and found Aedes aegypti larvae in 8 of them. Additionally, a total of 82 containers were examined, and larvae were present in 19 of these containers. Based on these findings, what is the Breteau Index (BI) for this village?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "11.4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "27.1", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "23.2", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "42.1", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 27.1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 27.1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Breteau Index (BI) : Number of positive containers per 100 houses inspected in a specific location.</li><li>• Breteau Index (BI)</li><li>• positive containers</li><li>• 100 houses inspected</li><li>• BI =No. of positive containers/No. of houses inspected x 100</li><li>• BI</li><li>• = 19*100/ 70</li><li>• = 27.1</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BI &gt;20 for any locality is an indication that the locality is dengue sensitive (High risk) and therefore adequate preventive measures should be taken.</li><li>➤ BI &gt;20</li><li>➤ locality</li><li>➤ indication</li><li>➤ dengue sensitive</li><li>➤ adequate preventive measures</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 582.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 582.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community plagued by vector-borne diseases, public health officials are implementing various control measures to reduce the mosquito population. One of the methods being employed is the removal of Pistia plants from aquatic environments. This intervention specifically targets the reduction of which mosquito species?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aedes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mansonia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mansonia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mansonia mosquito breeds in ponds and lakes containing certain aquatic plants , especially the floating types like Pistia stratiotes and water hyacinth . Their control consists of the removal of those aquatic plants.</li><li>• Mansonia mosquito breeds</li><li>• ponds</li><li>• lakes</li><li>• aquatic plants</li><li>• floating</li><li>• Pistia stratiotes</li><li>• water hyacinth</li><li>• control</li><li>• removal</li><li>• aquatic plants.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Points related to mansonia -</li><li>➤ Some important Points related to mansonia -</li><li>➤ Disease Transmitted - Malayan (Brugian) filariasis , Chikungunya Eggs laids in star shaped clusters Larvae - Siphon tube present ; Rest attached to rootlets of plants Main Vector of Brugian Filariasis (India) - Mansonia annulifers , Mansonia uniformis.</li><li>➤ Disease Transmitted - Malayan (Brugian) filariasis , Chikungunya</li><li>➤ Malayan (Brugian) filariasis</li><li>➤ Chikungunya</li><li>➤ Eggs laids in star shaped clusters</li><li>➤ Eggs</li><li>➤ star</li><li>➤ clusters</li><li>➤ Larvae - Siphon tube present ; Rest attached to rootlets of plants</li><li>➤ Siphon tube present</li><li>➤ Rest</li><li>➤ rootlets of plants</li><li>➤ Main Vector of Brugian Filariasis (India) - Mansonia annulifers , Mansonia uniformis.</li><li>➤ Vector</li><li>➤ Brugian Filariasis</li><li>➤ Mansonia annulifers</li><li>➤ Mansonia uniformis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In accordance with the International Health Regulations (IHR), a critical aspect of maintaining global public health security involves the implementation of vector control measures at points of entry such as international airports and seaports. To prevent the spread of vector-borne diseases across borders, up to what distance from these facilities should all types of mosquitoes be kept at bay?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 km", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "400 meters", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5 kms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 meters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 400 meters", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-04-30%20120044.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 400 meters</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• International measures to restrict the spread of especially Yellow Fever (vector: Aedes aegypti) are specified under International Health Regulations (IHRs):</li><li>• International</li><li>• restrict</li><li>• spread</li><li>• Yellow Fever (vector: Aedes aegypti)</li><li>• International Health Regulations</li><li>• Mosquitoes:</li><li>• Mosquitoes:</li><li>• 1. Aircrafts/ships arriving from endemic areas : Aerosol spray to kill insect vectors.</li><li>• Aircrafts/ships</li><li>• endemic areas</li><li>• Aerosol spray</li><li>• kill</li><li>• vectors.</li><li>• 2. Airports/seaports kept free from vector breeding : at least 400 meters around boundary.</li><li>• Airports/seaports</li><li>• free</li><li>• vector breeding</li><li>• least 400 meters</li><li>• 3. Aedes aegypti index : kept below 1</li><li>• Aedes aegypti index</li><li>• below 1</li><li>• Travellers:</li><li>• Travellers:</li><li>• 1. Must possess a valid International certificate of vaccination (validity 10 days–Lifelong) against YF before they enter ‘YF receptive areas’</li><li>• 2. If no such certificate available: Quarantine for 6 days (Max I.P of YF) from the date of leaving an infected area</li><li>• 3. If traveller arrives before certificate becomes valid (10 days after vaccination): Then quarantine him till it becomes valid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flight range of important mosquito vectors in India :</li><li>➤ Flight range</li><li>➤ mosquito vectors</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an entomological survey in a region with a high prevalence of mosquito-borne diseases, a team of researchers collected a sample of mosquitoes for species identification. The collected mosquitoes were smeared, and a microscopic examination was performed to study their morphological features. The team observed that in a majority of the mosquitoes, the maxillary palpi were of equal length to the proboscis. Based on this characteristic, to which of the following species do these mosquitoes most likely belong?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes female", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex female", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anopheles female", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anopheles female", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/a/ae/Anopheles_albimanus_mosquito.jpg/1200px-Anopheles_albimanus_mosquito.jpg", "https://www.cdc.gov/mosquitoes/es/about/life-cycles/images/LVV7_Aedes_aegypti_Adult_Feeding_2022_030.jpg?_=81619", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-092448.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-092628.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anopheles female</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A. Aedes, B. Culex , and Mansonia - mosquitoes have maxillary palpi that are much shorter than the proboscis.</li><li>• A. Aedes, B. Culex</li><li>• Mansonia -</li><li>• maxillary palpi</li><li>• shorter</li><li>• proboscis.</li><li>• Option A. Aedes Adult : Stripes on body &amp; legs ( TIGER mosquito), have maxillary palpi that are much shorter than the proboscis , breeding on artificial collections of rain water.</li><li>• Option A. Aedes Adult</li><li>• Stripes</li><li>• TIGER</li><li>• maxillary palpi</li><li>• shorter</li><li>• proboscis</li><li>• breeding</li><li>• artificial collections</li><li>• rain water.</li><li>• Option B. Culex : ‘ Hunch back’ rest; mosquitoes have maxillary palpi that are much shorter than the proboscis , breeding in dirty and polluted water.</li><li>• Option B. Culex</li><li>• Hunch back’</li><li>• maxillary palpi</li><li>• shorter</li><li>• proboscis</li><li>• dirty</li><li>• polluted water.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adult Mosquito:</li><li>➤ Adult Mosquito:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health inspector is conducting anti-larval activities in a village to control the spread of mosquito-borne diseases. During the inspection, he observed that in most of the containers holding stagnant water, the larvae present have long and narrow respiratory tubes. Which of the following mosquito species do these larvae most likely belong to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Culex", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Aedes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-22%20165330.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/13/image_JBhZIr1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/13/image-20240113131144-1.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-092828.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202024-11-22%20165637.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/13/image_LU29R8Q.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Aedes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Anopheles: larva - No siphon tube ; Rest parallel to undersurface of water</li><li>• Option B. Anopheles:</li><li>• No siphon tube</li><li>• Rest parallel</li><li>• undersurface</li><li>• Option C. Mansonia : larvae - has Siphon tube ; Rest attached to rootlets of plants</li><li>• Option C. Mansonia</li><li>• Siphon tube</li><li>• Rest</li><li>• rootlets</li><li>• Option D. Culex: larvae - has Siphon tube ; Rest perpendicular to undersurface of water</li><li>• Option D. Culex:</li><li>• Siphon tube</li><li>• Rest perpendicular</li><li>• undersurface</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community living near a marshland is experiencing an increase in mosquito bites, particularly during evening outdoor activities. While these mosquitoes have not been linked to the transmission of any major diseases in the area, their presence is causing significant discomfort and affecting the quality of life of the residents. Based on the description provided, which of the following mosquitoes is commonly referred to as a “nuisance mosquito”?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Culex", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Culex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Culex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Aedes: known as Tiger mosquito</li><li>• Option A. Aedes:</li><li>• Tiger mosquito</li><li>• Option B . Anopheles: known as Sophisticated mosquito</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Anopheles:</li><li>• Sophisticated mosquito</li><li>• Option C. Mansonia : No such nomenclature</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Mansonia</li><li>• No</li><li>• nomenclature</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers related to Culex -</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers related to Culex -</li><li>➤ Nuisance mosquito is Culex Vector of Bancroftian filariasis (India)- Culex quinquefasciatus (C fatigans) Vector for Japanese Encephalitis (India)- Culex tritaeniorhynchus ( MC), Culex vishnuii , Culex gelidus Vector for west Nile fever: Culex pipiens Disease Transmitted - Culex mosquito Bancroftian Filariasis, Japanese Encephalitis, West Nile fever, Viral arthritis Flight range of culex mosquito - 11 Km Culicine larvae (Culex, Aedes, Mansonia) have a siphon tube . Culex larvae rest perpendicular to undersurface of water Western equine encephalomyelitis virus (WEE virus) is an arbovirus transmitted by mosquitoes of the genera Culex and Culiseta. It can be identified by the presence of unspotted wings and hunched back. Filarial parasite in culex mosquitoes - is an example of Cyclo-developmental transmission, disease agent undergoes only cyclical change in the body of vector.</li><li>➤ Nuisance mosquito is Culex</li><li>➤ Nuisance</li><li>➤ Culex</li><li>➤ Vector of Bancroftian filariasis (India)- Culex quinquefasciatus (C fatigans)</li><li>➤ Vector</li><li>➤ Bancroftian filariasis</li><li>➤ Culex quinquefasciatus</li><li>➤ Vector for Japanese Encephalitis (India)- Culex tritaeniorhynchus ( MC), Culex vishnuii , Culex gelidus Vector for west Nile fever: Culex pipiens</li><li>➤ Vector</li><li>➤ Japanese Encephalitis</li><li>➤ Culex tritaeniorhynchus (</li><li>➤ Culex vishnuii</li><li>➤ Culex gelidus</li><li>➤ Vector for west Nile fever: Culex pipiens</li><li>➤ Disease Transmitted - Culex mosquito Bancroftian Filariasis, Japanese Encephalitis, West Nile fever, Viral arthritis</li><li>➤ Bancroftian Filariasis, Japanese Encephalitis, West Nile fever, Viral arthritis</li><li>➤ Flight range of culex mosquito - 11 Km</li><li>➤ Flight range</li><li>➤ 11 Km</li><li>➤ Culicine larvae (Culex, Aedes, Mansonia) have a siphon tube . Culex larvae rest perpendicular to undersurface of water</li><li>➤ Culicine larvae</li><li>➤ siphon tube</li><li>➤ larvae rest perpendicular</li><li>➤ undersurface</li><li>➤ Western equine encephalomyelitis virus (WEE virus) is an arbovirus transmitted by mosquitoes of the genera Culex and Culiseta.</li><li>➤ Western equine encephalomyelitis virus</li><li>➤ arbovirus transmitted</li><li>➤ Culex and Culiseta.</li><li>➤ It can be identified by the presence of unspotted wings and hunched back.</li><li>➤ identified</li><li>➤ unspotted wings</li><li>➤ hunched back.</li><li>➤ Filarial parasite in culex mosquitoes - is an example of Cyclo-developmental transmission, disease agent undergoes only cyclical change in the body of vector.</li><li>➤ Filarial parasite</li><li>➤ culex mosquitoes</li><li>➤ Cyclo-developmental</li><li>➤ cyclical change</li><li>➤ body of vector.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: PARK 26 th ed, pg 865</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying different modes of disease transmission through vectors in preparation for an upcoming exam. They are particularly interested in understanding the propagative mode of transmission, where the pathogen replicates within the vector before being transmitted to the host. Which of the following is an example of a disease transmitted through the propagative mode?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Filarial Parasite in Culex mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plague bacilli in rat fleas", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Malarial parasite in Anopheline mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Guinea worm in Cyclops", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Plague bacilli in rat fleas", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Plague bacilli in rat fleas.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Propagative: Disease agent undergoes no cyclical change , but multiplies in the body of the vector , transmission is said to be propagative, e.g., Plague bacilli in rat fleas . Cyclo-propagative: The disease agent undergoes cyclical change , and multiplies in the body of the arthropod , e.g., malaria parasite in anopheline mosquito . Cyclo-developmental: The disease agent undergoes cyclical change but does not multiply in the body of the arthropod , e.g., filarial parasite in Culex mosquito and guinea worm embryo in cyclops .</li><li>• Propagative: Disease agent undergoes no cyclical change , but multiplies in the body of the vector , transmission is said to be propagative, e.g., Plague bacilli in rat fleas .</li><li>• Propagative:</li><li>• no cyclical change</li><li>• but</li><li>• multiplies</li><li>• body</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Plague bacilli</li><li>• rat fleas</li><li>• Cyclo-propagative: The disease agent undergoes cyclical change , and multiplies in the body of the arthropod , e.g., malaria parasite in anopheline mosquito .</li><li>• Cyclo-propagative:</li><li>• cyclical change</li><li>• multiplies</li><li>• body</li><li>• arthropod</li><li>• malaria parasite</li><li>• anopheline mosquito</li><li>• Cyclo-developmental: The disease agent undergoes cyclical change but does not multiply in the body of the arthropod , e.g., filarial parasite in Culex mosquito and guinea worm embryo in cyclops .</li><li>• Cyclo-developmental:</li><li>• cyclical change</li><li>• not multiply</li><li>• body</li><li>• arthropod</li><li>• filarial parasite</li><li>• Culex mosquito</li><li>• guinea worm embryo</li><li>• cyclops</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Propagative Plague, Cyclo-Propagative Malaria, and Cyclo-developmental Filaria are 3 types of biological transmission having multiplication, multiplication + development, development respectively.</li><li>➤ Propagative Plague, Cyclo-Propagative Malaria,</li><li>➤ Cyclo-developmental Filaria are 3 types of biological transmission having multiplication, multiplication + development, development respectively.</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 862.</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 862.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare professional is evaluating a patient presenting with fever, headache, and muscle aches, suspecting a possible vector-borne disease. To guide the diagnostic work-up and patient counseling, the healthcare professional aims to identify the primary vector responsible for transmitting West Nile fever. Which of the following is the main vector for transmitting West Nile fever?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex Mosquito", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sand fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hard tick", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Culex Mosquito", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-04-30%20121046.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Culex Mosquito</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Culex is the primary vector for transmitting West Nile fever.</li><li>• Culex</li><li>• primary vector</li><li>• West Nile fever.</li><li>• West Nile Fever</li><li>• West Nile Fever</li><li>• Re-occurrence in India reported from Mallapuram, Kerala in March 2021</li><li>• Re-occurrence</li><li>• India</li><li>• Mallapuram, Kerala</li><li>• March 2021</li><li>• Causative agent : West Nile virus - single-stranded RNA virus, family Flaviviridae , genus Flavivirus Transmission: Vector is Culex pipiens (and other Culicine species) Bird–mosquito–bird ” transmission cycle Incubation period: 2–14 days Symptoms: 80% asymptomatic , fever, headache, vomiting, rash, encephalitis, meningitis</li><li>• Causative agent : West Nile virus - single-stranded RNA virus, family Flaviviridae , genus Flavivirus</li><li>• Causative agent</li><li>• West Nile virus</li><li>• RNA</li><li>• Flaviviridae</li><li>• Flavivirus</li><li>• Transmission: Vector is Culex pipiens (and other Culicine species) Bird–mosquito–bird ” transmission cycle</li><li>• Transmission:</li><li>• Vector is Culex pipiens (and other Culicine species) Bird–mosquito–bird ” transmission cycle</li><li>• Vector is Culex pipiens (and other Culicine species)</li><li>• Vector</li><li>• Culex pipiens</li><li>• Bird–mosquito–bird ” transmission cycle</li><li>• Bird–mosquito–bird</li><li>• Incubation period: 2–14 days</li><li>• 2–14 days</li><li>• Symptoms: 80% asymptomatic , fever, headache, vomiting, rash, encephalitis, meningitis</li><li>• 80% asymptomatic</li><li>• fever, headache, vomiting, rash, encephalitis, meningitis</li><li>• Prevention:</li><li>• Prevention:</li><li>• No vaccine exists for prevention Source reduction Wear long sleeved shirts and long pants Mosquito bed nets, Window and door screens, Insect repellents</li><li>• No vaccine exists for prevention</li><li>• No vaccine</li><li>• Source reduction</li><li>• Source reduction</li><li>• Wear long sleeved shirts and long pants</li><li>• Wear long sleeved shirts</li><li>• long pants</li><li>• Mosquito bed nets, Window and door screens, Insect repellents</li><li>• Mosquito bed nets, Window</li><li>• door screens, Insect repellents</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is implementing vector control strategies in a community to reduce the incidence of vector-borne diseases. They understand that no single method can control vectors effectively and emphasize the importance of integrated vector management. One of the strategies involves proper disposal of sewage and wastewater. This environmental control measure is particularly aimed at controlling the breeding of which of the following vectors?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex Mosquito", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mansonia Mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aedes mosquito", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Culex Mosquito", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Culex Mosquito</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Environmental control: SOURCE REDUCTION METHOD - this generally produced permanent results</li><li>• SOURCE REDUCTION METHOD -</li><li>• Option D. Aedes mosquito: Environment should be cleaned up and got rid of water holding containers such as discarded tins , empty pots , broken bottles , coconut shells and similar other artificial collections of rain water.</li><li>• Option D. Aedes mosquito:</li><li>• cleaned up</li><li>• rid</li><li>• water holding containers</li><li>• discarded tins</li><li>• empty pots</li><li>• broken bottles</li><li>• coconut shells</li><li>• similar</li><li>• artificial collections</li><li>• water.</li><li>• Option A. Anopheles mosquito: Their breeding places should be looked for and abolished by appropriate engineering measures such as filling and drainage . It breeds in clean water (tanks on rooftop).</li><li>• Option A. Anopheles mosquito:</li><li>• breeding</li><li>• abolished</li><li>• engineering</li><li>• filling</li><li>• drainage</li><li>• Option C. Mansonia mosquito: Aquatic plants to which the larvae attach themselves should be removed or destroyed by herbicides (ponds, lakes)</li><li>• Option C. Mansonia mosquito: Aquatic plants</li><li>• larvae</li><li>• removed</li><li>• destroyed</li><li>• herbicides (ponds, lakes)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Best level of prevention of arthropod-borne diseases is Primordial prevention (e.g- source reduction ).</li><li>➤ Best</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ arthropod-borne diseases</li><li>➤ Primordial prevention</li><li>➤ source reduction</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a vector control program aimed at reducing the incidence of mosquito-borne diseases, a public health worker is preparing to utilize Paris Green for anti-larval activity. To ensure effectiveness while minimizing potential harm to the environment, the worker needs to know the recommended concentration for application. What is the recommended concentration at which Paris Green should be applied for anti-larval activity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 % dust", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2% dust", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5% dust", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7% dust", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2% dust", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2% dust</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Paris green is applied as 2 percent dust which is prepared by mixing 2 kg of paris green and 98 kg of a diluent such as soapstone powder or slaked lime .</li><li>• Paris green</li><li>• 2 percent dust</li><li>• 2 kg</li><li>• paris</li><li>• green</li><li>• 98 kg</li><li>• soapstone powder</li><li>• slaked lime</li><li>• PARIS GREEN (COPPER ACETOARSENITE)</li><li>• PARIS GREEN (COPPER ACETOARSENITE)</li><li>• Emerald green , microcrystalline powder. Anti-larval measure , kills mainly Anopheles larvae as they are surface feeders. Bottom-feeding larvae can also be killed when applied as a special granular formulation. The most widely used larvicide for mosquito control. Recommended dose: 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface -</li><li>• Emerald green , microcrystalline powder.</li><li>• Emerald green</li><li>• microcrystalline</li><li>• Anti-larval measure , kills mainly Anopheles larvae as they are surface feeders.</li><li>• Anti-larval measure</li><li>• Anopheles larvae</li><li>• surface feeders.</li><li>• Bottom-feeding larvae can also be killed when applied as a special granular formulation.</li><li>• Bottom-feeding larvae</li><li>• killed</li><li>• special</li><li>• granular formulation.</li><li>• The most widely used larvicide for mosquito control.</li><li>• widely used</li><li>• larvicide</li><li>• mosquito control.</li><li>• Recommended dose: 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface -</li><li>• 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface</li><li>• In the dosage applied, Paris Green does not harm fish, man , or domestic animals</li><li>• Paris Green</li><li>• not</li><li>• fish, man</li><li>• domestic animals</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paris green is a stomach poison (chemical larvicide). Recommended dose is 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface .</li><li>➤ Paris green</li><li>➤ 2</li><li>➤ percent dust</li><li>➤ 1 kg</li><li>➤ hectare water surface</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an effort to quickly reduce the population of adult mosquitoes during an ongoing outbreak of a vector-borne disease, a local health department is considering the use of various insecticides for space spraying. Which of the following insecticides is commonly used for space spraying to target adult mosquitoes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Paris Green", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lindane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyrethrum extract", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Abate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Pyrethrum extract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Pyrethrum extract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Space sprays (anti-adult measures):</li><li>• Space sprays (anti-adult measures):</li><li>• Pyrethrum extract: ‘ nerve poison’ ; Active principal ‘pyrethrin’ ; no residual action– shortlived effect . Residual insecticides: Malathion and fenitrothion for ULV (Ultra low volume) fogging.</li><li>• Pyrethrum extract: ‘ nerve poison’ ; Active principal ‘pyrethrin’ ; no residual action– shortlived effect .</li><li>• nerve poison’</li><li>• ‘pyrethrin’</li><li>• shortlived effect</li><li>• Residual insecticides: Malathion and fenitrothion for ULV (Ultra low volume) fogging.</li><li>• Malathion</li><li>• fenitrothion</li><li>• ULV</li><li>• fogging.</li><li>• Pyrethrum:</li><li>• Pyrethrum:</li><li>• Space spray for killing adult mosquitoes Contact poison Knock-down effect with paralysis Insecticide of plant origin: Flowers of Chrysanthemum 5 active principles (all ‘nerve poisons’) -</li><li>• Space spray for killing adult mosquitoes</li><li>• Space spray</li><li>• killing adult mosquitoes</li><li>• Contact poison</li><li>• Contact poison</li><li>• Knock-down effect with paralysis</li><li>• Knock-down</li><li>• paralysis</li><li>• Insecticide of plant origin: Flowers of Chrysanthemum</li><li>• Insecticide</li><li>• Flowers</li><li>• Chrysanthemum</li><li>• 5 active principles (all ‘nerve poisons’) -</li><li>• 5 active principles (all ‘nerve poisons’) -</li><li>• Pyrethrin I Pyrethrin II Cinerin I Cinerin II Jasmoline II</li><li>• Pyrethrin I</li><li>• Pyrethrin II</li><li>• Cinerin I</li><li>• Cinerin II</li><li>• Jasmoline II</li><li>• No residual effect: Short-lived effect Synthetic pyrethroids: permethrin, allethrin, furethrin, cyclethrin Because of the natural insecticidal properties used as ‘ companion plants ’, to repel pest insects from nearby crops.</li><li>• No residual effect: Short-lived effect</li><li>• Short-lived effect</li><li>• Synthetic pyrethroids: permethrin, allethrin, furethrin, cyclethrin</li><li>• Synthetic</li><li>• permethrin, allethrin, furethrin, cyclethrin</li><li>• Because of the natural insecticidal properties used as ‘ companion plants ’, to repel pest insects from nearby crops.</li><li>• natural insecticidal</li><li>• companion plants</li><li>• pest insects</li><li>• nearby crops.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyrethrum extract is a commonly used insecticide for space spraying to quickly reduce adult mosquito populations during outbreaks , enhancing rapid response efforts in vector control programs . A nerve poison and Active principal is pyrethrin .</li><li>➤ Pyrethrum extract</li><li>➤ insecticide</li><li>➤ space spraying</li><li>➤ reduce adult mosquito populations</li><li>➤ outbreaks</li><li>➤ rapid</li><li>➤ response</li><li>➤ vector control programs</li><li>➤ nerve poison</li><li>➤ Active principal</li><li>➤ pyrethrin</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health worker is educating a community about the potential health risks associated with houseflies and their role in disease transmission. In order to provide accurate information, the public health worker needs to clarify which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for diseases carried by houseflies?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mechanical", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vomit drop", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Defecation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Bite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Houseflies transmit diseases by following methods</li><li>• Houseflies transmit</li><li>• diseases</li><li>• Mechanical method Vomit drop Defecation.</li><li>• Mechanical method</li><li>• Vomit drop</li><li>• Defecation.</li><li>• HOUSEFLY</li><li>• HOUSEFLY</li><li>• Regarded as a \"sign of insanitation\" (and their number as Index of sanitation) Important species: Musca domestica , M. vicinia, M. nebula, M. sorbens Life span: 15-25 days Important breeding places (in order of importance): Fresh horse manure , Human excreta , Manure of other animals, Garbage.</li><li>• Regarded as a \"sign of insanitation\" (and their number as Index of sanitation)</li><li>• \"sign of insanitation\"</li><li>• Important species: Musca domestica , M. vicinia, M. nebula, M. sorbens</li><li>• Musca domestica</li><li>• Life span: 15-25 days</li><li>• 15-25 days</li><li>• Important breeding places (in order of importance): Fresh horse manure , Human excreta , Manure of other animals, Garbage.</li><li>• breeding places</li><li>• Fresh horse manure</li><li>• Human excreta</li><li>• Manure</li><li>• other animals,</li><li>• Garbage.</li><li>• Feeding habits:</li><li>• Feeding habits:</li><li>• Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state. Dispersal: up to 4 miles Houseflies in disease causation: As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis , helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis As causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state.</li><li>• not bite</li><li>• cannot</li><li>• solid foods</li><li>• vomits</li><li>• solid foods</li><li>• sucks</li><li>• liquid state.</li><li>• Dispersal: up to 4 miles</li><li>• up to 4 miles</li><li>• Houseflies in disease causation:</li><li>• Houseflies</li><li>• disease causation:</li><li>• As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis , helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Typhoid</li><li>• paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas</li><li>• dysenteries, cholera</li><li>• gastroenteritis, amoebiasis</li><li>• helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis</li><li>• As causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• As causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Housefly does not bite ; Transmit diseases by Mechanical method, Vomit drop and Defecation.</li><li>➤ Housefly</li><li>➤ not bite</li><li>➤ Transmit</li><li>➤ Mechanical method, Vomit drop</li><li>➤ Defecation.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 868.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 868.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying entomology as part of their coursework on infectious diseases. During a practical session, they are shown various insects under a microscope and asked to identify them based on their morphological features. The student observes an insect with hairy features and lanceolate-shaped wings. Based on these characteristics, the student should identify this insect as belonging to which of the following groups?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles Mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sand fly", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "House fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tsetse fly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sand fly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/5/59/Lutzomyia_longipalpis-sandfly.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sand fly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The wings of sandfly are upright, lanceolate /flame-shaped and densely hairy. Legs twice as long as body</li><li>• wings</li><li>• sandfly</li><li>• upright, lanceolate /flame-shaped</li><li>• densely hairy.</li><li>• Legs twice</li><li>• long</li><li>• body</li><li>• Sand Fly (Phlebotomus argentipes)</li><li>• Sand Fly (Phlebotomus argentipes)</li><li>• Habitats: Holes and crevices in walls, holes in trees, dark rooms, stables and store rooms Flight range of Sandfly is 50 yards Sanitation measures are carried out for a distance of 50 feet Insecticide of choice: DDT (1–2 gm/m 2 single application) DDT is sprayed upto height of 4–6 feet of walls : as Sandfly cannot fly ; it only hops Only female sandflies bite : Require a blood meal every 3-4 days for oviposition . Sandflies inject the infective stage, metacyclic promastigotes , during blood meals.</li><li>• Habitats: Holes and crevices in walls, holes in trees, dark rooms, stables and store rooms</li><li>• Holes</li><li>• crevices</li><li>• holes</li><li>• trees,</li><li>• dark rooms, stables</li><li>• store rooms</li><li>• Flight range of Sandfly is 50 yards</li><li>• Flight range</li><li>• 50 yards</li><li>• Sanitation measures are carried out for a distance of 50 feet</li><li>• Sanitation</li><li>• 50 feet</li><li>• Insecticide of choice: DDT (1–2 gm/m 2 single application)</li><li>• DDT</li><li>• DDT is sprayed upto height of 4–6 feet of walls : as Sandfly cannot fly ; it only hops</li><li>• DDT</li><li>• 4–6 feet of walls</li><li>• Sandfly cannot fly</li><li>• hops</li><li>• Only female sandflies bite : Require a blood meal every 3-4 days for oviposition . Sandflies inject the infective stage, metacyclic promastigotes , during blood meals.</li><li>• female sandflies bite</li><li>• blood meal</li><li>• 3-4 days</li><li>• oviposition</li><li>• infective stage, metacyclic promastigotes</li><li>• blood meals.</li><li>• Sandfly is the vector of: – Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala azar) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis ( Oriental Sore ) Sandfly Fever Oroya Fever Chandipura virus Changuinola virus Naplesvirus Toscana virus Sicilian virus Puntatora virus Vesicular stomatitis Turkey virus Cyprus virus</li><li>• Sandfly is the vector of: – Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala azar) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis ( Oriental Sore ) Sandfly Fever Oroya Fever Chandipura virus Changuinola virus Naplesvirus Toscana virus Sicilian virus Puntatora virus Vesicular stomatitis Turkey virus Cyprus virus</li><li>• Sandfly</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala azar) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis ( Oriental Sore ) Sandfly Fever Oroya Fever Chandipura virus Changuinola virus Naplesvirus Toscana virus Sicilian virus Puntatora virus Vesicular stomatitis Turkey virus Cyprus virus</li><li>• Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala azar)</li><li>• Visceral Leishmaniasis</li><li>• Cutaneous Leishmaniasis ( Oriental Sore )</li><li>• Oriental Sore</li><li>• Sandfly Fever</li><li>• Sandfly Fever</li><li>• Oroya Fever</li><li>• Chandipura virus</li><li>• Changuinola virus</li><li>• Naplesvirus</li><li>• Toscana virus</li><li>• Sicilian virus</li><li>• Puntatora virus</li><li>• Vesicular stomatitis</li><li>• Turkey virus</li><li>• Cyprus virus</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The characteristic features of sandflies, including their hairy appearance and lanceolate-shaped wings , to aid in the identification of potential vectors for leishmaniasis .</li><li>➤ sandflies,</li><li>➤ hairy appearance</li><li>➤ lanceolate-shaped wings</li><li>➤ potential vectors</li><li>➤ leishmaniasis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 869</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 869</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient in a rural area of a developing country presents with prolonged fever, substantial weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia. A physician suspects visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) and understands the importance of vector control in preventing the spread of this disease. To implement effective control measures, it is crucial to know the vector responsible for transmitting Kala-azar. Which of the following insects transmits Kala-azar through its bite?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phlebotomus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Aedes mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hard tick", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rat flea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Phlebotomus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture68.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Phlebotomus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sandfly is the vectors responsible for transmitting the protozoan parasites that cause Kala-azar .</li><li>• Sandfly</li><li>• vectors</li><li>• transmitting</li><li>• protozoan parasites</li><li>• Kala-azar</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Sandflies (Phlebotomus) have not demonstrated resistance to DDT SANDFLY (PHLEBOTOMUS) identification features - Legs twice as long as body; Lanceolate (Flame shaped) wings and Fine hairs on the margins of wings</li><li>• Sandflies (Phlebotomus) have not demonstrated resistance to DDT</li><li>• Sandflies (Phlebotomus)</li><li>• not</li><li>• resistance</li><li>• DDT</li><li>• SANDFLY (PHLEBOTOMUS) identification features - Legs twice as long as body; Lanceolate (Flame shaped) wings and Fine hairs on the margins of wings</li><li>• features</li><li>• Legs twice</li><li>• long</li><li>• body; Lanceolate (Flame shaped) wings</li><li>• Fine hairs</li><li>• wings</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 870</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of public health workers is conducting an adult mosquito survey in an urban slum to identify the predominant mosquito species and assess the risk of vector-borne diseases. During their survey, they observed that the majority of the captured mosquitoes have striped bodies. Based on this characteristic feature, which of the following mosquito species is most likely to be prevalent in this area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Aedes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Aedes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/image_LPg3Uoi.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Aedes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Aedes mosquitoes are sometimes referred to as tiger mosquitoes , Because of the striped or banded character of their legs .</li><li>• Aedes mosquitoes</li><li>• tiger mosquitoes</li><li>• striped or banded</li><li>• their legs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Aedes mosquitoes are referred to as tiger mosquitoes , Because of the striped or banded character of their legs .</li><li>➤ Aedes mosquitoes</li><li>➤ tiger mosquitoes</li><li>➤ striped or banded</li><li>➤ legs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A town is experiencing an increase in cases of vector-borne diseases, and public health officials are working to identify the source and reduce the risk of further transmission. As part of this effort, they are evaluating the local mosquito populations to determine their potential role in disease transmission. Regarding the Culex mosquito species, which is known to transmit diseases such as West Nile virus and lymphatic filariasis, what is the typical flight range of this mosquito?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 kms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "400 meters", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "11kms", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "5-6 kms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 11kms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 11 kms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Culex Mosquito's flight range is 11 Km</li><li>• Culex Mosquito's flight</li><li>• 11 Km</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flight range of important vectors in India :</li><li>➤ Flight range</li><li>➤ vectors</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Anopheles - 3-5 Km Culex - 11 Km Aedes - 100 m (110 yards) Mansonia - 1-2 km Sand fly - 50 yards Simulium (Black fly) - 100 miles (161 Km)</li><li>➤ Anopheles - 3-5 Km</li><li>➤ Culex - 11 Km</li><li>➤ Culex - 11 Km</li><li>➤ Aedes - 100 m (110 yards)</li><li>➤ Mansonia - 1-2 km</li><li>➤ Sand fly - 50 yards</li><li>➤ Sand fly - 50 yards</li><li>➤ Simulium (Black fly) - 100 miles (161 Km)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A clinician in a tropical region is evaluating patients presenting with symptoms suggestive of vector-borne diseases. To aid in diagnosis and subsequent management, the clinician is considering the behavior of different mosquito species. Which mosquito species is characteristically known for biting primarily around midnight?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Aedes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culex", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sandfly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Culex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Culex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Culex is highly anthrophilic. It enters the houses at dusk and reaches maximum density by midnight . The peak biting time is about midnight . Legs , particularly below the knee are the preferred biting sites . During the day , it may be seen resting indoors on walls, underneath.</li><li>• Culex</li><li>• anthrophilic.</li><li>• enters</li><li>• houses</li><li>• dusk</li><li>• maximum density</li><li>• midnight</li><li>• peak biting time</li><li>• midnight</li><li>• Legs</li><li>• below</li><li>• knee</li><li>• biting sites</li><li>• day</li><li>• resting indoors</li><li>• walls, underneath.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Culex is the midnight biter or night-time biter</li><li>➤ Culex</li><li>➤ midnight biter or night-time biter</li><li>➤ Nuisance mosquito is Culex.</li><li>➤ Nuisance mosquito</li><li>➤ Culex.</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 865.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health officer is exploring various options for controlling mosquito larvae in a waterlogged area to prevent vector-borne diseases. One of the chemicals under consideration is Paris Green. The health officer is interested in understanding the mechanism through which Paris Green exerts its larvicidal effects. How does Paris Green function in the control of mosquito larvae?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Contact poison", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stomach poison", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nerve poison", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cardiotoxin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stomach poison", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Stomach poison</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Paris green is a stomach poison ( chemical larvicide ). Paris green kills mainly the Anopheles larvae because they are surface-feeders .</li><li>• Paris green</li><li>• chemical larvicide</li><li>• kills</li><li>• Anopheles</li><li>• larvae</li><li>• surface-feeders</li><li>• PARIS GREEN (COPPER ACETOARSENITE)</li><li>• PARIS GREEN (COPPER ACETOARSENITE)</li><li>• Emerald green , microcrystalline powder (Copper aceto-arsenite) Anti-larval measure, kills mainly Anopheles larvae as they are surface feeders. Bottom-feeding larvae can also be killed when applied as a special granular formulation. The most widely used larvicide for mosquito control not harm fish, man, or domestic animals. Recommended dose: 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface - In the dosage applied, Paris Green does</li><li>• Emerald green , microcrystalline powder (Copper aceto-arsenite)</li><li>• Emerald green</li><li>• Anti-larval measure, kills mainly Anopheles larvae as they are surface feeders.</li><li>• Anti-larval</li><li>• kills</li><li>• Anopheles larvae</li><li>• surface feeders.</li><li>• Bottom-feeding larvae can also be killed when applied as a special granular formulation.</li><li>• Bottom-feeding larvae</li><li>• killed</li><li>• special granular</li><li>• formulation.</li><li>• The most widely used larvicide for mosquito control not harm fish, man, or domestic animals.</li><li>• most widely used larvicide</li><li>• mosquito control</li><li>• not harm fish,</li><li>• man,</li><li>• domestic animals.</li><li>• Recommended dose: 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface - In the dosage applied, Paris Green does</li><li>• 2 percent dust applied in a dose of 1 kg per hectare water surface</li><li>• Paris Green</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Paris green is a stomach poison (chemical larvicide).</li><li>➤ Paris green</li><li>➤ stomach poison (chemical larvicide).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a malaria-endemic region, a public health campaign is underway to distribute mosquito nets to the community as a preventive measure against mosquito-borne illnesses. A public health official is tasked with ensuring the quality of the mosquito nets before finalizing the order for distribution. To confirm that the nets will serve as an effective barrier against mosquito bites, the official needs to check the size of the holes in the sample nets. What is the maximum size that the holes in the mosquito net should be to ensure effectiveness against mosquito bites?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.0675 inch", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.0475 inch", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.0575 inch", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.0275 inch", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 0.0475 inch", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 0.0475 inch</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Personal protection measures ( against mosquito bites ):</li><li>• protection measures</li><li>• against mosquito bites</li><li>• Mosquito nets: No. of holes per square inch: 150 Size of each hole diameter: &lt; 0.0475 inch Screening:</li><li>• Mosquito nets:</li><li>• No. of holes per square inch: 150</li><li>• No. of holes per square inch: 150</li><li>• Size of each hole diameter: &lt; 0.0475 inch</li><li>• Size of each hole diameter: &lt; 0.0475 inch</li><li>• Screening:</li><li>• Size: 16 meshes to inch</li><li>• 16 meshes</li><li>• inch</li><li>• Aperture size : &lt; 0.0475 inch</li><li>• Aperture size</li><li>• 0.0475 inch</li><li>• Insecticide-treated bed nets (ITBN): Chemicals used in ITBN Program : Synthetic pyretheroids (NVBD CP)</li><li>• Insecticide-treated bed nets (ITBN):</li><li>• ITBN Program</li><li>• Synthetic pyretheroids (NVBD CP)</li><li>• Deltamethrin : 2.5 % in dosage of 25 mg/m2 Cyfluthrin: 5 % in dosage of 50 mg/m2 Other insecticides used: Permethrin, Lambdacyhalothrin , Etofenprox, -cypermethrin.</li><li>• Deltamethrin : 2.5 % in dosage of 25 mg/m2</li><li>• Deltamethrin</li><li>• 2.5 %</li><li>• 25 mg/m2</li><li>• Cyfluthrin: 5 % in dosage of 50 mg/m2</li><li>• Cyfluthrin: 5 %</li><li>• 50 mg/m2</li><li>• Other insecticides used: Permethrin, Lambdacyhalothrin , Etofenprox, -cypermethrin.</li><li>• Permethrin, Lambdacyhalothrin</li><li>• Etofenprox, -cypermethrin.</li><li>• Effectiveness of pyretheroids: 6-12 months (Retreatment every 6 months) Long-lasting insecticidal mosquito nets (LLINs): Also use pyrethroid insecticides , and a chemical binder that allows the nets to be washed ≥20 times , allowing use for ≥3 years.</li><li>• Effectiveness of pyretheroids: 6-12 months (Retreatment every 6 months)</li><li>• Effectiveness</li><li>• pyretheroids: 6-12 months</li><li>• Long-lasting insecticidal mosquito nets (LLINs): Also use pyrethroid insecticides , and a chemical binder that allows the nets to be washed ≥20 times , allowing use for ≥3 years.</li><li>• Long-lasting insecticidal mosquito nets</li><li>• pyrethroid insecticides</li><li>• nets</li><li>• washed ≥20 times</li><li>• ≥3 years.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mosquito nets are used as personal protection measures:</li><li>➤ Mosquito nets</li><li>➤ personal protection</li><li>➤ Maximum recommended size of holes in mosquito nets - 0.0475 inch Maximum recommended no. of holes in mosquito nets - 150/sq.inch</li><li>➤ Maximum recommended size of holes in mosquito nets - 0.0475 inch</li><li>➤ Maximum</li><li>➤ size of holes</li><li>➤ 0.0475 inch</li><li>➤ Maximum recommended no. of holes in mosquito nets - 150/sq.inch</li><li>➤ Maximum</li><li>➤ no. of holes</li><li>➤ 150/sq.inch</li><li>➤ MC chemical used for Insecticide treated bed nets - Synthetic pyretheroids (effectiveness 6-12 months )</li><li>➤ MC chemical</li><li>➤ Insecticide</li><li>➤ bed nets</li><li>➤ Synthetic pyretheroids</li><li>➤ 6-12 months</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is evaluating the sanitary conditions of a community. The officer knows that the presence of certain insects can serve as an indicator of poor sanitation. Which of the following insects is commonly considered as an index of insanitation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sand fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "House fly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cockroach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. House fly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. House fly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• HOUSEFLY</li><li>• HOUSEFLY</li><li>• Regarded as a \" sign of insanitation \" (and their number as Index of sanitation ). Important species : Musca domestica , M. vicinia, M. nebula , M. sorbens Life span: 15-25 days Important breeding places (in order of importance): Fresh horse manure , Human excreta, Manure of other animals, Garbage Feeding habits: Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state . Dispersal: up to 4 miles Houseflies transmit diseases by following methods</li><li>• Regarded as a \" sign of insanitation \" (and their number as Index of sanitation ).</li><li>• sign of insanitation</li><li>• number</li><li>• sanitation</li><li>• Important species : Musca domestica , M. vicinia, M. nebula , M. sorbens</li><li>• : Musca domestica</li><li>• M. nebula</li><li>• Life span: 15-25 days</li><li>• 15-25 days</li><li>• Important breeding places (in order of importance): Fresh horse manure , Human excreta, Manure of other animals, Garbage</li><li>• breeding places</li><li>• Fresh horse manure</li><li>• excreta,</li><li>• Garbage</li><li>• Feeding habits: Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state . Dispersal: up to 4 miles</li><li>• Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state . Dispersal: up to 4 miles</li><li>• Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods ; it vomits on solid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state .</li><li>• not bite</li><li>• cannot</li><li>• solid foods</li><li>• vomits</li><li>• solid foods</li><li>• solution</li><li>• sucks</li><li>• liquid state</li><li>• Dispersal: up to 4 miles</li><li>• 4 miles</li><li>• Houseflies transmit diseases by following methods</li><li>• Houseflies transmit</li><li>• Mechanical method Vomit drop Defecation</li><li>• Mechanical method</li><li>• Mechanical method</li><li>• Vomit drop</li><li>• Vomit drop</li><li>• Defecation</li><li>• Defecation</li><li>• Houseflies in disease causation: As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers , diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma , conjunctivitis As a causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• Houseflies in disease causation: As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers , diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma , conjunctivitis As a causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers , diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma , conjunctivitis As a causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• As vector of diseases: Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers , diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma , conjunctivitis</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Typhoid</li><li>• paratyphoid fevers</li><li>• diarrhoeas</li><li>• dysenteries, cholera</li><li>• gastroenteritis, amoebiasis,</li><li>• Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma</li><li>• conjunctivitis</li><li>• As a causative agent of disease: Myiasis</li><li>• causative agent</li><li>• Myiasis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Housefly is a \" sign of insanitation \" (and their number as Index of sanitation ).</li><li>➤ Housefly</li><li>➤ sign of insanitation</li><li>➤ number</li><li>➤ Index</li><li>➤ sanitation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 868</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is classifying various organisms based on their taxonomic categories. She has listed several organisms under the class Insecta. Which of the following organisms does not belong to the class Insecta?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mosquito", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hard tick", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fleas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bed bugs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hard tick", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture64_ikYF76p.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hard tick</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options ( A. Mosquitos, C. Fleas and D. bed bugs ) belonged to class Insecta .</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• A. Mosquitos, C. Fleas</li><li>• D. bed bugs</li><li>• class Insecta</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Arthropods of Medical Importance :</li><li>• Arthropods of Medical Importance</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 861</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 861</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is investigating a region with a high incidence of vector-borne diseases. As part of the investigation, the officer is studying the breeding habits of different mosquito species to implement effective control measures. Upon examination of a water body, the officer observes that there are several clusters of eggs floating on the surface of the water, appearing as if they are laid together in rafts. Based on this observation, which of the following mosquito species is most likely responsible for laying these eggs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mansonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anopheles", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Culex", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aedes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Culex", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://www.cdc.gov/mosquitoes/images/about/C-quinquefasciatus-egg-raft.jpg?_=22898", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/image_pkB3Cse.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/image_4eWUssf.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/31/image_YQWAE7M.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Culex</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mansonia: Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs on under surface of leaves of aquatic plants in Star-shaped cluster</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Mansonia:</li><li>• lay</li><li>• eggs</li><li>• under surface</li><li>• leaves</li><li>• aquatic plants</li><li>• Star-shaped cluster</li><li>• Option B. Anopheles: Anopheles mosquitoes lay their eggs singly on the surface of water, boat-shaped eggs with lateral floats</li><li>• Option B. Anopheles:</li><li>• lay</li><li>• eggs singly</li><li>• boat-shaped eggs</li><li>• lateral floats</li><li>• Option D. Aedes: Aedes mosquitoes also lay their eggs singly ( Cigar shaped ), but they prefer to lay them just above the water line in areas that are prone to flooding.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Aedes:</li><li>• lay</li><li>• eggs singly</li><li>• Cigar shaped</li><li>• above</li><li>• water line</li><li>• prone to flooding.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Culex mosquitoes based on their distinctive egg-laying behavior of forming egg rafts , and differentiate them from other mosquito species based on their breeding habits.</li><li>➤ Culex mosquitoes</li><li>➤ egg-laying behavior</li><li>➤ egg rafts</li><li>➤ differentiate</li><li>➤ other mosquito</li><li>➤ breeding habits.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 580</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health team is conducting a larval survey in a tropical region during the peak mosquito breeding season. The aim is to assess the risk of dengue fever transmission in various residential areas. They calculate the House Index (HI) based on the number of houses inspected and the number of houses found to have Aedes mosquito larvae or pupae. Which of the following HI thresholds should the team use to categorize an area as being sensitive to a dengue outbreak?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "7.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2.5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Indices of Surveillance of Aedes Mosquitoes -</li><li>• Indices of Surveillance of Aedes Mosquitoes -</li><li>• House Index (HI) : Percentage of houses or premises positive for Aedes larvae.</li><li>• House Index (HI)</li><li>• HI = (No. of houses positive for Aedes larvae/ No. of houses inspected) x 100</li><li>• Container Index (CI) : Percentage of water-holding containerspositive for Aedes larvae.</li><li>• Container Index (CI)</li><li>• CI = (No. of positive containers/No. of containers inspected) x 100</li><li>• CI = (No. of positive containers/No. of containers inspected) x 100</li><li>• Breteau Index (BI) : Number of positive containers per 100 houses in a specific location.</li><li>• Breteau Index (BI)</li><li>• BI = (No. of positive containers/ No. of houses inspected) x 100</li><li>• BI = (No. of positive containers/ No. of houses inspected) x 100</li><li>• HI &gt;5% &amp;/or a BI &gt;20 for any locality is an indication that the locality is dengue sensitive and therefore adequate preventive measures should be taken.</li><li>• HI &gt;5% &amp;/or a BI &gt;20</li><li>• indication</li><li>• locality is dengue sensitive and</li><li>• adequate preventive measures</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An area is considered sensitive to a dengue outbreak if the House Index , which measures the percentage of houses infested with Aedes mosquito larvae or pupae, is more than 5%.</li><li>➤ sensitive</li><li>➤ dengue outbreak</li><li>➤ House Index</li><li>➤ percentage</li><li>➤ houses infested</li><li>➤ Aedes mosquito larvae</li><li>➤ pupae,</li><li>➤ more</li><li>➤ 5%.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 582</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 582</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health professional is educating a community about the risks associated with Aedes mosquito bites and the diseases they transmit. To enhance their awareness and preventive practices, it is crucial to accurately identify the diseases associated with this vector. Which of the following diseases is NOT typically transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chikungunya", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Japanese encephalitis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rift Valley fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Japanese encephalitis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-04-30%20121046_yoKMB8M.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Japanese encephalitis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options A. Dengue, B. Chikungunya and D. Rift Valley fever are transmiited by Aedes mosquito</li><li>• A. Dengue, B. Chikungunya</li><li>• D. Rift Valley fever</li><li>• transmiited</li><li>• Aedes mosquito</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref :Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li><li>➤ Ref :Park 26 th ed pg 866.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is studying the lifecycle of disease agents within arthropod vectors to better understand the transmission dynamics of vector-borne diseases. The official is particularly interested in the duration of time that the disease agent takes to develop within the arthropod host before it becomes infectious to humans. What is the term used to describe this period of development?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Extrinsic incubation period", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Generation time", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reproductive interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serial Interval", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Extrinsic incubation period", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Extrinsic incubation period</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The extrinsic incubation period (EIP) (Sporogony) refers to the time required for the development of the disease agent within the arthropod vector before it becomes infectious to humans or other vertebrate hosts . This period is crucial for understanding the transmission dynamics of vector-borne diseases and implementing effective control measures.</li><li>• extrinsic incubation period (EIP)</li><li>• time required</li><li>• development</li><li>• disease agent</li><li>• arthropod vector</li><li>• before</li><li>• infectious</li><li>• humans</li><li>• other vertebrate hosts</li><li>• transmission dynamics</li><li>• vector-borne diseases</li><li>• control measures.</li><li>• EIP of Plasmodium : Period for development of parasite from Gametocyte to Sporozoite stage in body of mosquito . EIP is around 10-20 days Aedes mosquitoes become infective by feeding on a patient from the day before onset to the 5th day (viraemia stage) of illness: After an extrinsic incubation period of 8-10 days, the mosquitoes become infective.</li><li>• EIP of Plasmodium : Period for development of parasite from Gametocyte to Sporozoite stage in body of mosquito . EIP is around 10-20 days</li><li>• EIP</li><li>• Plasmodium</li><li>• Period</li><li>• development</li><li>• parasite</li><li>• Gametocyte</li><li>• Sporozoite stage</li><li>• mosquito</li><li>• EIP</li><li>• 10-20 days</li><li>• Aedes mosquitoes become infective by feeding on a patient from the day before onset to the 5th day (viraemia stage) of illness: After an extrinsic incubation period of 8-10 days, the mosquitoes become infective.</li><li>• Aedes mosquitoes</li><li>• infective</li><li>• feeding</li><li>• day before onset</li><li>• 5th day (viraemia stage)</li><li>• illness:</li><li>• extrinsic incubation period</li><li>• 8-10 days,</li><li>• mosquitoes</li><li>• infective.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The extrinsic incubation period is the time taken by an organism to develop in the intermediate host . For example, once ingested by a mosquito , malaria parasites must undergo development within the mosquito before they are infectious to humans .</li><li>• extrinsic incubation period</li><li>• time taken</li><li>• organism to develop</li><li>• intermediate host</li><li>• ingested</li><li>• mosquito</li><li>• malaria parasites</li><li>• development</li><li>• mosquito before</li><li>• infectious</li><li>• humans</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 862.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 862.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community in a malaria-endemic region is implementing vector control measures to reduce the transmission of the disease. The local health department decided to conduct residual spraying using Malathion at a concentration of 2 grams per square meter. The community health workers are interested in knowing how long this intervention will remain effective in controlling the adult mosquito population. For how long does one round of residual spraying with 2 grams/square meter of Malathion act as an effective anti-adult measure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/picture79.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anti-adult measures:</li><li>• Anti-adult measures:</li><li>• Residual sprays:</li><li>• </li><li>• </li><li>• (OMS = Ortho-Isopropoxyphenyl-Methylcarbonate)</li><li>• Space sprays:</li><li>• Pyrethrum extract : ‘ nerve poison’ ; Active principal ‘ pyrethrin ’; no residual action– shortlived effect . Residual insecticides : Malathion and fenitrothion for ULV (Ultra low volume) fogging</li><li>• Pyrethrum extract : ‘ nerve poison’ ; Active principal ‘ pyrethrin ’; no residual action– shortlived effect .</li><li>• Pyrethrum extract</li><li>• nerve poison’</li><li>• pyrethrin</li><li>• no</li><li>• shortlived effect</li><li>• Residual insecticides : Malathion and fenitrothion for ULV (Ultra low volume) fogging</li><li>• Residual insecticides</li><li>• Malathion</li><li>• fenitrothion</li><li>• ULV</li><li>• fogging</li><li>• Genetic control:</li><li>• Genetic control:</li><li>• Sterile male technique Cytoplasmic incompatibility Chromosomal translocations Sex distortion Gene replacement</li><li>• Sterile male technique</li><li>• Sterile male technique</li><li>• Cytoplasmic incompatibility</li><li>• Chromosomal translocations</li><li>• Chromosomal translocations</li><li>• Sex distortion</li><li>• Sex distortion</li><li>• Gene replacement</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• One round of residual spraying with 2 grams/square meter of Malathion is generally effective for up to 3 months in controlling adult Anopheles mosquitoes , contributing to the reduction of malaria transmission in endemic regions.</li><li>• One round</li><li>• residual spraying</li><li>• 2 grams/square meter</li><li>• Malathion</li><li>• effective</li><li>• 3 months</li><li>• adult Anopheles mosquitoes</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• malaria</li><li>• endemic</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 867.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A clinician is reviewing the different vector-borne diseases in preparation for a medical mission in a tropical region. To provide accurate prevention and treatment strategies, it is vital to identify the vectors responsible for transmitting various diseases. Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by sandflies?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oriental sore", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chagas disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kala azar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Papatasii fever", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chagas disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture68_MkWbXEm.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Chagas disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Oriental Sore: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis transmited by Phlebotomus papatasii and Phlebotomus sergenti species .</li><li>• Option A. Oriental Sore: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis</li><li>• Phlebotomus papatasii</li><li>• Phlebotomus sergenti species</li><li>• Option C. Kala Azar: Visceral Leishmaniasis is transmited by Phlebotomus argentipes species</li><li>• Option C. Kala Azar: Visceral Leishmaniasis</li><li>• Phlebotomus argentipes</li><li>• Option D. Papatasii fever: Is transmited by Phlebotomus papatasii species</li><li>• Option D. Papatasii fever:</li><li>• Phlebotomus papatasii</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 870.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 870.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man residing in a rural area of sub-Saharan Africa presents to a healthcare facility with intermittent fever, headaches, and generalized weakness for the past several weeks. The healthcare provider suspects a vector-borne disease and recalls that a specific organism is known to transmit the causative agent of this condition in the region. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for acting as a vector for the patient’s suspected condition, trypanosomiasis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Black fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tsetse fly", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sand fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sandflea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tsetse fly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-101451.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-101456.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tsetse fly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Tsetse flies (Glossina palpalis) are vectors of trypanosomiasis or “sleeping sickness ”. The disease affects man, domestic animals , and wild game - being particularly lethal to man , and his domestic stock.</li><li>• Tsetse flies (Glossina palpalis)</li><li>• vectors</li><li>• trypanosomiasis</li><li>• “sleeping sickness</li><li>• disease</li><li>• man, domestic animals</li><li>• wild game</li><li>• lethal</li><li>• man</li><li>• domestic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 870</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 870</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an advanced entomology session focused on the life cycles of various insects, the professor discusses how certain insects have unique developmental stages. Some of these insects do not experience a pupal stage during their growth. Considering this information, which of the following organisms can be identified as lacking a pupal stage in its life cycle?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Black fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Louse", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sandfly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tsetse fly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Louse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/13/image_7WVepZp.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Louse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Three stages in the life history of lice: egg, larva/Nymph and adult.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LICE (singular LOUSE) -</li><li>➤ LICE (singular LOUSE) -</li><li>➤ Wingless insects , also known as ‘ Fly babies’</li><li>➤ Wingless insects</li><li>➤ Fly babies’</li><li>➤ Lice as the vectors of diseases:</li><li>➤ Lice</li><li>➤ vectors</li><li>➤ diseases:</li><li>➤ Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii) Relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis) Trench fever (Rickettsia Quintana) Pediculosis capitis (head), corporis (body) Dermatitis (Due to scratching and secondary infection )</li><li>➤ Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii)</li><li>➤ Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii)</li><li>➤ Relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis)</li><li>➤ Relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis)</li><li>➤ Trench fever (Rickettsia Quintana)</li><li>➤ Trench fever (Rickettsia Quintana)</li><li>➤ Pediculosis capitis (head), corporis (body)</li><li>➤ Pediculosis capitis (head), corporis (body)</li><li>➤ Dermatitis (Due to scratching and secondary infection )</li><li>➤ Dermatitis</li><li>➤ scratching</li><li>➤ secondary infection</li><li>➤ Mode of transmission of Epidemic Typhus : (IS NOT BY LOUSE-BITE)</li><li>➤ Epidemic Typhus</li><li>➤ (IS NOT BY LOUSE-BITE)</li><li>➤ Scratching and inoculation with infected louse faeces. Crushing infected louse on body. Inhalation of infected louse faeces or dust.</li><li>➤ Scratching and inoculation with infected louse faeces.</li><li>➤ Scratching</li><li>➤ inoculation</li><li>➤ infected louse faeces.</li><li>➤ Crushing infected louse on body.</li><li>➤ Crushing infected</li><li>➤ louse</li><li>➤ body.</li><li>➤ Inhalation of infected louse faeces or dust.</li><li>➤ Inhalation</li><li>➤ infected louse faeces</li><li>➤ dust.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 871</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 871</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Having recently attended a lecture on vector-borne diseases, with a focus on diseases transmitted by lice, you are now tasked with identifying which of the following diseases is not typically transmitted by lice. Choose the correct option from the list below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Trench fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Relapsing fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Epidemic typhus", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oriental sore", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Oriental sore", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Oriental sore</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Trench fever: Bartonella quintana infection (historically called ‘ trench fever’ ) is a vector-borne disease primarily transmitted by the human body louse Pediculus humanus.</li><li>• Option A. Trench fever:</li><li>• Bartonella quintana</li><li>• trench fever’</li><li>• transmitted</li><li>• human body louse Pediculus humanus.</li><li>• Option B. Relapsing Fever: Caused by Borrelia recurrentis and transmitted by louse</li><li>• Option B. Relapsing Fever:</li><li>• Borrelia recurrentis</li><li>• louse</li><li>• Option C. Epidemic typhus: Caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and transmitted by louse</li><li>• Option C. Epidemic typhus:</li><li>• Rickettsia prowazekii</li><li>• louse</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While lice are vectors for diseases such as epidemic typhus , trench fever , and relapsing fever , they are not vectors for Oriental Sore , which is typically transmitted by sand fly .</li><li>➤ lice</li><li>➤ epidemic typhus</li><li>➤ trench fever</li><li>➤ relapsing fever</li><li>➤ not vectors</li><li>➤ Oriental Sore</li><li>➤ sand fly</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 871</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 871</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a public health initiative, a team is conducting fieldwork to understand and control vector-borne diseases in a specific region. A medical student on the team is tasked with gathering information about sandfly behavior to better target prevention efforts. The student needs to determine the typical range within which sandflies stay close to their breeding sites. What distance from their breeding places do sandflies generally confine themselves to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 Yards", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 Yards", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 yards", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 Yards", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50 Yards", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 50 Yards</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Flight range</li><li>• Flight range</li><li>• Sandfly - 50 yards</li><li>• Sandfly - 50 yards</li><li>• Anopheles - 3-5 Km</li><li>• Culex - 11 Km</li><li>• Culex - 11 Km</li><li>• Aedes - 100 m (110 Yards)</li><li>• Aedes - 100 m (110 Yards)</li><li>• Mansonia - 1-2 km</li><li>• Mansonia - 1-2 km</li><li>• Simulium (Black fly) - 100 miles (161 Km)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flight range of Sandfly is 50 yards.</li><li>➤ Flight range</li><li>➤ Sandfly</li><li>➤ 50 yards.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 870</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 870</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man from a rural area in South America presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and swelling around his left eye. On further examination, the physician notes an enlarged liver and spleen. Suspecting a vector-borne disease, the physician inquires about the patient’s living conditions and exposure to insects. To identify the vector responsible for transmitting the disease that the patient might be suffering from, the physician should recognize that Chagas disease is transmitted by?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tsetse fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reduviid bugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Black fly", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sand flea", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Reduviid bugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://i.insider.com/5b7c57908ea82ff0248b4797?width=1200&format=jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-103014.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Reduviid bugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Reduviid bugs live exclusively in the blood of animals including man and transmit Trypanosoma cruzi , the causative agent of Chagas’ disease.</li><li>• Reduviid bugs</li><li>• blood of animals</li><li>• man</li><li>• Trypanosoma cruzi</li><li>• causative agent</li><li>• Chagas’ disease.</li><li>• Reduviid bugs (Triatominae): Also known as ‘ Cone–nose bugs’ or ‘ Kissing bugs’ or ‘Assassin bugs'</li><li>• Reduviid bugs (Triatominae):</li><li>• Cone–nose bugs’</li><li>• Kissing bugs’</li><li>• ‘Assassin bugs'</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 874</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 874</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a Demonstration session on vector-borne diseases, a mentor is emphasizing the importance of accurately identifying and understanding the characteristics of various vectors. The discussion turns to ticks, and the mentor presents a specimen, asking the participants about the characteristics of hard and soft ticks. Which of the following statements is incorrect about ticks?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Males are smaller than females", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hard ticks feed continuously and cannot withstand starvation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dorsal aspect of soft tick is covered with scutum", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Soft ticks can withstand starvation for months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Dorsal aspect of soft tick is covered with scutum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/01/image_HeGfQd1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/123.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Dorsal aspect of soft tick is covered with scutum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The hard ticks are covered on their dorsal surface by a chitinous shield , called scutum - In male it covers the entire back , and in the female only a small part in front . The scutum or dorsal shield is absent in soft ticks. Hard ticks have a “head” or capitulum at anterior end ; soft ticks have a head on under side , which is entirely invisible from above . The males are generally smaller than females. The hard ticks feed both night and day and cannot stand starvation; the soft ticks , on the other hand, feed at night and can withstand starvation for several months . The hard ticks are always found on their hosts ; the soft ticks hide in cracks and crevices during the day and emerge at night to feed on the host .</li><li>• The hard ticks are covered on their dorsal surface by a chitinous shield , called scutum - In male it covers the entire back , and in the female only a small part in front . The scutum or dorsal shield is absent in soft ticks.</li><li>• hard ticks</li><li>• covered</li><li>• dorsal surface</li><li>• chitinous shield</li><li>• scutum</li><li>• male</li><li>• entire back</li><li>• female</li><li>• small part</li><li>• front</li><li>• scutum or dorsal shield</li><li>• absent</li><li>• soft ticks.</li><li>• Hard ticks have a “head” or capitulum at anterior end ; soft ticks have a head on under side , which is entirely invisible from above .</li><li>• Hard ticks</li><li>• “head” or capitulum</li><li>• anterior end</li><li>• soft ticks</li><li>• under side</li><li>• entirely invisible</li><li>• above</li><li>• The males are generally smaller than females.</li><li>• males</li><li>• smaller</li><li>• The hard ticks feed both night and day and cannot stand starvation; the soft ticks , on the other hand, feed at night and can withstand starvation for several months .</li><li>• hard ticks</li><li>• night</li><li>• day</li><li>• cannot</li><li>• soft ticks</li><li>• feed at night</li><li>• starvation</li><li>• several months</li><li>• The hard ticks are always found on their hosts ; the soft ticks hide in cracks and crevices during the day and emerge at night to feed on the host .</li><li>• hard ticks</li><li>• their hosts</li><li>• soft ticks hide</li><li>• cracks and crevices</li><li>• day</li><li>• emerge</li><li>• night</li><li>• feed</li><li>• host</li><li>• .</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disease Transmitted - Hard Vs Soft Ticks</li><li>➤ Disease Transmitted - Hard Vs Soft Ticks</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 874</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 874</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old farmer from a rural area in Maharashtra, India, presents to a local health clinic with complaints of fever, headache, and a painful swelling on his right leg. He reports finding a small creature attached to his leg a few days ago, which he removed manually. On examination, there is an erythematous rash around the site and regional lymphadenopathy. The physician is considering a vector-borne disease and needs to determine the most likely mode of transmission related to the patient’s exposure. Trans-stadial transmission, where a pathogen is transmitted from one life stage to the next within a vector, is characteristic of which of the following organisms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mites", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ticks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Housefly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ticks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ticks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Trans-stadial transmission: Agent transmitted from nymph to adult vector – Borrelia burgdorferi in ticks.</li><li>• Trans-stadial</li><li>• nymph to adult vector</li><li>• Borrelia burgdorferi</li><li>• ticks.</li><li>• Trans-ovarial transmission (vertical transmission): Female vector passes the infectious agent through her eggs to the next generation – Rickettsia rickettsii in ticks .</li><li>• Trans-ovarial</li><li>• Female vector</li><li>• infectious agent</li><li>• eggs</li><li>• next generation</li><li>• Rickettsia rickettsii</li><li>• ticks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Trans-stadial transmission is seen in Ticks.</li><li>➤ Trans-stadial transmission</li><li>➤ Ticks.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 875</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 875</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 34-year-old wildlife researcher working in a forested area in India presents to the clinic with high fever, severe headache, and fatigue. She recalls being bitten by a tick two weeks ago while conducting fieldwork. The physician is concerned about possible tick-borne diseases and starts considering various differential diagnoses. Which of the following diseases is NOT typically transmitted by hard ticks?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rocky mountain spotted fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tularaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human babesiosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Q fever", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Q fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/123.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Q fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever : Cused by Rickettsia rickettsii, Rodents reservoir and vector hard tick.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Rocky Mountain spotted fever</li><li>• Rickettsia rickettsii,</li><li>• Rodents</li><li>• hard tick.</li><li>• Option B. Tularaemia: Bacterial disesae transmitted by Hard tick.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Tularaemia:</li><li>• Bacterial</li><li>• Hard tick.</li><li>• Option C. Human Babesiosis : transmitted by Hard tick.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Human Babesiosis</li><li>• Hard tick.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diseases transmitted by Hard tick Vs Soft Tick -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 875</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 875</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an urban area in India experiencing a significant rodent infestation problem, the local public health department is exploring various strategies for rodent control. The team is considering the use of rodenticides and is discussing the options available. They are aware that some rodenticides act acutely, quickly killing the rodents, while others have a delayed effect. Which of the following is NOT considered an acute rodenticide?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Red squill", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zinc phosphide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Barium carbonate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coumatetralyl", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Coumatetralyl", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Coumatetralyl</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options are acute rodenticides : They kill the rodents on ingestion of a single dose of the toxic bait . Includes Red squill (option A), bromide, sodium fluoroacetate, Strychnine, ANTU , Zinc phosphide (Option B), Barium carbonate (Option C), etc.</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• acute rodenticides</li><li>• rodents</li><li>• ingestion</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• toxic bait</li><li>• Red squill (option A),</li><li>• , Zinc phosphide (Option B), Barium carbonate (Option C),</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rodenticides dangerous to use: Arsenic trioxide, Phosphorus, Thallium sulphate, ANTU, Gophacide.</li><li>➤ Rodenticides</li><li>➤ Arsenic trioxide, Phosphorus, Thallium sulphate, ANTU, Gophacide.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 604</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 604</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old researcher is working in a laboratory in India, studying various vector-borne diseases. She is currently focused on diseases transmitted by fleas and is trying to compile a comprehensive list of such diseases. She is aware that fleas are responsible for transmitting a variety of bacterial, viral, and rickettsial diseases. However, she is unsure about which diseases are not transmitted by fleas. Which of the following infections is NOT typically transmitted by fleas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Epidemic typhus", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Murine typhus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plague", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chiggerosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Epidemic typhus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/2/24/Xenopsylla_cheopis_flea_PHIL_2069_lores.jpg/220px-Xenopsylla_cheopis_flea_PHIL_2069_lores.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Epidemic typhus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B . Murine typhus: Caused by R. typhi and transmitted by rat flea.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Murine typhus:</li><li>• R. typhi</li><li>• rat flea.</li><li>• Option C. Plague: Rat flea act as a vector for Bubonic plague.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Plague:</li><li>• Rat flea</li><li>• vector</li><li>• Bubonic plague.</li><li>• Option D. Chiggerosis: Rat flea transmit the disease.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Chiggerosis:</li><li>• Rat flea</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RAT FLEA (XENOPSYLLA):</li><li>➤ RAT FLEA (XENOPSYLLA):</li><li>➤ Rat flea acts as a vector for:</li><li>➤ Rat flea</li><li>➤ vector</li><li>➤ Bubonic plague Murine (endemic/flea-borne) typhus Chiggerosis</li><li>➤ Bubonic plague</li><li>➤ Bubonic plague</li><li>➤ Murine (endemic/flea-borne) typhus</li><li>➤ Murine (endemic/flea-borne) typhus</li><li>➤ Chiggerosis</li><li>➤ Chiggerosis</li><li>➤ Rat flea acts as a host for:</li><li>➤ Rat flea</li><li>➤ host</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis diminuta (Rat tapeworm) Hymenolepis nana (Dwarf tapeworm)</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis diminuta (Rat tapeworm)</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis diminuta (Rat tapeworm)</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis nana (Dwarf tapeworm)</li><li>➤ Hymenolepis nana (Dwarf tapeworm)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg599.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg599.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old male with a history of camping in the woods presents to the clinic with a fever, headache, and muscle aches that started a week ago. On examination, there is a noticeable red, expanding rash with a central clearing on his thigh. The patient recalls being bitten by a small insect but did not pay much attention to it. He is concerned as his symptoms have been progressively worsening. The physician suspects a vector-borne disease and decides to investigate further the potential vectors involved in this region. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the suspected vector in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Females are larger than males", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Both sexes thrive on blood.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Larva and nymph don’t feed on blood", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Soft tick lacks festoons", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Larva and nymph don’t feed on blood", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-104233.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Larva and nymph don’t feed on blood.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Females are larger than males : Correct</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Females are larger than males</li><li>• Option B. Both sexes thrive on blood: Correct</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Both sexes thrive on blood:</li><li>• Option D. Soft ticks are devoid of scutum or festoons : Correct</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Soft ticks are devoid of scutum or festoons</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hard Tick Vs Soft Tick</li><li>➤ Hard Tick Vs Soft Tick</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 595.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 595.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old architect is designing a new office building and is keen on ensuring that the indoor environment promotes comfort and well-being for future occupants. She understands that thermal comfort is a critical aspect of indoor environmental quality. To achieve this, she decides to consider various indices that reflect thermal comfort. She recalls some of the indices from her college days but is unsure about one particular index. Which of the following is NOT an index of thermal comfort?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cooling power", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Effective temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Soiling index", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maximum Allowable sweat rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Soiling index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-104441.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Soiling index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cooling power: Air temperature, humidity and air movement.</li><li>• Option A. Cooling power:</li><li>• Air temperature, humidity</li><li>• Option B. Effective temperature: the effect of temperature, humidity and movement of the internal air on the sensation of warmth or cold felt by the human body.</li><li>• Option B. Effective temperature:</li><li>• effect</li><li>• temperature, humidity</li><li>• internal air</li><li>• warmth or cold</li><li>• human body.</li><li>• Option D. McArdle’s Maximum allowable sweat rate: 4.5 litres for 4 hours . Maximum 3 liters per hour for comfort zone.</li><li>• Option D. McArdle’s Maximum allowable sweat rate:</li><li>• 4.5 litres</li><li>• 4 hours</li><li>• 3 liters</li><li>• comfort zone.</li><li>• Other Indices of Thermal Comfort</li><li>• Other Indices of Thermal Comfort</li><li>• Air temperature. Air temperature and humidity. Corrected Effective Temperature (CET) is an index of thermal comfort that combines the effect of temperature, humidity, velocity of air &amp; mean radiant heat.</li><li>• Air temperature.</li><li>• Air temperature and humidity.</li><li>• Corrected Effective Temperature (CET) is an index of thermal comfort that combines the effect of temperature, humidity, velocity of air &amp; mean radiant heat.</li><li>• Corrected Effective Temperature</li><li>• index</li><li>• thermal comfort</li><li>• effect</li><li>• temperature, humidity,</li><li>• velocity of air</li><li>• radiant heat.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kata thermometer readings as indices of thermal comfort : Kata thermometer measures ‘ cooling power of air’ - which is comprises of Air temperature, Humidity and Air movement (Nowadays it is used to record low air velocity mainly)</li><li>➤ Kata thermometer</li><li>➤ thermal comfort</li><li>➤ cooling power of air’</li><li>➤ comprises</li><li>➤ Air temperature, Humidity</li><li>➤ Air movement</li><li>➤ record low</li><li>➤ air velocity mainly)</li><li>➤ Dry kata reading &gt; 6 (Thermal comfort) Wet kata reading &gt; 20 (Thermal comfort)</li><li>➤ Dry kata reading &gt; 6 (Thermal comfort)</li><li>➤ Dry kata reading &gt; 6</li><li>➤ Wet kata reading &gt; 20 (Thermal comfort)</li><li>➤ Wet kata reading &gt; 20</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 826</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 826</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of engineers is working on designing a climate control system for a new residential building. They are focusing on ensuring that the indoor environment remains comfortable for the residents throughout the year. They understand that maintaining an appropriate temperature range is crucial for achieving thermal comfort. Which of the following temperature ranges is generally considered comfortable for indoor environments?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Corrected effective temperature between 25-27 deg Celsius.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corrected effective temperature between 20-25 deg Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corrected effective temperature between 10-22 deg Celsius", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corrected effective temperature between 20-23 deg Celsius", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Corrected effective temperature between 25-27 deg Celsius.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/13/image_u2BBuF8.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Corrected effective temperature between 25-27 deg Celsius.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Corrected Effective Temperature (CET) is an index of thermal comfort: Combines effect of temperature, humidity, velocity of air &amp; mean radiant heat.</li><li>• Corrected Effective Temperature (CET)</li><li>• index</li><li>• thermal comfort:</li><li>• temperature, humidity, velocity of air</li><li>• mean radiant heat.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acceptable level for physical comfort Corrected effective temperature 77-80°F ( 25-27 deg celcius).</li><li>➤ Acceptable</li><li>➤ physical comfort Corrected</li><li>➤ temperature 77-80°F</li><li>➤ 25-27 deg celcius).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 826</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 826</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of public health students is conducting a research project to understand the sources and impact of air pollution in an urban area. They have categorized various pollutants based on their origin and nature. The group is now focusing on identifying primary and secondary air pollutants. In their research, they came across various pollutants and their sources. Which of the following is NOT a primary air pollutant?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nitrogen oxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbon Monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ozone", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sulphur dioxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ozone", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ozone</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The other 3 options are Primary air pollutants , which are emitted directly into the air . Like - NO2 (Option A), CO (Option B), SO2 (Option D), Hydrocarbons, Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials , Metals like lead, cadmium, copper, and volatile organic compounds.</li><li>• other 3 options</li><li>• Primary air pollutants</li><li>• air</li><li>• NO2 (Option A), CO (Option B), SO2 (Option D),</li><li>• CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemical indicators of air pollution:</li><li>➤ Chemical indicators of air pollution:</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide : Best indicator of air pollution Smoke or Soiling index : Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter Grit &amp; dust measurement Coefficient of haze Air pollution index</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide : Best indicator of air pollution</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide</li><li>➤ air pollution</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling index : Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling index</li><li>➤ Air strain</li><li>➤ photoelectric meter</li><li>➤ Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>➤ Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze</li><li>➤ Air pollution index</li><li>➤ Air pollution index</li><li>➤ BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens.</li><li>➤ Biological indicator</li><li>➤ Lichens.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 827</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old urban planner is working on a project to improve air quality in a densely populated city. The city has been facing increasing rates of respiratory illnesses, and there is a growing concern about the impact of air pollution on public health. In evaluating the situation, the urban planner is identifying the major sources of air pollution in urban areas. Which of the following is considered a major source of air pollution in urban settings?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Industries", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Automobiles", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Domestic sources", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nuclear energy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Automobiles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Automobiles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Motor vehicles are a major source of air pollution throughout the urban areas .</li><li>• Motor vehicles</li><li>• air pollution</li><li>• urban areas</li><li>• Air Pollution</li><li>• Air Pollution</li><li>• Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons , Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia , Radioactive materials, Metals like lead, cadmium , copper, Volatile organic compounds) Secondary pollutants: are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone , Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants ) Chemcal indicators of air pollution - Sulphur dioxide : Best Indicator of air pollution Smoke or Soiling index: Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter Grit &amp; dust measurement Coefficient of haze Air pollution index Soiling Index BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens</li><li>• Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons , Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia , Radioactive materials, Metals like lead, cadmium , copper, Volatile organic compounds)</li><li>• Primary pollutants</li><li>• SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons</li><li>• CFCs, Ammonia</li><li>• lead,</li><li>• cadmium</li><li>• Volatile organic</li><li>• Secondary pollutants: are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone , Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants )</li><li>• Secondary pollutants:</li><li>• interaction</li><li>• primary pollutants</li><li>• Ground level ozone</li><li>• Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter</li><li>• )</li><li>• Chemcal indicators of air pollution - Sulphur dioxide : Best Indicator of air pollution Smoke or Soiling index: Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter Grit &amp; dust measurement Coefficient of haze Air pollution index Soiling Index</li><li>• air pollution</li><li>• Sulphur dioxide : Best Indicator of air pollution Smoke or Soiling index: Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter Grit &amp; dust measurement Coefficient of haze Air pollution index Soiling Index</li><li>• Sulphur dioxide : Best Indicator of air pollution</li><li>• Sulphur dioxide</li><li>• Best Indicator</li><li>• air pollution</li><li>• Smoke or Soiling index: Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter</li><li>• Smoke or Soiling index:</li><li>• Air strain</li><li>• filter paper</li><li>• photoelectric meter</li><li>• Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>• Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>• Coefficient of haze</li><li>• Air pollution index</li><li>• Soiling Index</li><li>• Soiling Index</li><li>• BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens</li><li>• BEST Biological indicator</li><li>• Lichens</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Air Quality Index (NAQI) is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to people in terms , which are easy to understand. It transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number ( index value ), nomenclature and colour.</li><li>➤ National Air Quality Index (NAQI)</li><li>➤ communication</li><li>➤ air quality</li><li>➤ terms</li><li>➤ easy</li><li>➤ transforms complex air quality</li><li>➤ various pollutants</li><li>➤ single number</li><li>➤ index value</li><li>➤ nomenclature</li><li>➤ colour.</li><li>➤ NAQI monitoring is done by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)</li><li>➤ NAQI</li><li>➤ Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)</li><li>➤ NAQI sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (upto 24-hours ) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.</li><li>➤ NAQI sub-index</li><li>➤ eight pollutants</li><li>➤ short-term</li><li>➤ 24-hours</li><li>➤ National Ambient Air Quality</li><li>➤ prescribed.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 827</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 827</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a particularly cold winter month, a city experienced a significant increase in respiratory problems among its residents. The local health department is investigating the cause of this sudden spike in respiratory issues and is considering the role of air pollution and atmospheric conditions. What atmospheric phenomenon is likely responsible for trapping water vapors and pollutants in the lowermost layer of the atmosphere, contributing to the increase in respiratory problems in the city?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Seasonal effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Greenhouse effect", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Temperature inversion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Heat Island phenomenon", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Temperature inversion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Temperature inversion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rapid cooling of lower layers of air ( temperature inversion ) causes little vertical motion and the pollutants and water vapours remain trapped in the lower levels The “ temperature inversion ” is more frequent in the winter months than in spring or summer.</li><li>• Rapid cooling</li><li>• temperature inversion</li><li>• vertical motion</li><li>• pollutants</li><li>• water vapours</li><li>• trapped</li><li>• lower levels</li><li>• temperature inversion</li><li>• frequent</li><li>• winter months</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In winter, water vapours and pollutants comes to lie in the lowermost layer of atmosphere by: Temperature inversion</li><li>➤ In winter, water vapours</li><li>➤ pollutants</li><li>➤ lie</li><li>➤ lowermost</li><li>➤ Temperature inversion</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 827.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 827.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old interior decorator presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent headaches, dizziness, and occasional nausea over the past few months. She spends a considerable amount of time inside homes and buildings, working closely with various materials and furnishings. Concerned about her symptoms, she seeks medical advice to determine if her work environment could be contributing to her health issues. Which of the following substances is LEAST likely to be a significant indoor air pollutant in this patient's work environment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Radon", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mercury", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asbestos", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mercury", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-105715.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mercury</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mercury is not typically found in high concentrations in indoor air , making it less likely to be a significant contributor to indoor air pollution.</li><li>• Mercury</li><li>• not</li><li>• high concentrations</li><li>• indoor air</li><li>• less likely</li><li>• indoor air pollution.</li><li>• The major sources of indoor air pollution worldwide include combustion of solid fuels indoors, tobacco smoking.</li><li>• major sources</li><li>• indoor air pollution</li><li>• solid fuels indoors, tobacco smoking.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Major health-damaging pollutants generated from indoor sources - (Mnemonic: C MORON SCARF)</li><li>➤ Major health-damaging pollutants generated from indoor sources - (Mnemonic: C MORON SCARF)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 830</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 830</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An urban planner is working on developing new strategies to monitor and improve air quality in a densely populated city with high levels of air pollution. He consults with environmental health experts to discuss various tools and techniques available for air pollution monitoring. Which of the following is NOT typically used for monitoring air pollution?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coefficient of haze", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Soiling index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulphur dioxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cooling power", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Cooling power", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Cooling power</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kata thermometer measures ‘ cooling power of air’ : Cooling power of air comprises of - Air temperature, Humidity and Air movement.</li><li>• Kata thermometer</li><li>• cooling power of air’</li><li>• Air temperature, Humidity</li><li>• Air movement.</li><li>• Air Pollution</li><li>• Air Pollution</li><li>• Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons, Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials, Metals like lead , cadmium, copper, Volatile organic compounds ) Secondary pollutants : are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants)</li><li>• Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons, Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials, Metals like lead , cadmium, copper, Volatile organic compounds )</li><li>• Primary pollutants</li><li>• SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons, Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials, Metals like lead</li><li>• cadmium, copper, Volatile organic compounds</li><li>• Secondary pollutants : are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants)</li><li>• Secondary pollutants</li><li>• interaction</li><li>• primary pollutants</li><li>• Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chemical indicators of air pollution -</li><li>➤ Airpolution Index Sulphur dioxide: BEST INDICATOR of air pollution Grit &amp; dust measurement (Deposit gauges collect grit, dust and other solids . These are analysed monthly ) Coefficient of haze (assessing the amount of smoke or other aerosol in air ) Smoke or Soiling Index (A known volume of air is filtered through a white filter paper under specified conditions and the stain is measured by photoelectric meter . Smoke Concentration is estimated and expressed as micrograms/cubic meter of air as an average level over a period.) BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens</li><li>➤ Airpolution Index</li><li>➤ Airpolution Index</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide: BEST INDICATOR of air pollution</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide: BEST INDICATOR of air pollution</li><li>➤ Grit &amp; dust measurement (Deposit gauges collect grit, dust and other solids . These are analysed monthly )</li><li>➤ Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>➤ gauges</li><li>➤ grit, dust</li><li>➤ solids</li><li>➤ analysed monthly</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze (assessing the amount of smoke or other aerosol in air )</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze</li><li>➤ amount</li><li>➤ smoke</li><li>➤ aerosol</li><li>➤ air</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling Index (A known volume of air is filtered through a white filter paper under specified conditions and the stain is measured by photoelectric meter . Smoke Concentration is estimated and expressed as micrograms/cubic meter of air as an average level over a period.)</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling Index</li><li>➤ known volume</li><li>➤ air</li><li>➤ filtered</li><li>➤ white filter paper</li><li>➤ stain</li><li>➤ measured</li><li>➤ photoelectric meter</li><li>➤ Smoke Concentration</li><li>➤ micrograms/cubic meter</li><li>➤ air</li><li>➤ average level</li><li>➤ BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens</li><li>➤ BEST Biological indicator</li><li>➤ air pollution: Lichens</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 830</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An environmental scientist is working with a team to assess the air quality in a major city in the United States. They are focusing on key components that significantly impact air quality and are used to calculate the Air Quality Index (AQI). Which of the following is NOT typically included in the calculation of the AQI in the USA?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulphur dioxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coefficient of haze", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbon monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbon dioxide", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Carbon dioxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Carbon dioxide.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Air pollution index : Following index has been used in USA: 10 times the sulphur dioxide concentration plus twice the carbon monoxide concentration (both in ppm by volume) plus twice the coefficient of haze.</li><li>• Air pollution index</li><li>• USA: 10 times</li><li>• sulphur dioxide</li><li>• plus twice</li><li>• carbon monoxide</li><li>• plus</li><li>• twice</li><li>• coefficient of haze.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Air pollutantsn can be of several types:</li><li>➤ Air pollutantsn</li><li>➤ Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons , Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials , Metals like lead , cadmium, copper, volatile organic compounds ) Secondary pollutants : are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants)</li><li>➤ Primary pollutants : are emitted directly ( SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons , Particulate matter, CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials , Metals like lead , cadmium, copper, volatile organic compounds )</li><li>➤ Primary pollutants</li><li>➤ SO2, NO2, CO, Hydrocarbons</li><li>➤ CFCs, Ammonia, Radioactive materials</li><li>➤ lead</li><li>➤ copper, volatile organic compounds</li><li>➤ Secondary pollutants : are formed by interaction between primary pollutants ( Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter formed from primary pollutants)</li><li>➤ Secondary pollutants</li><li>➤ interaction</li><li>➤ Ground level ozone, Peroxyacetyl nitrate, Particulate matter</li><li>➤ Chemical indicators of air pollution:</li><li>➤ Chemical indicators</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide : Best indicator of air pollution Smoke or Soiling index : Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter Grit &amp; dust measurement Coefficient of haze Air pollution index</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide : Best indicator of air pollution</li><li>➤ Sulphur dioxide</li><li>➤ Best</li><li>➤ air pollution</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling index : Air strain on a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter</li><li>➤ Smoke or Soiling index</li><li>➤ Air strain</li><li>➤ filter paper</li><li>➤ photoelectric meter</li><li>➤ Grit &amp; dust measurement</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze</li><li>➤ Coefficient of haze</li><li>➤ Air pollution index</li><li>➤ BEST Biological indicator of air pollution: Lichens.</li><li>➤ Biological indicator</li><li>➤ Lichens.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 830</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 830</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old environmental engineer pursuing her master’s degree is currently engaged in a research project that examines air quality across diverse regions in India. She is eager to comprehend the existing systems and organizational structure established for continuous air quality monitoring. Her next step is to identify the responsible organization from which she needs to seek permission to access accurate data for her research. Which of the following organizations should she approach to obtain the necessary permissions and data for her air quality monitoring project?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Central public works department", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Central pollution control board", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Central air quality Agency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central Pollution control Bureau", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Central pollution control board", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-110030.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Central pollution control board.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Air Quality Monitoring Programme has been sponsored by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) since 1990 .</li><li>• National Air Quality Monitoring Programme</li><li>• Central Pollution Control Board</li><li>• 1990</li><li>• NAQI is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to people in terms, which are easy to understand . It transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour. NAQI monitoring is done by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).</li><li>• NAQI</li><li>• air quality</li><li>• people</li><li>• easy</li><li>• understand</li><li>• transforms complex air quality data</li><li>• various pollutants</li><li>• single number (index value), nomenclature</li><li>• colour.</li><li>• NAQI</li><li>• Central Pollution Control Board</li><li>• NAQI sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (upto 24 -hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed</li><li>• NAQI sub-index</li><li>• health breakpoints</li><li>• eight pollutants</li><li>• short-term</li><li>• 24</li><li>• National Ambient Air Quality Standards</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the main national agency in India for monitoring air quality . It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC).</li><li>➤ Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)</li><li>➤ national agency</li><li>➤ monitoring air quality</li><li>➤ Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 831</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 831</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old researcher specializing in environmental science is studying the effects of greenhouse gases on climate change. As part of her research, she is identifying and categorizing various greenhouse gases to understand their respective impacts on the environment. She knows that while some greenhouse gases are naturally occurring, others are the result of human activities. Which of the following gases is NOT considered a primary greenhouse gas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbon dioxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methane", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulphur dioxide", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nitrogen oxide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sulphur dioxide", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sulphur dioxide</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sulphur dioxide is the BEST CHEMICAL INDICATOR of air pollution, but it is not a greenhouse gas.</li><li>• Sulphur dioxide</li><li>• BEST CHEMICAL INDICATOR</li><li>• air pollution,</li><li>• not</li><li>• greenhouse gas.</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• Other options:</li><li>• The other 3 options are Greenhouse gases:</li><li>• Greenhouse gases:</li><li>• Water vapour (Highest contribution) Carbon dioxide ( Second highest contribution ) ( option A ) Methane (Option B) Nitrous Oxide (Option D)</li><li>• Water vapour (Highest contribution)</li><li>• Water vapour (Highest contribution)</li><li>• Carbon dioxide ( Second highest contribution ) ( option A )</li><li>• Carbon dioxide</li><li>• Second highest contribution</li><li>• option A</li><li>• Methane (Option B)</li><li>• Methane (Option B)</li><li>• Nitrous Oxide (Option D)</li><li>• Nitrous Oxide (Option D)</li><li>• Ozone - The ozone layer is beneficial as it cuts down UV transmission (CFCs depletes ozone layer)</li><li>• ozone layer</li><li>• cuts down UV transmission</li><li>• The Kyoto Protocol is a protocol intended to achieve the ‘ stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system’</li><li>• Kyoto Protocol</li><li>• stabilization</li><li>• greenhouse gas</li><li>• concentrations</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• anthropogenic interference</li><li>• climate system’</li><li>• The Kyoto Protocol establishes legally binding commitments for the reduction of 6 greenhouse gases ( carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, sulfur hexafluoride, hydrofluorocarbons , and perfluorocarbon ) by industrialized nations, as well as general commitments for all member countries</li><li>• Kyoto Protocol</li><li>• legally</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• 6 greenhouse gases</li><li>• carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, sulfur</li><li>• hexafluoride, hydrofluorocarbons</li><li>• perfluorocarbon</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The primary greenhouse gases are - Water vapour (highest contribution), Carbon dioxide, Nitrous Oxide and Methane.</li><li>➤ primary greenhouse gases</li><li>➤ Water vapour</li><li>➤ Carbon dioxide, Nitrous Oxide</li><li>➤ Methane.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Community Medicine, Sunder Lal, 5 th ed, Pg 280.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Public health officer is analyzing the Air Quality Index (AQI) data of a city to assess the potential health risks associated with air pollution for August. He notes that the AQI for the city was reported to be 252. Given this information, to which category does the AQI of 252 belong?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Satisfactory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Moderately polluted", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Poor", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Very poor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Poor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-110309.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Poor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NAQI is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to people in terms, which are easy to understand. It transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour.</li><li>• NAQI</li><li>• effective</li><li>• air quality status</li><li>• people</li><li>• easy</li><li>• understand.</li><li>• complex air quality</li><li>• various pollutants</li><li>• single number</li><li>• nomenclature</li><li>• colour.</li><li>• NAQI monitoring is done by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).</li><li>• NAQI</li><li>• Central Pollution Control Board</li><li>• NAQI sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (upto 24- hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.</li><li>• NAQI</li><li>• sub-index</li><li>• health breakpoints</li><li>• eight pollutants</li><li>• short-term</li><li>• 24-</li><li>• National Ambient Air Quality</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: IAPSM Textbook, 1 st ed, pg 88</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A metropolitan city is undergoing rapid industrialization and urbanization, leading to concerns about air quality and its impact on public health. The local health department has decided to implement a routine air quality monitoring program to address these concerns. As a senior environmental officer, you are assigned to select the primary pollutants for continuous monitoring. Given the need for regular assessment and the potential health impacts, which combination of pollutants should be prioritized for routine air quality monitoring?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sulphur dioxide, Carbon dioxide and particulate matter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sulphur dioxide, Hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sulphur dioxide, Lead and particulate matter", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, lead", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sulphur dioxide, Lead and particulate matter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-110434.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sulphur dioxide, Lead and particulate matter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Air Quality Index (NAQI) is a tool for effective communication of air quality status to people in terms, which are easy to understand. It transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour</li><li>• National Air Quality Index (NAQI)</li><li>• effective communication</li><li>• air quality status</li><li>• easy</li><li>• understand.</li><li>• complex air quality</li><li>• various pollutants</li><li>• single number</li><li>• nomenclature</li><li>• colour</li><li>• NAQI monitoring is done by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)</li><li>• monitoring</li><li>• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)</li><li>• NAQI sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (upto 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.</li><li>• NAQI sub-index</li><li>• health breakpoints</li><li>• eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (upto 24-hours)</li><li>• Bestindicators of air polution: SO 2 , Smoke, Suspended particular.</li><li>• Bestindicators of air polution: SO 2 , Smoke, Suspended particular.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: IAPSM Textbook, 1 st ed, pg 88.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an industrial setting, workers are exposed to varying thermal conditions. The safety officer on site is tasked with ensuring that the work environment is within safe limits to prevent heat-related illnesses. McArdle’s predicted 4-hour sweat rate is one of the tools used to assess the risk of heat stress. Which of the following best describes the upper limit of the comfort zone according to McArdle’s predicted 4-hour sweat rate, beyond which workers might be at risk of heat-related illnesses?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 litres", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 litres", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3.5 litres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "4.5 litres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 litres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-110600.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3 litres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• McArdle has put P4SR value of 3 as upper limit of comfort zone.</li><li>• McArdle</li><li>• P4SR</li><li>• 3</li><li>• upper limit</li><li>• comfort zone.</li><li>• McArdle’s maximum allowable sweat rate is 4.5 lit/ 4 hours.</li><li>• McArdle’s maximum</li><li>• sweat rate</li><li>• 4.5 lit/ 4 hours.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• McArdle's upper limit of comfort zone as per P4SR is 3 Litres.</li><li>• McArdle's upper limit</li><li>• comfort zone</li><li>• P4SR</li><li>• 3 Litres.</li><li>• McArdle’s maximum allowable sweat rate is 4.5 lit/ 4 hours.</li><li>• McArdle’s maximum</li><li>• sweat rate</li><li>• 4.5 lit/ 4 hours.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 827.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg 827.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is conducting a workshop on indoor air quality for a community living in an urban area. During the session, she discussed the importance of proper ventilation in different areas of a home. Which of the following best represents the recommended air changes per hour (ACH) for a living room to maintain good indoor air quality?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2-3 changes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-6 changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3-5 changes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6-7 changes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2-3 changes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2-3 changes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Standards of Ventilation:</li><li>• Standards of Ventilation:</li><li>• Cubic space : Fresh air supply of 3000 cu. ft. per hour per person Air change : 2–3 changes per hour in living rooms ; 4–6 changes per hour in work rooms and assemblies. If the air is changed more frequently , i.e., more than 6 times in one hour , it is likely to produce a draught which should be avoided. Floor space : Minimum 50-100 sq. ft. per person (Ideal 70-90)</li><li>• Cubic space : Fresh air supply of 3000 cu. ft. per hour per person</li><li>• Cubic space</li><li>• Fresh air</li><li>• 3000 cu. ft. per hour</li><li>• person</li><li>• Air change : 2–3 changes per hour in living rooms ; 4–6 changes per hour in work rooms and assemblies. If the air is changed more frequently , i.e., more than 6 times in one hour , it is likely to produce a draught which should be avoided.</li><li>• Air change</li><li>• 2–3 changes</li><li>• living rooms</li><li>• work rooms</li><li>• assemblies.</li><li>• air</li><li>• changed</li><li>• ,</li><li>• 6 times</li><li>• one hour</li><li>• draught</li><li>• avoided.</li><li>• Floor space : Minimum 50-100 sq. ft. per person (Ideal 70-90)</li><li>• Floor space</li><li>• Minimum 50-100 sq. ft.</li><li>• person (Ideal 70-90)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Number of air changes in a drawing room per hour should be at least - 2-3 and in work room it is 4-6.</li><li>➤ Number</li><li>➤ air changes</li><li>➤ drawing room</li><li>➤ hour</li><li>➤ least</li><li>➤ 2-3</li><li>➤ work room</li><li>➤ 4-6.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th Ed pg 833.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th Ed pg 833.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A ventilation engineer is working on a project to improve indoor air quality in a commercial building. He is exploring various mechanical ventilation methods to decide which would be the most efficient for ensuring a constant supply of fresh air. Which of the following methods of mechanical ventilation works by creating positive pressure within the building to enhance the inflow of fresh air?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exhaust ventilation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Plenum Ventilation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Air conditioner", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Plenum Ventilation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Plenum Ventilation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Exhaust ventilation: Air is extracted to outside by exhaust fans driven by electricity.</li><li>• Option A. Exhaust ventilation:</li><li>• Air</li><li>• extracted</li><li>• outside</li><li>• exhaust fans</li><li>• electricity.</li><li>• Option C. Air conditioner: Simultaneous control of all factors especially temperature , humidity and air movement.</li><li>• Option C. Air conditioner:</li><li>• control</li><li>• temperature</li><li>• humidity</li><li>• air movement.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of ventilation</li><li>➤ Types of ventilation</li><li>➤ Natural ventilation:</li><li>➤ Natural ventilation:</li><li>➤ Wind: It blows through a room (Perflation) and may exert a suction at its tail end (Aspiration). Diffusion : When passes through smallest openings Inequality of temperature.</li><li>➤ Wind: It blows through a room (Perflation) and may exert a suction at its tail end (Aspiration).</li><li>➤ Wind:</li><li>➤ room (Perflation)</li><li>➤ exert</li><li>➤ its tail end (Aspiration).</li><li>➤ Diffusion : When passes through smallest openings</li><li>➤ Diffusion</li><li>➤ passes</li><li>➤ smallest openings</li><li>➤ Inequality of temperature.</li><li>➤ Inequality</li><li>➤ temperature.</li><li>➤ Mechanical (artificial) ventilation :</li><li>➤ Mechanical (artificial) ventilation</li><li>➤ Exhaust ventilation : Air is extracted to outside by exhaust fans driven by electricity Plenum ventilation: Fresh air is blown into rooms by centrifugal fans Balanced ventilation : Combination of exhaust and plenum ventilation. Air conditioning : Simultaneous control of all factors especially temperature, humidity and air movement.</li><li>➤ Exhaust ventilation : Air is extracted to outside by exhaust fans driven by electricity</li><li>➤ Exhaust ventilation</li><li>➤ Air</li><li>➤ extracted</li><li>➤ outside</li><li>➤ exhaust fans</li><li>➤ Plenum ventilation: Fresh air is blown into rooms by centrifugal fans</li><li>➤ Plenum ventilation:</li><li>➤ Fresh air</li><li>➤ rooms</li><li>➤ centrifugal fans</li><li>➤ Balanced ventilation : Combination of exhaust and plenum ventilation.</li><li>➤ Balanced ventilation</li><li>➤ Combination</li><li>➤ exhaust</li><li>➤ plenum ventilation.</li><li>➤ Air conditioning : Simultaneous control of all factors especially temperature, humidity and air movement.</li><li>➤ Air conditioning</li><li>➤ control</li><li>➤ temperature, humidity</li><li>➤ air movement.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 833.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 833.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An optometrist is advising a construction company on the proper lighting for a new office space. The company wants to ensure that the lighting conditions are optimal for employee productivity and comfort. What is the basic minimum illumination required to ensure satisfactory vision for the employees in the office space?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15–20-foot candles", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "10-15 Lambert", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10-15 candela", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "15-20 lux", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 15–20-foot candles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 15-20 foot candles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An illumination of 15-20 -foot candles ( 1 foot candle = 10.76 lux ) is accepted as a basic minimum for satisfactory vision .</li><li>• illumination</li><li>• 15-20</li><li>• 1 foot candle</li><li>• 10.76 lux</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• satisfactory vision</li><li>• Illumination</li><li>• Illumination</li><li>• Reflection factors for efficient vision: Ceilings and roofs : 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Reflection factors for efficient vision: Ceilings and roofs : 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• efficient vision:</li><li>• Ceilings and roofs : 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Ceilings and roofs : 80%</li><li>• Ceilings and roofs</li><li>• 80%</li><li>• Walls: 50–60%</li><li>• Floor: 15–20%</li><li>• Floor: 15–20%</li><li>• Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.): Measures intensity of daylight illumination. (Indoor vs Outdoor) Recommended D.F. for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.): Measures intensity of daylight illumination. (Indoor vs Outdoor) Recommended D.F. for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Daylight factor</li><li>• intensity</li><li>• daylight illumination. (Indoor vs Outdoor)</li><li>• Recommended D.F. for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Recommended D.F. for living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• An illumination of 15-20-foot candles ( 161-215 lux ) is accepted as a basic minimum for satisfactory vision.</li><li>• 15-20-foot candles</li><li>• 161-215 lux</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• satisfactory vision.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 833.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 833.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A contractor is in the process of designing an office space, and they are focusing on ensuring that the lighting conditions are optimal for the occupants. They are currently considering the reflection factors of different surfaces within the office. What is the recommended reflection factor for the walls in order to maintain a comfortable and well-lit environment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50-60%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "30-40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50-60%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 50-60%.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Illumination</li><li>• Illumination</li><li>• Basic minimum illumination for satisfactory vision : 15–20 foot candles Reflection factors for efficient vision : Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Basic minimum illumination for satisfactory vision : 15–20 foot candles</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• illumination</li><li>• satisfactory vision</li><li>• 15–20 foot</li><li>• Reflection factors for efficient vision : Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Reflection factors</li><li>• efficient vision</li><li>• Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Ceilings and roofs: 80%</li><li>• Walls: 50–60%</li><li>• Walls: 50–60%</li><li>• Floor: 15–20%</li><li>• Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.): Measures intensity of daylight illumination (Indoor vs Outdoor) Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.): Measures intensity of daylight illumination (Indoor vs Outdoor) Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Daylight factor</li><li>• intensity</li><li>• daylight illumination (Indoor vs Outdoor)</li><li>• Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• D.F</li><li>• living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• D.F.</li><li>• kitchens:</li><li>• ≥ 10%.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reflection factor for wall is 50-60% and there should not be much reflection from the floor, not more than 15-20%.</li><li>➤ Reflection factor</li><li>➤ wall</li><li>➤ 50-60%</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ floor,</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ more</li><li>➤ 15-20%.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 834.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 834.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A photography enthusiast is setting up a studio and wants to understand how to optimize the lighting for the best picture quality. They have been researching various lighting parameters and want to measure the flow of light within the studio. What unit is used to measure the flow of light in this context?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Candela", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lux", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lumen", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lambert", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lumen", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-111016.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lumen.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Light measurement units</li><li>• Light measurement units</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Flow of light is measured in terms of - Lumen</li><li>➤ Flow of light</li><li>➤ measured</li><li>➤ Lumen</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 834.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 834.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A family is renovating their house and aiming to optimize natural lighting in their living room. The architect has suggested certain modifications to enhance the illumination, but they want to make sure that the changes align with standard recommendations. What is the recommended daylight factor for living rooms to ensure adequate natural lighting?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 8%.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.) measures intensity of daylight illumination.</li><li>• Daylight factor (D.F.)</li><li>• intensity</li><li>• daylight illumination.</li><li>• Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8% Recommended D.F . for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• Recommended D.F . for living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• D.F</li><li>• living rooms: ≥ 8%</li><li>• Recommended D.F . for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• D.F</li><li>• kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>• DLF is Indoor Illuminance/Outdoor Illuminance x 100</li><li>• DLF is Indoor Illuminance/Outdoor Illuminance x 100</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The recommended daylight factor for living rooms to ensure adequate natural lighting is ≥8% , balancing the need for brightness with comfort and energy efficiency.</li><li>• recommended daylight factor</li><li>• living rooms</li><li>• natural lighting is ≥8%</li><li>• brightness</li><li>• comfort</li><li>• energy efficiency.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A facilities manager is responsible for maintaining optimal working conditions in an office environment. One of the key areas of focus is ensuring adequate lighting to promote productivity and prevent eye strain among employees. In the context of illumination for regular work, which of the following ranges, measured in foot-candles, is recommended?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15-20", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "45-50", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30-35", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15-20", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 15-20</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Basic minimum illumination for satisfactory vision : 15–20 foot candles.</li><li>• Basic minimum illumination</li><li>• satisfactory vision</li><li>• 15–20 foot candles.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Illumination</li><li>➤ Illumination</li><li>➤ Basic minimum illumination for satisfactory vision: 15–20 foot candles. Reflection factors for efficient vision: Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>➤ Basic minimum illumination for satisfactory vision: 15–20 foot candles.</li><li>➤ minimum illumination</li><li>➤ satisfactory vision: 15–20 foot candles.</li><li>➤ Reflection factors for efficient vision: Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>➤ Reflection factors</li><li>➤ efficient vision:</li><li>➤ Ceilings and roofs: 80% Walls: 50–60% Floor: 15–20% Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>➤ Ceilings and roofs: 80%</li><li>➤ Walls: 50–60%</li><li>➤ Floor: 15–20%</li><li>➤ Furniture: 30–40%</li><li>➤ Daylight factor (D.F) : Measures intensity of daylight illumination Recommended D.F . for living rooms : ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>➤ Daylight factor (D.F) : Measures intensity of daylight illumination Recommended D.F . for living rooms : ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>➤ Daylight factor (D.F)</li><li>➤ intensity</li><li>➤ daylight illumination</li><li>➤ Recommended D.F . for living rooms : ≥ 8% Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>➤ Recommended D.F . for living rooms : ≥ 8%</li><li>➤ D.F</li><li>➤ living rooms</li><li>➤ ≥ 8%</li><li>➤ Recommended D.F. for kitchens: ≥ 10%.</li><li>➤ D.F.</li><li>➤ kitchens:</li><li>➤ ≥ 10%.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A construction site manager is concerned about the potential risk of hearing damage to workers due to prolonged exposure to high levels of noise. He wants to implement safety measures to ensure that the noise levels at the site do not exceed the threshold at which substantial damage to hearing could occur. In this context, what is the maximum level of noise, measured in decibels (dB), at which a person can tolerate without any substantial damage to their hearing, provided the exposure duration is limited?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90 dB", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "80 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "95 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "85 dB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 90 dB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-111602.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 90 dB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Daily exposure up to 90 dB is the upper limit , people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing . (community) and 90 dB (Factory workers as per Factory Act, 1948)</li><li>• Daily exposure</li><li>• dB</li><li>• upper limit</li><li>• can tolerate without</li><li>• damage</li><li>• hearing</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sound Levels:</li><li>➤ Sound Levels:</li><li>➤ Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency : 20–20,000 Hz Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85-90 dB Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region (greatest at 4000 Hz) Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150-160 dB</li><li>➤ Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency : 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>➤ Human ear</li><li>➤ sensitive</li><li>➤ frequency</li><li>➤ 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>➤ Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85-90 dB</li><li>➤ maximum</li><li>➤ sound level</li><li>➤ human ear</li><li>➤ substantial damage</li><li>➤ 85-90 dB</li><li>➤ Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region (greatest at 4000 Hz)</li><li>➤ Auditory fatigue</li><li>➤ 90 dB region</li><li>➤ Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150-160 dB</li><li>➤ Sound level above</li><li>➤ tympanic membrane rupture</li><li>➤ 150-160 dB</li><li>➤ Noise Levels</li><li>➤ Noise Levels</li><li>➤ Whisper: 20-30 dB Normal conversation: 60-70 dB Mechanical damage: 150-160 dB (e.g Jet taking off).</li><li>➤ Whisper: 20-30 dB</li><li>➤ Normal conversation: 60-70 dB</li><li>➤ Normal conversation: 60-70 dB</li><li>➤ Mechanical damage: 150-160 dB (e.g Jet taking off).</li><li>➤ Acceptable Noise Levels - expressed in dB (A), sound pressure levels conforming to the weighting curve (A)</li><li>➤ Acceptable Noise Levels -</li><li>➤ dB (A),</li><li>➤ pressure</li><li>➤ weighting curve (A)</li><li>➤ Permissible noise levels in factories (Factory Act, 1948: 90 dB (8-hours workday) or 115 dB (15 minutes)</li><li>➤ Permissible noise levels in factories (Factory Act, 1948: 90 dB (8-hours workday) or 115 dB (15 minutes)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 835.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital administrator is focusing on creating a comfortable environment for both patients and staff. She is aware that noise levels play a significant role in the overall experience and recovery of patients. In this regard, she wants to set a standard for the acceptable level of noise in hospital wards. Which of the following noise levels measured in decibels (dBA) would be considered acceptable for hospital wards to ensure a peaceful environment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15-30 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20-35 dB", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "35-45 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30-40 dB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 20-35 dB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-111721.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-111830.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 20-35 dB.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acceptable level of noise (dB)</li><li>• Acceptable level of noise (dB)</li><li>• Noise</li><li>• Noise</li><li>• Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency: 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>• Human ear</li><li>• sensitive</li><li>• sound frequency: 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>• Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85–90 dB. (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory) Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region ( greatest at 4000 Hz ) Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150–160 dB Sound levels of some noises: Whisper: 20–30 dB Normal conversation: 60–70 dB Mechanical damage: 150–160 dB (e.g Jet taking off) 20th century has been described as ‘ Century of noise’ Basic instruments used in studies of noise:</li><li>• Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85–90 dB. (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory) Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region ( greatest at 4000 Hz )</li><li>• maximum tolerable sound</li><li>• human ear</li><li>• 85–90 dB. (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory)</li><li>• Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region ( greatest at 4000 Hz )</li><li>• Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region ( greatest at 4000 Hz )</li><li>• Auditory fatigue</li><li>• 90 dB region</li><li>• greatest</li><li>• 4000 Hz</li><li>• Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150–160 dB</li><li>• Sound level above</li><li>• tympanic membrane rupture</li><li>• 150–160 dB</li><li>• Sound levels of some noises: Whisper: 20–30 dB Normal conversation: 60–70 dB Mechanical damage: 150–160 dB (e.g Jet taking off)</li><li>• Sound levels</li><li>• noises:</li><li>• Whisper: 20–30 dB Normal conversation: 60–70 dB Mechanical damage: 150–160 dB (e.g Jet taking off)</li><li>• Whisper: 20–30 dB</li><li>• Normal conversation: 60–70 dB</li><li>• Normal conversation: 60–70 dB</li><li>• Mechanical damage: 150–160 dB (e.g Jet taking off)</li><li>• 20th century has been described as ‘ Century of noise’</li><li>• 20th century</li><li>• Century of noise’</li><li>• Basic instruments used in studies of noise:</li><li>• instruments used</li><li>• noise:</li><li>• Most Temporary Hearing loss occurs in the frequency range: 4000-6000 Hz.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 836.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 836.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A factory worker has been complaining of hearing issues after long shifts at work. The factory has loud machinery, and the worker is worried that the noise levels might be causing damage to his hearing. An occupational health specialist is assessing the situation to determine if the noise levels in the factory could be leading to auditory fatigue, a temporary loss of hearing that occurs after exposure to high levels of noise. At what noise intensity level measured in decibels (dBA) does auditory fatigue typically appear, indicating a potential risk to the worker’s hearing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "110 dB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90 dB", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "115 dB", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 90 dB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 90 dB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Auditory fatigue appears in the 90 dB region and greatest at 4000 Hz . Tolerable sound level to human ear is 85-90 dB.</li><li>• Auditory fatigue</li><li>• 90 dB</li><li>• 4000 Hz</li><li>• Tolerable sound level</li><li>• 85-90 dB.</li><li>• It may be associated with side effects such as whistling and buzzing in the ears .</li><li>• whistling</li><li>• buzzing</li><li>• ears</li><li>• Sound Levels</li><li>• Sound Levels</li><li>• Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency: 20–20,000 Hz Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85-90 dB (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory) Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150-160 dB</li><li>• Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency: 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>• sensitive</li><li>• 20–20,000 Hz</li><li>• Daily maximum tolerable sound level to human ear (without substantial damage to their hearing): 85-90 dB (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory)</li><li>• maximum tolerable sound level</li><li>• 85-90 dB (85 dB community, 90 dB Factory)</li><li>• Sound level above which tympanic membrane rupture (permanent mechanical damage): 150-160 dB</li><li>• Sound level above</li><li>• tympanic membrane rupture</li><li>• 150-160 dB</li><li>• Noise Levels</li><li>• Noise Levels</li><li>• Whisper: 20-30 dB Normal conversation: 60-70 dB Mechanical damage: 150-160 dB (e.g Jet taking off).</li><li>• Whisper: 20-30 dB</li><li>• Normal conversation: 60-70 dB</li><li>• Normal conversation: 60-70 dB</li><li>• Mechanical damage: 150-160 dB (e.g Jet taking off).</li><li>• Auditory fatigue appears in: 90 dB region (greatest at 4000 Hz)</li><li>• Auditory fatigue</li><li>• 90 dB</li><li>• (greatest</li><li>• 4000 Hz)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 836.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 836.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying the various sources of radiation exposure for a class presentation. She understands that radiation can come from both natural and man-made sources, and it can be categorized into endogenous and exogenous radiation. She wants to identify which of the following is not a source of endogenous radiation. Which of the following is not typically considered a source of endogenous radiation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potassium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carbon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Radon", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Strontium", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Radon", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Radon</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Endogenous radiation refers to the radiation that comes from radioactive materials naturally present inside the human body . The human body contains small amounts of radioactive isotopes such as potassium-40, carbon-14 , and lead-210, which contribute to the endogenous radiation exposure . Endogenous radiation includes C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>• Endogenous radiation</li><li>• radiation</li><li>• radioactive materials</li><li>• present</li><li>• human body</li><li>• small amounts</li><li>• radioactive isotopes</li><li>• potassium-40, carbon-14</li><li>• lead-210,</li><li>• endogenous radiation exposure</li><li>• C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important points related to radiation -</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India - Rajasthan Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation - 0.5 mm Maximum permissible radiation exposure is 5 rad per person per year The approximate level of total radiation a person derives from nature in a year - 0.1 rad per person per year The frequency of Replacement &amp; periodic examination in radiation industry - Every 2 months Cow’s milk contains a soluble radioactive substance : Sr90</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India - Rajasthan</li><li>➤ highest Solar radiation</li><li>➤ India - Rajasthan</li><li>➤ Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation - 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ Thickness</li><li>➤ lead apron</li><li>➤ prevent radiation</li><li>➤ 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ Maximum permissible radiation exposure is 5 rad per person per year</li><li>➤ Maximum permissible radiation exposure</li><li>➤ 5 rad</li><li>➤ per year</li><li>➤ The approximate level of total radiation a person derives from nature in a year - 0.1 rad per person per year</li><li>➤ level</li><li>➤ 0.1 rad</li><li>➤ per year</li><li>➤ The frequency of Replacement &amp; periodic examination in radiation industry - Every 2 months</li><li>➤ Replacement &amp; periodic</li><li>➤ radiation industry</li><li>➤ Every 2 months</li><li>➤ Cow’s milk contains a soluble radioactive substance : Sr90</li><li>➤ Cow’s milk</li><li>➤ soluble radioactive substance</li><li>➤ Sr90</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 837.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 837.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A radiation safety officer is educating a group of healthcare professionals about various types of ionizing radiation and their properties. They are discussing gamma rays and their characteristics in comparison to other types of radiation. Which of the following best describes the tissue penetrating ability of gamma rays?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40 meters", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "400 meters", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "40 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50 cm", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 50 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-112223.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 50 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Gamma rays have a high tissue penetrating ability and can travel long distances in air , requiring thick layers of dense material for shielding . This characteristic is a significant concern in terms of radiation protection .</li><li>• Gamma rays</li><li>• high tissue penetrating ability</li><li>• long distances in air</li><li>• thick layers</li><li>• dense material</li><li>• shielding</li><li>• significant</li><li>• radiation protection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 838.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 838.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A radiology department manager is conducting a training session on radiation safety and regulatory guidelines for the medical staff. The focus of the session is to emphasize the importance of minimizing radiation exposure and adhering to safety standards. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the maximum permissible level of exposure to radiation in a year from manmade sources for radiation workers?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 rad", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 rad", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5 mrad", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7 rad", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5 rad", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5 rad</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The additional permissible dose from man-made sources should not exceed 5 rad a year. (equivalent to 5 rem =50 msv)</li><li>• permissible dose</li><li>• man-made sources</li><li>• not exceed 5</li><li>• rad a year. (equivalent to 5 rem =50 msv)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important points related to radiation -</li><li>➤ Important points related to radiation -</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India - Rajasthan Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation - 0.5 mm The approximate level of total radiation a person derives from nature in a year - 0.1 rad per person per year The frequency of Replacement &amp; periodic examination in radiation industry - Every 2 months Endogenous radiation includes C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90 Cow’s milk contains a soluble radioactive substance : Sr90</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India - Rajasthan</li><li>➤ highest Solar radiation</li><li>➤ Rajasthan</li><li>➤ Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation - 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ Thickness</li><li>➤ lead apron</li><li>➤ prevent radiation</li><li>➤ 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ The approximate level of total radiation a person derives from nature in a year - 0.1 rad per person per year</li><li>➤ total radiation</li><li>➤ nature</li><li>➤ 0.1 rad per person per year</li><li>➤ The frequency of Replacement &amp; periodic examination in radiation industry - Every 2 months</li><li>➤ Replacement &amp; periodic</li><li>➤ radiation industry</li><li>➤ Every 2 months</li><li>➤ Endogenous radiation includes C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>➤ C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>➤ Cow’s milk contains a soluble radioactive substance : Sr90</li><li>➤ Cow’s milk</li><li>➤ soluble radioactive substance</li><li>➤ Sr90</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 839.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 839.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A local government official in a rural area is reviewing building regulations and comes across a section about setbacks. Setbacks are the minimum distance a building or other structure must be located from a street, property line, or other reference point. What is a true statement regarding the prescribed standard for built-ups and setbacks in rural areas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Built up area 1/4 and open space 3/4", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Built up area 1/3 and open space 2/3", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Built up area 2/5 and open space 3/5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Built up area 1/2 and open space 1 /2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Built up area 1/3 and open space 2/3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Built up area 1/3 and open space 2/3.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms Ample verandah space Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3) Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform Sanitary latrine Windows area 10% of floor area Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage.</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms</li><li>• 2 living rooms</li><li>• Ample verandah space</li><li>• verandah space</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform</li><li>• Separate kitchen</li><li>• sink/platform</li><li>• Sanitary latrine</li><li>• Windows area 10% of floor area</li><li>• Windows</li><li>• 10%</li><li>• floor area</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube</li><li>• ¼ mile</li><li>• Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away</li><li>• Cattle shed &gt; 25</li><li>• away</li><li>• Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage.</li><li>• Adequate</li><li>• disposal</li><li>• waste water, refuse and garbage.</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances; subsoil water below 10 feet Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient Rooms: should be depending on family size Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage Privy: Sanitary privy in each house Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances; subsoil water below 10 feet</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet</li><li>• Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity</li><li>• Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient</li><li>• Rooms: should be depending on family size</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage</li><li>• Privy: Sanitary privy in each house</li><li>• Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method</li><li>• Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In rural areas the built-up area should not exceed one-third of the total area. In urban areas where land is costly , the built-up area may be up to two-thirds . The set back should be such that there is no obstruction to lighting and ventilation .</li><li>➤ rural areas</li><li>➤ built-up area</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ one-third</li><li>➤ total area.</li><li>➤ urban areas</li><li>➤ land</li><li>➤ costly</li><li>➤ built-up area</li><li>➤ two-thirds</li><li>➤ set back</li><li>➤ no obstruction</li><li>➤ lighting</li><li>➤ ventilation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A postgraduate student in public health is conducting a study to assess the living conditions in a newly developed residential area. She is evaluating various aspects of the houses to ensure they meet the standard living conditions. One of the parameters she is assessing is the window area in relation to the floor space in each house. She needs to determine: The window area in a house should be ____________ of the floor space.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1/5 th", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1/4 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2/5 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2/4 th", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1/5 th", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1/5th</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances; subsoil water below 10 feet Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient Rooms: should be depending on family size Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage Privy: Sanitary privy in each house Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply.</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances; subsoil water below 10 feet</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet</li><li>• Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity</li><li>• Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient</li><li>• Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient</li><li>• Rooms: should be depending on family size</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage</li><li>• Privy: Sanitary privy in each house</li><li>• Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method</li><li>• Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply.</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms Ample verandah space Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3) Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform Sanitary latrine Windows area 10% of floor area Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms</li><li>• 2 living rooms</li><li>• Ample verandah space</li><li>• verandah</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform</li><li>• Sanitary latrine</li><li>• Sanitary latrine</li><li>• Windows area 10% of floor area</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube</li><li>• ¼ mile</li><li>• Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away</li><li>• Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away</li><li>• Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Windows should be placed at a height of not more than 3 feet (1 m) above the ground in living rooms . Window area should be 1/5th of the floor area . Doors and windows combined should have 2/5th the floor area.</li><li>➤ Windows</li><li>➤ height</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ 3 feet (1 m)</li><li>➤ ground</li><li>➤ living rooms</li><li>➤ 1/5th</li><li>➤ floor area</li><li>➤ windows</li><li>➤ 2/5th</li><li>➤ floor area.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health inspector is surveying a suburban community to assess housing conditions and their compliance with recommended standards for adequate living. During her survey, she comes across a nuclear family consisting of four members and decides to evaluate if their living space meets the recommended standards. According to recommended housing standards, how many rooms should be present in their house to ensure adequate living conditions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 rooms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 rooms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4 rooms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 rooms", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 rooms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-112823.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-112858.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3 rooms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Accepted standards of overcrowding:</li><li>• Accepted standards of overcrowding:</li><li>• 1. Persons per room:</li><li>• 2. Floor space per person: Child between 1–10 years is counted as ½ unit ; infant is not counted.</li><li>• Floor space</li><li>• Child</li><li>• 1–10 years</li><li>• ½ unit</li><li>• infant</li><li>• not counted.</li><li>• 3. Sex separation : Overcrowding is said to exist if two persons over 9 years of age, not husband and wife , of opposite sexes are obliged to sleep in the same room.</li><li>• Sex separation</li><li>• Overcrowding</li><li>• exist</li><li>• two persons</li><li>• 9 years</li><li>• not husband</li><li>• wife</li><li>• opposite sexes</li><li>• obliged</li><li>• sleep</li><li>• same room.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Recommend per capita space in urban houses: 50-100 sq-ft. Floor space per person in a house : minimum 70–90 sq. ft. Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft. Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act,1948): &gt;500 cu. ft</li><li>➤ Recommend per capita space in urban houses: 50-100 sq-ft.</li><li>➤ capita space</li><li>➤ urban houses: 50-100 sq-ft.</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house : minimum 70–90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor space</li><li>➤ house</li><li>➤ 70–90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area</li><li>➤ student</li><li>➤ class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act,1948): &gt;500 cu. ft</li><li>➤ Space</li><li>➤ worker</li><li>➤ factory</li><li>➤ &gt;500 cu. ft</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th Ed pg 845.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th Ed pg 845.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community health survey conducted by medical students in Town X, a particular family's living conditions are being evaluated to assess overcrowding. The family consists of one female aged above 60 years, two adults aged above 30 years, one child aged 7 years, and another child aged 10 months. The total area of their house is 750 ft². Based on standard overcrowding assessment criteria, how many \"people units\" does this family constitute?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3.5", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 3.5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-113422.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-113431.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 3.5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the modified Burgess scale for assessing overcrowding , individuals are categorized into “people units ” based on their ages:</li><li>• modified Burgess scale</li><li>• overcrowding</li><li>• “people units</li><li>• Adults (10 years and above) count as 1 unit each. Children aged 1-9 years count as 0.5 units each. Infants (below 1 year) do not count in the assessment.</li><li>• Adults (10 years and above) count as 1 unit each.</li><li>• Adults</li><li>• 1 unit</li><li>• Children aged 1-9 years count as 0.5 units each.</li><li>• Children</li><li>• 1-9 years count</li><li>• 0.5 units</li><li>• Infants (below 1 year) do not count in the assessment.</li><li>• Infants</li><li>• not</li><li>• In the provided scenario - Adding these up gives a total of 3.5 people units .</li><li>• provided scenario</li><li>• 3.5 people units</li><li>• Accepted standards of overcrowding:</li><li>• Accepted standards of overcrowding:</li><li>• FLOOR SPACE : The accepted standards are:</li><li>• FLOOR SPACE : The accepted standards are:</li><li>• FLOOR SPACE</li><li>• A baby under 12 months between 1 to 10 years counted as is not counted ; children between 1 to 10 years are counted as half a unit.</li><li>• baby under 12 months</li><li>• 1 to 10 years</li><li>• not counted</li><li>• 1 to 10 years</li><li>• half a unit.</li><li>• 2. SEX SEPARATION : Overcrowding is considered to exist if 2 persons over 9 years of age, not husband and wife , of opposite sexes are obliged to sleep in the same room .</li><li>• SEX SEPARATION</li><li>• Overcrowding</li><li>• 2 persons</li><li>• 9 years</li><li>• not husband</li><li>• wife</li><li>• opposite sexes</li><li>• obliged</li><li>• same room</li><li>• 3. PERSONS PER ROOM:</li><li>• PERSONS PER ROOM:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Recommended spaces:</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70–90 sq. ft. Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft. Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act,1948): &gt;500 cu. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor space per person in a house: minimum 70–90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor space</li><li>➤ per person</li><li>➤ house: minimum 70–90 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area per student in a class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Floor area per student</li><li>➤ class: &gt; 10 sq. ft.</li><li>➤ Space per worker in a factory (The Factory Act,1948): &gt;500 cu. ft.</li><li>➤ Space per worker</li><li>➤ factory</li><li>➤ &gt;500 cu. ft.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health officer is working on improving water quality in a rural area, focusing on ensuring access to safe and wholesome drinking water. They are educating the local population about the characteristics of safe drinking water. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of safe and wholesome drinking water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Free from harmful pathogenic Organisms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Free of harmful chemical substances", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unusable for domestic purposes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acceptable to taste and appearance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Unusable for domestic purposes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Unusable for domestic purposes.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Safe and Wholesome Water - Has been defined as water that is -</li><li>• Safe and Wholesome Water -</li><li>• Free from pathogenic agents Free from harmful chemical substances Pleasant to taste (free from colour and odour) Usable for domestic purposes</li><li>• Free from pathogenic agents</li><li>• Free</li><li>• pathogenic agents</li><li>• Free from harmful chemical substances</li><li>• Free</li><li>• harmful chemical substances</li><li>• Pleasant to taste (free from colour and odour)</li><li>• Pleasant</li><li>• taste</li><li>• Usable for domestic purposes</li><li>• Usable</li><li>• domestic purposes</li><li>• Water is said to be ‘ polluted ’ or ‘ contaminated ’ if it does not fulfill above criteria .</li><li>• Water</li><li>• polluted</li><li>• contaminated</li><li>• not</li><li>• fulfill above</li><li>• criteria</li><li>• Safe yield of water : Yield that is adequate for 95% of the year.</li><li>• Safe</li><li>• water</li><li>• adequate</li><li>• 95%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Safe and wholesome drinking water should be free from pathogenic microorganisms and harmful chemical substances, colorless, odorless, clear without any suspended impurities , and usable for domestic purposes.</li><li>➤ Safe</li><li>➤ wholesome drinking water</li><li>➤ free</li><li>➤ pathogenic</li><li>➤ microorganisms</li><li>➤ harmful</li><li>➤ chemical substances, colorless, odorless, clear</li><li>➤ without</li><li>➤ impurities</li><li>➤ usable</li><li>➤ domestic purposes.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg, 800</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg, 800</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is conducting an assessment to determine the adequacy of water supply in a rural area of India. He needs to know the standard daily per capita requirement of water to make informed recommendations.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "70 litres", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40 litres", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "100 litres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "150 litres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 40 litres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 40 litres.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Water supply is considered adequate to meet the need for domestic purposes :</li><li>• Water supply</li><li>• adequate</li><li>• meet</li><li>• domestic purposes</li><li>• Urban: 150-200 litres per capita per day Rural: 40-60 litres per capita per day</li><li>• Urban: 150-200 litres per capita per day</li><li>• Urban: 150-200 litres</li><li>• Rural: 40-60 litres per capita per day</li><li>• Rural: 40-60 litres</li><li>• Criteria for identification of Problem Habitations:</li><li>• Criteria for identification of Problem Habitations:</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations : Drinking water source point is not within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Water source is affected by quality problems like excess salinity, iron, fluoride, arsenic , or other toxic materials or biologically contaminated; Quantum of availability of safe water is not enough to meet drinking and cooking needs. Partially Covered (PC) Habitations : Drinking water source point is within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Capacity of system is 10–40 lpcd; Fully Covered (FC) Habitations : include all the remaining habitations.</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations : Drinking water source point is not within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Water source is affected by quality problems like excess salinity, iron, fluoride, arsenic , or other toxic materials or biologically contaminated; Quantum of availability of safe water is not enough to meet drinking and cooking needs.</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations</li><li>• not</li><li>• 1.6 km</li><li>• plains or 100 m elevation</li><li>• hilly areas</li><li>• quality problems</li><li>• excess salinity,</li><li>• iron, fluoride, arsenic</li><li>• biologically</li><li>• contaminated;</li><li>• Quantum</li><li>• safe water</li><li>• not</li><li>• meet drinking</li><li>• cooking needs.</li><li>• Partially Covered (PC) Habitations : Drinking water source point is within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Capacity of system is 10–40 lpcd;</li><li>• Partially Covered (PC) Habitations</li><li>• within 1.6 km</li><li>• plains</li><li>• 100 m elevation</li><li>• hilly areas</li><li>• 10–40 lpcd;</li><li>• Fully Covered (FC) Habitations : include all the remaining habitations.</li><li>• Fully Covered (FC) Habitations</li><li>• habitations.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Water supply is considered adequate to meet the need for domestic purposes in Urban 150-200 litres per capita per day and in Rural: 40-60 litres per capita per day</li><li>➤ Water supply</li><li>➤ adequate</li><li>➤ domestic purposes</li><li>➤ Urban 150-200 litres per capita</li><li>➤ Rural: 40-60 litres per capita</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 800</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 800</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is evaluating the water sources in a rural area to ensure they meet the necessary standards for adequacy. The water source is considered adequate if the yield is more than?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "95% of year", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "90% of the year", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "85% of the year", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100% of the year", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 95% of year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 95% of year.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The safe yield is generally defined as the yield that is adequate for 95 per cent of the year.</li><li>• safe yield</li><li>• yield</li><li>• adequate</li><li>• 95 per cent</li><li>• The safe yield of the source must be sufficient to serve the population expected at the end of the design period , which may be 10 to 50 years in future.</li><li>• safe yield</li><li>• sufficient</li><li>• serve</li><li>• end</li><li>• design period</li><li>• 10 to 50 years</li><li>• future.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Water supply considered adequate to meet the need for domestic purposes:</li><li>➤ Water supply</li><li>➤ adequate</li><li>➤ domestic purposes:</li><li>➤ Urban: 150-200 litres per capita per day Rural: 40-60 litres per capita per day</li><li>➤ Urban: 150-200 litres per capita per day</li><li>➤ Urban: 150-200 litres</li><li>➤ Rural: 40-60 litres per capita per day</li><li>➤ Rural: 40-60 litres</li><li>➤ Daily drinking water requirement: 2-3 litres per capita per day.</li><li>➤ Daily drinking water</li><li>➤ 2-3 litres</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 800</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 800</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is assigned to assess the water supply conditions in a rural village in India. She learns that the villagers have to travel significant distances to access safe drinking water. At what minimum distance from the village does the absence of a safe water source categorize the village as a \"problem village\"?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1.5 km", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.6 km", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.4 km", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 km", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1.6 km", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1.6 km</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Problem village has been defined as one where:</li><li>• Problem village</li><li>• defined</li><li>• No source of safe water is available within 1.6 km . Where water is available at a depth of more than 15 meters . Where water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic elements. Where water is available at elevation more than 100 metres (Hilly areas)</li><li>• No source of safe water is available within 1.6 km .</li><li>• No source</li><li>• safe water</li><li>• 1.6 km</li><li>• Where water is available at a depth of more than 15 meters .</li><li>• water</li><li>• depth</li><li>• more</li><li>• 15 meters</li><li>• Where water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic elements.</li><li>• excess salinity, iron, fluorides</li><li>• toxic elements.</li><li>• Where water is available at elevation more than 100 metres (Hilly areas)</li><li>• water</li><li>• Criteria for Identification of ‘Problem Habitations’</li><li>• Criteria for Identification of ‘Problem Habitations’</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/ No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations: Drinking water source point is not within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Water source affected with quality problems like excess salinity, iron, fluoride , arsenic or other toxic materials or biologically contaminated ; Quantum of availability of safe water is not enough to meet drinking and cooking needs Partially Covered (PC) Habitations: Drinking water source point is within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Capacity of system is 10–40 lpcd Fully Covered (FC) Habitations : include all the remaining habitations.</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/ No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations: Drinking water source point is not within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Water source affected with quality problems like excess salinity, iron, fluoride , arsenic or other toxic materials or biologically contaminated ; Quantum of availability of safe water is not enough to meet drinking and cooking needs</li><li>• Not Covered (NC)/ No Safe Source (NSS) Habitations:</li><li>• not</li><li>• 1.6 km</li><li>• plains</li><li>• 100 m elevation</li><li>• hilly areas</li><li>• Water source</li><li>• quality problems</li><li>• excess salinity, iron, fluoride</li><li>• arsenic</li><li>• toxic materials</li><li>• biologically contaminated</li><li>• Quantum</li><li>• safe water</li><li>• not</li><li>• drinking</li><li>• cooking needs</li><li>• Partially Covered (PC) Habitations: Drinking water source point is within 1.6 km in plains or 100 m elevation in hilly areas ; Capacity of system is 10–40 lpcd</li><li>• Partially Covered (PC) Habitations:</li><li>• water source point</li><li>• within 1.6</li><li>• km</li><li>• 100 m</li><li>• hilly areas</li><li>• 10–40 lpcd</li><li>• Fully Covered (FC) Habitations : include all the remaining habitations.</li><li>• Fully Covered (FC) Habitations</li><li>• remaining habitations.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The problem village has been defined as one where n o source of safe water is available within 1.6 km ; water is available at a depth of more than 15 meters.</li><li>➤ problem village</li><li>➤ n</li><li>➤ o source</li><li>➤ safe water</li><li>➤ 1.6 km</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ depth</li><li>➤ more</li><li>➤ 15 meters.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 536</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 536</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old infectious disease specialist is working on a case study for a presentation about water-related diseases. He is compiling a list of diseases that are directly related to water. Which of the following diseases is NOT typically associated with water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "yellow fever", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Schistosomiasis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Filariasis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Schistosomiasis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-114032.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Schistosomiasis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Water-related diseases (Water breeding diseases): These are infections spread by insects that depend on water . Examples: Malaria, Filariasis, Dengue, Yellow fever, Onchocerciasis.</li><li>• Water-related diseases</li><li>• infections</li><li>• insects</li><li>• water</li><li>• Malaria, Filariasis, Dengue, Yellow fever, Onchocerciasis.</li><li>• Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 272.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 272.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A municipal engineer is designing a slow sand filtration system for a small community's water treatment plant. In order to ensure effective filtration and prevent clogging, he needs to select the appropriate size of sand particles. What is the effective diameter of sand particles typically used in a slow sand filter?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.2 to 0.3 mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.4 to 0.7 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.3 to 0.5 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.2 to 0.4 mm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.2 to 0.3 mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-114235.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 0.2 to 0.3 mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Effective diameter of sand particle in</li><li>• Effective diameter</li><li>• sand particle</li><li>• Slow sand filter - 0.2 to 0.3 mm. Rapid sand filter - 0.4 to 0.7 mm.</li><li>• Slow sand filter - 0.2 to 0.3 mm.</li><li>• Slow sand filter</li><li>• 0.2 to 0.3</li><li>• Rapid sand filter - 0.4 to 0.7 mm.</li><li>• Rapid sand filter</li><li>• 0.4 to 0.7</li><li>• Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>• Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>• In slow sand filter , Vital layer (Schmutzdecke, Zoogleal layer or Biological layer) is responsible for yielding bacteria free water . It is slimy, gelatinous layer consisting of algae, plankton, diatoms and bacteria. Vital layer is the ‘ Heart of Slow Sand Filter’ . Formation of vital layer is known as ‘ Ripening of the filter ’. It removes organic matter , holds back bacteria oxidizes nitrogen to nitrates.</li><li>• slow sand filter</li><li>• Vital layer (Schmutzdecke, Zoogleal layer or Biological layer)</li><li>• bacteria free water</li><li>• slimy, gelatinous</li><li>• layer</li><li>• algae, plankton, diatoms</li><li>• bacteria.</li><li>• Vital layer</li><li>• Heart</li><li>• Slow Sand Filter’</li><li>• vital layer</li><li>• Ripening</li><li>• filter</li><li>• removes organic matter</li><li>• back bacteria oxidizes</li><li>• nitrogen</li><li>• nitrates.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The effective diameter of sand particle in Slow sand filter is 0.2 to 0.3 mm and Rapid sand filter is 0.4 to 0.7 mm .</li><li>➤ effective diameter</li><li>➤ sand particle</li><li>➤ Slow sand filter</li><li>➤ 0.2 to 0.3 mm</li><li>➤ Rapid sand filter</li><li>➤ 0.4 to 0.7 mm</li><li>➤ In slow sand filter , Vital layer (Schmutzdecke, Zoogleal layer or Biological layer) is responsible for yielding bacteria free water . It is the ‘ Heart of Slow Sand Filter’ .</li><li>➤ slow sand filter</li><li>➤ Vital layer</li><li>➤ yielding bacteria free water</li><li>➤ Heart of Slow</li><li>➤ Sand Filter’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 806.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 806.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water treatment plant manager is observing the chlorination process and notes that free residual chlorine is detected in the water after all the organic impurities have been destroyed. What is the term used to describe this specific point in the water treatment process?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorine demand", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Breakpoint chlorination", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Super chlorination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Residual chlorination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Breakpoint chlorination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-114423.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Breakpoint chlorination.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Breakpoint chlorination refers to the point in the chlorination process where the demand for chlorine by organic and inorganic impurities in the water has been fully satisfied , and any additional chlorine added will remain as free residual chlorine . This ensures that all harmful microorganisms and contaminants are destroyed and the water is safe for consumption.</li><li>• Breakpoint chlorination</li><li>• chlorination process</li><li>• demand</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• organic</li><li>• inorganic impurities</li><li>• water</li><li>• fully satisfied</li><li>• additional chlorine added</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• ensures</li><li>• all harmful microorganisms</li><li>• contaminants</li><li>• destroyed</li><li>• water</li><li>• safe</li><li>• consumption.</li><li>• Chlorination of Water</li><li>• Chlorination of Water</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to: Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection) and Hypochlorite ions (OCl) (Minor role in disinfection) Chlorine has residual germicidal effect (and not Ozone or UV rays ): Provides a margin of safety against subsequent microbial contamination , as may occur during storage and distribution. Phases of Chlorination: Phase I : Formation of chloramines Phase II: Destruction of chloramines Phase III : Appearance of breakpoint Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine .</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to: Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection) and Hypochlorite ions (OCl) (Minor role in disinfection)</li><li>• Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection)</li><li>• Chlorine has residual germicidal effect (and not Ozone or UV rays ): Provides a margin of safety against subsequent microbial contamination , as may occur during storage and distribution.</li><li>• Chlorine</li><li>• germicidal effect</li><li>• not Ozone</li><li>• UV rays</li><li>• safety against subsequent microbial contamination</li><li>• storage</li><li>• distribution.</li><li>• Phases of Chlorination: Phase I : Formation of chloramines Phase II: Destruction of chloramines Phase III : Appearance of breakpoint Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine .</li><li>• Phases</li><li>• Chlorination:</li><li>• Phase I : Formation of chloramines Phase II: Destruction of chloramines Phase III : Appearance of breakpoint Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine .</li><li>• Phase I : Formation of chloramines</li><li>• Phase I</li><li>• Formation</li><li>• chloramines</li><li>• Phase II: Destruction of chloramines</li><li>• Phase II: Destruction</li><li>• chloramines</li><li>• Phase III : Appearance of breakpoint</li><li>• Phase III</li><li>• breakpoint</li><li>• Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine .</li><li>• Phase IV:</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended c ontact period of free residual chlorine in water: 1 hour Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>➤ Recommended c ontact period of free residual chlorine in water: 1 hour</li><li>➤ c</li><li>➤ ontact period</li><li>➤ free residual chlorine</li><li>➤ 1 hour</li><li>➤ Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>➤ free residual chlorine (FRC)</li><li>➤ Correct dose of chlorine to be applied: Chlorine demand + FRC 0.5 mg per litre.</li><li>➤ Correct</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ Chlorine demand</li><li>➤ FRC 0.5 mg per</li><li>➤ litre.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 809</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 809</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water treatment specialist is explaining the components of a slow sand filter to a group of trainee engineers. He discusses the importance of the vital layer in this filtration process. Which of the following statements about the vital layer is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It forms the heart of the slow sand filter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is formed by algae, certain bacteria, plankton, and diatoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It removes organic matter and oxidizes nitrogen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It covers 3-5 cm of sand bed", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It covers 3-5 cm of sand bed", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-114647.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. It covers 3-5 cm of sand bed.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vital layer (Schmutzdecke, Zoogleal layer or Biological layer):</li><li>• Vital layer (Schmutzdecke, Zoogleal layer or Biological layer):</li><li>• Slimy, gelatinous layer consisting of algae, plankton, diatoms and bacteria is formed in the slow sand filter . Vital layer is the ‘ Heart of Slow Sand Filter’ . Formation of vital layer is known as ‘Ripening of the filter’ . Fully formed it extends for 2 to 3 cm into the top portion of the sand bed . It removes organic matter , holds back bacteria oxidizes nitrogen to nitrates and helps in yielding bacteria-free water.</li><li>• Slimy, gelatinous layer</li><li>• algae, plankton, diatoms</li><li>• bacteria</li><li>• slow sand filter</li><li>• Vital layer</li><li>• Heart</li><li>• Slow Sand Filter’</li><li>• vital layer</li><li>• ‘Ripening</li><li>• filter’</li><li>• 2 to 3 cm</li><li>• top portion</li><li>• sand bed</li><li>• removes organic matter</li><li>• bacteria oxidizes nitrogen</li><li>• nitrates</li><li>• bacteria-free water.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 807.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 807.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old water quality technician is tasked with maintaining the disinfection processes at a water treatment facility. She understands that chlorination is a critical step in ensuring that the water is safe for consumption. As she monitors the chlorination system, she reflects on the mechanisms by which chlorine effectively eliminates pathogens from the water supply. Given the widespread use of chlorination in water treatment facilities, the water quality technician wants to ensure that she fully understands the mechanisms behind its disinfecting action. The disinfecting action of chlorine in water treatment is mainly attributed to which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypochloric acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hypochlorous acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hypochlorite ions", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hydrochloric acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Hypochlorous acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115019.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115033.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Hypochlorous acid.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CHLORINATION OF WATER</li><li>• CHLORINATION OF WATER</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to: Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection 90%) and Hypochlorite ions (OCl) (Minor role 10%) Chlorine has residual germicidal effect (and not Ozone or UV rays ): Provides a margin of safety against subsequent microbial contamination , as may occur during storage and distribution. Phases of Chlorination: Phase I: Formation of chloramines Phase II : Destruction of chloramines Phase III: Appearance of break-point Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine Recommended contact period of free residual chlorine in water: 1 hour Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to: Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection 90%) and Hypochlorite ions (OCl) (Minor role 10%)</li><li>• Disinfecting action</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) (Main role in disinfection 90%)</li><li>• Hypochlorite ions (OCl)</li><li>• Chlorine has residual germicidal effect (and not Ozone or UV rays ): Provides a margin of safety against subsequent microbial contamination , as may occur during storage and distribution.</li><li>• Chlorine</li><li>• germicidal effect</li><li>• not Ozone</li><li>• UV rays</li><li>• margin</li><li>• safety</li><li>• microbial contamination</li><li>• storage</li><li>• distribution.</li><li>• Phases of Chlorination: Phase I: Formation of chloramines Phase II : Destruction of chloramines Phase III: Appearance of break-point Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine</li><li>• Phases of Chlorination:</li><li>• Phase I: Formation of chloramines Phase II : Destruction of chloramines Phase III: Appearance of break-point Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine</li><li>• Phase I: Formation of chloramines</li><li>• Phase I:</li><li>• Formation</li><li>• chloramines</li><li>• Phase II : Destruction of chloramines</li><li>• Phase II</li><li>• Destruction</li><li>• chloramines</li><li>• Phase III: Appearance of break-point</li><li>• Phase III:</li><li>• break-point</li><li>• Phase IV: Accumulation of free residual chlorine</li><li>• Phase IV:</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• Recommended contact period of free residual chlorine in water: 1 hour</li><li>• contact period</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• 1 hour</li><li>• Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>• Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>• Correct dose of chlorine to be applied : Chlorine demand + FRC 0.5 mg per litre. Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) contains: 33% available chlorine Chlorine acts best as a disinfectant for water at pH around 7.0 Instruments used in chlorination of water:</li><li>• Correct dose of chlorine to be applied : Chlorine demand + FRC 0.5 mg per litre.</li><li>• Correct dose</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• : Chlorine demand</li><li>• FRC 0.5 mg</li><li>• litre.</li><li>• Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) contains: 33% available chlorine</li><li>• Bleaching powder (CaOCl2)</li><li>• 33%</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• Chlorine acts best as a disinfectant for water at pH around 7.0</li><li>• Chlorine</li><li>• best</li><li>• disinfectant</li><li>• water</li><li>• pH</li><li>• 7.0</li><li>• Instruments used in chlorination of water:</li><li>• Instruments used in chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water: Tests for chlorination of water: Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test : Measure the levels of, Free chlorine and Free &amp; Combined chlorine. Ortho-toluidine Arsenite (OTA) Test : Measure the levels of, Free chlorine and Combined chlorine, separately .</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test : Measure the levels of, Free chlorine and Free &amp; Combined chlorine.</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test</li><li>• Free chlorine</li><li>• Free &amp; Combined chlorine.</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine Arsenite (OTA) Test : Measure the levels of, Free chlorine and Combined chlorine, separately .</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine Arsenite (OTA) Test</li><li>• Free chlorine</li><li>• Combined chlorine, separately</li><li>• OTA test is better than OT test as it detects both free and combined chlorine separately and it’s not affected by interfering substances (nitrites, iron, and manganese).</li><li>• OTA</li><li>• better</li><li>• OT test</li><li>• both free</li><li>• combined chlorine</li><li>• separately</li><li>• not</li><li>• interfering substances</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to:</li><li>• Disinfecting action</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• water</li><li>• Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) – Main role in disinfection</li><li>• Hypochlorous acid (HOCl)</li><li>• Main</li><li>• disinfection</li><li>• Hypochlorite ions (OCl) – Minor role in disinfection</li><li>• Hypochlorite ions (OCl)</li><li>• Minor</li><li>• disinfection</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mere addition of chlorine does not disinfect water. Various factors influence the effectiveness of chlorination in disinfecting water. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the chlorination of water for disinfection purposes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Water should be clear and free from turbidity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chlorine demand of the water should be estimated", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Contact period should be minimum 30 minutes", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Minimum recommended concentration of free residual chlorine is 0.5 mg/L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Contact period should be minimum 30 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Contact period should be minimum 30 minutes.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The water to be chlorinated should be clear and free from turbidity. The “ chlorine demand ” of the water should be estimated. The presence of free residual chlorine for a contact period of at least one hour is essential to kill bacteria and viruses . Chlorine has no effect on spores, protozoal cysts and helminthic ova , except in higher doses . The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg/L for one hour The sum of the chlorine demand of the specific water plus the free residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/L constitutes the correct dose of chlorine to be applied.</li><li>• The water to be chlorinated should be clear and free from turbidity.</li><li>• water</li><li>• chlorinated</li><li>• clear</li><li>• free</li><li>• turbidity.</li><li>• The “ chlorine demand ” of the water should be estimated.</li><li>• chlorine demand</li><li>• water</li><li>• estimated.</li><li>• The presence of free residual chlorine for a contact period of at least one hour is essential to kill bacteria and viruses . Chlorine has no effect on spores, protozoal cysts and helminthic ova , except in higher doses .</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• contact period</li><li>• one hour</li><li>• kill bacteria</li><li>• viruses</li><li>• Chlorine</li><li>• no</li><li>• spores, protozoal cysts</li><li>• helminthic ova</li><li>• higher doses</li><li>• The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg/L for one hour</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• free chlorine</li><li>• 0.5 mg/L for one hour</li><li>• The sum of the chlorine demand of the specific water plus the free residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/L constitutes the correct dose of chlorine to be applied.</li><li>• sum</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• water plus</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• 0.5 mg/L</li><li>• correct</li><li>• chlorine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended contact period of free residual chlorine in water is 1 hour</li><li>➤ contact period</li><li>➤ free residual chlorine</li><li>➤ 1 hour</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 809</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 809</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is tasked with disinfecting a large supply of water for a rural community using 0.5g chlorine tablets. To ensure safe drinking water, how many chlorine tablets are required to disinfect a 120-liter water tank?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 tablets", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 tablets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 tablets", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 tablets", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6 tablets", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115727.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 6 tablets.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A single tablet of 0.5 g is sufficient to disinfect 20 liters of water.</li><li>• single tablet</li><li>• 0.5 g</li><li>• disinfect 20 liters</li><li>• water.</li><li>• Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>• free residual chlorine (FRC)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Disinfecting action of chlorine is due to Hypochlorous acid. The residual level of chlorine in water Minimum 0.5 mg/L and contact period 1 hour. Horrock’s Apparatus (Starch Iodide indicator) is used for - Chlorine demand estimation Level of residual level of chlorine in water 0.5 ppm (mg/litre) for contact period 1 hour. Fresh bleaching powder contains 33% chlorine Contact time for chlorination of water 1 hour The correct dose of chlorine to be applied: Chlorine demand + FRC 0.5 mg per litre. OTA test is better than OT test as it detects both free and combined chlorine separately and not affected by interfering substances (nitrites, iron, and manganese).</li><li>➤ Disinfecting action of chlorine is due to Hypochlorous acid.</li><li>➤ Disinfecting</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ Hypochlorous acid.</li><li>➤ The residual level of chlorine in water Minimum 0.5 mg/L and contact period 1 hour.</li><li>➤ residual level</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ 0.5 mg/L</li><li>➤ 1 hour.</li><li>➤ Horrock’s Apparatus (Starch Iodide indicator) is used for - Chlorine demand estimation</li><li>➤ Horrock’s Apparatus</li><li>➤ Chlorine</li><li>➤ demand estimation</li><li>➤ Level of residual level of chlorine in water 0.5 ppm (mg/litre) for contact period 1 hour.</li><li>➤ residual level</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ 0.5 ppm</li><li>➤ 1 hour.</li><li>➤ Fresh bleaching powder contains 33% chlorine</li><li>➤ bleaching powder</li><li>➤ 33% chlorine</li><li>➤ Contact time for chlorination of water 1 hour</li><li>➤ Contact</li><li>➤ chlorination</li><li>➤ 1 hour</li><li>➤ The correct dose of chlorine to be applied: Chlorine demand + FRC 0.5 mg per litre.</li><li>➤ correct</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ Chlorine demand</li><li>➤ FRC 0.5</li><li>➤ OTA test is better than OT test as it detects both free and combined chlorine separately and not affected by interfering substances (nitrites, iron, and manganese).</li><li>➤ OTA test</li><li>➤ better</li><li>➤ OT test</li><li>➤ both free</li><li>➤ combined chlorine</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ interfering substances</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 810</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is investigating a potential water contamination event in a small community. To determine whether there is fecal contamination of the water supply, the officer decides to test for the presence of specific bacteria. Which bacterial indicator is primarily used to identify fecal contamination of water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Streptococci", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Clostridia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "E coli", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. E coli", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. E coli</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The primary bacterial indicator is the coliform group of organisms.</li><li>• primary bacterial indicator</li><li>• coliform</li><li>• organisms.</li><li>• Reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution rather than water– Borne pathogens :</li><li>• Reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution</li><li>• Borne pathogens</li><li>• 1. Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters 2. Easily detectable by culture methods 3. Longer survival period 4. Greater resistance to forces of natural purification.</li><li>• Constant presence</li><li>• abundance</li><li>• human intestine</li><li>• foreign</li><li>• potable waters</li><li>• detectable</li><li>• culture methods</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Greater resistance</li><li>• natural purification.</li><li>• Supplementary indicator organisms- faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia, may be useful in determining the origin of faecal pollution as well as in assessing the efficiency of water treatment processes .</li><li>• Supplementary</li><li>• faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia,</li><li>• useful</li><li>• origin of faecal pollution</li><li>• efficiency</li><li>• water treatment processes</li><li>• Bacteriological indicators of water quality:</li><li>• Bacteriological indicators of water quality:</li><li>• Coliforms (E.coli is MOST important microbiological indicator ) Fecal streptococci (Indicator of RECENT contamination) (Sodium Azide medium) Clostridium perfringens (Indicator of REMOTE contamination)</li><li>• Coliforms (E.coli is MOST important microbiological indicator )</li><li>• Coliforms</li><li>• MOST</li><li>• microbiological indicator</li><li>• Fecal streptococci (Indicator of RECENT contamination) (Sodium Azide medium)</li><li>• Fecal streptococci</li><li>• RECENT</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens (Indicator of REMOTE contamination)</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens</li><li>• REMOTE</li><li>• Acceptable level of coliforms in drinking water: NONE</li><li>• Acceptable level of coliforms in drinking water: NONE</li><li>• EXCEPTION: In large urban supplies, up to 5% samples are acceptable to be contaminated if taken continuously for a period of 12 month.</li><li>• EXCEPTION: In large urban supplies, up to 5% samples are acceptable to be contaminated if taken continuously for a period of 12 month.</li><li>• EXCEPTION:</li><li>• large urban</li><li>• 5% samples</li><li>• contaminated</li><li>• continuously</li><li>• 12 month.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms are the Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality.</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms</li><li>➤ Primary</li><li>➤ reliable bacterial indicator</li><li>➤ water quality.</li><li>➤ Fecal streptococci indicates ‘ recent contamination of water ’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘ remote contamination of water’</li><li>➤ Fecal streptococci</li><li>➤ recent contamination</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ Clostridium</li><li>➤ perfringens</li><li>➤ remote contamination</li><li>➤ water’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 814.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician is consulting a community on setting up a safe drinking water supply. They are discussing various quality parameters that need to be checked to ensure the water's safety. What is the WHO recommended standard level of chloride in drinking water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "250 mg/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "500 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "750 mg/L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 250 mg/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 250 mg/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The standared prescribed for chloride is 250 mg/L</li><li>• The maximum permissible level is 1000 mg/L (in absence of alternative water source)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chloride level of 250 mg/L is said to be accepted by WHO</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 813.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health worker is testing a water sample from a local well that is suspected to be contaminated. They are particularly concerned about recent fecal contamination. Which organism’s presence in the water would indicate recent fecal contamination?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clostridium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Streptococci", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Streptococci", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Streptococci.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The finding of faecal streptococci in water is regarded as important confirmatory evidence of recent faecal Pollution of water.</li><li>• faecal streptococci</li><li>• confirmatory evidence</li><li>• recent faecal Pollution</li><li>• water.</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Coliform organisms: Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality. E. coli is most important coliform indicator .</li><li>• Coliform organisms: Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality. E. coli is most important coliform indicator .</li><li>• Coliform organisms:</li><li>• Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality. E. coli is most important coliform indicator .</li><li>• Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality.</li><li>• most reliable</li><li>• water quality.</li><li>• E. coli is most important coliform indicator .</li><li>• E. coli</li><li>• coliform indicator</li><li>• Reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution Rather Than Water Borne Pathogens:</li><li>• coliforms</li><li>• indicators</li><li>• fecal pollution</li><li>• Water Borne Pathogens:</li><li>• Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters Easily detectable by culture methods Longer survival period Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters</li><li>• Constant</li><li>• great abundance</li><li>• human intestine</li><li>• potable waters</li><li>• Easily detectable by culture methods</li><li>• Easily detectable</li><li>• culture methods</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• Greater resistance</li><li>• natural purification</li><li>• Fecal streptococci indicates recent contamination of water and Clostridium perfringens indicates remote contamination of water</li><li>• Fecal streptococci indicates recent contamination of water and Clostridium perfringens indicates remote contamination of water</li><li>• Fecal streptococci</li><li>• recent contamination</li><li>• water</li><li>• Clostridium</li><li>• perfringens</li><li>• remote</li><li>• water</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms are the primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality.</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms</li><li>➤ primary</li><li>➤ reliable bacterial indicator</li><li>➤ water quality.</li><li>➤ Fecal streptococci indicates recent contamination of water and Clostridium perfringens indicates remote contamination of water.</li><li>➤ Fecal streptococci</li><li>➤ recent contamination</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ Clostridium perfringens</li><li>➤ remote contamination</li><li>➤ water.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 815.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 815.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is conducting a water quality testing in a suburban area to ensure the safety of drinking water supplied to the residents. He collected various water samples from different households and performed bacterial analysis. Based on the results, he needs to determine which water source is safe for drinking. Which of the following water sample results indicates that the water is potable?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No E.coli per 100 ml of water sample", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 E.coli per 100 ml of water sample", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 E.coli per 10 ml of water sample", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "100 E.coli per 10 ml of water sample", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. No E.coli per 100 ml of water sample", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/screenshot-2023-08-11-192003_hbkbWXa.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. No E. coli per 100 ml of water sample.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Potable water should be free from any Coliform bacteria , including E. coli , as their presence indicates potential contamination by fecal matter and the risk of harmful pathogens being present.</li><li>• Potable water</li><li>• free</li><li>• Coliform bacteria</li><li>• E. coli</li><li>• potential contamination</li><li>• fecal matter</li><li>• risk</li><li>• harmful pathogens</li><li>• present.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Water is considered potable and safe for drinking when it is completely free from Coliform bacteria .</li><li>• Water</li><li>• potable</li><li>• safe</li><li>• drinking</li><li>• completely free</li><li>• Coliform bacteria</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 816.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg 816.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A toxicologist is researching the safety thresholds of various chemicals found in drinking water. She is focusing on determining the levels at which no negative health effects have been observed in any given population. Which term best describes the concentration of a chemical at which no adverse health effects are observed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tolerable daily intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "No observed adverse effect level", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lowest observed adverse effect level", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Acceptable daily intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. No observed adverse effect level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. No observed adverse effect level.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Tolerable daily intake (TDI): Amount of a substance that can be ingested daily over a lifetime without appreciable health risk.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Tolerable daily intake (TDI):</li><li>• ingested daily</li><li>• a lifetime</li><li>• without</li><li>• health risk.</li><li>• Option C. Lowest-observed-adverse-effect level (LOAEL): Lowest observed dose or concentration of a substance at which there is a detectable adverse health effect.</li><li>• Option C. Lowest-observed-adverse-effect level (LOAEL):</li><li>• detectable adverse health effect.</li><li>• Option D. Acceptable daily intake (ADI): Established for food additives and pesticide residues that occur in food for necessary technological purposes or plant protection reasons .</li><li>• Option D. Acceptable daily intake (ADI):</li><li>• food additives</li><li>• pesticide</li><li>• food</li><li>• technological</li><li>• plant protection reasons</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Points -</li><li>➤ Some important Points -</li><li>➤ Guideline value of nitrate in drinking water: &lt;45 mg/litre</li><li>➤ nitrate</li><li>➤ drinking water: &lt;45 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Nitrates in drinking water indicate: Remote contamination Is solely used for prevention of methemoglobinemia</li><li>➤ Nitrates in drinking water indicate: Remote contamination</li><li>➤ Nitrates</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ Remote contamination</li><li>➤ Is solely used for prevention of methemoglobinemia</li><li>➤ solely</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ methemoglobinemia</li><li>➤ Guideline value of nitrite in drinking water : &lt; 3 mg/litre</li><li>➤ nitrite</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ &lt; 3 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Nitrites in drinking water indicate: Recent contamination May lead to ‘ Blue baby syndrome’</li><li>➤ Nitrites in drinking water indicate: Recent contamination</li><li>➤ Nitrites</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ Recent contamination</li><li>➤ May lead to ‘ Blue baby syndrome’</li><li>➤ Blue baby syndrome’</li><li>➤ Concentration of nitrate/Guideline value of nitrate + Concentration of nitrite/Guideline value of nitrite should be &lt; 1</li><li>➤ Concentration of nitrate/Guideline value of nitrate + Concentration of nitrite/Guideline value of nitrite should be &lt; 1</li><li>➤ Undesirable metals in drinking water : Iron, manganese, zinc, copper, aluminium, lead</li><li>➤ Undesirable metals</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ Iron, manganese, zinc, copper, aluminium, lead</li><li>➤ MOST undesirable metal in drinking water: Lead – Lead was earlier seen in drinking water when water was being supplied through lead pipes</li><li>➤ MOST undesirable metal</li><li>➤ Lead</li><li>➤ earlier</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ lead pipes</li><li>➤ Undesirable salts in drinking water: Chlorides, Fluorides, Nitrites, Nitrates, Calcium, Magnesium</li><li>➤ Undesirable salts</li><li>➤ drinking water: Chlorides, Fluorides, Nitrites, Nitrates, Calcium, Magnesium</li><li>➤ Undesirable gases in drinking water: Ammonia, Hydrogen sulphide, Methane.</li><li>➤ Undesirable gases</li><li>➤ Ammonia, Hydrogen sulphide, Methane.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 818.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A homeowner is attempting to resolve the issue of hard water in his household plumbing system. He understands that certain compounds are responsible for permanent hardness in water. Which of the following compounds does not contribute to permanent hardness in water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcium Chlorides", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium bicarbonate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium sulphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Calcium Nitrates", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcium bicarbonate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-120518.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-120525.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Calcium bicarbonate.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Temporary hardness (carbonate hardness)- due to the presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates.</li><li>• Temporary hardness</li><li>• calcium</li><li>• magnesium bicarbonates.</li><li>• Permanent hardness (Non-carbonate hardness)- due to calcium and magnesium sulphates, chlorides, and nitrates.</li><li>• Permanent hardness</li><li>• calcium and</li><li>• magnesium sulphates, chlorides, and nitrates.</li><li>• Hardness of Water</li><li>• Hardness of Water</li><li>• Hardness of water is defined as the ‘ soap destroying power of water’ Hardness of water is expressed in terms of: milliequivalents per litre ( mEq/litre ) of CALCIUM CARBONATE (CaCO3) – 1 mEq/litre hardness = 50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm) per litre of water Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Hardness of water is defined as the ‘ soap destroying power of water’</li><li>• soap destroying power</li><li>• water’</li><li>• Hardness of water is expressed in terms of: milliequivalents per litre ( mEq/litre ) of CALCIUM CARBONATE (CaCO3) – 1 mEq/litre hardness = 50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm) per litre of water</li><li>• Hardness</li><li>• water</li><li>• milliequivalents</li><li>• litre</li><li>• mEq/litre</li><li>• CALCIUM CARBONATE</li><li>• 1 mEq/litre hardness</li><li>• 50 mg CaCO3</li><li>• Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Classification</li><li>• hardness</li><li>• water:</li><li>• Softening of water is recommended at level of hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre of Calcium carbonate)</li><li>• Softening</li><li>• water</li><li>• at level</li><li>• &gt; 3 mEq/litre</li><li>• Methods of removal of hardness of water:</li><li>• Methods of removal of hardness of water:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Temporary hardness ( carbonate hardness) is due to the presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates and Permanent hardness (Non-carbonate hardness) is due to calcium and magnesium sulphates, chlorides and nitrates .</li><li>➤ Temporary hardness</li><li>➤ carbonate</li><li>➤ calcium</li><li>➤ magnesium bicarbonates</li><li>➤ Permanent hardness</li><li>➤ calcium</li><li>➤ magnesium sulphates, chlorides</li><li>➤ nitrates</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A laboratory technician is analyzing a water sample to determine its hardness. The technician understands that water hardness is classified based on the concentration of hardness-producing ions. What concentration of hardness-producing ions in the water sample would indicate that the water is moderately hard?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50 - 150ppm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "150 - 300ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;300 ppm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50 - 150ppm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-120728.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-120740.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 50 - 150ppm.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Softening of water is recommended at level of hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre of Calcium carbonate )</li><li>• Softening</li><li>• water</li><li>• recommended</li><li>• hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre</li><li>• Calcium carbonate</li><li>• Hardness of water is defined as the soap destroying power of water . Hardness of water is of two types:</li><li>• Hardness</li><li>• soap destroying power</li><li>• water</li><li>• Hardness</li><li>• two types:</li><li>• Temporary hardness (Carbonate hardness) - Calcium and magnesium salts of Bicarbonate s Permanent hardness (Non- Carbonate hardness) - Calcium and magnesium salts of Sulfates, Chlorides and Nitrates</li><li>• Temporary hardness (Carbonate hardness) - Calcium and magnesium salts of Bicarbonate s</li><li>• Temporary hardness</li><li>• Calcium</li><li>• magnesium salts</li><li>• Bicarbonate</li><li>• Permanent hardness (Non- Carbonate hardness) - Calcium and magnesium salts of Sulfates, Chlorides and Nitrates</li><li>• Permanent hardness</li><li>• - Calcium</li><li>• magnesium</li><li>• Sulfates, Chlorides</li><li>• Nitrates</li><li>• Hardness of water is expressed in terms of: milliequivalents per litre (mEq/litre) of CALCIUM CARBONATE (CaCO3).</li><li>• Hardness</li><li>• expressed</li><li>• milliequivalents per litre</li><li>• CALCIUM CARBONATE</li><li>• Methods of removal of hardness of water:</li><li>• Methods of removal of hardness of water:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level of hardness in moderately hard water is - 1–3 / 50-150 ppm/ 50–150 mg/L</li><li>➤ Level</li><li>➤ hardness</li><li>➤ moderately</li><li>➤ 1–3 / 50-150 ppm/ 50–150 mg/L</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 821.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 821.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community in a rural village has recently established a new borewell to provide drinking water. Upon testing, the Calcium bicarbonate level in the water was found to be 245 ppm, indicating the presence of temporary hardness. Which of the following methods would NOT be effective in removing the associated hardness?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Boiling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Permutit process", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ozonation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Addition of lime", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ozonation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ozonation.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ozonation is one of the method to disinfect water , but it does not remove hardness.</li><li>• Ozonation</li><li>• disinfect water</li><li>• not remove</li><li>• hardness.</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other 3 options are used to remove temporary hardness (as mentioned below) -</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• remove temporary hardness</li><li>• Removal of hardness</li><li>• Removal of hardness</li><li>• Softening of water is recommended at level of hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre of Calcium carbonate ). The methods of removal of hardness are briefly stated as below :</li><li>• Softening</li><li>• water</li><li>• at level</li><li>• hardness &gt; 3 mEq/litre (&gt;150 mg/litre</li><li>• Calcium carbonate</li><li>• methods</li><li>• removal</li><li>• below</li><li>• Temporary hardness</li><li>• Temporary hardness</li><li>• Temporary hardness</li><li>• Boiling (Option A) Addition of lime (Option D) Addition of sodium carbonate Permutit process. (Option B)</li><li>• Boiling (Option A)</li><li>• Boiling (Option A)</li><li>• Addition of lime (Option D)</li><li>• Addition of lime (Option D)</li><li>• Addition of sodium carbonate</li><li>• Permutit process. (Option B)</li><li>• Permutit process. (Option B)</li><li>• Permanent hardness</li><li>• Permanent hardness</li><li>• Permanent hardness</li><li>• Addition of sodium carbonate Base exchange process .</li><li>• Addition of sodium carbonate</li><li>• sodium carbonate</li><li>• Base exchange process .</li><li>• Base exchange process</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Temporary hardness (Carbonate hardness) is because of Calcium &amp; Magnesium salts of Bicarbonates, it is removed by b oiling, addition of lime and permutit process .</li><li>➤ Temporary hardness (Carbonate hardness)</li><li>➤ Calcium</li><li>➤ Magnesium</li><li>➤ salts</li><li>➤ Bicarbonates,</li><li>➤ removed</li><li>➤ b oiling,</li><li>➤ lime</li><li>➤ permutit process</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 821.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 821.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is reviewing the safety standards for drinking water in a community. He is particularly concerned about the levels of nitrate and nitrite, as these can have harmful effects on health. What are the recommended guideline values for nitrate and nitrite in water to ensure its safety for consumption?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25 mg/l and 0.5 mg/l", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 mg/l and 1 mg/l", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 mg/l and 10 mg/l", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "45 mg/l and 3 mg/l", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 45 mg/l and 3 mg/l", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-121027.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 45 mg/l and 3 mg/l</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>• Colour &lt; 15 true colour units (TCU) [&lt; 5 Hazen units] Turbidity &lt; 1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU) Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre calcium ion pH: 6.5–8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre *(BIS 2017) Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminths Fluoride &lt; 1 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/L Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/L Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO] Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li><li>• Colour &lt; 15 true colour units (TCU) [&lt; 5 Hazen units]</li><li>• Colour &lt; 15 true colour</li><li>• Turbidity &lt; 1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU)</li><li>• Turbidity &lt; 1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU)</li><li>• Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre calcium ion</li><li>• Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre</li><li>• pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>• pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>• Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre *(BIS 2017)</li><li>• Zero pathogenic microorganisms</li><li>• Zero pathogenic microorganisms</li><li>• Zero infectious viruses</li><li>• Zero infectious viruses</li><li>• Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminths</li><li>• Absence</li><li>• protozoa</li><li>• helminths</li><li>• Fluoride &lt; 1 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/L Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/L</li><li>• Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/L</li><li>• Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/L</li><li>• Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li><li>• Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key Guideline Aspects of NPCB (India) Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>➤ Key Guideline Aspects of NPCB (India) Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 817.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 817.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A microbiologist is conducting bacteriological surveillance of a community water supply. She decides to use the presumptive count test to estimate the safety of the water. This test is based on the estimation of what particular parameter?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E. coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coliform organisms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gram negative bacilli", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All bacteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Coliform organisms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Coliform organisms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Presumptive Coliform Test : (Screening test)</li><li>• Presumptive Coliform Test : (Screening test)</li><li>• MPN Multiple Tube test: Is based on estimating the most probable number (MPN) of coliform organisms in 100 ml of water Culture medium: McConkey’s Lactose Bile Salt broth Indicator: Bromocresol purple Presumption: Tubes showing fermentation (acid &amp; gas) contain coliforms Method: 4 tubes inoculated with 0.1, 1.0, 10, 50 ml of water &amp; incubated for 48 hrs Confirmatory tests (EIKJMAN’S Tests) : Subculture each presumptive positive tube in 2 tubes of brilliant green bile broth. Incubate one tube at 37 °C × 48 hrs : confirmation of presence of coliforms Incubate second tube at 44° C × 6–24 hrs : confirmation of presence of E.coli True MPN Index : Calculate revised MPN from McCrady’s tables</li><li>• MPN Multiple Tube test: Is based on estimating the most probable number (MPN) of coliform organisms in 100 ml of water Culture medium: McConkey’s Lactose Bile Salt broth Indicator: Bromocresol purple Presumption: Tubes showing fermentation (acid &amp; gas) contain coliforms Method: 4 tubes inoculated with 0.1, 1.0, 10, 50 ml of water &amp; incubated for 48 hrs Confirmatory tests (EIKJMAN’S Tests) : Subculture each presumptive positive tube in 2 tubes of brilliant green bile broth.</li><li>• MPN Multiple Tube test:</li><li>• estimating</li><li>• number</li><li>• coliform organisms</li><li>• 100 ml of water</li><li>• Culture medium: McConkey’s Lactose Bile Salt broth Indicator: Bromocresol purple Presumption: Tubes showing fermentation (acid &amp; gas) contain coliforms Method: 4 tubes inoculated with 0.1, 1.0, 10, 50 ml of water &amp; incubated for 48 hrs Confirmatory tests (EIKJMAN’S Tests) : Subculture each presumptive positive tube in 2 tubes of brilliant green bile broth.</li><li>• Culture medium: McConkey’s Lactose Bile Salt broth</li><li>• McConkey’s Lactose Bile Salt broth</li><li>• Indicator: Bromocresol purple</li><li>• Bromocresol purple</li><li>• Presumption: Tubes showing fermentation (acid &amp; gas) contain coliforms</li><li>• Tubes</li><li>• fermentation</li><li>• coliforms</li><li>• Method: 4 tubes inoculated with 0.1, 1.0, 10, 50 ml of water &amp; incubated for 48 hrs</li><li>• 4 tubes inoculated</li><li>• 0.1, 1.0, 10, 50 ml</li><li>• water</li><li>• incubated</li><li>• 48 hrs</li><li>• Confirmatory tests (EIKJMAN’S Tests) : Subculture each presumptive positive tube in 2 tubes of brilliant green bile broth.</li><li>• Confirmatory tests</li><li>• (EIKJMAN’S Tests)</li><li>• presumptive positive tube</li><li>• 2 tubes</li><li>• brilliant green bile broth.</li><li>• Incubate one tube at 37 °C × 48 hrs : confirmation of presence of coliforms</li><li>• Incubate</li><li>• one</li><li>• 37 °C × 48 hrs</li><li>• confirmation</li><li>• coliforms</li><li>• Incubate second tube at 44° C × 6–24 hrs : confirmation of presence of E.coli True MPN Index : Calculate revised MPN from McCrady’s tables</li><li>• Incubate second</li><li>• 44° C × 6–24 hrs</li><li>• E.coli</li><li>• True MPN Index : Calculate revised MPN from McCrady’s tables</li><li>• True MPN Index : Calculate revised MPN from McCrady’s tables</li><li>• True MPN Index</li><li>• MPN</li><li>• McCrady’s tables</li><li>• Membrane Filtration Technique: Membrane : cellulose ester Method: pass known volume of water through membrane , inoculate membrane on suitable media, count colonies in 20 hrs.</li><li>• Membrane Filtration Technique: Membrane : cellulose ester Method: pass known volume of water through membrane , inoculate membrane on suitable media, count colonies in 20 hrs.</li><li>• Membrane Filtration Technique:</li><li>• Membrane : cellulose ester Method: pass known volume of water through membrane , inoculate membrane on suitable media, count colonies in 20 hrs.</li><li>• Membrane : cellulose ester</li><li>• : cellulose ester</li><li>• Method: pass known volume of water through membrane , inoculate membrane on suitable media, count colonies in 20 hrs.</li><li>• known</li><li>• membrane</li><li>• inoculate</li><li>• membrane</li><li>• count colonies</li><li>• 20 hrs.</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Coliform organisms : Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality, E. coli is most important coliform indicator and the reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution Rather Than Water Borne Pathogens - Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters Easily detectable by culture methods Longer survival period Greater resistance to forces of natural purification Fecal streptococci Indicates ‘ recent contamination of water’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘ remote contamination of water’</li><li>• Coliform organisms : Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality, E. coli is most important coliform indicator and the reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution Rather Than Water Borne Pathogens - Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters Easily detectable by culture methods Longer survival period Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• Coliform organisms</li><li>• Primary</li><li>• reliable bacterial indicator</li><li>• water</li><li>• E. coli</li><li>• coliform indicator</li><li>• choosing coliforms</li><li>• fecal pollution</li><li>• Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters Easily detectable by culture methods Longer survival period Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters</li><li>• Constant presence</li><li>• great</li><li>• human intestine</li><li>• foreign</li><li>• potable waters</li><li>• Easily detectable by culture methods</li><li>• Easily detectable</li><li>• culture methods</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• resistance</li><li>• natural purification</li><li>• Fecal streptococci Indicates ‘ recent contamination of water’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘ remote contamination of water’</li><li>• Fecal streptococci Indicates</li><li>• recent contamination</li><li>• water’</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens</li><li>• remote contamination</li><li>• water’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The presumptive count test for bacteriological surveillance of water is based on the estimation of the presence of coliform bacteria, serving as an indicator of potential fecal contamination and the possible presence of pathogens .</li><li>➤ presumptive count</li><li>➤ bacteriological surveillance</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ estimation</li><li>➤ presence</li><li>➤ coliform bacteria,</li><li>➤ indicator</li><li>➤ potential fecal contamination</li><li>➤ presence</li><li>➤ pathogens</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Medical Officer of PHC is tasked with disinfecting a circular well in his village. The well has a diameter of 4 meters and a depth of 10 meters. Using a standard bleaching powder that contains 33% chlorine and the Horrocks apparatus for testing, the officer observes a definite blue color in the 4th cup onwards. How many grams of the bleaching powder are required to effectively disinfect the well?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2109", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2209", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2149", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2249", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2209", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2209</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Horrocks apparatus is devised to find bleaching powder requirements to disinfect 455 litres of water .</li><li>• Horrocks apparatus</li><li>• devised</li><li>• bleaching powder</li><li>• disinfect 455 litres</li><li>• water</li><li>• Volume of water in the circular well</li><li>• Volume</li><li>• water</li><li>• circular well</li><li>• = πr 2 h*1000</li><li>• πr 2 h*1000</li><li>• = 3.14*2*2*10*1000</li><li>• = 125,600</li><li>• Volume of water in the well- 125,600 litres</li><li>• water</li><li>• well- 125,600 litres</li><li>• Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand): n × 2 gm to disinfect 455 litres of water</li><li>• Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand): n × 2 gm to disinfect 455 litres of water</li><li>• (where n = no. of first cup which shows distinct blue colour).</li><li>• (where n = no. of first cup which shows distinct blue colour).</li><li>• 4 th cup showed blue colour = 4*2 = 8 gms.</li><li>• 4 th cup</li><li>• Amount of bleaching powder required</li><li>• bleaching powder</li><li>• = 8*125600/ 455</li><li>• 8*125600/ 455</li><li>• = 2209 gms</li><li>• 2209 gms</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder required for disinfection of water is found by Horrock’s apparatus Fresh bleaching powder contains 33% chlorine Contact time for chlorination of water 1 hour Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand): n × 2 gm to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no. of first cup which shows distinct blue colour) 1 cubic meter =1000 Litres</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder required for disinfection of water is found by Horrock’s apparatus</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder</li><li>➤ disinfection</li><li>➤ Horrock’s apparatus</li><li>➤ Fresh bleaching powder contains 33% chlorine</li><li>➤ Fresh bleaching powder</li><li>➤ 33% chlorine</li><li>➤ Contact time for chlorination of water 1 hour</li><li>➤ chlorination</li><li>➤ water 1 hour</li><li>➤ Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand): n × 2 gm to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no. of first cup which shows distinct blue colour)</li><li>➤ Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand): n × 2 gm to disinfect 455 litres of water</li><li>➤ 1 cubic meter =1000 Litres</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 820.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water treatment plant operator is adjusting the pH levels of water during the chlorination process to maximize the disinfecting action of chlorine. At which pH level does chlorine exhibit its highest disinfecting efficacy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "7", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 7", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 7</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chlorine is most effective as a disinfectant when the pH of the water is around neutral (pH 7). At this pH level, chlorine is predominantly in the form of hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which has strong disinfecting properties.</li><li>• Chlorine</li><li>• most effective</li><li>• disinfectant</li><li>• pH</li><li>• water</li><li>• (pH 7).</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• predominantly</li><li>• hypochlorous acid (HOCl),</li><li>• strong</li><li>• disinfecting properties.</li><li>• Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to Hypochlorous acid (HOCl – Main role in disinfection 90%) and Hypochlorite ions (OCl– Minor role in disinfection 10%)</li><li>• Disinfecting</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• water</li><li>• Hypochlorous acid (HOCl</li><li>• Main</li><li>• Hypochlorite ions</li><li>• Minor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chlorine is most effective as a disinfectant when the pH of the water is 7.</li><li>➤ Chlorine</li><li>➤ effective</li><li>➤ disinfectant</li><li>➤ pH</li><li>➤ 7.</li><li>➤ Level of residual chlorine to be maintained in drinking water is &gt; 0.5 mg/l (&gt; 0.5 ppm) for a contact period of 1 hour.</li><li>➤ Level</li><li>➤ residual chlorine</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ &gt; 0.5 mg/l (&gt;</li><li>➤ 0.5 ppm)</li><li>➤ contact period</li><li>➤ 1</li><li>➤ Level of residual chlorine to be maintained in all water bodies in post-disaster phase is &gt; 0.7 mg/l (&gt; 0.7 ppm) .</li><li>➤ Level</li><li>➤ residual chlorine</li><li>➤ all water bodies</li><li>➤ post-disaster phase is &gt; 0.7 mg/l (&gt; 0.7 ppm) .</li><li>➤ Level of residual chlorine to be maintained for swimming pool sanitation is &gt; 1.0 mg/l (&gt; 1.0 ppm).</li><li>➤ Level</li><li>➤ residual chlorine</li><li>➤ swimming pool sanitation</li><li>➤ 1.0 mg/l (&gt; 1.0 ppm).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808 .</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is evaluating the chlorine levels in a local swimming pool to ensure safety and hygiene. What is the minimum free residual chlorine concentration required to maintain adequate protection against microorganisms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 ppm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 ppm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 ppm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-121705.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 ppm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Recommended contact period of free residual chlorine in water: 1 hour</li><li>• contact period</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• 1 hour</li><li>• Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>• Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To maintain adequate protection against microorganisms in a swimming pool, the free residual chlorine concentration should be maintained at ≥1 mg/L (ppm). This ensures effective disinfection and safe water quality for swimmers .</li><li>➤ adequate protection</li><li>➤ against microorganisms</li><li>➤ swimming pool,</li><li>➤ free residual chlorine</li><li>➤ at ≥1 mg/L</li><li>➤ (ppm).</li><li>➤ effective disinfection</li><li>➤ safe water quality</li><li>➤ swimmers</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 822</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 822</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is educating a rural village about the benefits of the Swajaldhara program. What is the primary aim of this initiative?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Provision of safe drinking water", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Provision of food supplements for destitute women", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Provision of health care for sick tribals", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Provision of safe drinking water", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Provision of safe drinking water</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SWAJALDHARA PROGRAMME - Launched at 25 December 2002</li><li>• SWAJALDHARA PROGRAMME -</li><li>• 25 December 2002</li><li>• Current status: Renamed as National Rural Drinking Water Programme (2009), a component of Bharat Nirman Description: Community led, participatory programme with the aim of providing drinking water in rural areas through community participation Swajaldhara I (First dhara) : Gram panchayat /Group of panchayats ( Block/Tehsil level ) Swajaldhara II (Second dhara): District level Key features/components: Government: planning, policy, monitoring and evaluation Panchayat/Village water &amp; Sanitation committee: Plan, implement, operate, maintain, manage project . Integrated service delivery mechanisms: Water conservation ( rain water harvesting, Ground water recharge )</li><li>• Current status: Renamed as National Rural Drinking Water Programme (2009), a component of Bharat Nirman</li><li>• Current</li><li>• Renamed</li><li>• National Rural Drinking Water Programme</li><li>• Bharat Nirman</li><li>• Description: Community led, participatory programme with the aim of providing drinking water in rural areas through community participation Swajaldhara I (First dhara) : Gram panchayat /Group of panchayats ( Block/Tehsil level ) Swajaldhara II (Second dhara): District level</li><li>• Community led, participatory programme with the aim of providing drinking water in rural areas through community participation</li><li>• Swajaldhara I (First dhara) : Gram panchayat /Group of panchayats ( Block/Tehsil level ) Swajaldhara II (Second dhara): District level</li><li>• Swajaldhara I (First dhara) : Gram panchayat /Group of panchayats ( Block/Tehsil level )</li><li>• Swajaldhara I (First dhara)</li><li>• Gram panchayat</li><li>• Block/Tehsil level</li><li>• Swajaldhara II (Second dhara): District level</li><li>• Swajaldhara II (Second dhara):</li><li>• District level</li><li>• Key features/components: Government: planning, policy, monitoring and evaluation Panchayat/Village water &amp; Sanitation committee: Plan, implement, operate, maintain, manage project . Integrated service delivery mechanisms: Water conservation ( rain water harvesting, Ground water recharge )</li><li>• Government: planning, policy, monitoring and evaluation Panchayat/Village water &amp; Sanitation committee: Plan, implement, operate, maintain, manage project . Integrated service delivery mechanisms: Water conservation ( rain water harvesting, Ground water recharge )</li><li>• Government: planning, policy, monitoring and evaluation</li><li>• Government: planning, policy, monitoring and evaluation</li><li>• Panchayat/Village water &amp; Sanitation committee: Plan, implement, operate, maintain, manage project .</li><li>• Panchayat/Village water &amp; Sanitation committee:</li><li>• Plan, implement, operate, maintain, manage project</li><li>• Integrated service delivery mechanisms: Water conservation ( rain water harvesting, Ground water recharge )</li><li>• Integrated</li><li>• delivery</li><li>• Water conservation</li><li>• rain water harvesting, Ground water recharge</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SWAJALDHARA PROGRAMME is a Community-led , participatory program with the aim of providing drinking water in rural areas through community participation.</li><li>➤ SWAJALDHARA PROGRAMME</li><li>➤ Community-led</li><li>➤ aim</li><li>➤ drinking water</li><li>➤ rural areas</li><li>➤ community participation.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 536.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 536.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water treatment technician is assessing the quality of water in a rural community. Which of the following methods should he use to estimate the chlorine demand of the water?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chlorometer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Horrock’s apparatu", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chloroscope", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Double pot method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Horrock’s apparatu", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/image_2yp7rtI.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Horrock’s apparatus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Horrock’s Apparatus</li><li>• Horrock’s Apparatus</li><li>• Use: To find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water, i.e. ‘ Chlorine demand estimation of water’ Contents: 6 white cups (200 ml capacity each) 1 Black cup (with a circular mark inside) 2 metal spoons 7 glass stirring rods Indicator: Starch iodide (producing blue colour) Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand) = n × 2 gms to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no . of first cup which shows distinct blue colour) Development of blue colour indicates : presence of free residual chlorine.</li><li>• Use: To find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water, i.e. ‘ Chlorine demand estimation of water’</li><li>• find</li><li>• dose</li><li>• bleaching powder</li><li>• disinfection</li><li>• water,</li><li>• Chlorine demand estimation of water’</li><li>• Contents: 6 white cups (200 ml capacity each) 1 Black cup (with a circular mark inside) 2 metal spoons 7 glass stirring rods</li><li>• 6 white cups (200 ml capacity each) 1 Black cup (with a circular mark inside) 2 metal spoons 7 glass stirring rods</li><li>• 6 white cups (200 ml capacity each)</li><li>• 6 white cups</li><li>• 1 Black cup (with a circular mark inside)</li><li>• 1 Black cup</li><li>• 2 metal spoons</li><li>• 2 metal spoons</li><li>• 7 glass stirring rods</li><li>• 7 glass stirring rods</li><li>• Indicator: Starch iodide (producing blue colour) Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand) = n × 2 gms to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no . of first cup which shows distinct blue colour) Development of blue colour indicates : presence of free residual chlorine.</li><li>• Indicator: Starch iodide (producing blue colour)</li><li>• Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand) = n × 2 gms to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no . of first cup which shows distinct blue colour) Development of blue colour indicates : presence of free residual chlorine.</li><li>• Dose of bleaching powder required (Chlorine demand) = n × 2 gms to disinfect 455 litres of water (where n = no . of first cup which shows distinct blue colour)</li><li>• Dose</li><li>• bleaching powder</li><li>• n × 2 gms</li><li>• 455 litres</li><li>• n = no</li><li>• first cup</li><li>• distinct blue colour)</li><li>• Development of blue colour indicates : presence of free residual chlorine.</li><li>• blue colour indicates</li><li>• free residual chlorine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The chlorine demand of water is estimated by Horrock’s apparatus.</li><li>➤ chlorine demand</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ Horrock’s apparatus.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 811.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 811.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old water treatment technician is tasked with evaluating the quality of water in a rural community. He is specifically looking at various microbial indicators to assess water contamination. Which of the following statements about water quality estimation is INCORRECT?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Clostridium spores indicate recent contamination", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Not more than 5% samples should have coliforms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sodium thiosulfate added to neutralize chlorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fecal streptococci indicates recent contamination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Clostridium spores indicate recent contamination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-122154.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Clostridium spores indicate recent contamination.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of clostridium spores in the absence of coliforms indicates faecal contamination at remote time.</li><li>• presence</li><li>• clostridium spores</li><li>• absence</li><li>• coliforms</li><li>• faecal contamination</li><li>• remote time.</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Bacteriological Indicators of Water Quality</li><li>• Coliform organisms : Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality, E. coli is most important coliform indicator and the reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution rather than water borne Pathogens - Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters Easily detectable by culture methods Longer survival period Greater resistance to forces of natural purification Standard for bacterial water quality in small community supplies is \" No coliforms\" Confirmatory tes for coliform count in drinking water Eijkman test Acceptable level of coliforms in drinking water: None - EXCEPTION: In large urban supplies, up to 5% samples are acceptable to be contaminated, if taken continuously for a period of 12 month. Fecal streptococci Indicates ‘ recent contamination of water’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘remote contamination of water’</li><li>• Coliform organisms : Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality, E. coli is most important coliform indicator and the reasons for choosing coliforms as indicators of fecal pollution rather than water borne Pathogens -</li><li>• Coliform organisms</li><li>• most reliable</li><li>• water quality,</li><li>• E. coli</li><li>• coliform indicator</li><li>• choosing coliforms</li><li>• indicators</li><li>• fecal pollution</li><li>• water borne</li><li>• Pathogens -</li><li>• Constant presence in great abundance in human intestine ; foreign to potable waters</li><li>• Constant</li><li>• great</li><li>• human intestine</li><li>• foreign</li><li>• potable waters</li><li>• Easily detectable by culture methods</li><li>• Easily detectable</li><li>• culture methods</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Longer survival period</li><li>• Greater resistance to forces of natural purification</li><li>• Greater resistance</li><li>• natural purification</li><li>• Standard for bacterial water quality in small community supplies is \" No coliforms\"</li><li>• water quality</li><li>• No coliforms\"</li><li>• Confirmatory tes for coliform count in drinking water Eijkman test</li><li>• Confirmatory tes</li><li>• coliform count</li><li>• Eijkman test</li><li>• Acceptable level of coliforms in drinking water: None - EXCEPTION: In large urban supplies, up to 5% samples are acceptable to be contaminated, if taken continuously for a period of 12 month.</li><li>• None -</li><li>• large urban</li><li>• 5% samples</li><li>• acceptable</li><li>• contaminated,</li><li>• 12 month.</li><li>• Fecal streptococci Indicates ‘ recent contamination of water’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘remote contamination of water’</li><li>• Fecal streptococci</li><li>• recent contamination</li><li>• water’</li><li>• Clostridium perfringens</li><li>• ‘remote contamination</li><li>• water’</li><li>• Periodicity of water sample collection for bacteriological examination:</li><li>• Periodicity</li><li>• water sample collection</li><li>• bacteriological examination:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms is the Primary &amp; most reliable bacterial indicator for water quality, Fecal streptococci Indicates ‘recent contamination of water’ and Clostridium perfringens indicates ‘ remote contamination of water’.</li><li>➤ Coliform organisms</li><li>➤ Primary</li><li>➤ reliable bacterial</li><li>➤ water quality, Fecal streptococci</li><li>➤ ‘recent contamination of water’</li><li>➤ Clostridium perfringens</li><li>➤ remote</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 815, 816.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 815, 816.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old engineer at a water treatment facility is conducting a training session on the limitations of chlorine disinfection. He emphasizes that while chlorine is effective against a wide range of pathogens, some organisms are resistant to standard chlorine doses. Which of the following organisms is known to be resistant to standard doses of chlorine used in water treatment?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "E coli", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vibrio Cholera", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polio", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Klebsiella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Polio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Polio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. E. coli: Generally susceptible to standard chlorination , commonly associated with waterborne outbreaks where there is fecal contamination of water.</li><li>• Option A. E. coli:</li><li>• susceptible</li><li>• standard chlorination</li><li>• waterborne outbreaks where there is fecal contamination of water.</li><li>• Option B. Vibrio cholerae: Is susceptible to chlorine used in water treatment .</li><li>• Option B. Vibrio cholerae:</li><li>• susceptible</li><li>• chlorine</li><li>• water treatment</li><li>• Option D. Klebsiella: It is generally susceptible to standard water chlorination.</li><li>• Option D. Klebsiella:</li><li>• susceptible</li><li>• standard water chlorination.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Chlorine has no effect on spores and certain viruses – Viral Hepatitis and Polio except in high doses. Cryptosporidium , a protozoan parasite also known for its resistance to standard dose of chlorine disinfection .</li><li>➤ Chlorine has no effect on spores and certain viruses – Viral Hepatitis and Polio except in high doses.</li><li>➤ Chlorine</li><li>➤ no effect</li><li>➤ spores</li><li>➤ certain viruses</li><li>➤ Viral Hepatitis and Polio except</li><li>➤ high doses.</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium , a protozoan parasite also known for its resistance to standard dose of chlorine disinfection .</li><li>➤ Cryptosporidium</li><li>➤ its resistance</li><li>➤ standard</li><li>➤ chlorine disinfection</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 808</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 808</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is discussing the goals of a nationwide sanitation campaign in India during a community health meeting. She emphasizes the government's commitment to enhancing public health through improving sanitation facilities and practices. By what year did the Swachh Bharat Mission aim to achieve its goal of proper sanitation across the country?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "February 2019", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "February 2020", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "October 2019", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "October 2020", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. October 2019", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/image_UeFy5xo.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. October 2019</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Abhiyan or Swachh Bharat Mission , a national campaign by the government of India to clean streets, roads and infrastructure of the country. Accelerate sanitation coverage in rural area to achieve the vision of Swachh Bharat by 2nd October 2019. (By construction of 12 million toilets)</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Abhiyan</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Mission</li><li>• government</li><li>• India</li><li>• clean streets, roads</li><li>• infrastructure</li><li>• country.</li><li>• Accelerate sanitation</li><li>• rural area</li><li>• vision</li><li>• Swachh Bharat</li><li>• 2nd October 2019. (By construction of 12 million toilets)</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Mission–Gramin (SBM-G)</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Mission–Gramin (SBM-G)</li><li>• Key objectives: Improve Quality of life by promoting cleanliness, hygiene and elimination of open defecation. Accelerate sanitation coverage to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2 October 2019. Motivate communities and PRIs to adopt sustainable sanitation practices and facilities Cost-effective and appropriate technologies for ecologically safe, sustainable sanitation. Development of community-managed sanitation systems (Solid and liquid waste management)</li><li>• Key objectives: Improve Quality of life by promoting cleanliness, hygiene and elimination of open defecation. Accelerate sanitation coverage to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2 October 2019. Motivate communities and PRIs to adopt sustainable sanitation practices and facilities Cost-effective and appropriate technologies for ecologically safe, sustainable sanitation. Development of community-managed sanitation systems (Solid and liquid waste management)</li><li>• Improve Quality of life by promoting cleanliness, hygiene and elimination of open defecation. Accelerate sanitation coverage to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2 October 2019. Motivate communities and PRIs to adopt sustainable sanitation practices and facilities Cost-effective and appropriate technologies for ecologically safe, sustainable sanitation. Development of community-managed sanitation systems (Solid and liquid waste management)</li><li>• Improve Quality of life by promoting cleanliness, hygiene and elimination of open defecation.</li><li>• Improve Quality</li><li>• cleanliness, hygiene</li><li>• elimination</li><li>• open defecation.</li><li>• Accelerate sanitation coverage to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2 October 2019.</li><li>• Accelerate sanitation coverage to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2 October 2019.</li><li>• Motivate communities and PRIs to adopt sustainable sanitation practices and facilities</li><li>• Cost-effective and appropriate technologies for ecologically safe, sustainable sanitation.</li><li>• Cost-effective</li><li>• technologies</li><li>• ecologically safe,</li><li>• sustainable sanitation.</li><li>• Development of community-managed sanitation systems (Solid and liquid waste management)</li><li>• community-managed sanitation systems</li><li>• Components: Construction of toilets in Government schools ( Ministry of Human Resource and Development ) Rural school sanitation - Separate Boys/Girls toilets ( Department of School Education ) Construction of toilets in Anganwadi centers ( Ministry of Women and Child Development )</li><li>• Components: Construction of toilets in Government schools ( Ministry of Human Resource and Development ) Rural school sanitation - Separate Boys/Girls toilets ( Department of School Education ) Construction of toilets in Anganwadi centers ( Ministry of Women and Child Development )</li><li>• Construction of toilets in Government schools ( Ministry of Human Resource and Development ) Rural school sanitation - Separate Boys/Girls toilets ( Department of School Education ) Construction of toilets in Anganwadi centers ( Ministry of Women and Child Development )</li><li>• Construction of toilets in Government schools ( Ministry of Human Resource and Development )</li><li>• Construction</li><li>• toilets</li><li>• Government schools</li><li>• Ministry of Human Resource and Development</li><li>• Rural school sanitation - Separate Boys/Girls toilets ( Department of School Education )</li><li>• Rural school sanitation</li><li>• Boys/Girls toilets</li><li>• Department of School Education</li><li>• Construction of toilets in Anganwadi centers ( Ministry of Women and Child Development )</li><li>• Construction</li><li>• toilets</li><li>• Anganwadi centers</li><li>• Ministry of Women and Child Development</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U)</li><li>• Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U)</li><li>• Key objectives: Elimination of Open defecation Eradication of manual scavenging Modern and scientific municipal solid waste management Behavior change regarding healthy sanitation practices Awareness generation of sanitation and its linkage with public health Capacity augmentation Private sector participation</li><li>• Key objectives: Elimination of Open defecation Eradication of manual scavenging Modern and scientific municipal solid waste management Behavior change regarding healthy sanitation practices Awareness generation of sanitation and its linkage with public health Capacity augmentation Private sector participation</li><li>• Elimination of Open defecation Eradication of manual scavenging Modern and scientific municipal solid waste management Behavior change regarding healthy sanitation practices Awareness generation of sanitation and its linkage with public health Capacity augmentation Private sector participation</li><li>• Elimination of Open defecation</li><li>• Elimination</li><li>• defecation</li><li>• Eradication of manual scavenging</li><li>• Eradication</li><li>• scavenging</li><li>• Modern and scientific municipal solid waste management</li><li>• Modern</li><li>• scientific</li><li>• solid waste</li><li>• Behavior change regarding healthy sanitation practices</li><li>• Behavior change</li><li>• healthy sanitation</li><li>• Awareness generation of sanitation and its linkage with public health</li><li>• Awareness</li><li>• sanitation</li><li>• its linkage</li><li>• public health</li><li>• Capacity augmentation</li><li>• Private sector participation</li><li>• Private sector participation</li><li>• Components:</li><li>• Components:</li><li>• Household toilets (and conversion of insanitary latrines to pour-flush latrines Community toilets Public toilets Solid waste management IEC and public awareness Capacity building Implementation by: Ministry of Urban Development</li><li>• Household toilets (and conversion of insanitary latrines to pour-flush latrines Community toilets Public toilets Solid waste management IEC and public awareness Capacity building Implementation by: Ministry of Urban Development</li><li>• Household toilets</li><li>• Community toilets Public toilets Solid waste management IEC and public awareness Capacity building Implementation by: Ministry of Urban Development</li><li>• Community toilets</li><li>• Public toilets</li><li>• Public toilets</li><li>• Solid waste management</li><li>• Solid waste</li><li>• IEC and public awareness</li><li>• public</li><li>• Capacity building</li><li>• Implementation by: Ministry of Urban Development</li><li>• Ministry of Urban Development</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Swachh Bharat Abhiyan or Swachh Bharat Mission , aims to achieve its goal of proper sanitation across the country by 2nd October 2019.</li><li>➤ Swachh Bharat Abhiyan</li><li>➤ Swachh Bharat Mission</li><li>➤ sanitation</li><li>➤ 2nd October 2019.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 537.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 537.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A water treatment plant technician is adjusting the settings on a rapid sand filter to optimize its performance. He needs to set the correct rate of filtration to ensure efficient operation. What is the standard rate of filtration for a rapid sand filter?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 m.g.a.d.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2-3 m.g.a.d.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200 m.g.a.d.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "500 m.g.a.d.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 200 m.g.a.d.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-122716.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 200 m.g.a.d.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rate of filtration of rapid sand filter: 200 m.g.a.d.</li><li>• Rate of filtration</li><li>• rapid sand filter: 200 m.g.a.d.</li><li>• Rate of filtration of slow sand filter: 2-3 m.g.a.d.</li><li>• Rate of filtration</li><li>• slow sand filter: 2-3 m.g.a.d.</li><li>• Comparison of Rapid and Slow Sand Filters -</li><li>• Comparison of Rapid and Slow Sand Filters -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rate of filtration of rapid sand filter: 200 m.g.a.d. and of slow sand filter: 2-3 m.g.a.d.</li><li>➤ Rate</li><li>➤ filtration</li><li>➤ rapid sand filter:</li><li>➤ 200</li><li>➤ slow sand filter:</li><li>➤ 2-3 m.g.a.d.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 807.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 807.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A newly joined technician at a water treatment facility is tasked with ensuring the effectiveness of the disinfection processes used to treat the water supply. The facility uses both ozonation and chlorination methods for disinfection. Understanding the required contact time for each method is crucial for effective water treatment and ensuring public health safety. What are the required contact periods for ozonation and chlorination methods of water disinfection, respectively, in a water treatment facility?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30 mins and 1 hour respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 hour for both", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 minutes and 1 hour respectively", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 minutes for both", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 20 minutes and 1 hour respectively", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115534.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 20 minutes and 1 hour respectively.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The presence of free residual chlorine for a contact period of at least one hour is essential to kill bacteria and viruses.</li><li>• free residual chlorine</li><li>• one hour</li><li>• kill bacteria</li><li>• viruses.</li><li>• Ozonation - a residual of about 0.5 mg/l after a contact time of upto 20 minutes. (Range 0.1 - 2.0 mg/L after a contact time of 1-30 minutes)</li><li>• Ozonation</li><li>• residual</li><li>• 0.5 mg/l</li><li>• 20 minutes. (Range 0.1 - 2.0 mg/L after a contact time of 1-30 minutes)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>➤ Level of free residual chlorine (FRC) recommended:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 810</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 810</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A facility manager at a community center is overseeing the maintenance of the swimming pool, and he wants to ensure that all staff understand the key principles of swimming pool sanitation. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding swimming pool sanitation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Residual chlorine should be 1 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50% of water should be replaced by fresh water daily", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "All waters should be re-filtered in less than 6 hours.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rapid sand filters were used for swimming pool sanitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50% of water should be replaced by fresh water daily", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 50% of water should be replaced by fresh water daily.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Swimming pools are equipped with rapid sand filters . The filtering is continuous - all the water is refiltered in less than 6 hours. Part of the water , up to 15 percent , should be replaced by fresh water every day .</li><li>• Swimming pools</li><li>• equipped</li><li>• rapid sand filters</li><li>• filtering</li><li>• all</li><li>• water</li><li>• refiltered</li><li>• less</li><li>• Part</li><li>• water</li><li>• 15 percent</li><li>• replaced</li><li>• fresh water every day</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sanitation Measures for Swimming Pool Sanitation</li><li>➤ Sanitation Measures for Swimming Pool Sanitation</li><li>➤ Recommended area : Recommended area is a minimum 2.2 sq. metre (24 sq. ft.) per swimmer Surveillance: Rules and regulations to be posted in appropriate place Filtration of water : Water to be refiltered in less than 6 hours (rapid sand filters); 15% water to be replaced by fresh water everyday Chlorination of water: Residual level of free chlorine to be &gt; 1.0 ppm to protect against bacterial and viral agents pH of water: 7.4-7.8 Bacteriological quality of water : To be as close to standards prescribed for drinking water.</li><li>➤ Recommended area : Recommended area is a minimum 2.2 sq. metre (24 sq. ft.) per swimmer</li><li>➤ Recommended area</li><li>➤ minimum 2.2 sq. metre</li><li>➤ per swimmer</li><li>➤ Surveillance: Rules and regulations to be posted in appropriate place</li><li>➤ Surveillance:</li><li>➤ Rules</li><li>➤ regulations</li><li>➤ posted</li><li>➤ appropriate place</li><li>➤ Filtration of water : Water to be refiltered in less than 6 hours (rapid sand filters); 15% water to be replaced by fresh water everyday</li><li>➤ Filtration</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ refiltered</li><li>➤ less</li><li>➤ 6 hours</li><li>➤ 15% water to be replaced by fresh water everyday</li><li>➤ Chlorination of water: Residual level of free chlorine to be &gt; 1.0 ppm to protect against bacterial and viral agents</li><li>➤ Chlorination</li><li>➤ &gt; 1.0 ppm</li><li>➤ against bacterial and viral agents</li><li>➤ pH of water: 7.4-7.8</li><li>➤ 7.4-7.8</li><li>➤ Bacteriological quality of water : To be as close to standards prescribed for drinking water.</li><li>➤ Bacteriological</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ close</li><li>➤ standards prescribed</li><li>➤ drinking water.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 822.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 822.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In your college hostel, you have noticed alterations in the drinking water quality and decided to scrutinize the water quality standards, focusing particularly on water hardness. Evaluating your understanding of these standards, determine the accuracy of the following statement: \"Optimal consumption quality is achieved when drinking water maintains a moderate level of hardness.\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "False", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Can't comment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Incomplete data", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. True", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-123046.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. (A) True</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Drinking water should be moderately hard . Softening of water is recommended when the hardness exceeds 3 mEq/l ( 150 mg per litre of Calcium Carbonate ).</li><li>• Drinking water</li><li>• moderately hard</li><li>• Softening</li><li>• water</li><li>• hardness exceeds 3 mEq/l</li><li>• 150 mg</li><li>• Calcium Carbonate</li><li>• Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Classification of hardness in water:</li><li>• Level of residual chlorine to be maintained in drinking water is &gt; 0.5 mg/l (&gt; 0.5 ppm) for a contact period of 1 hour.</li><li>• residual chlorine</li><li>• drinking water</li><li>• &gt; 0.5 mg/l</li><li>• 1 hour.</li><li>• Chloroscope - Measures the level of residual chlorine in drinking water</li><li>• Chloroscope</li><li>• residual chlorine</li><li>• Winchester Quart bottle - Assess physical and chemical quality of drinking water.</li><li>• Winchester Quart bottle</li><li>• physical</li><li>• chemical quality</li><li>• drinking water.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Key guideline aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality:</li><li>➤ Key guideline aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality:</li><li>➤ Colour &lt; 15 true colour units ( TCU ) Turbidity &lt; 1 nephlometric turbidity units ( NTU ) pH: 6.5–8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminthes Fluoride &lt; 1.0 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/litre Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/litre Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/litre (New Guideline — WHO) Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/litre (New Guideline — WHO).</li><li>➤ Colour &lt; 15 true colour units ( TCU )</li><li>➤ Colour &lt; 15 true</li><li>➤ TCU</li><li>➤ Turbidity &lt; 1 nephlometric turbidity units ( NTU )</li><li>➤ Turbidity &lt; 1</li><li>➤ NTU</li><li>➤ pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>➤ pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>➤ Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Zero pathogenic microorganisms</li><li>➤ Zero</li><li>➤ microorganisms</li><li>➤ Zero infectious viruses</li><li>➤ Zero infectious viruses</li><li>➤ Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminthes</li><li>➤ Absence</li><li>➤ protozoa</li><li>➤ helminthes</li><li>➤ Fluoride &lt; 1.0 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level)</li><li>➤ Fluoride &lt; 1.0 ppm</li><li>➤ Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/litre (New Guideline — WHO)</li><li>➤ alpha</li><li>➤ &lt; 0.5 Bq/litre</li><li>➤ Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/litre (New Guideline — WHO).</li><li>➤ beta</li><li>➤ &lt; 1.0 Bq/litre</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 821</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 821</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A rural community is seeking guidance on safe water practices, particularly in relation to the construction of sanitary wells. As a Medical officer incharge of the serving community, you need to advise them on the importance of maintaining an adequate distance between the well and potential sources of contamination to prevent water contamination and ensure safe drinking water. What is the minimum recommended distance for this purpose?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "35 meters", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 meters", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 meters", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50 meters", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15 meters", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 15 meters</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sanitary Well Guidelines</li><li>• Sanitary Well Guidelines</li><li>• Location: &lt;100 m radial distance; &gt;15 m (50 feet) from source of contamination Lining: &gt;6 m (20 feet) depth ; &gt;60-90 cm (2-3 feet) above ground level Parapet wall : &gt;70-75 cms above ground Platform: &gt;1 m (3 feet) in all directions Other guidelines: Pucca drain to a soakage pit/public drain beyond cone of filtration ; cement concrete cover ; robust hand pump to withdraw water.</li><li>• Location: &lt;100 m radial distance; &gt;15 m (50 feet) from source of contamination</li><li>• &lt;100 m</li><li>• &gt;15 m (50 feet) from source of contamination</li><li>• Lining: &gt;6 m (20 feet) depth ; &gt;60-90 cm (2-3 feet) above ground level</li><li>• &gt;6 m (20 feet) depth</li><li>• &gt;60-90 cm (2-3 feet)</li><li>• Parapet wall : &gt;70-75 cms above ground</li><li>• Parapet wall</li><li>• &gt;70-75 cms</li><li>• Platform: &gt;1 m (3 feet) in all directions</li><li>• Platform: &gt;1 m (3 feet)</li><li>• Other guidelines: Pucca drain to a soakage pit/public drain beyond cone of filtration ; cement concrete cover ; robust hand pump to withdraw water.</li><li>• Pucca drain</li><li>• soakage pit/public drain</li><li>• cone</li><li>• filtration</li><li>• cement concrete cover</li><li>• robust hand pump</li><li>• water.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If bacterial contamination is to be avoided , the well should be located not less than 15 m (50 feet) from likely sources of contamination.</li><li>➤ bacterial contamination</li><li>➤ avoided</li><li>➤ located</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ 15 m (50 feet)</li><li>➤ contamination.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 803.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 803.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A postgraduate junior resident is conducting a survey in an urban slum community, evaluating the living conditions and ensuring they adhere to recommended housing standards. She pays special attention to the height of the roofs in residential buildings. Which of the following options best describes the minimum height requirement for the roofs in residential buildings according to recommended housing standards?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 ft", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "12 ft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 ft", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8 ft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 10 ft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 10 ft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances ; subsoil water below 10 feet Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient Rooms: should be depending on family size Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage Privy: Sanitary privy in each house Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply .</li><li>• Site: Elevated from surroundings; away from nuisances ; subsoil water below 10 feet</li><li>• Elevated</li><li>• surroundings;</li><li>• away from nuisances</li><li>• subsoil water below 10 feet</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Set back: Built up area upto 2/3 of total area</li><li>• Floor: Pucca; height of plinth 2–3 feet</li><li>• Walls: 9–inch brick wall plastered; low heat capacity</li><li>• Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient</li><li>• Roof: &gt; 10 feet in absence of air-conditioning; low heat transmittance coefficient</li><li>• Rooms: should be depending on family size</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Floor area: 50-100 sq. ft. per person</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Cubic space: &gt; 500 cu. ft. per capita</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Windows: Windows area 1/5 of floor area (Doors + windows area 2/5 of floor area); placed at height of not more than 3 ft from floor</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Lighting: Day light factor &gt; 1% over half of floor area</li><li>• Kitchen: Separate; impervious floor; adequately lighted; provided with water supply and drainage</li><li>• Privy: Sanitary privy in each house</li><li>• Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method</li><li>• Garbage and refuse: Sanitary disposal method</li><li>• Bathing and washing: Exclusive facilities</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply .</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and adequate water supply</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Rural Housing Standards in India</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms Ample verandah space Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3) Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform Sanitary latrine Windows area 10% of floor area Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage</li><li>• Minimum 2 living rooms</li><li>• Ample verandah space</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Built up area up to 1/3 of total area (set back 2/3)</li><li>• Separate kitchen with paved sink/platform</li><li>• Sanitary latrine</li><li>• Sanitary latrine</li><li>• Windows area 10% of floor area</li><li>• Windows</li><li>• 10%</li><li>• floor area</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube well within ¼ mile</li><li>• Sanitary well/tube</li><li>• ¼</li><li>• Cattle shed &gt; 25 ft away</li><li>• Cattle shed</li><li>• 25 ft away</li><li>• Adequate arrangement for disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The height of the roof should be more than 10 feet (3 m) in the absence of air-conditioning for comfort.</li><li>➤ height</li><li>➤ roof</li><li>➤ 10 feet (3 m)</li><li>➤ absence</li><li>➤ air-conditioning</li><li>➤ comfort.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 845.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A radiology technician in a busy hospital is responsible for conducting various diagnostic imaging procedures daily. To ensure safety, the technician wears protective equipment while performing these procedures. What should be the minimum thickness of the lead apron worn by the radiology technician to protect against scattered radiation during these procedures?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5 mm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 mm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 mm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 0.5 mm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 0.5 mm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lead aprons are a crucial component of personal protective equipment (PPE) in radiology , protecting against scattered and secondary radiation . For scattered radiation protection during diagnostic imaging procedures , a lead apron with a minimum thickness of 0.5 millimeters (mm) of lead equivalent is generally considered sufficient. (Primary level of prevention-specific protection)</li><li>• Lead aprons</li><li>• protective equipment (PPE)</li><li>• radiology</li><li>• against</li><li>• scattered and secondary radiation</li><li>• scattered radiation protection</li><li>• imaging procedures</li><li>• minimum thickness</li><li>• 0.5 millimeters (mm)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India: Rajasthan Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation 0.5 mm Endogenous radiation includes C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>➤ State with highest Solar radiation received in India: Rajasthan</li><li>➤ highest Solar radiation</li><li>➤ India: Rajasthan</li><li>➤ Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ Thickness</li><li>➤ lead apron</li><li>➤ prevent</li><li>➤ 0.5 mm</li><li>➤ Endogenous radiation includes C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>➤ Endogenous radiation</li><li>➤ C-14, K-40, Rb-87, Sr-90</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 837.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 837.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old civil engineer is working on a water supply project in a rural area. He is designing a well to ensure a clean and safe water supply for the local community. To minimize the risk of contamination, he plans to tap water from below the first impervious layer of soil. This type of well is referred to as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shallow well", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Deep well", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sanitary well", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dug well", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Deep well", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Deep well</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ground water:</li><li>• Ground water:</li><li>• Shallow wells - Moderately hard , grossly contaminated water ; Taps water from above 1st impervious layer. Deep wells - Much hard, pure water ; constant supply; Taps water from below 1st impervious layer Springs</li><li>• Shallow wells - Moderately hard , grossly contaminated water ; Taps water from above 1st impervious layer.</li><li>• Shallow wells</li><li>• hard</li><li>• contaminated water</li><li>• 1st impervious layer.</li><li>• Deep wells - Much hard, pure water ; constant supply; Taps water from below 1st impervious layer</li><li>• Deep wells</li><li>• hard, pure water</li><li>• Taps water from below 1st impervious layer</li><li>• Springs</li><li>• Springs</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Rain is the prime source of all water and is the purest form of water in nature because chemically , it is very soft water : contains traces (0.0005%) of solids</li><li>• Rain</li><li>• purest form</li><li>• water</li><li>• nature</li><li>• chemically</li><li>• very soft water</li><li>• (0.0005%)</li><li>• solids</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Confined/ deep well taps water from below the first impervious layer of soil, providing a safer option for sourcing drinking water compared to unconfined or shallow wells.</li><li>➤ Confined/ deep well taps</li><li>➤ below</li><li>➤ first impervious layer</li><li>➤ soil,</li><li>➤ safer</li><li>➤ drinking water compared</li><li>➤ unconfined</li><li>➤ shallow wells.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 802</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 802</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old environmental engineer is overseeing the maintenance procedures at a local water treatment plant. He notices that the flow rate through one of the filtration units has decreased significantly over the past week, indicating potential clogging due to accumulated impurities. He decides to initiate a maintenance procedure to restore the filter's efficiency. To address the issue of decreased flow rate through the filtration unit, the engineer decided to initiate a specific maintenance procedure. Which of the following filtration units primarily requires backwashing to dislodge accumulated impurities and restore optimal functionality?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alternate filter", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Peterson’s filter", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Membrane filter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ozonation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Peterson’s filter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-114815.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Peterson’s filter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rapid sand filters are of two types , the gravity type (e.g. Paterson’s filter ) and the pressure type (e.g. Candy’s filter ). Backwashing is done to dislodge impurities in Rapid sand filters .</li><li>• Rapid sand filters</li><li>• two types</li><li>• gravity type</li><li>• Paterson’s filter</li><li>• pressure type</li><li>• Candy’s filter</li><li>• Backwashing</li><li>• dislodge impurities</li><li>• Rapid sand filters</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>➤ Comparison of Rapid and Slow sand filters:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 808.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old laboratory technician in a water treatment plant is conducting various tests to ensure the safety and quality of drinking water. One of the critical aspects of ensuring water safety is determining the levels of chlorine present after the disinfection process. To assess the effectiveness of the water disinfection process, which of the following tests should the technician use to determine both free and combined chlorine levels separately?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ortho tolidine Arginate test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ortho tolidine test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ortho tolidine arsenite test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methyl phosphatase test", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ortho tolidine arsenite test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115326.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ortho tolidine arsenite test.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Orthotolidine-Arsenite (OTA) : Test determines the free and combined chlorine residuals separately.</li><li>• Orthotolidine-Arsenite (OTA)</li><li>• determines</li><li>• free</li><li>• combined chlorine residuals</li><li>• Instruments used in chlorination of water:</li><li>• Instruments used in chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water: Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test : Measure the levels of Free chlorine and Free &amp; Combined chlorine Ortho-toluidine Arsenite (OTA) Test: Measure the levels of Free chlorine and Combined chlorine, separately .</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Tests for chlorination of water:</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test : Measure the levels of Free chlorine and Free &amp; Combined chlorine</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine (OT) Test</li><li>• Free chlorine</li><li>• Free</li><li>• Combined chlorine</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine Arsenite (OTA) Test: Measure the levels of Free chlorine and Combined chlorine, separately .</li><li>• Ortho-toluidine Arsenite</li><li>• Free chlorine</li><li>• Combined chlorine, separately</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ OTA test is better than OT test as it detects both free and combined chlorine separately and not affected by interfering substances (nitrites, iron, manganese). Bleaching powder (CaOCl2)contains: 33% available chlorine Chlorine acts best as a disinfectant for water at pH around 7.0</li><li>➤ OTA test is better than OT test as it detects both free and combined chlorine separately and not affected by interfering substances (nitrites, iron, manganese).</li><li>➤ OTA test</li><li>➤ better</li><li>➤ OT test</li><li>➤ free and combined</li><li>➤ chlorine separately</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ interfering substances</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder (CaOCl2)contains: 33% available chlorine</li><li>➤ Bleaching powder</li><li>➤ 33%</li><li>➤ chlorine</li><li>➤ Chlorine acts best as a disinfectant for water at pH around 7.0</li><li>➤ Chlorine acts</li><li>➤ disinfectant</li><li>➤ water</li><li>➤ 7.0</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 809.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 809.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health officer is evaluating the quality of drinking water in a rural area. One of the parameters being assessed is the palatability of the water, which can be influenced by the total dissolved solids (TDS) content. What is the maximum acceptable level of TDS in the water for it to be considered palatable?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200 mg/l", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600 mg/l", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "500 mg/l", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "300 mg/l", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 500 mg/l", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/17/screenshot-2024-08-17-115850.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 500 mg/l</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects Recommended Drinking Water Quality</li><li>• Color &lt; 15 true color units (TCU) [&lt; 5 Hazen units] Turbidity &lt; 1 nephelometric turbidity unit (NTU) Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre calcium ion pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>• Color &lt; 15 true color units (TCU) [&lt; 5 Hazen units]</li><li>• Color &lt; 15 true</li><li>• Turbidity &lt; 1 nephelometric turbidity unit (NTU)</li><li>• Turbidity &lt; 1</li><li>• Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre calcium ion</li><li>• Hardness &lt; 100–300 mg/litre calcium ion</li><li>• pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>• pH: 6.5–8.5</li><li>• Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre *(BIS 2017)</li><li>• Total dissolved solids (TDS) &lt; 500 mg/litre *(BIS 2017)</li><li>• Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminths Fluoride &lt; 1 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/litre Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/litre Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO] Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li><li>• Zero pathogenic microorganisms</li><li>• Zero pathogenic microorganisms</li><li>• Zero infectious viruses</li><li>• Zero infectious viruses</li><li>• Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminths</li><li>• Absence</li><li>• helminths</li><li>• Fluoride &lt; 1 ppm (0.5–0.8 ppm: Optimum level)</li><li>• Fluoride &lt; 1 ppm</li><li>• Nitrates &lt; 45 mg/litre</li><li>• Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/litre</li><li>• Nitrites &lt; 3 mg/litre</li><li>• Gross alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li><li>• alpha radiological activity &lt; 0.5 Bq/L</li><li>• Gross beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/L [New Guideline — WHO]</li><li>• beta radiological activity &lt; 1.0 Bq/L</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects of NPCB (India) Recommended Drinking Water Quality:</li><li>• Key Guideline Aspects of NPCB (India) Recommended Drinking Water Quality:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The palatability of water is considered good if the total dissolved solids content is less than 500 mg/L.</li><li>➤ palatability</li><li>➤ good</li><li>➤ total dissolved solids content</li><li>➤ less than 500 mg/L.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 814.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 814.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 119 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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In the year following its introduction, a total of 251,880 people were reported to have been infected by the virus. The infection is noted to have a low mortality rate. As a public health professional, you are required to determine the correct epidemiological measure to describe the extent of the disease spread in the first year. Which of the following is accurate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The incidence of infection is 251,880 per year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The prevalence of infection is 251,880 per year", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The mortality rate is 24.2 per 1,000 person", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The 1-year cumulative incidence is 24.2 per 1,000 persons", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. The 1-year cumulative incidence is 24.2 per 1,000 persons", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/14/image_moJuNO4.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. The 1-year cumulative incidence is 24.2 per 1,000 persons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Incidence : Is defined as the ‘no. of new cases’ occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ ‘no. of new cases’</li><li>➤ population during a specified period of time</li><li>➤ Ref : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 64</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 64</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is analyzing different epidemiological measures to understand disease occurrence in a population. She needs to identify a measure where the numerator is not a part of the denominator. Which of the following measures fits this description?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ratio", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Percentage", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Proportion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Ratio", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Ratio</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Rate: A rate measures the occurrence of some particular event in a defined population during a given time-period . A rate comprises the following elements - numerator, denominator, time specification, and multiplier.</li><li>• Option A. Rate:</li><li>• measures the occurrence</li><li>• some particular event</li><li>• population</li><li>• given time-period</li><li>• Option C. Percentage: Numerator is a part of denominator in percentage</li><li>• Option C. Percentage:</li><li>• Numerator</li><li>• part of denominator</li><li>• percentage</li><li>• Option D. Proportion : A proportion is a ratio that indicates the relation in magnitude of a part of the whole . The numerator is always included in the denominator. A proportion is usually expressed as a percentage. Ex. Prevalence and Case fatality rate</li><li>• Option D. Proportion</li><li>• ratio that indicates the relation in magnitude</li><li>• part of the whole</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Incidence is a rate ; Prevalence is a proportion .</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ rate</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li><li>➤ proportion</li><li>➤ Ratio is an epidemiological measure where the numerator is not part of the denominator . It compares two distinct entities.</li><li>➤ Ratio</li><li>➤ epidemiological measure</li><li>➤ numerator</li><li>➤ not part of the denominator</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26th ed pg 63.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26th ed pg 63.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In District X with mid-year population of 1,20,000, during 2022, total of 2400 deaths were reported, among them 40 deaths out of 5000 cases were due to pneumonia. based on this information, calculate the case fatality rate of pneumonia in District X for 2022?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.8%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.6%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2.0%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.03%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.8%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/cfr.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) 0.8%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Case Fatality Rate -</li><li>➤ Case Fatality Rate -</li><li>➤ CFR represents ‘killing power of a disease’ It is ‘ closely related to virulence of organism CFR = Total no. of deaths due to a disease/Total no. of cases due to a disease × 100 CFR is a Proportion: Always expressed in percentage CFR is the ‘complement of Survival Rate’, thus CFR = 1 – Survival Rate</li><li>➤ CFR represents ‘killing power of a disease’</li><li>➤ CFR</li><li>➤ ‘killing power of a disease’</li><li>➤ It is ‘ closely related to virulence of organism</li><li>➤ closely related to virulence of organism</li><li>➤ CFR = Total no. of deaths due to a disease/Total no. of cases due to a disease × 100</li><li>➤ CFR is a Proportion: Always expressed in percentage</li><li>➤ CFR is the ‘complement of Survival Rate’, thus CFR = 1 – Survival Rate</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 66.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th ed pg 66.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the realm of public health and policy making, it is crucial to assess the impact of diseases not just in terms of mortality, but also in terms of the disability and reduced quality of life they cause. The policymakers in a certain region are focusing their efforts on interventions aimed at reducing premature disability caused by various health conditions. Which of the following indices would be the most appropriate and helpful for them to make informed decisions on where to allocate resources and which interventions to prioritize?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case-fatality", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crude mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disability-adjusted life-years", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Standardized mortality ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Disability-adjusted life-years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Disability-adjusted life-years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ DALYs can measure ‘both mortality and disability together’</li><li>➤ DALYs</li><li>➤ ‘both mortality and disability together’</li><li>➤ Case fatality rate measures ‘virulence of an organism’ or ‘killing power of a disease’</li><li>➤ Case fatality rate</li><li>➤ ‘virulence of an organism’</li><li>➤ ‘killing power of a disease’</li><li>➤ Dependency ratio measures the ‘need for society to provide for its’ younger and older groups’</li><li>➤ Dependency ratio</li><li>➤ ‘need for society to provide for its’ younger</li><li>➤ older groups’</li><li>➤ Morbidity data measures ‘any departure from health’</li><li>➤ Morbidity data</li><li>➤ ‘any departure from health’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 26.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 26.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In 2018, an oncology outpatient department of a tertiary care hospital documented 180 breast cancer diagnoses. All diagnosed patients immediately commenced treatment. Upon reevaluation five years later, it was determined that 32 of the initially diagnosed patients had succumbed to the disease. Based on this information, calculate the 5-year survival rate for breast cancer patients treated at this hospital.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "17.8%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "78.4%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "82.2%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "24.6%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 82.2%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705130431-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 82.2%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ 5-year survival rate –</li><li>➤ 5-year survival rate –</li><li>➤ Is used as ‘an index of success in cancer treatment’ Is not an appropriate measure to assess therapy that was introduced less than 5 years ago WHENEVER screening is performed: Higher 5-year survival rate is observed; THIS IS A POTENTIAL BIAS DUE TO earlier diagnosis being made (and not because people live longer)</li><li>➤ Is used as ‘an index of success in cancer treatment’</li><li>➤ ‘an index of success in cancer treatment’</li><li>➤ Is not an appropriate measure to assess therapy that was introduced less than 5 years ago</li><li>➤ not an appropriate measure</li><li>➤ assess therapy</li><li>➤ less than 5 years ago</li><li>➤ WHENEVER screening is performed: Higher 5-year survival rate is observed; THIS IS A POTENTIAL BIAS DUE TO earlier diagnosis being made (and not because people live longer)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26th ed pg 66.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26th ed pg 66.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Analyze mortality data from a city with a total population of 1,44,000 during the year 2022. In that year, there were 3200 reported deaths, and out of those, 285 were due to road traffic accidents. Based on this information, calculate the proportionate mortality rate for road traffic accidents in this city for the year 2022.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.19%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8.9%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2.2%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "9.6%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8.9%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039018.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 8.9%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Proportional mortality rate - PMR is number of deaths due to a particular cause (or in a specific age group) per 100 (or 1000) total deaths . PMR Is the ‘simplest measure of estimating the burden of a disease’.</li><li>➤ Proportional mortality rate</li><li>➤ PMR</li><li>➤ number of deaths</li><li>➤ particular cause</li><li>➤ per 100</li><li>➤ total deaths</li><li>➤ PMR</li><li>➤ ‘simplest measure of estimating the burden of a disease’.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26th ed pg 66.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26th ed pg 66.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In epidemiology, there are various methods used to compare mortality data between different populations or over different time periods. One of these methods includes age-adjusted death rates. What is the primary purpose of utilizing age-adjusted death rates?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Determine the actual number of deaths that occurred in specific age groups in a population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Correct death rates for missing age information", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compare deaths in persons of the same age group", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eliminate the effects of differences in the age distributions of populations in comparing death rates", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Eliminate the effects of differences in the age distributions of populations in comparing death rates", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Eliminate the effects of differences in the age distributions of populations in comparing death rates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Standardization for the characteristic(s) responsible for the differences in comparison is necessary</li><li>➤ Standardization</li><li>➤ characteristic(s)</li><li>➤ differences in comparison is necessary</li><li>➤ Age and sex are two of the most common variables used for standardization and they are called Standardized rates</li><li>➤ Age and sex</li><li>➤ two</li><li>➤ common variables</li><li>➤ standardization</li><li>➤ Standardized rates</li><li>➤ Ref : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 85</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 85</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Public Health Consultant is evaluating the incidence of tuberculosis (TB) in a district with a population of 1,92,800. On January 1, 2021, there were 45 existing cases of TB. Throughout the year, an additional 32 new cases were reported. Calculate the incidence of TB in the district for the year 2021.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "16.5 cases per lakh population", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "23.3 cases per lakh population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "39.9 cases per lakh population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "44.7 cases per lakh population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 16.5 cases per lakh population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/14/image_2KVm8pX.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 16.5 cases per lakh population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Incidence : Is defined as the ‘no. of new cases’ occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time . Incidence is a RATE, expressed per 1000</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ ‘no. of new cases’</li><li>➤ population during a specified period of time</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ RATE,</li><li>➤ per 1000</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 68.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 68.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a longitudinal study, researchers are following a group of patients to understand the development of a certain disease. However, during the study period, some individuals were lost to follow-up due to death, migration, or other reasons, resulting in different follow-up times for different individuals. Which epidemiological measure is most appropriate for analyzing the development of the disease in this scenario?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incidence rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Point prevalence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Incidence rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705132856-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Incidence rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Incidence rate can be calculated from Cohort study Cumulative incidence measures denominator only at the beginning of the study</li><li>➤ Incidence rate can be calculated from Cohort study</li><li>➤ Incidence rate</li><li>➤ calculated</li><li>➤ Cohort study</li><li>➤ Cumulative incidence measures denominator only at the beginning of the study</li><li>➤ Cumulative incidence</li><li>➤ denominator</li><li>➤ beginning of the study</li><li>➤ Ref : Leon Gordis, 5 th ed, pg 49.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Leon Gordis, 5 th ed, pg 49.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is evaluating a dataset on a specific disease in a population and observes a perplexing trend. Although women in this population are being diagnosed with the disease at a rate five times higher than men, the prevalence of the disease appears to be the same for both genders. Given these circumstances, what is the most likely explanation for these findings?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The crude all-cause mortality rate is greater in men", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The case-fatality from this disease is greater in women", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The duration of this disease is shorter in men", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risk factors for the disease are more common in women", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The case-fatality from this disease is greater in women", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. The case-fatality from this disease is greater in women</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. The crude all-cause mortality rate is greater in men : It’s a false statement. If mortality is higher in men, prevalence would be much lower in men. But the question mentions that the prevalence of the disease in both male and female is equal.</li><li>• Option A. The crude all-cause mortality rate is greater in men</li><li>• Option C. The duration of this disease is shorter in men: If the disease is of shorter duration, prevalence would decrease as compared to that in female.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• The duration of this disease is shorter in men:</li><li>• Option D. Risk factors for the disease are more common in women: While more common risk factors in women could explain the higher diagnosis rate, it does not explain why the prevalence is the same in both genders.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Risk factors for the disease are more common in women:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence:</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence:</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease</li><li>➤ P = I × d</li><li>➤ Incidence reflects causal factors Duration reflects the prognostic factors</li><li>➤ Incidence reflects causal factors</li><li>➤ Duration reflects the prognostic factors</li><li>➤ Ref : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 86</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 86</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher conducted a study to analyze the mortality rates of coal workers. The standard mortality ratio (SMR) for the coal workers was found to be 112. Based on this information, how does the mortality rate of coal workers compare to the general population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mortality among coal workers is same as that of whole population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Coal workers has less mortality compared to whole population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mortality is more in coal workers compared to whole population", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannot be determined with above data", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Mortality is more in coal workers compared to whole population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705131021-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Mortality is more in coal workers compared to whole population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Standard mortality ratio (SMR) is used to compare mortality rates between a study population and the general population . An SMR above 100 indicates higher mortality in the study population , an SMR below 100 indicates lower mortality , and an SMR of 100 indicates equal mortality rates.</li><li>➤ Standard mortality ratio</li><li>➤ compare mortality rates</li><li>➤ study population</li><li>➤ general population</li><li>➤ SMR above 100</li><li>➤ higher mortality</li><li>➤ study population</li><li>➤ SMR below 100</li><li>➤ lower mortality</li><li>➤ SMR of 100</li><li>➤ equal mortality rates.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 68.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 68.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A study on ischemic heart disease (IHD) commenced in January 1991 and concluded in December 2000. Initially, 5 subjects were enrolled, with an additional 5 joining at different times during the study. By the end of 2000, 2 individuals had developed IHD. Given the follow-up details provided below, what is the incidence rate of IHD in this study? Legend: &gt; = Follow up starts; O = Follow up ends, subject remains without IHD; A = Subject died due to some other disease; ? = Subject was lost to follow up; X = Subject developed IHD", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 per 100 PY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 per 100 PY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 per 100 PY", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "30 per 100 PY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 per 100 PY", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/e1.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/14/image_SLfE7HB.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3 per 100 PY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Incidence : Is defined as the ‘no. of new cases’ occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time . Incidence is a RATE , expressed per 1000</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ ‘no. of new cases’</li><li>➤ population during a specified</li><li>➤ period of time</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ RATE</li><li>➤ per 1000</li><li>➤ Incidence is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ best measure of disease</li><li>➤ frequency</li><li>➤ etiological studies</li><li>➤ Incidence can be determined from: Cohort study</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ Cohort study</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27/e p69</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27/e p69</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a town having a population of 200,000 at midyear, 2,200 individuals were reported to have diabetes mellitus on January 1, 2022. Throughout that year, 450 new cases were diagnosed, and 75 individuals with diabetes mellitus passed away due to complications. Based on this information, calculate the point prevalence of diabetes mellitus in the town as of December 31, 2022.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "13.25 per 1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2.25 per 1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "12.87 per 1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10.63 per 1000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 12.87 per 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705142331-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 12.87 per 1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Point Prevalence is defined as Number of total cases at a given point of time</li><li>➤ Point Prevalence</li><li>➤ Number of total cases</li><li>➤ point of time</li><li>➤ Period prevalence is defined by Number of total cases in a given year </li><li>➤ Period prevalence</li><li>➤ Number of total cases</li><li>➤ given year</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old public health researcher is analyzing data from a small isolated island community where no migration has occurred for many years. The researcher is interested in understanding the prevalence of a chronic disease in this community. He recalls a formula that relates incidence and duration to prevalence, especially in stable populations where migration is not a concern. Under these conditions, how is prevalence best described?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevalence = Incidence / Duration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence = Incidence x Duration", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence = Incidence + Duration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevalence = Duration / Incidence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prevalence = Incidence x Duration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Prevalence = Incidence x Duration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence : Given the assumption that population is stable AND incidence &amp; duration are unchanging,</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence</li><li>➤ assumption that population</li><li>➤ stable</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease</li><li>➤ P = I × d</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 69</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 69</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A local community has recently experienced an outbreak of a contagious disease. A team of epidemiologists has been dispatched to investigate the epidemic and to devise strategies to control the spread of the disease. During their discussions on various epidemiological measures, the topic of attack rate comes up. In the context of this epidemic investigation, which of the following statements regarding attack rate is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Used when population is exposed to risk for a limited period of time", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Expressed as percentage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reflects extent of epidemic", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It is type of prevalence rate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It is type of prevalence rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705143721-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. It is type of prevalence rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Attack rate is given by the formula:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 69</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed 69</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an ongoing discussion about epidemiological measures, a group of public health professionals are deliberating on the characteristics of prevalence. Which of the following statements about prevalence is NOT accurate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It includes both old and new cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It is rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duration of disease effects ‘prevalence’", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It is rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/05/image-20230705143850-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It is rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed 69</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th ed 69</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a comparative epidemiological study, you are analyzing two diseases within the same population. Disease A has a prolonged duration of 10 years with a low incidence rate of 2 cases per 100,000 person-years. On the other hand, Disease B has a shorter duration of 4 years with an identical incidence rate of 2 cases per 100,000 person-years. When comparing the two diseases, which of the following statements is accurate regarding Disease A?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Better cure rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lower prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Higher prevalence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Higher incidence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Higher prevalence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Higher prevalence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease , it implies - Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable</li><li>➤ prevalence is very low</li><li>➤ incidence for a disease</li><li>➤ Disease is very fatal</li><li>➤ easily curable</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence : Given the assumption that population is stable AND incidence &amp; duration are unchanging</li><li>➤ Relationship between Incidence and Prevalence</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease P = I × d Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery Incidence reflects causal factors Duration reflects the prognostic factors</li><li>➤ Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration of the disease P = I × d</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li><li>➤ Prevalence describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li><li>➤ balance</li><li>➤ incidence, mortality and recovery</li><li>➤ Incidence reflects causal factors</li><li>➤ Incidence</li><li>➤ causal factors</li><li>➤ Duration reflects the prognostic factors</li><li>➤ Ref : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 63</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Leon gordis, 5 th ed, pg 63</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 27 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Family Planning And Contraception - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 28</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 28 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 32-year-old woman attends your clinic to discuss various family planning options. She inquires about the range of services that are typically included under the modern concept of family planning. Which of the following does not fall within the scope of services generally included in modern family planning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Genetic counselling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The proper spacing and limitation of births", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment of HIV/AIDS", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sex education", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Treatment of HIV/AIDS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Treatment of HIV/AIDS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Genetic counselling - Included: Genetic counseling can be a part of family planning services , especially when it pertains to understanding hereditary conditions and how they might impact future pregnancies and the health of offspring.</li><li>• Option A. Genetic counselling - Included:</li><li>• part of family planning services</li><li>• Option B. The proper spacing and limitation of births - Included: The proper spacing and limitation of births is a central component of family planning . It involves counseling and providing methods to help individuals and couples plan the timing and number of their children.</li><li>• Option B. The proper spacing and limitation of births - Included:</li><li>• central component of family planning</li><li>• Option D. Sex Education - Included: Sex education is an integral part of family planning services , as it provides individuals with the knowledge necessary to make informed decisions about their sexual and reproductive health.</li><li>• Option D. Sex Education - Included:</li><li>• integral part of family planning services</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Modern family planning services include the provision of contraceptives , fertility counseling &amp; treatment , screening for STIs , genetic counseling , adoption services , etc but do not typically include screening or/&amp; treatment of HIV infection.</li><li>➤ Modern family planning services</li><li>➤ provision of contraceptives</li><li>➤ fertility counseling</li><li>➤ treatment</li><li>➤ screening for STIs</li><li>➤ genetic counseling</li><li>➤ adoption services</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 572</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 572</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is designing a study to assess the prevalence of contraceptive use in a community. When determining the metrics for the study, which indicator would be most appropriate to measure the prevalence of contraceptive practices within the community?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Total Fertility rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Couple protection rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Unmet needs", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "NRR", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Couple protection rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/effective-cpr.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Couple protection rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. TFR - Total fertility rate : Is the Number of live births per woman completing her reproductive life , if her childbearing at each age reflected current age specific fertility rate</li><li>• Option A. TFR - Total fertility rate</li><li>• Number of live births</li><li>• woman completing</li><li>• reproductive life</li><li>• Option C. Unmet need : Unmet need for family planning is the percentage of women of reproductive age , either married or in a union , who have an unmet need for family planning. Women with unmet need are those who are want to stop or delay childbearing but are not using any method of contraception.</li><li>• Option C. Unmet need</li><li>• family planning</li><li>• percentage of women</li><li>• reproductive age</li><li>• married or in a union</li><li>• Option D. NRR: Net reproduction rate is the expected number of daughters , per newborn prospective mother , who may or may not survive to and through the ages of child bearing.</li><li>• Option D. NRR:</li><li>• expected number of daughters</li><li>• newborn prospective mother</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Couple protection rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community</li><li>➤ Couple protection rate</li><li>➤ prevalence of contraceptive practice</li><li>➤ community</li><li>➤ To achieve NRR =1 - Couple Protection Rate (CPR) should be &gt;60%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 573</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 573</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In preparation for her public health presentation on the status of family planning in India, a medical resident reviews the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5). She notes the significance of the unmet needs for family planning, which is a critical indicator for assessing the gap between women's reproductive intentions and their contraceptive use. According to the most recent NFHS data, what is the current percentage of unmet need for family planning in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "8.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "12.8%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9.4%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10.7%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 9.4%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-093226.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 9.4%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The current unmet needs of family planning in India is 9.4% (NFHS 5, 2019-21)</li><li>• current unmet needs</li><li>• family planning</li><li>• India is 9.4%</li><li>• Unmet Need for Family Planning</li><li>• Unmet Need for Family Planning</li><li>• Unmet need for family planning : Percentage of women of reproductive age , either married or in a union , who have an unmet need for family planning . Women with unmet need are those who are want to stop or delay childbearing but are not using any method of contraception</li><li>• Unmet need</li><li>• family planning</li><li>• Percentage of women</li><li>• reproductive age</li><li>• married</li><li>• in a union</li><li>• unmet need for family planning</li><li>• Unmet need in India :</li><li>• Unmet need in India</li><li>• Unmet need in &lt;20 years old women: Spacing the births Unmet need in 20-24 years old women: Spacing the births Unmet need in &gt;30 years old women: Limiting the births</li><li>• Unmet need in &lt;20 years old women: Spacing the births</li><li>• Unmet need in 20-24 years old women: Spacing the births</li><li>• Unmet need in &gt;30 years old women: Limiting the births</li><li>• Unmet need for Family planning in India is highest for Adolescents</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Any method used for Family planning - 66.7%</li><li>➤ Any method</li><li>➤ Family planning</li><li>➤ Total unmet need for Family planning - 9.4%</li><li>➤ Total unmet</li><li>➤ Family planning</li><li>➤ NFHS-5 2019-21, India: Key Parameters</li><li>➤ NFHS-5 2019-21, India: Key Parameters</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In conducting a prospective study to evaluate the performance of various contraceptive methods over time, the researchers are interested in calculating the failure rates per month of use. They seek a comprehensive analysis that accounts for varying durations of contraceptive use and intervals at which participants may discontinue the study or experience an outcome (such as pregnancy). Which statistical method should the researchers employ to most accurately reflect the monthly failure rates in their study population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Couple protection rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pearl Index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Life table analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Corrected Pearl index", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Life table analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/image_hUa64eR.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Life table analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Couple protection rate (CPR ): CPR is percent of eligible couples (ECs) protected against one or the other approved methods of family planning ,</li><li>• Option A. Couple protection rate (CPR</li><li>• percent of eligible couples</li><li>• protected against</li><li>• other approved methods of family planning</li><li>• viz. condoms, OCPs, IUDs, sterilization.</li><li>• NRR = 1 can be achieved if: CPR &gt;60%</li><li>• Option B. Pearl Index (PI) : PI or Pearl rate is the MC technique used in clinical trials for measuring the effectiveness of a birth control method .</li><li>• Option B. Pearl Index (PI)</li><li>• Pearl rate is the MC technique</li><li>• clinical trials</li><li>• measuring the effectiveness</li><li>• birth control method</li><li>• NRR = 1 can be achieved if: CPR &gt;60%</li><li>• Option B. Pearl Index (PI) : PI or Pearl rate is the MC technique used in clinical trials for measuring the effectiveness of a birth control method .</li><li>• Option B. Pearl Index (PI)</li><li>• Pearl rate is the MC technique</li><li>• clinical trials</li><li>• measuring the effectiveness</li><li>• birth control method</li><li>• PI is no. of failures per 100 woman years (HWY) of exposure</li><li>• In designing a use-effectiveness trial, a ‘minimum of 600 months of exposure ’ is required for a firm conclusion</li><li>• 600 months of exposure</li><li>• Disadvantages for PI:</li><li>• Disadvantages for PI:</li><li>• PI assumes a constant failure rate over time PI also provides no information on factors other than accidental pregnancy which may influence effectiveness calculations , viz. dissatisfaction with the method, trying to achieve pregnancy, medical side effects, lost to follow up PI is only accurate as a statistical estimation of per-year risk of pregnancy if the pregnancy rate was very low</li><li>• PI assumes a constant failure rate over time</li><li>• PI assumes</li><li>• constant failure rate over time</li><li>• PI also provides no information on factors other than accidental pregnancy which may influence effectiveness calculations , viz. dissatisfaction with the method, trying to achieve pregnancy, medical side effects, lost to follow up</li><li>• PI also provides no information</li><li>• factors</li><li>• accidental pregnancy</li><li>• influence effectiveness calculations</li><li>• PI is only accurate as a statistical estimation of per-year risk of pregnancy if the pregnancy rate was very low</li><li>• Option C. Corrected Pearl Index : The original Pearl Index has some limitations . It does not account for factors such as the frequency of intercourse , different phases of a woman's reproductive cycle , or varying fertility levels . Additionally, it assumes that the risk of pregnancy is constant over time, which may not be the case.</li><li>• Option C. Corrected Pearl Index</li><li>• original Pearl Index</li><li>• limitations</li><li>• does not account for factors</li><li>• frequency of intercourse</li><li>• different phases of a woman's reproductive cycle</li><li>• varying fertility levels</li><li>• The Corrected Pearl Index attempts to address these limitations . It adjusts for various factors like different phases of the menstrual cycle , inconsistencies in the use of the contraceptive method, and other factors that might affect the risk of pregnancy . The exact adjustments can vary, but the goal is to provide a more accurate measure of a contraceptive method's effectiveness under typical use conditions.</li><li>• Corrected Pearl Index</li><li>• address these limitations</li><li>• adjusts</li><li>• different phases</li><li>• menstrual cycle</li><li>• inconsistencies in the use</li><li>• contraceptive method,</li><li>• risk of pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Contraceptive Efficacy/ failure: This is assessed by measuring the number of unplanned pregnancies that occur during a specified period of exposure and use of a contraceptive method. Two methods used are Pearl Index and Life table analysis . LTA is better measure than PI.</li><li>➤ Contraceptive Efficacy/ failure:</li><li>➤ assessed by measuring</li><li>➤ number of unplanned pregnancies</li><li>➤ specified period of exposure</li><li>➤ use of a contraceptive method.</li><li>➤ Two methods</li><li>➤ Pearl Index</li><li>➤ Life table analysis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 591.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 591.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A researcher is assessing the effectiveness of a new contraceptive method. In this prospective study, 250 women were followed for a total of 30 months. During the study, 5 of the women became pregnant. The researcher is now looking to calculate the Pearl Index from the study's findings to determine the contraceptive's failure rate.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200 HWY", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.8 HWY", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "800 HWY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.2 HWY", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 0.8 HWY", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720151912-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 0.8 HWY</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Contraceptive failure rate per hundred women year is given by Pearl Index .</li><li>• Contraceptive failure rate</li><li>• hundred women year</li><li>• Pearl Index</li><li>• The Pearl index is calculated as</li><li>• Number of Women/ couple = 250</li><li>• Total accidental pregnancies = 5</li><li>• Total months of exposure = 250 x 30 months = 7500</li><li>• Pearl Index = (5*1200 / 7500)</li><li>• = 0.8 HWYs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pearl Index is Failures per 100 women -years of exposure</li><li>➤ Pearl Index</li><li>➤ Failures per 100 women</li><li>➤ “ Pearl Index ” Is normally used for studying the Failure rate / Efficacy of contraceptive</li><li>➤ Pearl Index</li><li>➤ studying the Failure rate</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 591.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 591.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on contraception. She is currently not on any form of birth control and is interested in understanding her options. She prefers a method that is easily reversible upon discontinuation and does not interfere with spontaneity during intercourse. After discussing various options, the healthcare provider wants to ensure the patient is informed about conventional contraceptive methods. Which of the following is NOT considered a conventional contraceptive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Condom", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Spermicide", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral Contraceptive pills", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vaginal diaphragm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral Contraceptive pills", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-123443.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-123429.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-123435.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Oral Contraceptive pills</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Condoms are used at the time of intercourse . Male condom is made of latex which is to be worn by male on a fully erect penis at the time of intercourse . Female condoms are made of polyurethane which makes it less irritative. It is to be removed after 4 hours of the intercourse.</li><li>• Option A. Condoms</li><li>• used at the time of intercourse</li><li>• Male condom</li><li>• latex</li><li>• worn by male on a fully erect penis</li><li>• time of intercourse</li><li>• Female condoms</li><li>• polyurethane</li><li>• Male Condom</li><li>• Female Condom</li><li>• Female Condom</li><li>• Option B. Spermicides are jelly substances which are used along with Sponge or Diaphragm . It contains Nonoxynol-9 which disrupts the plasma membrane of sperms and hence provide contraception. It is to be used at the time of intercourse.</li><li>• Option B. Spermicides</li><li>• jelly substances</li><li>• Sponge or Diaphragm</li><li>• Option D. Vaginal diaphragm or Dutch Cap is used along with Spermicide jelly . It is reusable and is to be worn 4 hours before and should be removed 6 hours after the intercourse . This requires the female to be educated for its maximum effective use. If kept for too long, it can cause Toxic Shock Syndrome.</li><li>• Option D. Vaginal diaphragm or Dutch Cap</li><li>• Spermicide jelly</li><li>• reusable</li><li>• worn 4 hours before</li><li>• removed 6 hours after the intercourse</li><li>• Dutch Cap/Diaphragm</li><li>• Dutch Cap/Diaphragm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Conventional Contraceptives are the methods that require action at the time of coitus – Condoms , Spermicides , Jellies</li><li>➤ Conventional Contraceptives</li><li>➤ require action</li><li>➤ time of coitus</li><li>➤ Condoms</li><li>➤ Spermicides</li><li>➤ Jellies</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 574</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 574</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is evaluating the outreach and impact of a social marketing program aimed at improving contraceptive use in a low-resource setting. The program involves the distribution of family planning commodities through commercial but subsidized channels to make them accessible and affordable to the target population. Which of the following contraceptive devices is typically supplied under a social marketing program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Intra uterine Devices", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Condom", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diaphragm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vaginal sponge", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Condom", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Condom</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Options A. Intra uterine Devices, C. Diaphragm, &amp; D. Vaginal Sponge are not supplied under social marketing.</li><li>• Options A. Intra uterine Devices, C. Diaphragm, &amp; D. Vaginal Sponge</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Condoms are supplied under the social marketing program through Condom vending machines (CVMs) at parks, pay and use toilets, railway stations, bus stations , petrol pumps, wine shops , bars, restaurants , STD/PCO booths, tea-shops, paan-shops</li><li>➤ Condoms</li><li>➤ social marketing program</li><li>➤ Condom vending machines</li><li>➤ parks, pay</li><li>➤ use toilets, railway stations, bus stations</li><li>➤ petrol pumps, wine shops</li><li>➤ bars, restaurants</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 575</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 575</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a medical officer overseeing a community needs assessment process at a primary health care (PHC) center, you review the data collected by the female health assistant during a complete family survey conducted in March. One of the key demographic indicators you're interested in is the number of eligible couples, as this helps in planning for family welfare services. In a community needs assessment process, for a population of 1000, how many eligible couples are typically anticipated by a medical officer at a PHC?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100-120", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "130-150", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "150-180", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "180-200", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 150-180", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 150-180</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Eligible Couples</li><li>• Eligible Couples</li><li>• Eligible couples (ECs): A currently married couple with wife in reproductive age group</li><li>• currently married couple</li><li>• wife</li><li>• reproductive age group</li><li>• (15–49 years’ age)</li><li>• There are 150–180 ECs per 1000 population in India ECs are in need of family planning services 20% ECs are in age group 20–24 years</li><li>• There are 150–180 ECs per 1000 population in India</li><li>• 150–180 ECs</li><li>• 1000 population in India</li><li>• ECs are in need of family planning services</li><li>• ECs</li><li>• need of family planning services</li><li>• 20% ECs are in age group 20–24 years</li><li>• 20% ECs</li><li>• age group 20–24 years</li><li>• EC register , a basic document for organizing family planning work , is maintained at Subcentre</li><li>• EC register</li><li>• basic document</li><li>• organizing family planning work</li><li>• Subcentre</li><li>• CPR is percent of eligible couples (ECs) protected against one or the other approved methods of family planning , viz. condoms, OCPs, IUDs, sterilization</li><li>• CPR</li><li>• percent of eligible couples</li><li>• protected against</li><li>• one or the other approved methods</li><li>• family planning</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ An “eligible couple ” refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age , which is generally assumed to lie between the ages of 15 and 49 . There will be at least 150 to 180 such couples per 1000 population in India.</li><li>➤ An “eligible couple ” refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age , which is generally assumed to lie between the ages of 15 and 49 .</li><li>➤ “eligible couple</li><li>➤ currently married couple</li><li>➤ wife</li><li>➤ reproductive age</li><li>➤ ages of 15 and 49</li><li>➤ There will be at least 150 to 180 such couples per 1000 population in India.</li><li>➤ least 150 to 180</li><li>➤ couples per 1000 population</li><li>➤ India.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 573</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 573</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man and his 23-year-old partner, a couple with no current desire for pregnancy, visit your clinic for contraception counseling. They have been using male condoms as their primary method of contraception but express concern about the potential for failure and unintended pregnancy. They inquire about the average failure rate among users. What is the average failure rate associated with male condom use among typical users?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "14", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "16", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 14", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture55.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 14</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Failure rates for the condom vary enormously .</li><li>• Failure rates</li><li>• condom vary enormously</li><li>• Surveys have reported pregnancy rates varying from 2-3 per 100 women years to more than 14 in typical users .</li><li>• Surveys</li><li>• pregnancy rates varying</li><li>• 2-3 per 100 women years</li><li>• more than 14</li><li>• typical users</li><li>• Most failures are due to incorrect use.</li><li>• Pearl Index</li><li>• Pearl Index</li><li>• Pearl Index is Failures per 100 women-years of exposure . Pearl Index Is normally used for studying the Failure rate / Efficacy of contraceptive</li><li>• Pearl Index is Failures</li><li>• 100 women-years of exposure</li><li>• Pearl Index</li><li>• normally used</li><li>• studying the Failure rate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pearl Index Male condom - 2-14 per HWY</li><li>➤ Male condom</li><li>➤ 2-14 per HWY</li><li>➤ Pearl Index Female condom - 5-21 per HWY</li><li>➤ Female condom</li><li>➤ 5-21 per HWY</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 575</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 575</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the family welfare outpatient department, a survey is conducted to evaluate the side effects and complications associated with intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs). The survey aims to identify the primary reasons for the removal of IUDs among users to enhance counseling and management strategies. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with the removal of intrauterine devices (IUDs)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pain", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bleeding", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pelvic infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine perforation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Pain", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Pain</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Bleeding:</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Bleeding:</li><li>• MC side effect of woman with IUD: Increased vaginal bleeding Usually disappear by: 1–2 months Leads to: 10–20% of all IUD removals (MCC removal: Pain) Greater bleeding with: Non-medicated (Inert) IUDs Management of bleeding: Re-assure the female ( DO NOT REMOVE IUD ) Ferrous sulphate 200 mg TDS X 1–2 months If bleeding is heavy or persistent: REMOVE IUD</li><li>• MC side effect of woman with IUD: Increased vaginal bleeding</li><li>• MC side effect of woman with IUD: Increased vaginal bleeding</li><li>• Usually disappear by: 1–2 months</li><li>• disappear</li><li>• 1–2 months</li><li>• Leads to: 10–20% of all IUD removals (MCC removal: Pain)</li><li>• Greater bleeding with: Non-medicated (Inert) IUDs</li><li>• Management of bleeding: Re-assure the female ( DO NOT REMOVE IUD ) Ferrous sulphate 200 mg TDS X 1–2 months If bleeding is heavy or persistent: REMOVE IUD</li><li>• Re-assure the female ( DO NOT REMOVE IUD ) Ferrous sulphate 200 mg TDS X 1–2 months If bleeding is heavy or persistent: REMOVE IUD</li><li>• Re-assure the female ( DO NOT REMOVE IUD )</li><li>• DO NOT REMOVE IUD</li><li>• Ferrous sulphate 200 mg TDS X 1–2 months</li><li>• If bleeding is heavy or persistent: REMOVE IUD</li><li>• Option C. Pelvic infection: (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Pelvic infection:</li><li>• Prompt treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics If no response to antibiotics in 24–48 hours : Remove IUD</li><li>• Prompt treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics</li><li>• treatment</li><li>• broad spectrum antibiotics</li><li>• If no response to antibiotics in 24–48 hours : Remove IUD</li><li>• no response to antibiotics</li><li>• 24–48 hours</li><li>• Remove IUD</li><li>• Option D. Uterine perforation: Management: Removal of IUD</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Uterine perforation:</li><li>• Removal of IUD</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MC side effect of woman with IUD: Increased vaginal bleeding</li><li>➤ MC side effect</li><li>➤ Increased vaginal bleeding</li><li>➤ MCC requiring removal of IUDs: Pain (15–40% removals)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 578</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 578</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation presents to your outpatient department with ultrasound findings indicating the presence of severe congenital anomalies in the fetus. She expresses significant distress and concern about the implications of these findings and the continuation of her pregnancy. As a medical officer, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient who presents with severe fetal congenital anomalies at 28 weeks of gestation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Terminate the pregnancy.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Counsel her to continue the pregnancy as she had crossed the period of 24 weeks.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ask the husband if he wants to abort the child", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Start her on Methotrexate to avoid Ectopic pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Terminate the pregnancy.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/20/image-20230720175451-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/21/image_5zCvenF.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Terminate the pregnancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Counsel her to continue the pregnancy as she had crossed the period of 24 weeks: Incorrect. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 , allows for termination beyond 24 weeks in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities . Thus, counseling to continue the pregnancy without considering termination may not be appropriate in this context, especially given the severity of the diagnosed anomalies.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Counsel her to continue the pregnancy as she had crossed the period of 24 weeks:</li><li>• Medical Termination of Pregnancy</li><li>• Act, 2021</li><li>• termination beyond 24 weeks</li><li>• substantial fetal abnormalities</li><li>• Option C. Ask the husband if he wants to abort the child: Incorrect. The decision to terminate a pregnancy rests with the pregnant woman , and while the partner's support and opinion can be part of the discussion, it is the woman's consent that is legally and ethically paramount.</li><li>• Option C. Ask the husband if he wants to abort the child:</li><li>• decision to terminate a pregnancy</li><li>• pregnant woman</li><li>• Option D. Start her on Methotrexate to avoid Ectopic pregnancy: Incorrect and not relevant. Methotrexate is used in the medical management of ectopic pregnancy , not in the case of intrauterine pregnancy with fetal anomalies. Furthermore, Methotrexate is contraindicated in ongoing intrauterine pregnancies due to its teratogenic effects.</li><li>• Option D. Start her on Methotrexate to avoid Ectopic pregnancy:</li><li>• Methotrexate</li><li>• medical management of ectopic pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : RMNCAH+N guidelines, MoHFW.</li><li>➤ Ref : RMNCAH+N guidelines, MoHFW.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an urban area, a hospital-based facility is dedicated to providing comprehensive reproductive health services, including medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) and sterilization. This facility is structured to support the local community's family planning needs by offering a range of contraceptive and family welfare services. Which type of urban health post is typically associated with a hospital to provide services such as medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) and sterilization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Type A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Type B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Type C", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Type D", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Type D", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-100023.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Type D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• At the district level, the family welfare bureau was supported by 1,083 Urban Family welfare centers and 871 Urban Health Posts .</li><li>• district level,</li><li>• family welfare bureau</li><li>• supported by 1,083 Urban Family welfare centers</li><li>• 871 Urban Health Posts</li><li>• Urban Health Care System</li><li>• Urban Health Care System</li><li>• Only Urban Health Posts Type D have a post of medical officer.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Type A, B and C Health Posts are attached to a hospital for providing referral and supervisory services . Type D Health Post is attached to a hospital for sterilization , MTP and referral . Only type D health post have a post of medical officer.</li><li>➤ Type A, B and C Health Posts are attached to a hospital for providing referral and supervisory services .</li><li>➤ Type A, B</li><li>➤ C Health Posts</li><li>➤ attached to a hospital</li><li>➤ providing referral</li><li>➤ supervisory services</li><li>➤ Type D Health Post is attached to a hospital for sterilization , MTP and referral . Only type D health post have a post of medical officer.</li><li>➤ Type D Health Post</li><li>➤ attached to a hospital</li><li>➤ sterilization</li><li>➤ MTP and referral</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 594</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 594</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "ASHAs have been playing a crucial role in improving access to healthcare services in rural and urban areas. As part of their responsibilities, ASHAs are also involved in the home delivery of contraceptives to promote family welfare services. This strategy is aimed at increasing the convenience and uptake of family planning methods by reducing barriers to access. What is the nominal fee charged by an Accredited Social Health Activist for the home delivery of condoms to promote family welfare services?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs 1 for 1 condom", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs 1 for 3 condoms", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs 1 for 5 Condoms", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs 1 for 10 Condoms.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rs 1 for 3 condoms", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Rs 1 for 3 condoms</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• ASHA is charging a nominal amount from beneficiaries for her effort to deliver contraceptives at doorstep i.e.</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• charging a nominal amount</li><li>• beneficiaries</li><li>• Rs. 1 for a pack of 3 condoms.</li><li>• Rs.1 for a cycle of OCPs; and</li><li>• Rs. 2 for a pack of one tablet of ECP</li><li>• NEW INITIATIVES IN FAMILY PLANNING (FP)</li><li>• NEW INITIATIVES IN FAMILY PLANNING (FP)</li><li>• 1. Home Delivery of Contraceptives (HDC) - by ASHA</li><li>• Home Delivery of Contraceptives</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• Delivery charges by ASHA: Rs 1/- (3 condom pack), Rs 1/- (A OCP cycle), Rs 2/- (A pack of one tablet of Emergency contraceptive pill)</li><li>• 2. Mission Parivar Vikas (MPV) - Program to accelerate the use and awareness of FP methods in 146 high TFR districts</li><li>• Mission Parivar Vikas</li><li>• 3. Ensuring Spacing at Birth (ESB)</li><li>• Ensuring Spacing at Birth</li><li>• Counselling charges by ASHA Worker: Rs 500/- (Delaying 1st childbirth by 2 years after marriage), Rs. 500/- (Ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of 1st child), Rs 1000/- (If couple opts for sterilization up to 2 children) CuT 375: Short term IUD with 5 years effectivity launched Introduction of Post-partum IUD insertion Promotion of FP services at District hospitals</li><li>• Counselling charges by ASHA Worker: Rs 500/- (Delaying 1st childbirth by 2 years after marriage), Rs. 500/- (Ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of 1st child), Rs 1000/- (If couple opts for sterilization up to 2 children)</li><li>• CuT 375: Short term IUD with 5 years effectivity launched</li><li>• Introduction of Post-partum IUD insertion</li><li>• Promotion of FP services at District hospitals</li><li>• 4. Newer Contraceptives</li><li>• Newer Contraceptives</li><li>• Antara: Injectable Hormonal contraceptive DMPA (Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate) Chhaya: Oral contraceptive pill ‘Centchroman’</li><li>• Antara: Injectable Hormonal contraceptive DMPA (Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate)</li><li>• Chhaya: Oral contraceptive pill ‘Centchroman’</li><li>• 5. Fixed Day Static Services Approach - Frequency of Sterilization services to be Twice-a-week (District hospital)/Weekly basis (Subdistrict hospital), Fortnightly (CHC/Block PHC)/Monthly (24X7 PHC/PHC)</li><li>• Fixed Day Static Services Approach</li><li>• 6. Pregnancy Testing Kits (PTKs) -</li><li>• Pregnancy Testing Kits</li><li>• NISCHAY: Home-based pregnancy testing kits Availability: Subcentres, ASHA workers</li><li>• NISCHAY: Home-based pregnancy testing kits</li><li>• Availability: Subcentres, ASHA workers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ASHA is charging a nominal amount from beneficiaries for her effort to deliver contraceptives at doorstep i.e. Rs. 1 for a pack of 3 condoms ; Rs.1 for a cycle of OCPs; and Rs. 2 for a pack of one tablet of ECP</li><li>➤ ASHA</li><li>➤ charging a nominal amount</li><li>➤ beneficiaries</li><li>➤ effort to deliver contraceptives</li><li>➤ doorstep</li><li>➤ Rs. 1 for a pack of 3 condoms</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 594</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 594</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An ASHA worker, serving a remote village in Assam, has successfully motivated a mother with two healthy children to undergo laparoscopic sterilization at the local Community Health Center (CHC). The ASHA's role in facilitating family planning services is pivotal in rural health care, where access to such services can be limited. After facilitating the laparoscopic sterilization of a mother in a remote village, what is the incentive that the ASHA worker would receive for her role in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs 500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs 1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs 1200", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs 1500", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Rs 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-133455.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Rs 1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• ASHA would be paid following incentives for motivating the couples:</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• paid following incentives</li><li>• motivating the couples:</li><li>• Rs. 500/- to ASHA for delaying first childbirth by 2 years after marriage. Rs. 500/- to ASHA for ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of 1st child. Rs. 1000/- in case the couple opts for permanent limiting method up to 2 children only. The scheme is operational in 18 States (EAG, North- Eastern, Gujarat and Haryana)</li><li>• Rs. 500/- to ASHA for delaying first childbirth by 2 years after marriage.</li><li>• Rs. 500/-</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• delaying first childbirth by 2 years</li><li>• Rs. 500/- to ASHA for ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of 1st child.</li><li>• Rs. 500/-</li><li>• ensuring spacing of 3 years</li><li>• Rs. 1000/- in case the couple opts for permanent limiting method up to 2 children only.</li><li>• Rs. 1000/-</li><li>• couple opts for permanent limiting method</li><li>• The scheme is operational in 18 States (EAG, North- Eastern, Gujarat and Haryana)</li><li>• operational in 18 States</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sterilization Incentive Package -</li><li>➤ Sterilization Incentive Package -</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 595</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 595</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A strategy to enhance access to family planning services in certain regions involves implementing a 'fixed day approach.' This method involves scheduling specific services, such as sterilization, on predetermined days to ensure availability and improve service delivery in an organized manner. Sub-district hospitals play a key role in this strategy by providing reliable schedules for such services to the community. What is the frequency of sterilization services provided at a sub-district hospital as part of the 'fixed day approach' to family planning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Twice a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thrice a week", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Once a week", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Once in fortnight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Once a week", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Once a week</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The frequency of sterilization services at different health facilities at FDS (Fixed Day Static Services Approach) is as follows:</li><li>• frequency of sterilization services</li><li>• different health facilities</li><li>• FDS</li><li>• District hospital - twice a week Sub-district hospital – weekly CHC/Block PHC – fortnightly 24x7 PHC/PHC – monthly</li><li>• District hospital - twice a week</li><li>• District hospital</li><li>• Sub-district hospital – weekly</li><li>• Sub-district hospital</li><li>• CHC/Block PHC – fortnightly</li><li>• CHC/Block PHC</li><li>• 24x7 PHC/PHC – monthly</li><li>• 24x7 PHC/PHC</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Frequency of Sterilization services to be Twice-a-week (District hospital)/Weekly basis (Subdistrict hospital), Fortnightly (CHC/Block PHC)/Monthly (24X7 PHC/PHC)</li><li>➤ Frequency of Sterilization</li><li>➤ Twice-a-week</li><li>➤ Fortnightly</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 595</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 595</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 45-year-old manual laborer in Gujarat, has undergone a vasectomy at a district headquarters hospital. Vasectomy is a permanent method of contraception that is encouraged by the government's family planning program, which often provides incentives to increase uptake. What incentives are Mr. X, who has undergone vasectomy, and the health worker who motivated him for the procedure entitled to receive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs 2000 and Rs 300 respectively", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs 3000 and Rs 400 respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs 100 and Rs 200 respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs 2200 and Rs 300 respectively.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Rs 2000 and Rs 300 respectively", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/image_sA8KZJi.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/image_eBSOJAU.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Rs 2000 and Rs 300 respectively</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Compensation scheme in public facilities and private accredited facilities .</li><li>• Compensation scheme</li><li>• public facilities</li><li>• private accredited facilities</li><li>• Compensation scheme in public facilities (Amount in Rs)</li><li>• Compensation scheme in public facilities (Amount in Rs)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Compensation scheme in private accredited facilities (Amount in Rs.)</li><li>➤ Compensation scheme in private accredited facilities (Amount in Rs.)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 597</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 597</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. X, who has presented with a four-month history of amenorrhea, is faced with an unexpected pregnancy despite having undergone laparoscopic sterilization three years prior. This scenario suggests a case of contraceptive failure following a sterilization procedure, for which there are established protocols under the national family planning indemnity scheme to compensate the patient. What amount will the health facility receive from the state under the national family planning indemnity scheme to provide compensation to Mrs. X for the contraceptive failure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs 50,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs 1,00,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs 30,000", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs 25,000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rs 30,000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/21/image-20230721141447-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rs 30,000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Family Planning Indemnity Scheme (NFPIS)</li><li>• National Family Planning Indemnity Scheme (NFPIS)</li><li>• Since 2013 , it has been decided that States/UTs would process and make payment of claims to accepters of sterilization in the event of death / failures / complications / indemnity cover to doctors /health facilities.</li><li>• Since 2013</li><li>• States/UTs</li><li>• process</li><li>• make payment of claims</li><li>• accepters of sterilization</li><li>• event of death</li><li>• failures</li><li>• complications</li><li>• indemnity cover</li><li>• doctors</li><li>• For Contraceptive failure i.e. failure of sterilization, compensation is Rs 30000.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 597</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 597</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a part of a global health elective, you are discussing the evolution of family planning initiatives with a group of medical students. One student is particularly interested in the history and progression of family planning programs in developing countries and asks about the inception of such programs in India. When was the family planning program officially launched in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1950", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1930", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1952", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1949", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1952", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1952</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• India launched a nation-wide family planning programme in 1952, making it the first country in the world to do so , though records show that birth control clinics have been functioning in the country since 1930.</li><li>• India launched</li><li>• nation-wide family planning programme</li><li>• 1952,</li><li>• first country</li><li>• world to do so</li><li>• records</li><li>• birth control clinics</li><li>• functioning</li><li>• country since 1930.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India was one of the first countries in the world to formulate a national family planning program in the year 1952.</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ one of the first countries</li><li>➤ world to formulate</li><li>➤ national family planning program in the year 1952.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 599.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 599.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic expressing interest in natural family planning methods. She has regular menstrual cycles, typically 28 days long, and is trying to avoid pregnancy without using hormonal contraceptives. You discuss the calendar method and she wants to know how to determine her fertile window. In the calendar method of contraception, the first day of the fertile period for a woman with regular cycles is:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shortest menstrual cycle minus 10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shortest menstrual cycle minus 18 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Longest menstrual cycle minus 10 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Longest menstrual cycle minus 18 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shortest menstrual cycle minus 18 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Shortest menstrual cycle minus 18 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The shortest cycle minus 18 days gives the first day of the fertile period .</li><li>• shortest cycle minus 18 days</li><li>• first day of the fertile period</li><li>• The longest cycle minus 10 days gives the last day of the fertile period .</li><li>• longest cycle minus 10 days</li><li>• last day of the fertile period</li><li>• SAFE PERIOD (RHYTHM METHOD/CALENDAR METHOD)</li><li>• SAFE PERIOD (RHYTHM METHOD/CALENDAR METHOD)</li><li>• Fertile period : Shortest cycle minus 18 days (Last day of fertile period: Longest cycle minus 10 days)</li><li>• Fertile period : Shortest cycle minus 18 days (Last day of fertile period: Longest cycle minus 10 days)</li><li>• Fertile period</li><li>• Drawbacks :</li><li>• Drawbacks :</li><li>• Drawbacks</li><li>• Difficult to predict safe period in irregular cycles Only suitable for educated couples with high motivation PROGRAMMED SEX: Abstinence required for ½ month Not useful in postnatal period High failure rate: 9 per HWY Medical complications: Ectopic pregnancies and embryonic abnormalities.</li><li>• Difficult to predict safe period in irregular cycles</li><li>• Only suitable for educated couples with high motivation</li><li>• PROGRAMMED SEX: Abstinence required for ½ month</li><li>• Not useful in postnatal period</li><li>• High failure rate: 9 per HWY</li><li>• Medical complications: Ectopic pregnancies and embryonic abnormalities.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The fertile window using the calendar method of contraception . For a woman with regular 28-day menstrual cycles , the shortest cycle minus 18 days gives the first day of the fertile period. The longest cycle minus 10 days gives the last day of the fertile period.</li><li>➤ fertile window</li><li>➤ calendar method of contraception</li><li>➤ woman with regular 28-day menstrual cycles</li><li>➤ shortest cycle minus 18 days</li><li>➤ first day of the fertile period.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 588.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 588.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman with a history of mild hypertension is seeking advice on contraceptive options. She expresses a desire for natural family planning methods due to concerns about the side effects of hormonal contraception. During your discussion, you explore various natural contraceptive methods and also consider one option that does not align with natural family planning strategies. Which of the following is NOT considered a natural contraceptive method?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Basal Body Temperature", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Oral Contraceptive Pills", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Billing method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Symptothermal method.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Oral Contraceptive Pills", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Oral Contraceptive Pills</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Basal Body temperature: At the time of ovulation , basal body temperature increases by 0.3 to 0.5 degree Celsius ; Occurs due to increased progesterone production ; Measure temperature before getting out of bed in morning (preferably)</li><li>• Option A. Basal Body temperature:</li><li>• time of ovulation</li><li>• basal body temperature increases</li><li>• 0.3 to 0.5 degree Celsius</li><li>• increased progesterone production</li><li>• Option C. Billing method : Cervical mucus thickening / Ovulation method - At the time of ovulation , cervical mucus becomes watery clear resembling raw egg white , smooth , slippery , and profuse . After ovulation, under the influence of progesterone, the mucus thickens and lessens in quantity.</li><li>• Option C. Billing method</li><li>• Cervical mucus thickening</li><li>• At the time</li><li>• ovulation</li><li>• cervical mucus</li><li>• watery clear</li><li>• raw egg white</li><li>• smooth</li><li>• slippery</li><li>• profuse</li><li>• Option D. Symptothermic method : Combination of BBT+Calender+ Billing method .</li><li>• Option D. Symptothermic method</li><li>• BBT+Calender+ Billing method</li><li>• Other Natural contraceptive method includes:</li><li>• Other Natural contraceptive method includes:</li><li>• Sexual abstinence – Only method of birth control which is completely effective Coitus interruptus /Withdrawal method – Oldest method of voluntary fertility control Lactation amenorrhoea method (LAM): A good method for natural conception under exclusive breast feeding</li><li>• Sexual abstinence – Only method of birth control which is completely effective</li><li>• Sexual abstinence</li><li>• Coitus interruptus /Withdrawal method – Oldest method of voluntary fertility control</li><li>• Coitus interruptus</li><li>• Lactation amenorrhoea method (LAM): A good method for natural conception under exclusive breast feeding</li><li>• Lactation amenorrhoea method</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Only method of birth control which is completely effective: Sexual abstinence</li><li>➤ birth control</li><li>➤ Sexual abstinence</li><li>➤ Oldest method of voluntary fertility control: Coitus interruptus</li><li>➤ Oldest method</li><li>➤ voluntary fertility</li><li>➤ Coitus interruptus</li><li>➤ Fertile period : Shortest cycle minus 18 days (Last day of fertile period: Longest cycle minus 10 days); High failure rate (9 per HWY)</li><li>➤ Fertile period</li><li>➤ BBT Method - Rise of temperature (0.3°–0.5°C) at ovulation</li><li>➤ BBT Method</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 588.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 588.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman, who is a mother of two healthy children, comes to your outpatient department expressing a desire for permanent sterilization. She asks about the age criteria for undergoing the procedure. What are the lower and upper age limits recommended for a woman to undergo sterilization if she fulfills all other criteria?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25 years and 45 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 and 50 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 years and 50 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "22 and 49 years.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 22 and 49 years.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/23/screenshot-2024-07-23-165721.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 22 and 49 years.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• New Sterilization Guidelines in India 2014</li><li>• New Sterilization Guidelines in India 2014</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The lower and upper age limits recommended for a woman to undergo sterilization if she fulfills all other criteria - 22 and 49 years of age .</li><li>➤ lower and upper age limits</li><li>➤ woman to undergo sterilization</li><li>➤ fulfills</li><li>➤ criteria</li><li>➤ 22 and 49 years of age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 589.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 589.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man has just undergone a no-scalpel vasectomy. He and his partner inquire about when they can stop using other forms of contraception. After a vasectomy/no-scalpel vasectomy, for how long should a couple be advised to use an alternative temporary method of contraception?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The following advice should be given during post-operative period for patients who underwent vasectomy :</li><li>• advice should be given during post-operative period</li><li>• underwent vasectomy</li><li>• Patient need 30 ejaculations after vasectomy , before turning sterile (should use some other contraceptive procedure till such time the semen exam indicates definite azoospermia, which is generally after 3 months) Use of barriers methods till aspermia Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation T-bandage for support for 15 days , keep site dry Avoid cycling , lifting heavy weights for 15 days Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>• Patient need 30 ejaculations after vasectomy , before turning sterile (should use some other contraceptive procedure till such time the semen exam indicates definite azoospermia, which is generally after 3 months) Use of barriers methods till aspermia Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation T-bandage for support for 15 days , keep site dry Avoid cycling , lifting heavy weights for 15 days Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>• 30 ejaculations after vasectomy</li><li>• before</li><li>• sterile</li><li>• Use of barriers methods till aspermia Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation T-bandage for support for 15 days , keep site dry Avoid cycling , lifting heavy weights for 15 days Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>• Use of barriers methods till aspermia</li><li>• barriers methods</li><li>• aspermia</li><li>• Avoid bath for 24 hours after operation</li><li>• Avoid bath</li><li>• 24 hours after operation</li><li>• T-bandage for support for 15 days , keep site dry</li><li>• T-bandage</li><li>• support for 15 days</li><li>• Avoid cycling , lifting heavy weights for 15 days</li><li>• Avoid cycling</li><li>• lifting heavy weights</li><li>• 15 days</li><li>• Stitch removal on 5th day</li><li>• Stitch removal</li><li>• 5th day</li><li>• Important pointers related to Vasectomy -</li><li>• Important pointers related to Vasectomy</li><li>• Procedure:</li><li>• Procedure:</li><li>• Remove minimum 1 cm of vas deferens Ends are ligated and folded back to themselves Person is NOT sterile UNTIL after 30 ejaculations (3 months) post-vasectomy Open ended Vasectomy: Seals only top end of vas deferens Sperms are free to spill out from the lower severed end of the vas Likelihood of long-term testicular pain from ‘backup pressure’ seems to be eliminated using this method No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV): vas is brought out through a tiny puncture which does not require any stitches</li><li>• Remove minimum 1 cm of vas deferens</li><li>• minimum 1 cm of vas deferens</li><li>• Ends are ligated and folded back to themselves</li><li>• Person is NOT sterile UNTIL after 30 ejaculations (3 months) post-vasectomy Open ended Vasectomy:</li><li>• 30 ejaculations (3 months) post-vasectomy</li><li>• Seals only top end of vas deferens</li><li>• Sperms are free to spill out from the lower severed end of the vas</li><li>• Likelihood of long-term testicular pain from ‘backup pressure’ seems to be eliminated using this method No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV): vas is brought out through a tiny puncture which does not require any stitches</li><li>• No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV): vas is brought out through a tiny puncture which does not require any stitches</li><li>• No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV): vas is brought out through a tiny puncture which does not require any stitches</li><li>• Also known as Key hole vasectomy Surgical hook (not scalpel) is used to enter the scrotum New safer, convenient technique acceptable to males Nearly painless, less invasive and faster Sterilization is the most cost-effective contraceptive measure – Vasectomy is overall most cost-effective (Cost wise ratio is 5 vasectomies to 1 tubectomy)</li><li>• Also known as Key hole vasectomy</li><li>• Key hole vasectomy</li><li>• Surgical hook (not scalpel) is used to enter the scrotum</li><li>• Surgical hook</li><li>• enter the scrotum</li><li>• New safer, convenient technique acceptable to males</li><li>• Nearly painless, less invasive and faster</li><li>• Sterilization is the most cost-effective contraceptive measure – Vasectomy is overall most cost-effective (Cost wise ratio is 5 vasectomies to 1 tubectomy)</li><li>• Sterilization</li><li>• most cost-effective contraceptive measure</li><li>• Failure of vasectomy : MCC in India: Mistaken identification of vas deferens Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histological confirmation; Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li><li>• Failure of vasectomy : MCC in India: Mistaken identification of vas deferens Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histological confirmation; Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li><li>• Failure of vasectomy</li><li>• MCC in India: Mistaken identification of vas deferens Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histological confirmation; Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li><li>• MCC in India: Mistaken identification of vas deferens</li><li>• Failure rate (Pearl Index): 0.15 per HWY</li><li>• Confirmation of successful vasectomy by Histological confirmation; Smear of squeeze of vas by Wright’s stain</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patient need 30 ejaculations after vasectomy , before turning sterile . He should use some other contraceptive procedure till such time, the semen exam indicates definite azoospermia, which is generally after 3 months</li><li>➤ 30 ejaculations after vasectomy</li><li>➤ before</li><li>➤ sterile</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 406.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 406.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine headaches (without aura) presents to your clinic inquiring about contraceptive options. She expresses interest in oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) and asks if her medical history would prevent her from taking them. Which of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication for the use of oral contraceptive pills?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thromboembolism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epilepsy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hyperlipidemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Epilepsy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-174537.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Epilepsy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Options A. Thromboembolism, C. Breast cancer and D. Hyperlipidemia are absolute contraindications</li><li>• Options A. Thromboembolism, C. Breast cancer and D. Hyperlipidemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral contraceptive pills contraindications:</li><li>➤ Oral contraceptive pills contraindications:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 583.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 583.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are part of a public health team reviewing the progress of various health initiatives in your district, including the \"Mission Parivar Vikas\" program launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. A new member of the team is learning about the program and has some misconceptions. Which of the following statements about \"Mission Parivar Vikas\" is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Roll out of DMPA up to subcenter level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Covers entire country", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Implementing new promotional schemes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Creating an enabling environment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Covers entire country", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-174027.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Covers entire country.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Roll out of DMPA up to subcenter level: Correct. One of the strategies of \"Mission Parivar Vikas \" includes the rollout of Depot Medroxyprogesterone Acetate (DMPA), a contraceptive injection , up to the subcenter level, enhancing access to long-acting reversible contraceptives.</li><li>• Option A. Roll out of DMPA up to subcenter level:</li><li>• Correct.</li><li>• strategies of \"Mission Parivar Vikas</li><li>• rollout of Depot Medroxyprogesterone Acetate</li><li>• contraceptive injection</li><li>• Option C. Implementing new promotional schemes : Correct . Implementing new promotional schemes and incentives is part of the program's strategy to promote family planning and ensure wider outreach and acceptance within the target districts.</li><li>• Option C. Implementing new promotional schemes</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Implementing new</li><li>• promotional schemes</li><li>• incentives is part of the program's strategy</li><li>• promote family planning</li><li>• Option D. Creating an enabling environment: Correct , creating an enabling environment that supports family planning and the use of contraceptives is a key objective of the program. This includes community engagement, counseling services, and awareness campaigns.</li><li>• Option D. Creating an enabling environment:</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• enabling environment</li><li>• supports family planning</li><li>• use of contraceptives</li><li>• key objective</li><li>• program.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sterilization Incentive Package for MPV districts -</li><li>➤ Sterilization Incentive Package for MPV districts -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 595</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 595</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a newly appointed healthcare provider in a high-focus district with high fertility rates, you're attending a workshop on family planning initiatives. One of the innovative strategies discussed is the provision of family planning (FP) kits to newly married couples to encourage delayed childbearing. Under what name are newly married couples in high focus districts given a family planning kit to promote delayed childbearing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "SAARTHI", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NAYI PAHEL", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Saas Bahu Sammelan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nishchay", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NAYI PAHEL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. NAYI PAHEL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Saarthi : Smartly designed bus /van equipped with interactive communication devices /IEC materials and FP commodities used in high focus districts (of Mission Parivar Vikas) to disseminate awareness .</li><li>• Option A. Saarthi</li><li>• Smartly designed bus</li><li>• interactive communication devices</li><li>• FP commodities</li><li>• high focus districts</li><li>• disseminate awareness</li><li>• Option C. Saas Bahu Sammelan : Aimed to facilitate improved communication between daughters in law and mother-in-law through interactive games and exercises. (Under Mission Parivar Vikas ).</li><li>• Option C. Saas Bahu Sammelan</li><li>• facilitate improved communication</li><li>• daughters in law</li><li>• mother-in-law</li><li>• ).</li><li>• Option D. Nishchay : Home-based pregnancy testing kits . Availability at Subcentres level, ASHA workers</li><li>• Option D. Nishchay</li><li>• Home-based pregnancy testing kits</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Nayi Pahel Kit - Newly married couples in high focus districts given a family planning kit to promote delayed childbearing</li><li>➤ Nayi Pahel Kit</li><li>➤ Newly married couples</li><li>➤ high focus districts</li><li>➤ family planning kit</li><li>➤ promote delayed childbearing</li><li>➤ Ref: NHM Mission PARIVAR Vikas guidelines - https://www.nhm.gov.in/New_Update-2021-22/FP/MPV/Mission_Parivar_Vikas_Guidelines.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref: NHM Mission PARIVAR Vikas guidelines</li><li>➤ https://www.nhm.gov.in/New_Update-2021-22/FP/MPV/Mission_Parivar_Vikas_Guidelines.pdf</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old postnatal mother presents to your clinic for a contraception consultation. After discussing various options, she decided to proceed with the depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection for birth spacing. How frequently should the depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection be repeated for a postnatal mother using it as a contraceptive method?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monthly once", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2 months once", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 months once", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Once in 6 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 months once", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture56.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3 months once</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA or Depo-Provera ) has been in use since the 1960s . The standard dose is an intramuscular injection of 150 mg every 3 months . It gives protection from pregnancy in 99 percent of women for at least 3 months.</li><li>• Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate</li><li>• )</li><li>• has been in use</li><li>• 1960s</li><li>• standard dose</li><li>• intramuscular injection of 150 mg every 3 months</li><li>• protection</li><li>• pregnancy in 99 percent of women</li><li>• least 3 months.</li><li>• DEPOT Formulations (Injectable Hormones)</li><li>• DEPOT Formulations (Injectable Hormones)</li><li>• DMPA (Depot Medroxy Progesterone Acetate): a Progestogen only Injectable contraceptive (Depot formulation)</li><li>• DMPA (Depot Medroxy Progesterone Acetate):</li><li>• Progestogen</li><li>• Injectable contraceptive</li><li>• Dose: 150 mg i/m every 3 months</li><li>• Dose: 150 mg i/m every 3 months</li><li>• Advantages: Highly effective Long lasting and reversible Does not affect lactation</li><li>• Advantages:</li><li>• Advantages:</li><li>• Highly effective</li><li>• Long lasting and reversible</li><li>• Does not affect lactation</li><li>• Side effects: Disruptions of normal menstrual cycles Amenorrhoea</li><li>• Side effects:</li><li>• Side effects:</li><li>• Disruptions of normal menstrual cycles</li><li>• Amenorrhoea</li><li>• 2. NET–EN: Norethisterone Enanthate, a Progestogen only Injectable contraceptive (Depot formulation)</li><li>• 2. NET–EN: Norethisterone Enanthate,</li><li>• Progestogen</li><li>• Injectable contraceptive</li><li>• Dose : 200 mg i/m every 2 months Advantages :</li><li>• Dose : 200 mg i/m every 2 months</li><li>• Dose</li><li>• Advantages :</li><li>• Advantages</li><li>• Highly effective Long lasting and reversible</li><li>• Highly effective</li><li>• Long lasting and reversible</li><li>• Side effects :</li><li>• Side effects :</li><li>• Side effects</li><li>• Disruptions of normal menstrual cycles Amenorrhoea</li><li>• Disruptions of normal menstrual cycles</li><li>• Amenorrhoea</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) - Intramuscular injection of 150 mg every 3 months</li><li>➤ Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate</li><li>➤ Intramuscular injection</li><li>➤ 150 mg</li><li>➤ 3 months</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed, pg 584.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed, pg 584.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on emergency contraception after an episode of unprotected intercourse 18 hours ago. She has no significant medical history and is not currently on any form of regular contraception. Within what timeframe should post-coital contraceptives be recommended?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "72 hours of unprotected intercourse", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "48 hours of unprotected intercourse", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24 hours of unprotected intercourse", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "36 hours of unprotected intercourse", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 72 hours of unprotected intercourse", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 72 hours of unprotected intercourse</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Post-coital or “morning after\" contraception is recommended within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse .</li><li>• Post-coital</li><li>• “morning after\" contraception</li><li>• 72 hours of unprotected intercourse</li><li>• Emergency Contraception / Post-Coital Contraception / Intraception – It is the method of contraception which is employed within 72 hours of the intercourse . It includes –</li><li>• Emergency Contraception / Post-Coital Contraception / Intraception</li><li>• method of contraception</li><li>• employed within 72 hours of the intercourse</li><li>• LNG – a single tablet of 1.5 mg or two tablets of 0.75 mg 12 hours apart should be given to prevent fertilization. It is the most commonly used method which is recommended by Government of India. Ulipristal acetate – It is a SPRM, 30 mg tablet which can be used up to 5 days after intercourse. CuT devices – These devices can be used within 5 days of the intercourse and is the most effective method. Mifepristone (RU 486) – It is a progesterone derivative which can be used to increase the thickness of secretions and make the endometrium out of phase to prevent implantation.</li><li>• LNG – a single tablet of 1.5 mg or two tablets of 0.75 mg 12 hours apart should be given to prevent fertilization. It is the most commonly used method which is recommended by Government of India.</li><li>• LNG</li><li>• Ulipristal acetate – It is a SPRM, 30 mg tablet which can be used up to 5 days after intercourse.</li><li>• Ulipristal acetate</li><li>• CuT devices – These devices can be used within 5 days of the intercourse and is the most effective method.</li><li>• CuT devices</li><li>• Mifepristone (RU 486) – It is a progesterone derivative which can be used to increase the thickness of secretions and make the endometrium out of phase to prevent implantation.</li><li>• Mifepristone (RU 486) –</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Post-coital or “morning after\" contraception is recommended within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>➤ Post-coital</li><li>➤ “morning after\" contraception</li><li>➤ 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed, pg 581</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed, pg 581</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are reviewing the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data as part of a study on family planning trends in India. You need to evaluate the percentage of currently married women who are reported to use any method of contraception, including modern methods. According to the NFHS-5, what percentage of currently married women in India are using any method of contraception, including modern methods?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "62.8%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "66.7%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "57.3%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "59.8 %", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 66.7%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/29/screenshot-2024-07-29-173245.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 66.7%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NFHS 5 (2019-21) data -</li><li>• NFHS 5 (2019-21) data -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to NFHS 5 (2019-21) data , the currently married women using contraceptive methods are 66.7 %.</li><li>➤ NFHS 5</li><li>➤ data</li><li>➤ currently married women</li><li>➤ contraceptive methods are 66.7 %.</li><li>➤ Ref: NFHS 5 India fact sheet.</li><li>➤ Ref: NFHS 5 India fact sheet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 38 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Genetics And Health - 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But human population and consequently human gene pool is never static. A medical student studying for his board exams comes across this concept while revising the genetics section. Which of the following is this principle most closely related to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gene therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Population genetics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Human genome project", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eugenics", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Population genetics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Population genetics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Gene Therapy: Introduction of a gene sequence into a cell to modify its behaviour .</li><li>• Option A. Gene Therapy:</li><li>• Introduction</li><li>• gene sequence</li><li>• cell to modify</li><li>• behaviour</li><li>• Option C. Human Genome Project: It is an international scientific research project . Primary goals are to determine the sequence of chemical base pairs that make up DNA and to identify the approximately 25,000 genes of the human genome.</li><li>• Option C. Human Genome Project:</li><li>• international scientific research project</li><li>• Option D. Eugenics (Sir Francis Galton): Is a social philosophy which advocates the improvement of human hereditary traits through various forms of intervention (GENETIC MANIPULATION)</li><li>• Option D. Eugenics (Sir Francis Galton):</li><li>• social philosophy</li><li>• advocates the improvement</li><li>• human hereditary traits</li><li>• Negative Eugenics: Is aimed at lowering fertility among the genetically disadvantaged (through abortions, Sterilizations and other methods of family planning)</li><li>• Negative Eugenics:</li><li>• lowering fertility</li><li>• genetically disadvantaged</li><li>• Positive Eugenics: Is aimed to encourage reproduction among the genetically advantaged (through financial and political stimuli, targeted demographic analyses, in vitro fertilization, egg transplants, gene cloning, etc)</li><li>• Positive Eugenics:</li><li>• encourage reproduction</li><li>• genetically advantaged</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Population genetics focuses on the study of genetic variation and the changes in allele and gene frequencies within populations over time .</li><li>➤ Population genetics</li><li>➤ study of genetic variation</li><li>➤ changes in allele</li><li>➤ gene frequencies</li><li>➤ populations over time</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 922</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A geneticist is giving a presentation on recent advances in the field of genetics. During her talk, she mentions a groundbreaking Human Genome Project, which would subsequently pave the way for advances in many medical and biological fields. What was the primary intention of the project she is referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Development of new diagnostic techniques.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Confirming hardy Weinberg law.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Identify genes and sequences of base pair in DNA of human genome.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Introducing gene sequence into a cell to modify its behaviour.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Identify genes and sequences of base pair in DNA of human genome.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Identify genes and sequences of base pair in DNA of human genome.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Development of new diagnostic techniques: While the HGP has certainly contributed to the development of new diagnostic techniques , this was not its primary intention.</li><li>• Option A. Development of new diagnostic techniques:</li><li>• HGP</li><li>• contributed</li><li>• development of new diagnostic techniques</li><li>• Option B. Confirming the Hardy-Weinberg law: The HGP was not aimed at confirming genetic laws such as the Hardy-Weinberg law but rather at mapping the human genome.</li><li>• Option B. Confirming the Hardy-Weinberg law:</li><li>• HGP</li><li>• not aimed at confirming genetic laws</li><li>• Option D. Introducing gene sequences into a cell to modify its behavior: This refers to gene therapy , which is a different field and was not the primary goal of the HGP.</li><li>• Option D. Introducing gene sequences into a cell to modify its behavior:</li><li>• gene therapy</li><li>• different field</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Human Genome Project (HGP) was an international research effort with the primary goal of mapping and understanding all the genes of the human genome .</li><li>➤ Human Genome Project</li><li>➤ international research</li><li>➤ primary goal</li><li>➤ mapping</li><li>➤ genes of the human genome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 921</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old pregnant woman with a history of a child with Down syndrome presents to the obstetric clinic for prenatal care. She is anxious about the health of her current pregnancy and wants to ensure that her unborn child does not have any chromosomal abnormalities. Her obstetrician discusses various prenatal diagnostic methods, including one that involves the aspiration of a small amount of amniotic fluid to check for chromosomal abnormalities. At how many weeks of gestation can this method be safely performed?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "14 th week of gestation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "16 th week of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "18 th week of gestation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 th week of gestation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 14 th week of gestation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 14th week of gestation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Amniocentesis : Examination of a sample of amniotic fluid makes possible the prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies and certain metabolic defects . The procedure can be used as early as 14th week of pregnancy when abortion of the affected fetus is still feasible . The diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies is made by culture and karyotyping of fetal cells from the amniotic fluid , and of metabolic defects by biochemical analysis of the fluid .</li><li>• Amniocentesis</li><li>• Examination</li><li>• sample of amniotic fluid</li><li>• prenatal diagnosis</li><li>• chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• certain metabolic defects</li><li>• procedure</li><li>• early as 14th week</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• abortion of the affected fetus</li><li>• still feasible</li><li>• diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• culture</li><li>• karyotyping</li><li>• fetal cells</li><li>• amniotic fluid</li><li>• metabolic defects</li><li>• biochemical analysis</li><li>• fluid</li><li>• Amniocentesis is called for in the following circumstances if the parents are prepared to consider abortion -</li><li>• Amniocentesis</li><li>• circumstances</li><li>• parents</li><li>• A mother aged 35 years or more (because of high risk of Down’s syndrome with advanced maternal age) Patients who have had a child with Down’s syndrome or other chromosomal anomalies . Parents who are known to have chromosomal translocation . Parents who have had a child with a metabolic defect - detectable by amniocentesis. The most common are defects of the neural tube, anencephaly, and spina bifida which can be detected by an elevation of alpha fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid. When determination of the sex is warranted , given a family history of a sex-linked genetic disease e.g., certain muscular dystrophies.</li><li>• A mother aged 35 years or more (because of high risk of Down’s syndrome with advanced maternal age)</li><li>• mother aged 35 years</li><li>• more</li><li>• Patients who have had a child with Down’s syndrome or other chromosomal anomalies .</li><li>• Patients</li><li>• child with Down’s syndrome</li><li>• chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• Parents who are known to have chromosomal translocation .</li><li>• Parents</li><li>• chromosomal translocation</li><li>• Parents who have had a child with a metabolic defect - detectable by amniocentesis. The most common are defects of the neural tube, anencephaly, and spina bifida which can be detected by an elevation of alpha fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid.</li><li>• Parents</li><li>• child with a metabolic defect</li><li>• detectable</li><li>• amniocentesis.</li><li>• most common</li><li>• defects of the neural tube,</li><li>• anencephaly,</li><li>• spina bifida</li><li>• When determination of the sex is warranted , given a family history of a sex-linked genetic disease e.g., certain muscular dystrophies.</li><li>• determination</li><li>• sex is warranted</li><li>• family history of a sex-linked genetic disease</li><li>• For the detection of neural tube defects , there is now the possibility of widespread screening by the determination of alpha-fetoprotein levels in the maternal serum . If the test is positive , it can be confirmed by amniocentesis .</li><li>• detection of neural tube defects</li><li>• possibility of widespread screening</li><li>• determination of alpha-fetoprotein levels</li><li>• maternal serum</li><li>• test is positive</li><li>• amniocentesis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amniocentesis: Amniotic Fluid Test or AFT is a medical procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of genetic risk factors ; It can be performed ‘usually after the 14th week of pregnancy’ (and not before 12 weeks of POG)</li><li>➤ Amniocentesis:</li><li>➤ medical procedure</li><li>➤ prenatal diagnosis of genetic risk factors</li><li>➤ ‘usually after the 14th week of pregnancy’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 923</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes to the genetic counseling clinic. Her family history reveals that her maternal uncle had a bleeding disorder that required frequent hospitalizations and blood transfusions. She recalls hearing that males in her family were affected, but not females. Concerned about the potential risks to her unborn child, she inquires about the pattern of inheritance of this disorder. How is this bleeding disorder, suspected to be haemophilia, typically transmitted?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "X linked dominant", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Y linked recessive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "X linked recessive", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Trisomy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. X linked recessive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. X linked recessive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Recessive sex-linked traits</li><li>• Recessive sex-linked traits</li><li>• Haemophilia type A and B Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy Colour blindness G6PD Deficiency Hydrocephalus Retinitis pigmentosa Agammaglobulinemia, Bruton type.</li><li>• Haemophilia type A and B</li><li>• Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy</li><li>• Colour blindness</li><li>• G6PD Deficiency</li><li>• Hydrocephalus</li><li>• Retinitis pigmentosa</li><li>• Agammaglobulinemia, Bruton type.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key point is recognizing the characteristic features of X-linked recessive inheritance , where males are predominantly affected due to having only one X chromosome .</li><li>➤ recognizing</li><li>➤ characteristic features</li><li>➤ X-linked recessive inheritance</li><li>➤ males</li><li>➤ affected</li><li>➤ one X chromosome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 918</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician is consulting with a couple who have a family history of phenylketonuria (PKU). They recently had a child and are concerned about the potential for their child to develop PKU symptoms. The doctor explains that while genetic predisposition plays a role, environmental factors such as diet can influence the expression of certain genes. By ensuring that the child adheres to a diet low in phenylalanine, symptoms of PKU can be prevented. This strategy of influencing genetic expression through environmental changes is best described as what?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Eugenics", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Euthenics", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Genetic counselling", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Environmental sampling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Euthenics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Euthenics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Eugenics (Sir Francis Galton): Is a social philosophy which advocates the improvement of human hereditary traits through various forms of intervention (GENETIC MANIPULATION).</li><li>• Option A. Eugenics (Sir Francis Galton):</li><li>• social philosophy</li><li>• advocates</li><li>• improvement of human hereditary traits</li><li>• forms of intervention</li><li>• Negative Eugenics: Is aimed at lowering fertility among the genetically disadvantaged (through Abortions, family planning methods)</li><li>• Negative Eugenics:</li><li>• lowering fertility</li><li>• genetically disadvantaged</li><li>• Positive Eugenics: Is aimed to encourage reproduction among the genetically advantaged (through financial and political stimuli, targeted demographic analyses, in-vitro fertilization, egg transplants, gene cloning, etc)</li><li>• Positive Eugenics:</li><li>• aimed to encourage reproduction</li><li>• genetically advantaged</li><li>• Option C. Genetic counselling is a process in which genetic counsellors provide information and support to individuals and families who may be at risk for or affected by genetic disorders . These counsellors are typically trained in medical genetics and counselling techniques and work closely with healthcare providers to assist individuals in understanding the genetic aspects of their health and family history.</li><li>• Option C. Genetic counselling</li><li>• process in which genetic counsellors</li><li>• information</li><li>• support to individuals</li><li>• families</li><li>• affected by genetic disorders</li><li>• counsellors</li><li>• trained in medical genetics</li><li>• counselling techniques</li><li>• work closely</li><li>• healthcare providers</li><li>• Option D. Environmental sampling is a process of collecting and analysing samples from the environment to assess the presence of various substances , pollutants , microorganisms , or other factors . It is an essential practice in environmental monitoring , research , and public health , as it helps identify potential hazards, pollution sources, or changes in the environment over time. Environmental sampling can be applied in various settings, including industrial sites, natural habitats, bodies of water, air quality monitoring, and indoor environments.</li><li>• Option D. Environmental sampling</li><li>• process of collecting</li><li>• analysing samples</li><li>• environment to assess the presence</li><li>• various substances</li><li>• pollutants</li><li>• microorganisms</li><li>• other factors</li><li>• essential practice</li><li>• environmental monitoring</li><li>• research</li><li>• public health</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Euthenics refers to the improvement of human functioning and well-being by altering the environment . It emphasizes the role of environmental factors in the expression of genetic potential .</li><li>➤ Euthenics</li><li>➤ improvement of human functioning</li><li>➤ well-being</li><li>➤ altering the environment</li><li>➤ emphasizes</li><li>➤ role of environmental factors</li><li>➤ expression of genetic potential</li><li>➤ Euthenics is a pre-requisite for Eugenics . Dysgenics is a term describing the progressive evolutionary ‘weakening’ or genetic deterioration of a population of organisms relative to their environment.</li><li>➤ Euthenics</li><li>➤ pre-requisite for Eugenics</li><li>➤ Dysgenics</li><li>➤ progressive evolutionary ‘weakening’</li><li>➤ genetic deterioration</li><li>➤ population of organisms</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 922</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying genetic patterns of inheritance and their association with various diseases. She learns about polygenic inheritance, a form of inheritance where multiple genes collectively influence a phenotypic trait. This type of inheritance is distinct from single-gene disorders and often involves complex interactions between different genetic and environmental factors. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with polygenic inheritance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haemophilia", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HOCM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Familial hyperlipidaemia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hypertension", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hypertension</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Hemophilia: This is a single-gene disorder caused by mutations in the X-linked F8 or F9 gene , following an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance.</li><li>• Option B. Hemophilia:</li><li>• single-gene disorder</li><li>• mutations in the X-linked F8 or F9 gene</li><li>• Option C. HOCM: HOCM ( Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy ) is often caused by mutations in single genes , such as the MYH7 or MYBPC3 genes , and follows a Mendelian pattern of inheritance.</li><li>• Option C. HOCM:</li><li>• )</li><li>• caused by mutations in single genes</li><li>• MYH7 or MYBPC3 genes</li><li>• Option D. Familial hyperlipidemia: This condition is often caused by mutations in specific genes like the LDLR gene , following a single-gene inheritance pattern.</li><li>• Option D. Familial hyperlipidemia:</li><li>• mutations in specific genes</li><li>• LDLR gene</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polygenic inheritance involves the contribution of multiple genes in determining a particular trait or disease . Hypertension is a classic example of a condition that is influenced by polygenic inheritance . It results from the interplay of various genetic factors , each contributing a small effect , combined with environmental factors such as diet, lifestyle, and stress. The complexity of its genetic basis is contrasted with conditions like hemophilia, HOCM, and familial hyperlipidemia, which are more typically associated with single-gene inheritance patterns.</li><li>➤ Polygenic inheritance</li><li>➤ contribution of multiple genes</li><li>➤ determining a particular trait or disease</li><li>➤ Hypertension</li><li>➤ classic example</li><li>➤ influenced</li><li>➤ polygenic inheritance</li><li>➤ interplay</li><li>➤ genetic factors</li><li>➤ contributing a small effect</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 421</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with concerns about the possibility of inheriting a genetic condition that has affected several members of his family. Upon obtaining a detailed family history, the physician notes that affected individuals in every generation are both male and female and are often born to unaffected parents. Most of these aconditions follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with autosomal dominant inheritance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neurofibromatosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinoblastoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ataxia telangiectasia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Marfan’s syndrome", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ataxia telangiectasia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ataxia telangiectasia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Neurofibromatosis: This condition follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance . Mutations in the NF1 or NF2 genes are responsible for the different types of neurofibromatosis.</li><li>• Option A. Neurofibromatosis:</li><li>• autosomal dominant pattern</li><li>• inheritance</li><li>• Option B. Retinoblastoma: This is a cancer of the retina associated with mutations in the RB1 gene . It can be inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.</li><li>• Option B. Retinoblastoma:</li><li>• cancer of the retina</li><li>• mutations in the RB1 gene</li><li>• Option D. Marfan’s syndrome: Marfan’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene , affecting connective tissues.</li><li>• Option D. Marfan’s syndrome:</li><li>• autosomal dominant disorder</li><li>• mutations in the FBN1 gene</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autosomal dominant traits</li><li>➤ Autosomal dominant traits</li><li>➤ Achondroplasia Huntington’s chorea Neurofibromatosis Polyposis coli, familial Brachydactyly Marfan’s syndrome Retinoblastoma ABO blood group system Hyperlipoproteinemia I, II, III, IV Polycystic, kidney Polydactyly Spherocytosis, hereditary</li><li>➤ Achondroplasia</li><li>➤ Huntington’s chorea</li><li>➤ Neurofibromatosis</li><li>➤ Polyposis coli, familial</li><li>➤ Brachydactyly</li><li>➤ Marfan’s syndrome</li><li>➤ Retinoblastoma</li><li>➤ ABO blood group system</li><li>➤ Hyperlipoproteinemia I, II, III, IV</li><li>➤ Polycystic, kidney</li><li>➤ Polydactyly Spherocytosis, hereditary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 918</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman and a 27-year-old man, both from the same small community, are planning to get married. They seek premarital counseling due to concerns about potential genetic risks for their offspring, as both of them have a family history of the same genetic disorder, although neither of them shows symptoms. The counselor recommends a specific screening process to help assess the risk to their potential offspring. What is this preventive approach called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mass health education", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Legislation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prospective genetic counselling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retrospective genetic counselling", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prospective genetic counselling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prospective genetic counselling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mass health education: While important for general public health awareness , mass health education is not specific to assessing individual genetic risks for prospective offspring .</li><li>• Option A. Mass health education:</li><li>• general public health awareness</li><li>• mass health education</li><li>• not</li><li>• assessing</li><li>• genetic risks</li><li>• prospective offspring</li><li>• Option B. Legislation: This refers to laws and regulations , which is not relevant to the individualized assessment of genetic risk in a clinical setting.</li><li>• Option B. Legislation:</li><li>• laws and regulations</li><li>• Option D. Retrospective genetic counseling: Seeking genetic advice after a hereditary disorder has already occurred in the family . This is useful in diseases like Congenital anomalies, Mental retardation, Psychiatric illness, Inborn errors of metabolism, etc</li><li>• Option D. Retrospective genetic counseling:</li><li>• Seeking genetic advice</li><li>• hereditary disorder</li><li>• occurred in the family</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prospective genetic counseling: Identify heterozygous individuals for any particular defect (through screening) and explain to them the risk of having affected children , if they marry another heterozygote for the same gene . This is useful in diseases like Thalassemia, sickle cell anemia, etc</li><li>➤ Prospective genetic counseling:</li><li>➤ heterozygous individuals</li><li>➤ particular defect</li><li>➤ risk of having affected children</li><li>➤ marry</li><li>➤ heterozygote for the same gene</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 923</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 47-year-old woman named Mrs. X presents to a genetic counselor. She is planning her second pregnancy. Her first child, a male, was diagnosed with Down’s syndrome. She is concerned about the likelihood of her next child having the same condition. Given her age and her previous child's diagnosis, what is the chance for her next child to also have Down's syndrome?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 in 3000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 in 300", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 in 500", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 in 50", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 in 50", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1 in 50</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra chromosome which occurs on the 21 st pair . The frequency of Down’s syndrome increases with rising maternal age but is unaffected by the age of the father . The risk for a woman of 20 years old is estimated at about 1 in 3,000 and that for a woman of 45 is 1 in 50.</li><li>• Down’s syndrome</li><li>• extra chromosome</li><li>• 21 st pair</li><li>• frequency of Down’s syndrome increases</li><li>• rising maternal age</li><li>• unaffected</li><li>• age of the father</li><li>• Amniocentesis is indicated in following circumstances -</li><li>• Amniocentesis</li><li>• indicated in following circumstances</li><li>• A mother aged &gt; 35 years (high risk of Down’s Syndrome) Patients who have had a child with Down’s Syndrome or other chromosomal anomalies Parents known to have chromosomal translocation Patients who have had a child with metabolic defect When sex-determination is warranted</li><li>• A mother aged &gt; 35 years (high risk of Down’s Syndrome)</li><li>• Patients who have had a child with Down’s Syndrome or other chromosomal anomalies</li><li>• Parents known to have chromosomal translocation</li><li>• Patients who have had a child with metabolic defect</li><li>• When sex-determination is warranted</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The three most common abnormalities tested through amniocentesis , are - Down’s syndrome ; Trisomy 18 and Spina bifida</li><li>➤ three</li><li>➤ common abnormalities tested</li><li>➤ amniocentesis</li><li>➤ Down’s syndrome</li><li>➤ Trisomy 18</li><li>➤ Spina bifida</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 917</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A couple presents to a genetic counseling clinic. They are first cousins and are contemplating having children but are concerned about the potential genetic risks to their offspring. The genetic counselor explains the various risks associated with consanguineous marriages. Which of the following statements made by the counselor regarding consanguineous marriages and genetic abnormalities is incorrect?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lowering of consanguineous marriage increases health of the community.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genes.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "There is increased tendency for premature death.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Child born out of consanguineous marriage has high risk of alkaptonuria compared to non-consanguineous marriage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genes.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genes.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Lowering the rate of consanguineous marriages increases the overall health of the community : This statement is generally considered correct , as it reduces the risk of autosomal recessive genetic disorders in the population.</li><li>• Option A. Lowering the rate of consanguineous marriages increases the overall health of the community</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option C. Consanguineous marriages are associated with an increased tendency for premature death in offspring: This is correct , as there is a higher risk of lethal recessive genetic disorders in consanguineous marriages.</li><li>• Option C. Consanguineous marriages are associated with an increased tendency for premature death in offspring:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option D. Children born out of consanguineous marriages have a higher risk of alkaptonuria compared to those from non-consanguineous marriages: This is true , as alkaptonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder, and the risk is higher in consanguineous marriages.</li><li>• Option D. Children born out of consanguineous marriages have a higher risk of alkaptonuria compared to those from non-consanguineous marriages:</li><li>• true</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The key point is understanding that consanguinity significantly increases the risk of autosomal recessive disorders , not autosomal dominant ones . This knowledge is essential in genetic counseling , especially in communities where consanguineous marriages are common , to provide accurate risk assessments and guidance for family planning.</li><li>➤ consanguinity</li><li>➤ increases the risk</li><li>➤ autosomal recessive disorders</li><li>➤ autosomal dominant ones</li><li>➤ genetic counseling</li><li>➤ communities</li><li>➤ consanguineous marriages</li><li>➤ common</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 923</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying various historical and contemporary aspects of genetics. During her studies, she comes across the term \"eugenics\" and seeks to understand its meaning and implications. Based on her research, which of the following best describes the concept of eugenics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A state of being carried away by overwhelming emotion.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A drug related feeling of elation or euphoria.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The painless killing of a patient suffering from an incurable and painful disease or in an irreversible coma.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Study of hereditary improvement of humans by controlled selective breeding.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Study of hereditary improvement of humans by controlled selective breeding.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Study of hereditary improvement of humans by controlled selective breeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. A state of being carried away by overwhelming emotion: Not related. This refers more to a psychological state .</li><li>• Option A. A state of being carried away by overwhelming emotion:</li><li>• more</li><li>• psychological state</li><li>• Option B. A drug-related feeling of elation or euphoria: Not related. This refers to a pharmacological effect .</li><li>• Option B. A drug-related feeling of elation or euphoria:</li><li>• pharmacological effect</li><li>• Option C. The painless killing of a patient suffering from an incurable and painful disease or in an irreversible coma: Not relarted. This describes euthanasia .</li><li>• Option C. The painless killing of a patient suffering from an incurable and painful disease or in an irreversible coma:</li><li>• euthanasia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Eugenics is a set of beliefs and practices aimed at improving the genetic quality of the human population through controlled selective breeding .</li><li>➤ Eugenics</li><li>➤ set of beliefs</li><li>➤ practices aimed</li><li>➤ improving the genetic quality</li><li>➤ human population</li><li>➤ selective breeding</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 922</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is reviewing her notes on genetic disorders when she encounters a section on autosomal recessive disorders. She recalls several characteristics of these disorders but is unsure about one statement she had written down. Which of the following statements is incorrect about autosomal recessive disorders?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Affect majority in later age group than children.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Majority of disorders of inborn errors of metabolism come under this group.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heterozygotes are not affected.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Male and females are affected.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Affect majority in later age group than children.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Affect majority in later age group than children</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. The majority of disorders of inborn errors of metabolism fall under this category: This is correct . Inborn errors of metabolism are often due to recessive genes, where both copies of a gene must be mutated for the disorder to manifest.</li><li>• Option B. The majority of disorders of inborn errors of metabolism fall under this category:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option C. Heterozygotes for the gene are not typically affected: This is also correct . In autosomal recessive disorders, heterozygotes (carriers) have one normal allele and one mutated allele and usually do not show symptoms of the disorder.</li><li>• Option C. Heterozygotes for the gene are not typically affected:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option D. Both males and females are equally affected by these disorders: This statement is accurate as autosomal disorders are not linked to sex chromosomes, thus affecting both genders equally.</li><li>• Option D. Both males and females are equally affected by these disorders:</li><li>• accurate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Autosomal recessive disorder , typically manifest in childhood , involve inborn errors of metabolism , and affect carriers (heterozygotes) asymptomatically. Both males and females are equally affected . Understanding these characteristics is crucial for accurate diagnosis and genetic counseling.</li><li>➤ Autosomal recessive disorder</li><li>➤ childhood</li><li>➤ inborn errors</li><li>➤ metabolism</li><li>➤ affect carriers</li><li>➤ males and females</li><li>➤ equally affected</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 918</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying population genetics and the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, a principle that describes the genetic composition of a population under certain ideal conditions. She is learning about various factors that can disrupt this equilibrium. To better understand these concepts, she is trying to identify which of the following factors is least likely to affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gene outflow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Random mating", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Random mating", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Random mating</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Gene outflow (gene flow): Gene flow, which involves the movement of alleles between populations , can disrupt the equilibrium by altering allele frequencies.</li><li>• Option A. Gene outflow (gene flow):</li><li>• movement of alleles between populations</li><li>• Option B. Mutation: Mutations introduce new alleles into a population , which can change allele frequencies and thus affect the equilibrium.</li><li>• Option B. Mutation:</li><li>• new alleles into a population</li><li>• Option D. Small population size: Small populations are more susceptible to genetic drift , which can cause significant fluctuations in allele frequencies, disrupting the equilibrium.</li><li>• Option D. Small population size:</li><li>• more susceptible to genetic drift</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hardy-Weinberg law assumes that human population is static . It states that “ the relative frequencies of each gene allele tend to remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of forces that change the gene frequencies .”</li><li>➤ Hardy-Weinberg law</li><li>➤ human population is static</li><li>➤ the relative frequencies of each gene allele</li><li>➤ remain constant from generation</li><li>➤ generation</li><li>➤ absence of forces</li><li>➤ change the gene frequencies</li><li>➤ There are several factors which influence/ forces the human gene pool .</li><li>➤ several factors</li><li>➤ influence/ forces</li><li>➤ human gene pool</li><li>➤ Large population size Random mating No migration No mutations No natural selection</li><li>➤ Large population size</li><li>➤ Random mating</li><li>➤ No migration</li><li>➤ No mutations</li><li>➤ No natural selection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 922</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old woman presents to a genetic clinic with concerns regarding her family history of genetic disorders. She mentions that her maternal uncle and grandfather had a specific genetic disorder. She's worried about the potential implications for her future children. The genetic counselor lists out various X-linked disorders. Which of the following is NOT an X-linked disorder?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "G6PD deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Retinitis pigmentosa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D resistant rickets", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tay Sachs disease", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tay Sachs disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Tay Sachs disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. G6PD deficiency: This is an X-linked disorder . It is caused by mutations in the G6PD gene on the X chromosome and affects the red blood cells , leading to conditions like hemolytic anemia.</li><li>• Option A. G6PD deficiency:</li><li>• X-linked disorder</li><li>• mutations in the G6PD gene</li><li>• X chromosome</li><li>• red blood cells</li><li>• Option B. Retinitis pigmentosa: While retinitis pigmentosa can be inherited in several patterns , including autosomal dominant , autosomal recessive , and X-linked , it does have an X-linked inheritance pattern in some cases.</li><li>• Option B. Retinitis pigmentosa:</li><li>• inherited in several patterns</li><li>• autosomal dominant</li><li>• autosomal recessive</li><li>• X-linked</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D resistant rickets: This condition, also known as X-linked hypophosphatemia , is an X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the PHEX gene on the X chromosome.</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D resistant rickets:</li><li>• X-linked hypophosphatemia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ X-linked Recessive Traits</li><li>➤ X-linked Recessive Traits</li><li>➤ Haemophilia type A and B Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy Colour blindness G6PD Deficiency Hydrocephalus Retinitis pigmentosa Agammaglobulinemia, Bruton type.</li><li>➤ Haemophilia type A and B</li><li>➤ Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy</li><li>➤ Colour blindness</li><li>➤ G6PD Deficiency</li><li>➤ Hydrocephalus</li><li>➤ Retinitis pigmentosa</li><li>➤ Agammaglobulinemia, Bruton type.</li><li>➤ X-linked Dominant Traits</li><li>➤ X-linked Dominant Traits</li><li>➤ Vit. D resistant rickets Familial hypophosphatemia Blood group Xg</li><li>➤ Vit. D resistant rickets</li><li>➤ Familial hypophosphatemia</li><li>➤ Blood group Xg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition- page 918</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A young couple presents to a genetic counselor, concerned about the potential risks to their future children. The wife's younger sister has cystic fibrosis (CF), and after genetic testing, both the husband and wife are found to be heterozygous carriers for the CF gene. They want to understand the likelihood that their children might manifest the disease. What percentage of their offspring is likely to manifest cystic fibrosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "All will be normal.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 25%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/picture5.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 25%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder . For a child to manifest the disease , they must inherit two copies of the mutated gene , one from each parent. Since both parents are heterozygous carriers (each having one normal allele and one mutated allele), the Mendelian genetics principle can be applied to determine the probabilities . There are four possible outcomes when two heterozygous carriers have a child:</li><li>• Cystic fibrosis</li><li>• autosomal recessive disorder</li><li>• child to manifest the disease</li><li>• inherit two copies</li><li>• mutated gene</li><li>• both parents</li><li>• heterozygous carriers</li><li>• Mendelian genetics principle</li><li>• determine the probabilities</li><li>• The child inherits two normal alleles (25% chance, will not have CF). The child inherits one normal allele and one mutated allele (50% chance, will be a carrier but asymptomatic). The child inherits two mutated alleles (25% chance, will manifest CF).</li><li>• The child inherits two normal alleles (25% chance, will not have CF).</li><li>• The child inherits one normal allele and one mutated allele (50% chance, will be a carrier but asymptomatic).</li><li>• The child inherits two mutated alleles (25% chance, will manifest CF).</li><li>• Therefore, there is a 25% chance that any given child of this couple will inherit cystic fibrosis .</li><li>• 25% chance</li><li>• given child of this couple</li><li>• inherit cystic fibrosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, p 301</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 40-year-old man, presents to a neurologist with a history of progressive motor dysfunction, characterized by involuntary jerking and writhing movements, along with mood disturbances. After a series of tests, he is diagnosed with Huntington's chorea. Genetic testing reveals that he is homozygous for the disease-causing allele. His wife, after undergoing genetic testing, is found to be a heterozygous carrier of the gene. They are concerned about the implications for their future children and seek genetic counseling. What percentage of their offspring is likely to manifest Huntington's chorea?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100%", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All will be normal.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 100%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/05/20/picture2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 100%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Huntington's chorea is an autosomal dominant disorder , where just one copy of the mutated gene is enough to cause the disease . In this scenario, Mr. X is homozygous for the Huntington's gene , meaning he has two copies of the disease-causing allele . His wife is a heterozygous carrier, meaning she has one normal allele and one mutated allele.</li><li>• Huntington's chorea</li><li>• autosomal dominant disorder</li><li>• one copy</li><li>• mutated gene</li><li>• cause the disease</li><li>• Mr. X is homozygous</li><li>• Huntington's gene</li><li>• two copies of the disease-causing allele</li><li>• When a homozygous affected individual (with two disease-causing alleles) has children with a heterozygous carrier (with one disease-causing allele and one normal allele), each child will always receive one disease-causing allele from the affected parent . The children also have a 100% chance of receiving the disease-causing allele from the carrier parent , as it's the only type of allele the affected parent can pass on. Therefore, all their children will inherit at least one copy of the mutated gene, which is sufficient to cause Huntington's chorea.</li><li>• homozygous affected individual</li><li>• children</li><li>• heterozygous carrier</li><li>• child</li><li>• receive one disease-causing allele</li><li>• affected parent</li><li>• children</li><li>• 100% chance of receiving the disease-causing allele</li><li>• carrier parent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, p 301</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is attending a lecture on the history of genetics. The professor starts discussing the concept of improving the genetic quality of the human population by promoting certain traits. The student recalls the term associated with this concept but can't remember who coined it. Who is credited with coining the term ‘Eugenics’?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "James Watson", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gregor Mendel", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Francis Galton", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wilhelm Johannsen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Francis Galton", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Francis Galton</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. James Watson: Known for co-discovering the structure of DNA along with Francis Crick .</li><li>• Option A. James Watson:</li><li>• co-discovering the structure of DNA</li><li>• Francis Crick</li><li>• Option B. Gregor Mendel: Known as the father of modern genetics for his work on pea plants.</li><li>• Option B. Gregor Mendel:</li><li>• father of modern genetics</li><li>• Option D. Wilhelm Johannsen: A Danish botanist who coined the term 'gene'.</li><li>• Option D. Wilhelm Johannsen:</li><li>• Danish botanist</li><li>• 'gene'.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Francis Galton's role in the history of genetics and his contribution to the concept of eugenics</li><li>➤ Francis Galton's</li><li>➤ history of genetics</li><li>➤ concept of eugenics</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed p 922</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Amit, a genetic researcher, is leading a discussion with his team on the various approaches and ethical considerations in gene therapy for treating genetic disorders. To assess and enhance his team's understanding, he presents a series of statements about gene therapy and asks them to identify which statement is incorrect. Which of the following statements about gene therapy is considered inaccurate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Abnormal gene can be swapped for a normal gene.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The degree to which a gene is turned on or off a particular gene could be altered.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Normal gene may be inserted into a non-specific location within the genome to replace a non-functional gene.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gene delivery to somatic cell to treat disease is unethical.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Gene delivery to somatic cell to treat disease is unethical.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Gene delivery to somatic cell to treat disease is unethical.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. An abnormal gene can be swapped for a normal gene: This is a correct description of one approach in gene therapy, where a faulty gene is replaced with a healthy one.</li><li>• Option A. An abnormal gene can be swapped for a normal gene:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option B. The degree to which a gene is turned on or off could be altered: Gene therapy techniques can include regulating gene expression , which is an accurate statement.</li><li>• Option B. The degree to which a gene is turned on or off could be altered:</li><li>• regulating gene expression</li><li>• Option C. A normal gene may be inserted into a non-specific location within the genome to replace a non-functional gene: This is correct method in gene therapy, where a functional gene is inserted to compensate for a non-functional one.</li><li>• Option C. A normal gene may be inserted into a non-specific location within the genome to replace a non-functional gene:</li><li>• correct method</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gene therapy is the introduction of a gene sequence into a cell , with the aim of modifying the cell’s behaviour in a clinically relevant fashion. It may be used in several ways like t o correct a genetic mutation (as for cystic fibrosis), to kill a cell (as for cancer); and to modify susceptibility (as for coronary artery disease).</li><li>➤ Gene therapy</li><li>➤ gene sequence into a cell</li><li>➤ aim of modifying the cell’s behaviour</li><li>➤ correct a genetic mutation</li><li>➤ kill a cell</li><li>➤ modify susceptibility</li><li>➤ There is now almost universal agreement that gene delivery to somatic cell to treat disease is ethical, and that gene therapy should take its place alongside other forms of medical treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed – 923.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mohan is speaking to a family who has recently undergone genetic testing due to a history of a specific genetic condition. The parents have the same gene mutation but exhibit different symptoms in terms of severity. The father has a milder form while the mother has a more pronounced form. Dr. Mohan wants to explain a particular concept to the family that might account for this variation. Which of the following terms best defines the variability in the manifestation of a genetic condition in individuals with the same mutation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mutation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Genotype", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Penetrance", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phenotype", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Penetrance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Penetrance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Mutation: A mutation refers to a change in the DNA sequence but does not describe the variability in symptom expression.</li><li>• Option A. Mutation:</li><li>• change in the DNA sequence</li><li>• Option B. Genotype: Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual . While both parents share the same genotype regarding the mutation, the term does not explain the variability in symptom manifestation.</li><li>• Option B. Genotype:</li><li>• genetic makeup of an individual</li><li>• Option D. Phenotype: Phenotype refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an individual . It is the result of genotype expression, but the term itself does not explain the variability in expression among individuals with the same genotype.</li><li>• Option D. Phenotype:</li><li>• observable characteristics</li><li>• traits of an individual</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Penetrance is the proportion of individuals carrying a particular variant of a gene (allele or genotype) that also express an associated trait. Mutation-normal genes may be converted into abnormal ones . Genotype refers to the total genetic constitution of an individual Phenotype to the outward expression of the genetic constitution</li><li>➤ Penetrance is the proportion of individuals carrying a particular variant of a gene (allele or genotype) that also express an associated trait.</li><li>➤ Penetrance</li><li>➤ proportion of individuals</li><li>➤ particular variant</li><li>➤ gene</li><li>➤ Mutation-normal genes may be converted into abnormal ones .</li><li>➤ Mutation-normal genes</li><li>➤ converted into abnormal ones</li><li>➤ Genotype refers to the total genetic constitution of an individual</li><li>➤ Genotype</li><li>➤ total genetic constitution</li><li>➤ Phenotype to the outward expression of the genetic constitution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed – 916.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 29 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">H. Programs, Schemes, Acts - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 63</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 63 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A public health student is reviewing the goals of the global plan to end tuberculosis (TB) and comes across the 90-90-90 targets set forth by the Stop TB Partnership. These targets are a part of the ambitious strategy to end the TB epidemic by 2030. Which of the following is NOT one of the 90-90-90 targets in the global plan to end Tuberculosis by the Stop TB Partnership?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reach atleast 90% of all people with TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reach at least 90% of the key population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Achieve at least 90% treatment success rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Achieve at least 90% reduction in TB prevalence", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Achieve at least 90% reduction in TB prevalence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-110148.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Achieve at least 90% reduction in TB prevalence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Global plans targets: 90-90-90 target for Tuberculosis:</li><li>• Global plans targets: 90-90-90 target for Tuberculosis:</li><li>• Option A. Correct . Reach at least 90% of all people with TB and place all of them on appropriate therapy first- line, second-line and preventive therapy as required.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option B . Correct . As a part of this approach, reach at least 90% of the key populations the most vulnerable, underserved, at-risk populations.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option C . Correct . Achieve at least 90% Treatment success for all people diagnosed with TB through affordable treatment services, adherence to complete and correct treatment, and social support.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Correct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Global plans targets: 90-90-90 target for Tuberculosis:</li><li>➤ Global plans targets: 90-90-90 target for Tuberculosis:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 234)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 234)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the plains region of a country working under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP), health administrators are tasked with ensuring adequate laboratory supervision for TB diagnostics. They are currently planning the deployment of Senior TB Laboratory Supervisors (STLS) to various districts. What is the maximum population coverage assigned to one Senior TB Laboratory Supervisor (STLS) in the plains for effective oversight under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "200000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "500000", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 500000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 500000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The RNTCP designated ‘ Microscopy Centre’ is established for approx. 100,000 populations (50,000 in hilly and mountainous areas)</li><li>• RNTCP</li><li>• Microscopy Centre’</li><li>• approx. 100,000 populations</li><li>• Senior TB Laboratory Supervisor (STLS) is one for every 5 microscopy centres - 1 STLS per 5 lac population (2.5 lac in hilly and mountainous areas)</li><li>• Senior TB Laboratory Supervisor</li><li>• 5 microscopy centres</li><li>• STLS rechecks all +ve slides and 10% of all –ve slides</li><li>• all +ve slides and 10% of all –ve slides</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1 STLS - on 5 Microscopic centre (MC) {1 MC for approx. 100,000 population plains /50,000 in hilly and mountainous areas}</li><li>➤ 1 STLS</li><li>➤ 5 Microscopic centre</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is assigned to a public health center focusing on Tuberculosis (TB) control. Part of the task is to identify key populations who are at increased risk for TB due to their living or working conditions, as these groups require targeted interventions and screening protocols. Which of the following populations is NOT typically considered at increased risk for exposure to Tuberculosis due to their living or work environments?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "People in urban slums", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "People in poorly ventilated or dusty conditions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "People who live in homes for elderly", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Work in hospital or health care professionals", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. People who live in homes for elderly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. People who live in homes for elderly</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Correct: People living in urban slums are at a higher risk for TB exposure due to factors such as overcrowding , poor ventilation , and limited access to healthcare services.</li><li>• Option A. Correct:</li><li>• People living in urban slums</li><li>• higher risk for TB exposure</li><li>• overcrowding</li><li>• poor ventilation</li><li>• Option B. Correct : Working or living in poorly ventilated or dusty conditions can increase the risk of TB exposure.</li><li>• Option B. Correct</li><li>• Working or living in poorly ventilated</li><li>• increase</li><li>• TB exposure.</li><li>• Option D. Correct: Healthcare professionals and those working in hospitals are at an increased risk for TB exposure . They are often in close contact with patients who may have TB, especially in settings without adequate infection control measures.</li><li>• Option D. Correct:</li><li>• Healthcare professionals</li><li>• hospitals</li><li>• increased risk for TB exposure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ People who have Increased exposure to TB due to where they live or work:</li><li>➤ Increased exposure to TB</li><li>➤ where they live or work:</li><li>➤ live in urban slums live in poorly ventilated or dusty conditions are contacts of TB patients, including children work in environments that are overcrowded work in hospitals or are health care professionals</li><li>➤ live in urban slums</li><li>➤ live in poorly ventilated or dusty conditions</li><li>➤ are contacts of TB patients, including children</li><li>➤ work in environments that are overcrowded</li><li>➤ work in hospitals or are health care professionals</li><li>➤ People who have limited access to quality TB services :</li><li>➤ People</li><li>➤ limited access to quality TB services</li><li>➤ are from tribal populations or indigenous groups are homeless live in hard-to-reach areas live in homes for the elderly have mental or physical disabilities face legal barriers to access care are lesbian, gay, bisxeual or transgender.</li><li>➤ are from tribal populations or indigenous groups</li><li>➤ are homeless</li><li>➤ live in hard-to-reach areas</li><li>➤ live in homes for the elderly</li><li>➤ have mental or physical disabilities</li><li>➤ face legal barriers to access care</li><li>➤ are lesbian, gay, bisxeual or transgender.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 235)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 235)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a resource-limited setting, healthcare workers are discussing innovative methods to ensure adherence to long-term treatment regimens for diseases like tuberculosis (TB). They are interested in a cost-effective, scalable solution that utilizes widely available technology to monitor patient compliance. Which of the following is a low-cost, mobile phone-based technology that allows for real-time remote monitoring of patients’ daily treatment intake?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "99 DOTS", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "DOTS plus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medication Event Reminder Monitor (MERM)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nikshay Yojana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 99 DOTS", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/ay1WKXU6ti_MS3bVBiddv5ZwZLEfe2nDpThUFOfeGNsVRp9-HtbXduAv8T7_Jw5T4Xo_VDB5KdTpODBm7yZL8I-DFhIdZoJ08XUN_v85MJPR-dOhG3K6lHoYIv8lUSN7OMBw92EC2ZzqWTQYMLN5dNY", "https://www.ntep.in/sites/default/files/h5p/content/1427/images/file-64358b1d59ddc.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 99 DOTS</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. DOTS plus - refers to the treatment of MDR-TB (Category IV): MDR/XDR treatment is started at the DOTS-plus sites where the patient is admitted for treatment for 2/3 weeks ; After adjusting the medication the patient is sent back to continue his/her treatment at his respective chest clinic/DOTS provider</li><li>• Option B. DOTS plus - refers to the treatment of MDR-TB (Category IV): MDR/XDR treatment</li><li>• DOTS-plus sites</li><li>• patient is admitted for treatment for 2/3 weeks</li><li>• Option C. Medication Event Reminder Monitor (MERM) : Is an electronic pill box specially designed to monitor Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) treatment . Medications are dispensed in blister packs and each drug is placed in a different partitioned compartment within the pillbox .</li><li>• Option C. Medication Event Reminder Monitor (MERM)</li><li>• electronic pill box</li><li>• designed to monitor Multidrug-resistant TB</li><li>• treatment</li><li>• .</li><li>• Option D. Nikshay Yojana - Nikshay Poshan Yojana -</li><li>• Option D. Nikshay Yojana - Nikshay Poshan Yojana -</li><li>• Financial incentive of Rs.500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentives</li><li>• Financial incentive of Rs.500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment</li><li>• Financial incentive of Rs.500/-</li><li>• each notified TB patient</li><li>• duration</li><li>• patient is on anti-TB treatment</li><li>• All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentives</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DOTS 99 - Low-cost , mobile phone-based technology that enables real-time remote monitoring of daily intake of treatment</li><li>➤ DOTS 99</li><li>➤ Low-cost</li><li>➤ mobile phone-based technology</li><li>➤ real-time remote monitoring</li><li>➤ daily intake of treatment</li><li>➤ NIKSHAY : ICT-based Surveillance Support ICT enabled state-of-art surveillance system (Online monitoring software) to get notification of TB cases at diagnosis from both public and private sector including drug resistant TB patients Continuous monitoring and treatment adherence for all TB patients registered Enable tracking of all notified TB patients across TB care cycle, geographies, transfers and referrals.</li><li>➤ NIKSHAY : ICT-based Surveillance Support ICT enabled state-of-art surveillance system (Online monitoring software) to get notification of TB cases at diagnosis from both public and private sector including drug resistant TB patients</li><li>➤ NIKSHAY</li><li>➤ ICT-based Surveillance Support</li><li>➤ Continuous monitoring and treatment adherence for all TB patients registered</li><li>➤ Enable tracking of all notified TB patients across TB care cycle, geographies, transfers and referrals.</li><li>➤ Ref : https://www.99dots.org/</li><li>➤ Ref : https://www.99dots.org/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When was the Iodine deficiency disorders programme launched?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1960", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1961", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1962", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1963", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1962", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1962</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Goitre Control Programme (NGCP) launched in 1962 (100% centrally sponsored).</li><li>• National Goitre Control Programme</li><li>• 1962</li><li>• National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme (NIDDCP) was launched in 1992.</li><li>• National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme</li><li>• 1992.</li><li>• Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD) Day: 21st October</li><li>• Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders</li><li>• 21st October</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Goitre Control Programme (NGCP) launched - 1962</li><li>➤ National Goitre Control Programme</li><li>➤ 1962</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 494)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 494)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While attending a public health seminar, a medical student views several logos related to various nutritional programs in India. One of the logos is meant to represent a program that addresses the widespread issue in India. Which nutritional program in India is associated with this logo?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A prophylaxis programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anaemia Mukt Bharat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-day meal programme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture44.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://4.bp.blogspot.com/-8lR48LR1Hg8/WUFz0MhBhuI/AAAAAAAABWA/K0HAayBzQ3wHlOaTDlVCdBrgCjLAHaYMACLcBGAs/s640/Namak.jpg", "https://npcbvi.mohfw.gov.in/Image/logo1.png", "https://play-lh.googleusercontent.com/MVUfnbDvILIBylE0P851UfBI-s7hvzRIpzW4I2nASfOG8L74GFRwOUSKb17WpKEynt4", "https://w7.pngwing.com/pngs/697/822/png-transparent-midday-meal-scheme-school-government-of-india-primary-education-school-education-text-class-nutrition.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme - No specific logo. The logo is for NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme - No specific logo. The logo is for NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option B. Anemia Mukt Bharat -</li><li>• Option B. Anemia Mukt Bharat -</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal Program</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal Program</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indicators to Monitor Success of NIDDCP</li><li>➤ Indicators</li><li>➤ Monitor Success of NIDDCP</li><li>➤ Process Indicators : Indicators to monitor and evaluate the salt iodization process Salt iodine content at the production site Salt iodine content at point of packaging Salt iodine content at wholesale and retail levels Salt iodine content in households</li><li>➤ Process Indicators : Indicators to monitor and evaluate the salt iodization process Salt iodine content at the production site Salt iodine content at point of packaging Salt iodine content at wholesale and retail levels Salt iodine content in households</li><li>➤ Process Indicators</li><li>➤ monitor and evaluate</li><li>➤ salt iodization process</li><li>➤ Salt iodine content at the production site Salt iodine content at point of packaging Salt iodine content at wholesale and retail levels Salt iodine content in households</li><li>➤ Salt iodine content at the production site</li><li>➤ Salt iodine content at point of packaging</li><li>➤ Salt iodine content at wholesale and retail levels</li><li>➤ Salt iodine content in households</li><li>➤ Impact Indicators : Indicators to assess baseline (Iodine Deficiency Disorders) IDD status and to monitor and evaluate the impact of salt iodization on the target population. Urinary Iodine Levels : The ‘principal impact indicator’ recommended once a salt iodization programme has been initiated Goitre assessment : (by palpation or by ultrasound) should remain a component of surveys to establish the baseline severity of IDD Neonatal thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels Sustainability Indicators : Indicators to assess whether iodine deficiency has been successfully eliminated and maintained. Median urinary iodine levels in the target population Availability of adequately iodized salt at the household level Set of programmatic indicators (as evidence of sustainability).</li><li>➤ Impact Indicators : Indicators to assess baseline (Iodine Deficiency Disorders) IDD status and to monitor and evaluate the impact of salt iodization on the target population. Urinary Iodine Levels : The ‘principal impact indicator’ recommended once a salt iodization programme has been initiated Goitre assessment : (by palpation or by ultrasound) should remain a component of surveys to establish the baseline severity of IDD Neonatal thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels</li><li>➤ Impact Indicators</li><li>➤ assess baseline</li><li>➤ IDD status</li><li>➤ monitor and evaluate</li><li>➤ impact of salt iodization</li><li>➤ Urinary Iodine Levels : The ‘principal impact indicator’ recommended once a salt iodization programme has been initiated Goitre assessment : (by palpation or by ultrasound) should remain a component of surveys to establish the baseline severity of IDD Neonatal thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels</li><li>➤ Urinary Iodine Levels : The ‘principal impact indicator’ recommended once a salt iodization programme has been initiated</li><li>➤ Urinary Iodine Levels</li><li>➤ Goitre assessment : (by palpation or by ultrasound) should remain a component of surveys to establish the baseline severity of IDD</li><li>➤ Goitre assessment</li><li>➤ Neonatal thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels</li><li>➤ Neonatal thyroid stimulating hormone</li><li>➤ Sustainability Indicators : Indicators to assess whether iodine deficiency has been successfully eliminated and maintained. Median urinary iodine levels in the target population Availability of adequately iodized salt at the household level Set of programmatic indicators (as evidence of sustainability).</li><li>➤ Sustainability Indicators</li><li>➤ Median urinary iodine levels in the target population Availability of adequately iodized salt at the household level Set of programmatic indicators (as evidence of sustainability).</li><li>➤ Median urinary iodine levels in the target population</li><li>➤ Availability of adequately iodized salt at the household level</li><li>➤ Set of programmatic indicators (as evidence of sustainability).</li><li>➤ Ref : https://nhm.gov.in/index1.php?lang=1&amp;level=3&amp;sublinkid=1054&amp;lid=230</li><li>➤ Ref : https://nhm.gov.in/index1.php?lang=1&amp;level=3&amp;sublinkid=1054&amp;lid=230</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A first-year PG resident is preparing a presentation on public health initiatives in India and comes across a logo that symbolizes a national campaign. With which of the following public health initiatives is this logo associated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A prophylaxis programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anaemia Mukt Bharat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-day meal programme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anaemia Mukt Bharat", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture43.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://play-lh.googleusercontent.com/MVUfnbDvILIBylE0P851UfBI-s7hvzRIpzW4I2nASfOG8L74GFRwOUSKb17WpKEynt4", "https://npcbvi.mohfw.gov.in/Image/logo1.png", "https://4.bp.blogspot.com/-8lR48LR1Hg8/WUFz0MhBhuI/AAAAAAAABWA/K0HAayBzQ3wHlOaTDlVCdBrgCjLAHaYMACLcBGAs/s640/Namak.jpg", "https://w7.pngwing.com/pngs/697/822/png-transparent-midday-meal-scheme-school-government-of-india-primary-education-school-education-text-class-nutrition.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131218.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Anaemia Mukt Bharat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme - No specific logo. The logo is for NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme - No specific logo. The logo is for NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme -</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme -</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal Program</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal Program</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat -</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat</li><li>➤ Main Aim - To reduce prevalence of anemia by 3% points per year among children , adolescents and women in the reproductive age group (15–49 years), between the year 2018-2022</li><li>➤ reduce prevalence of anemia</li><li>➤ 3% points per year among children</li><li>➤ adolescents</li><li>➤ women in the reproductive age group</li><li>➤ 2018-2022</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months) Children (5–9 years) Adolescent boys (10–19 years) Adolescent girls (10–19 years) Women of reproductive age (20–24 years) Pregnant women Lactating women</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months)</li><li>➤ Children (5–9 years)</li><li>➤ Adolescent boys (10–19 years)</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls (10–19 years)</li><li>➤ Women of reproductive age (20–24 years)</li><li>➤ Pregnant women</li><li>➤ Lactating women</li><li>➤ Interventions</li><li>➤ Interventions</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation Deworming Intensified year-round BCC Campaign including ensuring delayed cord clamping Testing of anemia using digital methods and point of care treatment Mandatory provision of Iron Folic Acid fortified foods in public health programmes • Addressing non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation</li><li>➤ Deworming</li><li>➤ Intensified year-round BCC Campaign including ensuring delayed cord clamping</li><li>➤ Testing of anemia using digital methods and point of care treatment</li><li>➤ Mandatory provision of Iron Folic Acid fortified foods in public health programmes • Addressing non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Dose and Regime for Iron Folic Acid Supplementation</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Dose and Regime for Iron Folic Acid Supplementation</li><li>➤ Ref : https://anemiamuktbharat.info/</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ https://anemiamuktbharat.info/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following logo is associated with which of the following nutritional supplementation programme.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A prophylaxis programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICDS programme", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-day meal programme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. ICDS programme", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture42.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://e7.pngegg.com/pngimages/832/488/png-clipart-integrated-child-development-services-all-india-federation-of-anganwadi-workers-and-helpers-child-child-text.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image-20240110185917-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image_xWWj4Wj.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image_PlSWQBq.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-131644.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. ICDS programme</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme: No specific logo. The logo is for NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option A. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme:</li><li>• NPCBVI -</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme:</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme:</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal -</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)</li><li>➤ Integrated Child Development Services</li><li>➤ ICDS (Anganwadi worker) covered under Ministry Women and Child Development ICDS is a centrally sponsored scheme Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) launched in year 1975 ICDS Beneficiaries (Irrespective of income of family) Children 0 – 6 years age Pregnant and lactating mothers Women in reproductive age group. Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years ICDS provides an integrated package of services - Supplementary nutrition Immunization Health check-up Medical referral services Nutrition and health education for women Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas ‘ Heart of ICDS system’ - Anganwadi Population covered by Anganwadi in tribal area - 300-800 Population covered by Anganwadi in plains area - 400-800 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS: 300 feeding days in a year [NEW 2014 GUIDELINES]</li><li>➤ ICDS (Anganwadi worker) covered under Ministry Women and Child Development</li><li>➤ ICDS</li><li>➤ covered under Ministry Women</li><li>➤ Child Development</li><li>➤ ICDS is a centrally sponsored scheme</li><li>➤ ICDS</li><li>➤ centrally sponsored scheme</li><li>➤ Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) launched in year 1975</li><li>➤ launched in year 1975</li><li>➤ ICDS Beneficiaries (Irrespective of income of family) Children 0 – 6 years age Pregnant and lactating mothers Women in reproductive age group. Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years</li><li>➤ ICDS Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Children 0 – 6 years age Pregnant and lactating mothers Women in reproductive age group. Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years</li><li>➤ Children 0 – 6 years age</li><li>➤ Pregnant and lactating mothers</li><li>➤ Women in reproductive age group.</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years</li><li>➤ ICDS provides an integrated package of services - Supplementary nutrition Immunization Health check-up Medical referral services Nutrition and health education for women Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas</li><li>➤ Supplementary nutrition Immunization Health check-up Medical referral services Nutrition and health education for women Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas</li><li>➤ Supplementary nutrition</li><li>➤ Immunization</li><li>➤ Health check-up</li><li>➤ Medical referral services</li><li>➤ Nutrition and health education for women</li><li>➤ Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas</li><li>➤ ‘ Heart of ICDS system’ - Anganwadi</li><li>➤ Heart of ICDS system’</li><li>➤ Population covered by Anganwadi in tribal area - 300-800</li><li>➤ Population</li><li>➤ Anganwadi in tribal area</li><li>➤ 300-800</li><li>➤ Population covered by Anganwadi in plains area - 400-800</li><li>➤ Population</li><li>➤ Anganwadi in plains area</li><li>➤ 400-800</li><li>➤ 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal)</li><li>➤ 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre</li><li>➤ 150–400 population</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi on Demand</li><li>➤ settlement ≥ 40 children</li><li>➤ 6 years age</li><li>➤ Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS: 300 feeding days in a year [NEW 2014 GUIDELINES]</li><li>➤ Ref : ICDS document, Ministry of Women &amp; Child Development, Government of India</li><li>➤ Ref : ICDS document, Ministry of Women &amp; Child Development, Government of India</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health intern is given a task to develop educational materials for a nationwide campaign in India. As part of this task, the intern is reviewing various logos associated with different health programs. One particular logo that the intern has to work with is designed to represent the government's flagship program to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. Which of the following national health programs does this logo represent?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Poshan Abhiyaan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "ICDS programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-day meal programme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Poshan Abhiyaan", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture41.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://static.virtubox.io/project/file/20220115-045727-dfhl-poshan-abhiyaan-logo.png", "https://e7.pngegg.com/pngimages/832/488/png-clipart-integrated-child-development-services-all-india-federation-of-anganwadi-workers-and-helpers-child-child-text.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image_jx9eRYa.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image_K6A2ZSV.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Poshan Abhiyaan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. ICDS Programme</li><li>• Option B. ICDS Programme</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme</li><li>• Option C. National Iodine deficiency disorder control programme</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal programme</li><li>• Option D. Mid-day meal programme</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Poshan Abhiyaan / NNM -</li><li>➤ Poshan Abhiyaan</li><li>➤ Major impact : To reduce the level of stunting , under-nutrition , anemia and low birth weight babies. Components : Mapping of various Schemes contributing towards addressing malnutrition, Introducing a very robust convergence mechanism, ICT based Real Time Monitoring system, Incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets, Incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for using IT based tools, Eliminating registers used by AWWs, Introducing measurement of height of children at the Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Social Audits, Setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres, involving masses through Jan Andolan Vision : To ensure attainment of malnutrition-free India by 2022 Targets : To reduce stunting, under- nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively Although the target to reduce Stunting is at least 2% p.a., Mission would strive to achieve reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022)</li><li>➤ Major impact : To reduce the level of stunting , under-nutrition , anemia and low birth weight babies.</li><li>➤ Major impact</li><li>➤ reduce</li><li>➤ stunting</li><li>➤ under-nutrition</li><li>➤ anemia</li><li>➤ Components : Mapping of various Schemes contributing towards addressing malnutrition, Introducing a very robust convergence mechanism, ICT based Real Time Monitoring system, Incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets, Incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for using IT based tools, Eliminating registers used by AWWs, Introducing measurement of height of children at the Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Social Audits, Setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres, involving masses through Jan Andolan</li><li>➤ Components</li><li>➤ Vision : To ensure attainment of malnutrition-free India by 2022</li><li>➤ Vision</li><li>➤ Targets : To reduce stunting, under- nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively Although the target to reduce Stunting is at least 2% p.a., Mission would strive to achieve reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022)</li><li>➤ Targets</li><li>➤ To reduce stunting, under- nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively Although the target to reduce Stunting is at least 2% p.a., Mission would strive to achieve reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022)</li><li>➤ To reduce stunting, under- nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively</li><li>➤ Although the target to reduce Stunting is at least 2% p.a., Mission would strive to achieve reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022)</li><li>➤ Ref : https://wcd.nic.in/schemes/poshan-abhiyaan</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ https://wcd.nic.in/schemes/poshan-abhiyaan</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is reviewing various nutritional programs to address child malnutrition in India. During a presentation, a specific logo is displayed that is representative of a national program. With which of the following national health programs is this logo associated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ICDS programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anaemia Mukt Bharat", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Balwadi nutrition programme", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mid-day meal scheme", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Mid-day meal scheme", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture40.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/07/image-20231107205846-1.png", "https://e7.pngegg.com/pngimages/832/488/png-clipart-integrated-child-development-services-all-india-federation-of-anganwadi-workers-and-helpers-child-child-text.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/10/image_5kYEG43.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-132403.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Mid-day meal scheme</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. ICDS programme -</li><li>• Option A. ICDS programme -</li><li>• Option B. Anemia Mukt Bharat -</li><li>• Option B. Anemia Mukt Bharat -</li><li>• Option C. Balwadi nutrition programme - No specific logo</li><li>• Option C. Balwadi nutrition programme - No specific logo</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid-day meal scheme (MDMS) (National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education):</li><li>➤ Mid-day meal scheme</li><li>➤ Launched in 1995 Main objective : Universalisation of primary education by increasing enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously impacting on nutrition of students in primary classes. The mid-day meal should supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement and 1/2 of the total protein requirement A model menu for mid-day school meal -</li><li>➤ Launched in 1995</li><li>➤ 1995</li><li>➤ Main objective : Universalisation of primary education by increasing enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously impacting on nutrition of students in primary classes.</li><li>➤ Main objective</li><li>➤ The mid-day meal should supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement and 1/2 of the total protein requirement</li><li>➤ mid-day meal</li><li>➤ supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement</li><li>➤ 1/2 of the total protein requirement</li><li>➤ A model menu for mid-day school meal -</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals: Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals: Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Principles for formulating mid-day meals:</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet</li><li>➤ Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>➤ Meal cost should be low</li><li>➤ Complicated cooking process must not be involved</li><li>➤ Use locally available foods</li><li>➤ Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>➤ Ref : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Midday_Meal_Scheme</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Midday_Meal_Scheme</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following programme's (Column A) with the respective ministries (Column B).", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d- iv", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "a-iii, b-ii c-i, d- iv", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d- i", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d- ii", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d- iv", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/03/13/screenshot-2024-03-13-095743.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-111255.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/03/13/screenshot-2024-03-13-095910.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d- iv</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• ICDS programme - iv. Ministry of Women and Child Development</li><li>• ICDS programme</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Ministries to combat malnutrition:</li><li>➤ Ministries to combat malnutrition:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 750)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 750)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health resident is reviewing the history of health interventions in India and notes a significant reduction in the prevalence of xerophthalmia and child mortality due to vitamin A deficiency after the implementation of a national program. This program was initiated to provide vitamin A supplementation biannually to children aged 6 months to 5 years. In which year was this Vitamin A prophylaxis program launched?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1970", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1971", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1972", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1973", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1970", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-144746.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1970</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vitamin A prophylaxis programme was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 1970 on the basis of technology developed at the National Institute of Nutrition at Hyderabad .</li><li>• Vitamin A prophylaxis programme</li><li>• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare</li><li>• 1970</li><li>• basis of technology</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition at Hyderabad</li><li>• WHO recommended strategy for prevention of Xerophthalmia -</li><li>• WHO recommended strategy</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Short term action: Vitamin-A prophylaxis to vulnerable groups -</li><li>• Deworming Program in linkage with Vitamin A prophylaxis program . The dosage's are -</li><li>• Deworming Program</li><li>• linkage with Vitamin A prophylaxis program</li><li>• 1–2 years age : Half tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat 2–19 years age : Full tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>• 1–2 years age : Half tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>• 1–2 years age</li><li>• 2–19 years age : Full tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>• 2–19 years age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin A prophylaxis programme was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 1970</li><li>➤ Vitamin A prophylaxis programme</li><li>➤ Ministry of Health</li><li>➤ Family Welfare in 1970</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 750)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 750)</li><li>➤ Deworming Program in linkage with Vitamin A prophylaxis program. The dosage's are -</li><li>➤ 1–2 years age: Half tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat 2–19 years age: Full tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>➤ 1–2 years age: Half tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>➤ Half tablet</li><li>➤ 2–19 years age: Full tablet 400 mg Albendazole stat</li><li>➤ Full tablet</li><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Vitamin A prophylaxis programme was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 1970</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 750)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-month-old child presents to a healthcare clinic in India for a routine check-up. As part of the national health initiatives, the child is due to receive vitamin A supplementation. The healthcare worker prepares to administer the dose as per the national Vitamin A prophylaxis program guidelines. What is the recommended dose of vitamin A solution that should be given to this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "100000 IU", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "200000 IU", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "500000 IU", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 100000 IU", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 100000 IU</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The strategy in Vitamin A prophylaxis program is to administer a single massive dose of 200,000 IU of vitamin A in oil (retinol palmitate) orally every 6 months to preschool children (1 year to 5 years), and half that dose (100,000 IU) to children between 6 months and one year of age.</li><li>• strategy in Vitamin A prophylaxis program</li><li>• administer a single massive dose</li><li>• 200,000 IU of vitamin A in oil</li><li>• orally</li><li>• 6 months to preschool children</li><li>• half that dose</li><li>• children between 6 months and one year of age.</li><li>• Vitamin-A is given at 9th, 18th, 24th, 30th, 36th, 42th, 48th, 54th, 60th months (A total of 1 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac + 2 Lac = 17 Lac IU is given to a completely immunized child by 5 years of age)</li><li>• Vitamin-A is administered by a 2 mL spoon</li><li>• Vitamin-A</li><li>• administered</li><li>• 2 mL spoon</li><li>• Strength of Vitamin-A solution : 1 lac IU per mL</li><li>• Strength of Vitamin-A solution</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended dose of vitamin A solution for a 9-month-old child under the National Vitamin A Prophylaxis Program is 100,000 International Units (IU).</li><li>➤ dose of vitamin A solution for a 9-month-old child</li><li>➤ National Vitamin A Prophylaxis Program</li><li>➤ 100,000 International Units</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A third-year medical student is rotating through a public health clinic in India and learns about the various strategies to combat nutritional deficiencies. One of the programs discussed is the National Nutritional Anaemia Prophylaxis Programme, which includes the fortification of salt with iron. Which form of iron is utilized for this fortification strategy in the program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ferric ortho phosphate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ferrous phosphate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ferric chloride", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ferrous sulphate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Ferric ortho phosphate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Ferric ortho phosphate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition , Hyderabad showed that simple addition of ferric ortho-phosphate or ferrous sulphate with sodium bisulphate was enough to fortify salt with iron .</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition</li><li>• Hyderabad</li><li>• addition</li><li>• ferric ortho-phosphate</li><li>• sodium bisulphate</li><li>• fortify salt with iron</li><li>• Food fortification:</li><li>• Food fortification:</li><li>• Is a public health , measure where nutrients are added to food (in relatively small quantities), to maintain/improve the quality of diet of a group , community or a population. Food Fortification is an example of ‘ Primary Level of Prevention’ Criteria for food fortification: Vehicle to be fortified must be consumed regularly in diet by populations Amount of nutrient added must not cause deficiency or toxicity in consumers On addition of nutrient, there should be no change in taste, odour, consistency or appearance Cost of fortification must be affordable by consumers</li><li>• Is a public health , measure where nutrients are added to food (in relatively small quantities), to maintain/improve the quality of diet of a group , community or a population.</li><li>• public health</li><li>• nutrients are added to food</li><li>• maintain/improve the quality of diet</li><li>• group</li><li>• Food Fortification is an example of ‘ Primary Level of Prevention’</li><li>• Primary Level of Prevention’</li><li>• Criteria for food fortification: Vehicle to be fortified must be consumed regularly in diet by populations Amount of nutrient added must not cause deficiency or toxicity in consumers On addition of nutrient, there should be no change in taste, odour, consistency or appearance Cost of fortification must be affordable by consumers</li><li>• Criteria for food fortification:</li><li>• Vehicle to be fortified must be consumed regularly in diet by populations Amount of nutrient added must not cause deficiency or toxicity in consumers On addition of nutrient, there should be no change in taste, odour, consistency or appearance Cost of fortification must be affordable by consumers</li><li>• Vehicle to be fortified must be consumed regularly in diet by populations</li><li>• Amount of nutrient added must not cause deficiency or toxicity in consumers</li><li>• On addition of nutrient, there should be no change in taste, odour, consistency or appearance</li><li>• Cost of fortification must be affordable by consumers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Examples of Food Fortification :</li><li>➤ Examples of Food Fortification</li><li>➤ Iodisation of salt Vitamin A and Vitamin D in Vanaspati - Vanaspati is fortified with ‘2500 IU Vitamin A and 175 IU Vitamin D’ per 100 grams Fluoridation of water</li><li>➤ Iodisation of salt</li><li>➤ Vitamin A and Vitamin D in Vanaspati - Vanaspati is fortified with ‘2500 IU Vitamin A and 175 IU Vitamin D’ per 100 grams</li><li>➤ ‘2500 IU Vitamin A and 175 IU Vitamin D’ per 100 grams</li><li>➤ Fluoridation of water</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a medical officer in a rural health center in India, you are counseling a parent about the prophylactic administration of iron and folic acid to their 8-year-old child, in line with the National Nutritional Anaemia Prophylaxis Programme. What is the recommended daily dose of iron and folic acid to be administered to this child for a period of 100 days?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "100 mg of elemental iron and 0.5 mg of folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 mg of elemental iron and 0.1 mg of folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 mg of elemental iron and 0.25 mg of folic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 mg of elemental iron and 0.4 mg of folic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 30 mg of elemental iron and 0.25 mg of folic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 30 mg of elemental iron and 0.25 mg of folic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• IFA Tablet</li><li>• IFA Tablet</li><li>• An adult tablet of IFA contains : 100 mg elemental Iron (300 mg ferrous sulfate) and 500 mcg Folic acid (to be given for 100 days minimum in pregnancy) and 100 days post-delivery – Schedule: 1 Tablet per day in 4-5-6 month POG (Total 100 tablets)</li><li>• adult tablet of IFA contains</li><li>• 100 mg elemental Iron</li><li>• 500 mcg Folic acid</li><li>• 100 days post-delivery</li><li>• Adolescents are given the same dosage and duration as adults .</li><li>• Adolescents</li><li>• same dosage</li><li>• duration as adults</li><li>• Children 6-10 years of age are to be provided 30 mg elemental iron and 250 mcg folic acid per day for 100 days .</li><li>• Children 6-10 years of age</li><li>• 30 mg elemental iron</li><li>• 250 mcg folic acid</li><li>• 100 days</li><li>• A pediatric tablet of IFA contains : 20 mg elemental Iron and 100 mcg Folic acid (to be given for 100 days minimum every year till 5 years age of child)</li><li>• pediatric tablet of IFA contains</li><li>• 20 mg elemental Iron</li><li>• 100 mcg Folic acid</li><li>• ‘National Nutritional Anemia Prophylaxis Programme’ was launched in 1970 to prevent nutritional anaemia in mothers and children . This programme is being taken up by MCH Division of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare; now it is part of RCH programme</li><li>• ‘National Nutritional Anemia Prophylaxis Programme’</li><li>• 1970 to prevent nutritional anaemia</li><li>• mothers and children</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iron and Folic Acid content per IFA tablet : Adult tablet : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid Pediatric tablet : 20 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid For preterm infants, IFA tablet: 10 – 15 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid</li><li>➤ Iron and Folic Acid content per IFA tablet : Adult tablet : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid</li><li>➤ Iron and Folic Acid content per IFA tablet</li><li>➤ Adult tablet</li><li>➤ Pediatric tablet : 20 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid</li><li>➤ Pediatric tablet</li><li>➤ For preterm infants, IFA tablet: 10 – 15 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid</li><li>➤ For preterm infants, IFA tablet: 10 – 15 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health student is preparing a presentation on the \"Anaemia Mukt Bharat\" initiative, which aims to reduce the prevalence of anaemia across various age groups in India. She is outlining the key interventions promoted by this strategy. Which of the following is NOT an intervention included in the Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Behaviour change communication for one month in a year", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Testing of anaemia using digital methods", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Addressing non nutritional causes of anaemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Provision of iron fortified foods in health programmes", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Behaviour change communication for one month in a year", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image_jQNMeyX.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Behaviour change communication for one month in a year</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This is the intervention under AMB program .</li><li>• intervention under AMB program</li><li>• Interventions in Anaemia Mukt Bharat are -</li><li>• Interventions in Anaemia Mukt Bharat are</li><li>• 1. Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation</li><li>• Prophylactic Iron</li><li>• Folic Acid supplementation</li><li>• 2. Deworming</li><li>• Deworming</li><li>• 3. Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication Campaign (Solid Body, Smart Mind) including ensuring delayed cord clamping in newborns</li><li>• Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication Campaign</li><li>• 4. Testing of anaemia using digital methods (Option B ) and point of care treatment</li><li>• (Option B</li><li>• 5. Mandatory provision of Iron and Folic Acid fortified foods (Option D) in government-funded health programmes</li><li>• (Option D)</li><li>• 6. Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia (Option C) in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis</li><li>• (Option C)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anaemia Mukt Bharat Program</li><li>➤ Anaemia Mukt Bharat Program</li><li>➤ Main Aim - To reduce prevalence of anemia by 3% points per year among children , adolescents and women in the reproductive age group (15–49 years), between the year 2018-2022</li><li>➤ Main Aim</li><li>➤ reduce prevalence of anemia</li><li>➤ 3% points per year</li><li>➤ children</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months) Children (5–9 years) Adolescent boys and girls (10–19 years) Women of reproductive age (20–24 years) Pregnant women Lactating women</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months)</li><li>➤ Children (5–9 years)</li><li>➤ Adolescent boys and girls (10–19 years)</li><li>➤ Women of reproductive age (20–24 years)</li><li>➤ Pregnant women</li><li>➤ Lactating women</li><li>➤ Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>➤ Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>➤ Ref : https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/interventions/</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/interventions/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a physician working on public health planning in a semi-urban district of Himachal Pradesh, India. Your current project involves implementing the \"Anaemia Mukt Bharat\" strategy, a key initiative of the government to combat anaemia. According to the program guidelines, which group of individuals is NOT a primary target for anaemia interventions under the \"Anaemia Mukt Bharat\" initiative?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Children 6-59 months of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Children 5-9 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Adolescent girls and boy 10-19 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Women in age group of 50-60 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Women in age group of 50-60 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture39.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108094621-2.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108094621-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108094621-3.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-145806.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Women in age group of 50-60 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Beneficiaries in Anaemia Mukt Bharat</li><li>• Beneficiaries in Anaemia Mukt Bharat</li><li>• Anaemia Mukt Bharat Program</li><li>• Anaemia Mukt Bharat Program</li><li>• Main Aim - To reduce prevalence of anemia by 3% points per year among children , adolescents and women in the reproductive age group (15–49 years), between the year 2018-2022</li><li>• Main Aim</li><li>• reduce prevalence</li><li>• anemia by 3% points per year among children</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• women in the reproductive age group</li><li>• 2018-2022</li><li>• Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>• Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>• Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>• Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>• Interventions -</li><li>• Interventions -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat Beneficiaries are Children (6–59 months), Children (5–9 years), Adolescent boys &amp; girls (10–19 years), Women of reproductive age (20–24 years), Pregnant and lactating women</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Children</li><li>➤ Children</li><li>➤ Adolescent boys &amp; girls</li><li>➤ Women of reproductive age</li><li>➤ Pregnant</li><li>➤ lactating women</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Dose and Regime for Iron Folic Acid Supplementation</li><li>➤ Prophylactic Dose and Regime for Iron Folic Acid Supplementation</li><li>➤ Ref : https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/6x6x6-strategy/</li><li>➤ Ref :</li><li>➤ https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/6x6x6-strategy/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer is evaluating the strategic areas of focus in the \"Anaemia Mukt Bharat\" initiative to organize a health camp in a rural district. Which of the following conditions is NOT given special focus under the \"Anaemia Mukt Bharat\" program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hemoglobinopathies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Fluorosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108095947-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108095947-2.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/08/image-20231108095947-3.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Malaria:</li><li>• Option A. Malaria:</li><li>• Intensification of malaria prevention and control activities in integration with nutritional anemia . Fixed days for screening of anemia at PMSMA sites and annually by RBSK teams in schools for screening for malaria as per NVBDCP, MoHFW guidelines. Indoor Residual Spray (IRS) before and after the monsoon season in school premises and residential areas and provide Long Lasting Insecticide Nets (LLINs) in all high endemic areas esp. to all target groups pregnant mothers and under-five children</li><li>• Intensification of malaria prevention and control activities in integration with nutritional anemia .</li><li>• Intensification of malaria prevention</li><li>• control activities in integration</li><li>• nutritional anemia</li><li>• Fixed days for screening of anemia at PMSMA sites and annually by RBSK teams in schools for screening for malaria as per NVBDCP, MoHFW guidelines.</li><li>• Indoor Residual Spray (IRS) before and after the monsoon season in school premises and residential areas and provide Long Lasting Insecticide Nets (LLINs) in all high endemic areas esp. to all target groups pregnant mothers and under-five children</li><li>• Option B. Haemoglobinopathies:</li><li>• Option B. Haemoglobinopathies:</li><li>• Comprehensive prevention , screening and management of haemoglobinopathies - Pre-marital and pre-conception screening and counselling services Women identified with severe anemia should be referred to higher centres for further investigations and if found positive, the husband is to be screened for carrier status. If the couple is found positive, they are to be referred to a higher centre for prenatal diagnosis before twenty weeks of pregnancy. The treatment of anemia using parental iron administration is contraindicated in sickle cell disease patients.</li><li>• Comprehensive prevention , screening and management of haemoglobinopathies - Pre-marital and pre-conception screening and counselling services</li><li>• Comprehensive prevention</li><li>• screening</li><li>• management of haemoglobinopathies</li><li>• Pre-marital</li><li>• pre-conception screening</li><li>• counselling services</li><li>• Women identified with severe anemia should be referred to higher centres for further investigations and if found positive, the husband is to be screened for carrier status. If the couple is found positive, they are to be referred to a higher centre for prenatal diagnosis before twenty weeks of pregnancy.</li><li>• The treatment of anemia using parental iron administration is contraindicated in sickle cell disease patients.</li><li>• treatment of anemia</li><li>• parental iron administration</li><li>• sickle cell disease</li><li>• Option C. Fluorosis: The 3 key interventions are:</li><li>• Option C. Fluorosis: The 3 key interventions are:</li><li>• Identification of Fluoride-Affected Habitations : Activities for Anemia Control Due to Fluorosis : use of safe drinking water, focus on diet corrections (Calcium, Magnesium, Vitamin C) by dietary diversity, periodic check-up of haemoglobin in affected habitations and appropriate treatment, IFA supplementation. Capacity Building/Training of all public health staff</li><li>• Identification of Fluoride-Affected Habitations :</li><li>• Identification of Fluoride-Affected Habitations</li><li>• Activities for Anemia Control Due to Fluorosis : use of safe drinking water, focus on diet corrections (Calcium, Magnesium, Vitamin C) by dietary diversity, periodic check-up of haemoglobin in affected habitations and appropriate treatment, IFA supplementation.</li><li>• Activities for Anemia Control Due to Fluorosis</li><li>• Capacity Building/Training of all public health staff</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>➤ Anemia Mukt Bharat 6X6X6 Strategy</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Beneficiaries</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months) Children (5–9 years) Adolescent boys and girls (10–19 years) Women of reproductive age (20–24 years) Pregnant women Lactating women</li><li>➤ Children (6–59 months)</li><li>➤ Children (5–9 years)</li><li>➤ Adolescent boys and girls (10–19 years)</li><li>➤ Women of reproductive age (20–24 years)</li><li>➤ Pregnant women</li><li>➤ Lactating women</li><li>➤ Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>➤ Institutional Mechanism -</li><li>➤ Interventions in Anaemia Mukt Bharat</li><li>➤ Interventions in Anaemia Mukt Bharat</li><li>➤ Ref : https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/6x6x6-strategy/</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ https://anemiamuktbharat.info/home/6x6x6-strategy/</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a public health administrator, you are evaluating a proposal for establishing a new 'Anganwadi on demand' in a remote settlement. According to the guidelines, what is the minimum criterion regarding population or households for setting up an 'Anganwadi on demand'?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 children under 6 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 children under 6 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 children under 6 years of age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 children under 6 years of age", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 40 children under 6 years of age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 40 children under 6 years of age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Anganwadi on demand - where a settlement has at least 40 children under 6 years but no Anganwadis centre .</li><li>• Anganwadi on demand</li><li>• settlement</li><li>• at least 40 children under 6 years</li><li>• no Anganwadis centre</li><li>• Heart of ICDS system : Anganwadi</li><li>• Heart of ICDS system</li><li>• Focal point for ICDS services delivery is Anganwadi Worker; Each Anganwadi has 1 Anganwadi worker and 1 helper</li><li>• Focal point</li><li>• Each Anganwadi has 1 Anganwadi worker</li><li>• 1 helper</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban areas 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal areas 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban areas</li><li>• 400–800 population</li><li>• rural and urban areas</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal areas</li><li>• 300–800 population</li><li>• tribal areas</li><li>• 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal)</li><li>• 150–400 population</li><li>• 150-300</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi on Demand</li><li>• settlement ≥ 40 children</li><li>• 6 years age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi on Demand</li><li>➤ settlement ≥ 40 children</li><li>➤ 6 years age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In your role as a healthcare planner for a village with a population of 2100 individuals, you are tasked with assessing the need for Anganwadi centers based on national guidelines. Given the current population, how many Anganwadi centers are required in the village as per the norms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For AWCs in rural/urban projects</li><li>• AWCs in rural/urban projects</li><li>• 1 AWC for 400-800 population 2 AWCs for 800-1600 population 3 AWCs for 1600-2400 population</li><li>• 1 AWC for 400-800 population</li><li>• 1 AWC</li><li>• 400-800 population</li><li>• 2 AWCs for 800-1600 population</li><li>• 2 AWCs</li><li>• 800-1600 population</li><li>• 3 AWCs for 1600-2400 population</li><li>• 3 AWCs</li><li>• 1600-2400 population</li><li>• Thereafter, one AWC for multiples of 800 population</li><li>• one AWC</li><li>• multiples of 800 population</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to Anganwadi -</li><li>• Heart of ICDS system: Anganwadi</li><li>• Focal point for ICDS services delivery is Anganwadi Worker; Each Anganwadi has 1 Anganwadi worker and 1 helper</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban area 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal area 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban area</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre</li><li>• 400–800 population</li><li>• rural and urban area</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal area</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre</li><li>• 300–800 population</li><li>• tribal area</li><li>• 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural/urban); 150-300 (tribal)</li><li>• 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre</li><li>• 150–400 population</li><li>• 150-300</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi on Demand</li><li>• settlement ≥ 40 children</li><li>• 6 years age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban area</li><li>➤ 1 Anganwadi centre</li><li>➤ 400–800 population</li><li>➤ rural and urban area</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child with Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) has been identified at a local health clinic. As part of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, you are required to provide supplementary nutrition. According to the ICDS guidelines, what is the recommended supplementary nutrition for a SAM child of this age?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "600 calories and 12-15 gms of protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600 calories and 20-25 gms of protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "800 calories and 12-15 gms of protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "800 calories and 20-25 gms of protein", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 800 calories and 20-25 gms of protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-150731.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-150825.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 800 calories and 20-25 gms of protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Severely malnourished child 6-72 months to get 800 calories and 20-25 grams protein</li><li>• Severely malnourished child 6-72 months</li><li>• 800 calories</li><li>• 20-25 grams protein</li><li>• ICDS in India is implemented by Ministry of Women and Child Development</li><li>• ICDS</li><li>• India</li><li>• implemented by Ministry of Women</li><li>• Child Development</li><li>• Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS : 300 feeding days in a year [NEW 2014 GUIDELINES]</li><li>• Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS</li><li>• 300 feeding days</li><li>• year</li><li>• Revised norms for free food supplementation under ICDS -</li><li>• Revised Financial Norms -</li><li>• Revised Financial Norms -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severely malnourished child 6-72 months to get 800 calories and 20-25 grams protein (Revised Financial norm - 12 Rs/day/beneficiary)</li><li>➤ Severely malnourished child 6-72 months</li><li>➤ 800 calories</li><li>➤ 20-25 grams protein</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a physician overseeing nutritional programs at an Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) center, you are tasked with prescribing supplementary nutrition for pregnant women registered at the center. According to the ICDS guidelines, what is the recommended supplementary nutrition for a pregnant mother?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "No supplementary nutrition", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "500 calories and 18-20 gms of protein", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "600 calories and 18-20 gms of protein", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "800 calories and 18-20 gms of protein", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 600 calories and 18-20 gms of protein", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/1.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/2.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 600 calories and 18-20 gms of protein</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Each pregnant and nursing woman to get 600 calories and 18-20 grams of protein</li><li>• Each pregnant</li><li>• nursing woman</li><li>• 600 calories</li><li>• 18-20 grams of protein</li><li>• ICDS in India is implemented by Ministry of Women and Child Development</li><li>• ICDS in India</li><li>• Ministry of Women</li><li>• Child Development</li><li>• Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS : 300 feeding days in a year [NEW 2014 GUIDELINES]</li><li>• Supplemental nutrition given through ICDS</li><li>• Revised norms for free food supplementation under ICDS -</li><li>• Revised norms for free food supplementation under ICDS -</li><li>• Revised Financial Norms -</li><li>• Revised Financial Norms -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Each pregnant and nursing woman to get 600 calories and 18-20 grams of protein (Revised Financial norm - 9.5 Rs/day/beneficiary)</li><li>➤ pregnant</li><li>➤ nursing woman</li><li>➤ 600 calories</li><li>➤ 18-20 grams of protein</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 680)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 680)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are conducting a workshop for healthcare workers focusing on adolescent health. One of the initiatives you are discussing is a government scheme aimed at improving the self-development, nutrition, and health status of adolescents. Which scheme specifically addresses these needs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poshan Abhiyan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kishori Shakti Yojana", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kishori Shakti Yojana", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Kishori Shakti Yojana</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: This was launched on 22 January 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi . It aims to address the issue of the declining child sex ratio image (CSR) and is a national initiative jointly run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development , the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education . It mainly targets the clusters in Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Bihar and Delhi.</li><li>• Option A. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao:</li><li>• launched on 22 January 2015</li><li>• Prime Minister Narendra Modi</li><li>• aims to address the issue</li><li>• declining child sex ratio image</li><li>• national initiative</li><li>• Ministry of Women and Child Development</li><li>• Ministry of Health</li><li>• Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education</li><li>• Option B. Poshan Abhiyan: This was launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister on 8th March, 2018 in Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan . The focus of Abhiyaan is to lay emphasis on nutritional status of adolescent girls , pregnant women , lactating mothers and children from 0-6 years age. The programme, through use of technology, convergence and community involvement with a targeted approach strives to reduce the level of stunning, under-nutrition, Anemia and low birth weight in children, as also focus on adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers, thus holistically addressing malnutrition.</li><li>• Option B. Poshan Abhiyan:</li><li>• Hon’ble Prime Minister on 8th March, 2018</li><li>• Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan</li><li>• focus of Abhiyaan</li><li>• lay emphasis on nutritional status of adolescent girls</li><li>• pregnant women</li><li>• lactating mothers</li><li>• children from 0-6 years age.</li><li>• Option D. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana: Renamed as Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) in 2017 , The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development . It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth.</li><li>• Option D. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana:</li><li>• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana</li><li>• 2017</li><li>• Ministry of Women and Child Development</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY)</li><li>➤ Kishori Shakti Yojana</li><li>➤ Interventions:</li><li>➤ Interventions:</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls Scheme-I - ‘Girl-to-girl Approach’ (11 – 15 years old girls) Adolescent girls scheme-II - ‘Balika Mandals’ (11 – 18 years old girls)</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls Scheme-I - ‘Girl-to-girl Approach’ (11 – 15 years old girls)</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls Scheme-I</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls scheme-II - ‘Balika Mandals’ (11 – 18 years old girls)</li><li>➤ Adolescent girls scheme-II</li><li>➤ Activities:</li><li>➤ Activities:</li><li>➤ Preventive health, hygiene &amp; nutrition education Working on Anganwadi centre Family life education Participate in creative activities Skill development or vocational training Learn about significance of education &amp; life skills, personal hygiene, environmental sanitation, nutrition, home nursing, first aid, communicable diseases, VPDs, family life, child care and development, constitutional rights &amp; their impact on quality of life</li><li>➤ Preventive health, hygiene &amp; nutrition education</li><li>➤ Working on Anganwadi centre</li><li>➤ Family life education</li><li>➤ Participate in creative activities</li><li>➤ Skill development or vocational training</li><li>➤ Learn about significance of education &amp; life skills, personal hygiene, environmental sanitation, nutrition, home nursing, first aid, communicable diseases, VPDs, family life, child care and development, constitutional rights &amp; their impact on quality of life</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 681)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 681)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of your administrative duties in overseeing a rural healthcare delivery system, you need to familiarize yourself with the structural units of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). Which of the following is the primary administrative unit of ICDS in a rural area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Village panchayat", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health sub centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Community health centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Community development block", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Community development block", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Community development block</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An administrative unit of ICDS :</li><li>• An administrative unit of ICDS</li><li>• Community Development Block - each project covering a population of 1,00,000 (rural/urban) or 35,000 (tribal)</li><li>• Community Development Block</li><li>• 1 CDPO (Community Development Project Officer) is in charge of 4 supervisors (Mukhyasevikas) and 100 Anganwadis (each supervisor for 25 Anganwadis)</li><li>• 1 CDPO (Community Development Project Officer) is in charge of 4 supervisors (Mukhyasevikas) and 100 Anganwadis (each supervisor for 25 Anganwadis)</li><li>• 1 CDPO</li><li>• in charge of 4 supervisors</li><li>• 100 Anganwadis</li><li>• ICDS is one of the world’s largest programs for early childhood development</li><li>• ICDS</li><li>• one of the world’s largest programs</li><li>• early childhood development</li><li>• ICDS is a centrally sponsored scheme</li><li>• ICDS</li><li>• centrally sponsored scheme</li><li>• ICDS provides an integrated package of services :</li><li>• ICDS</li><li>• integrated package of services</li><li>• Supplementary nutrition Immunization Health check-up Medical referral services Nutrition and health education for women Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas</li><li>• Supplementary nutrition</li><li>• Immunization</li><li>• Health check-up</li><li>• Medical referral services</li><li>• Nutrition and health education for women</li><li>• Non-formal education for children aged 3 – 6 years, and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural, urban and tribal areas</li><li>• ICDS Beneficiaries (Irrespective of income of family) -</li><li>• ICDS Beneficiaries</li><li>• Children 0 – 6 years age Pregnant and lactating mothers Women in reproductive age group Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years Heart of ICDS system : Anganwadi Focal point for ICDS services delivery is Anganwadi Worker ; Each Anganwadi has 1 Anganwadi worker and 1 helper 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban projects 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural &amp; urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• Children 0 – 6 years age</li><li>• Pregnant and lactating mothers</li><li>• Women in reproductive age group</li><li>• Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years</li><li>• Heart of ICDS system : Anganwadi</li><li>• Heart of ICDS system</li><li>• Anganwadi</li><li>• Focal point for ICDS services delivery is Anganwadi Worker ; Each Anganwadi has 1 Anganwadi worker and 1 helper 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban projects 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural &amp; urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• Focal point for ICDS services delivery</li><li>• Anganwadi Worker</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban projects 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural &amp; urban); 150-300 (tribal) 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 400–800 population in rural and urban projects</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects</li><li>• 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–400 population (rural &amp; urban); 150-300 (tribal)</li><li>• 1 Anganwadi on Demand (AOD) for settlement ≥ 40 children under 6 years age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Administrative unit of ICDS in a rural area - Community Development Block [100,000 population (rural/urban) or 35,000 (tribal)]</li><li>➤ Administrative unit of ICDS in a rural area</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 681)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 681)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an effort to enhance the understanding of public health nutrition programs among your medical students, you're covering the history of such initiatives in India. Can you recall the year in which the Mid-day Meal Programme, aimed at improving the nutritional status of school-age children, was launched?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1951", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1961", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1971", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1995", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1961", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-151658.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1961</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Mid-day Meal Programme (MDMP) is also known as School Lunch Programme . This programme has been in operation since 1961 throughout the country.</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Programme</li><li>• School Lunch Programme</li><li>• programme</li><li>• operation since 1961</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Programme (MDMP)</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Programme</li><li>• The major objective of MDMP : To attract more children for admission to schools and retain them so that literacy improvement of children could be brought about. The meal is a supplement and not a substitute to the home diet The meal should supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement and 1/2 of the total protein requirement. MDMP is being operationalized under the Ministry of Human Resource &amp; Development National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad is of the view that minimum number of feeding days in year be 250 to have the desired impact on children</li><li>• The major objective of MDMP : To attract more children for admission to schools and retain them so that literacy improvement of children could be brought about.</li><li>• The major objective of MDMP</li><li>• attract more children for admission</li><li>• The meal is a supplement and not a substitute to the home diet</li><li>• meal is a supplement</li><li>• The meal should supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement and 1/2 of the total protein requirement.</li><li>• meal should supply 1/3 of the total energy requirement</li><li>• 1/2 of the total protein requirement.</li><li>• MDMP is being operationalized under the Ministry of Human Resource &amp; Development</li><li>• MDMP</li><li>• operationalized</li><li>• Ministry of Human Resource</li><li>• Development</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad is of the view that minimum number of feeding days in year be 250 to have the desired impact on children</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) (National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education): Launched in 1995 with the main objective universalization of primary education by increasing enrolment , retention and attendance and simultaneously impacting on the nutrition of students in primary classes. It aims at providing 450–700 calories and 12–20 gm proteins per day to all children class I to VIII.</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Scheme</li><li>• Launched in 1995</li><li>• main objective universalization</li><li>• primary education</li><li>• increasing enrolment</li><li>• retention</li><li>• attendance</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals : Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals :</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals</li><li>• Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet</li><li>• Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>• Meal cost should be low</li><li>• Complicated cooking process must not be involved</li><li>• Use locally available foods</li><li>• Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• A model menu for mid-day school meal :</li><li>• A model menu for mid-day school meal</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid-day Meal Programme (MDMP) or School Lunch Programme launched in 1961 , under the Ministry of Human Resource &amp; Development</li><li>➤ Mid-day Meal Programme</li><li>➤ School Lunch Programme</li><li>➤ 1961</li><li>➤ Ministry of Human Resource</li><li>➤ Development</li><li>➤ Midday meal program provides - 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins.</li><li>➤ Amount of cereals in Mid-day meal program 100 grams</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 751)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 751)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community health class, you are discussing various health and educational interventions in India. You want the class to understand the intent behind the Mid-Day Meal Scheme. This scheme was primarily launched with the objective to reduce school dropouts and to provide basic education for all. In which year was the Mid-Day Meal Scheme initiated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1951", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1961", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1971", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1995", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1995", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-151942.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1995</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mid-day meal scheme is also known as National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education . It was launched as a centrally sponsored scheme on 15 th August 1995 and revised in 2004 .</li><li>• Mid-day meal scheme</li><li>• National Programme of Nutritional Support</li><li>• Primary Education</li><li>• centrally sponsored scheme on 15 th August 1995</li><li>• revised in 2004</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) (National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education): Launched in 1995 with the main objective universalization of primary education by increasing enrolment , retention and attendance and simultaneously impacting on the nutrition of students in primary classes . It aims at providing 450–700 calories and 12–20 gm proteins per day to all children class I to VIII.</li><li>• Mid-day Meal Scheme</li><li>• Launched in 1995</li><li>• universalization of primary education</li><li>• increasing enrolment</li><li>• retention</li><li>• attendance</li><li>• simultaneously impacting</li><li>• nutrition of students</li><li>• primary classes</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals : Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals : Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• Principles for formulating mid-day meals</li><li>• Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Meal cost should be low Complicated cooking process must not be involved Use locally available foods Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• Meal should be a supplement only not a substitute for home diet</li><li>• Meal should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>• Meal cost should be low</li><li>• Complicated cooking process must not be involved</li><li>• Use locally available foods</li><li>• Keep changing menu frequently</li><li>• A model menu for mid-day school meal:</li><li>• A model menu for mid-day school meal:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mid-day Meal Scheme launched in 1995</li><li>➤ Mid-day Meal Scheme</li><li>➤ 1995</li><li>➤ Meal should provide - 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins .</li><li>➤ 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 751)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 751)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While reviewing the National Nutrition Policy of 1993 with your students, you want them to differentiate between direct or short-term and indirect or long-term interventions. Which of the following would NOT be considered a direct or short-term intervention according to the National Nutrition Policy of 1993?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fortification of essential foods", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Popularization of low-cost nutritious food", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Control of micronutrient deficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nutritional surveillance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nutritional surveillance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Nutritional surveillance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Nutritional Surveillance - Keeping a watch over nutrition , in order to make decisions that will lead to improvement in nutrition of the population . The main strategy is the Detection of malnutrition (nutritional survey).</li><li>• Nutritional Surveillance</li><li>• watch over nutrition</li><li>• make decisions</li><li>• lead to improvement in nutrition</li><li>• population</li><li>• Detection of malnutrition</li><li>• Approach : Diagnostic-interventional Sample : Representative, 50 - 100 size group Objectives : To aid health and development To provide input for program management and evaluation (to policy makers) To give timely warning and intervention (to prevent short-term food crises).</li><li>• Approach : Diagnostic-interventional</li><li>• Approach</li><li>• Sample : Representative, 50 - 100 size group</li><li>• Sample</li><li>• Objectives : To aid health and development To provide input for program management and evaluation (to policy makers) To give timely warning and intervention (to prevent short-term food crises).</li><li>• Objectives</li><li>• To aid health and development To provide input for program management and evaluation (to policy makers) To give timely warning and intervention (to prevent short-term food crises).</li><li>• To aid health and development</li><li>• health and development</li><li>• To provide input for program management and evaluation (to policy makers)</li><li>• input for program management</li><li>• evaluation</li><li>• To give timely warning and intervention (to prevent short-term food crises).</li><li>• timely warning</li><li>• intervention</li><li>• All 3 options are considered as a direct or short-term intervention according to the National Nutrition Policy of 1993</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• direct or short-term intervention</li><li>• National Nutrition Policy of 1993</li><li>• National Nutrition Policy, 1993</li><li>• National Nutrition Policy (India) was introduced in 1993 to combat the problem of undernutrition . It aims to address this problem by utilising direct (short term) and indirect (long term) interventions.</li><li>• National Nutrition Policy</li><li>• 1993 to combat</li><li>• problem of undernutrition</li><li>• Direct intervention - Short-term</li><li>• Nutrition interventions for especially vulnerable groups. Fortification of essential foods. (Option A) Popularization of low-cost nutritious food. (Option B) Control of micro-nutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups. (Option C)</li><li>• Nutrition interventions for especially vulnerable groups.</li><li>• Fortification of essential foods. (Option A)</li><li>• Popularization of low-cost nutritious food. (Option B)</li><li>• Control of micro-nutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups. (Option C)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Nutrition Policy (India) was introduced in 1993 to combat the problem of undernutrition .</li><li>➤ National Nutrition Policy</li><li>➤ 1993 to combat the problem of undernutrition</li><li>➤ Direct short term intervention - Nutrition interventions for especially vulnerable groups; Fortification of essential foods; Popularization of low-cost nutritious food; Control of micro-nutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups .</li><li>➤ Direct short term intervention</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture about public health initiatives correlating with economic planning, you are explaining the National Program for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis (NPPCF) to mbbs students. Understanding the significance of economic planning in public health, during which five-year plan was the NPPCF initiated in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "9 th five-year plan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 th five-year plan", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "11 th five-year plan", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 th five-year plan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 11 th five-year plan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 11thfive-year plan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Programme for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis (NPPCF) was a new health initiative during 11th Five Year Plan , initiated in 2008-09 and is being expanded in a phased manner . This was launched by the Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare , Government of India . The objective of the program was to prevent and control fluorosis in India through various interventions like safe drinking water supply , health education , and of healthcare providers for the comprehensive management and treatment of fluorosis.</li><li>• National Programme for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis</li><li>• new health initiative</li><li>• 11th Five Year Plan</li><li>• 2008-09</li><li>• expanded in a phased manner</li><li>• launched by the Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare</li><li>• Government of India</li><li>• objective of the program</li><li>• prevent and control fluorosis in India</li><li>• interventions</li><li>• safe drinking water supply</li><li>• health education</li><li>• healthcare providers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Programme for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis (NPPCF) was initiated under 11th Five Year Plan in 2008.</li><li>➤ National Programme for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis</li><li>➤ 11th Five Year Plan in 2008.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 561)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 561)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion about social security initiatives in India, you are teaching 2nd Year MBBS students about the Annapurna Scheme, which aims to support the food needs of indigent senior citizens. When was this scheme launched?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2000", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "2001", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2004", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2007", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Annapurna Scheme is a central sector scheme which aims to fulfill the needs of Senior Citizens who, despite being eligible, have not received benefits under the National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS). It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 2000–2001 Under this scheme, 10 Kgs of food grains is distributed per month free of cost</li><li>• central sector scheme</li><li>• Senior Citizens</li><li>• 10 Kgs of food grains is distributed per month free of cost</li><li>• Annapurna Vs Antodaya</li><li>• Annapurna Vs Antodaya</li><li>• Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna scheme, both government oriented programs are linked with public distribution system. Annapurna scheme is for needy senior citizen age of 65 yrs &amp; above and Antyodaya is for the poorest of the poor</li><li>• public distribution system. Annapurna scheme is for needy senior citizen age of 65 yrs &amp; above and Antyodaya is for the poorest of the poor</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Annapurna Scheme was launched in 2000 for needy senior citizen age of 65 yrs &amp; above</li><li>➤ Annapurna Scheme</li><li>➤ 2000</li><li>➤ needy senior citizen age of 65 yrs</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 563)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 563)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As you prepare for a community health lecture on micronutrient deficiencies, you plan to highlight the critical standards set by public health initiatives. According to the guidelines of the National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme (NIDDCP), what is the recommended level of iodine content in salt at the consumption level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 ppm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 ppm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50 ppm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15 ppm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-152829.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 15 ppm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Standards of Iodised salt (Level of Iodization in salt) as per National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme (NIDDCP)-</li><li>• Standards of Iodised salt</li><li>• National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme</li><li>• At production level: 30 ppm At consumer level: 15 ppm.</li><li>• At production level: 30 ppm</li><li>• At consumer level: 15 ppm.</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to NIDDCP -</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to NIDDCP</li><li>• Iodine deficiency as a major public health problem - if Goitre prevalence &gt; 10% Daily requirement of Iodine: 150 mcg (&lt;1 teaspoon over lifetime) supplied normally by well-balanced diets and drinking water WHO/UNICEF/ICCIDD recommended daily iodine intake -</li><li>• Iodine deficiency as a major public health problem - if Goitre prevalence &gt; 10%</li><li>• Iodine deficiency</li><li>• public health problem</li><li>• Goitre prevalence &gt; 10%</li><li>• Daily requirement of Iodine: 150 mcg (&lt;1 teaspoon over lifetime) supplied normally by well-balanced diets and drinking water</li><li>• WHO/UNICEF/ICCIDD recommended daily iodine intake -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level of iodine content of salt at consumption level - 15 ppm and at production level 30 ppm</li><li>➤ Level of iodine</li><li>➤ salt at consumption level</li><li>➤ 15 ppm</li><li>➤ production level 30 ppm</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 560)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 560)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old girl is brought to a primary health care center in a rural area of India for a routine health check-up. Her parents are concerned about her nutritional status and have heard about government programs that offer supplementation for children. You recall that the National Iron Plus Initiative addresses the prevention and treatment of iron-deficiency anemia across different age groups. What is the launch year of the government initiative that you would discuss with the parents to ensure the child receives appropriate iron supplementation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2011", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2012", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2010", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2013", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2013", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-153142.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2013</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In 2013 , MoHFW expanded the NNACP and renamed it as a National Iron Plus Initiative (NIPI) programme .</li><li>• 2013</li><li>• MoHFW expanded the NNACP</li><li>• renamed</li><li>• National Iron Plus Initiative</li><li>• programme</li><li>• National Iron PLUS Initiative is an attempt to look at Iron Deficiency Anaemia in which beneficiaries will receive iron and folic acid supplementation irrespective of their Iron/hemoglobin status . Thus its Primary level of prevention (Specific protection)</li><li>• National Iron PLUS Initiative</li><li>• Iron Deficiency Anaemia</li><li>• beneficiaries</li><li>• iron and folic acid supplementation</li><li>• Iron/hemoglobin status</li><li>• Primary level of prevention</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Iron Plus Initiative was launched in 2013</li><li>➤ National Iron Plus Initiative</li><li>➤ 2013</li><li>➤ IFA SUPPLEMENTATION - Prophylactic doses and regimen</li><li>➤ IFA SUPPLEMENTATION</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 557)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 557)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old food inspector is participating in a workshop about food safety regulations in India. He is asked about the historical context of food regulatory bodies in India. He recalls that the current regulatory body, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), was operationalized under the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006. In which year was the FSSAI officially established?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2004", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2006", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2008", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2010", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2008", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2008</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established in the year 2008 . FSSAI Act 2006 is being implemented by all states/UT governments .</li><li>• Food Safety</li><li>• Standards Authority of India</li><li>• year 2008</li><li>• FSSAI Act 2006</li><li>• implemented by all states/UT governments</li><li>• FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (FSSAI)</li><li>• FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA</li><li>• Background : Established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 Head office: New Delhi Objectives: To introduce a single statute relating to food To provide for the scientific development of the food processing industry</li><li>• Background : Established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006</li><li>• Background</li><li>• Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006</li><li>• Head office: New Delhi</li><li>• Objectives: To introduce a single statute relating to food To provide for the scientific development of the food processing industry</li><li>• Objectives:</li><li>• To introduce a single statute relating to food To provide for the scientific development of the food processing industry</li><li>• To introduce a single statute relating to food</li><li>• To provide for the scientific development of the food processing industry</li><li>• Function : Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards Administrative Ministry for the implementation - Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare, GoI</li><li>• Function : Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>• Function</li><li>• Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>• Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption</li><li>• Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed</li><li>• Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>• Administrative Ministry for the implementation - Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare, GoI</li><li>• Administrative Ministry for the implementation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established in the year 2008</li><li>➤ Food Safety</li><li>➤ Standards Authority of India</li><li>➤ year 2008</li><li>➤ Administrative Ministry for the implementation - Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare, GoI</li><li>➤ Administrative Ministry for the implementation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dietician at a public hospital in India is reviewing the guidelines to ensure the food provided meets the regulatory requirements. She understands that there are specific standards set to achieve a minimum level of quality for foodstuffs under Indian conditions. These standards, known for their rigorous testing and quality assurance, are critical in preventing foodborne illnesses. Which of the following represents these standards?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Codex Alimentarius", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PFA standards", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Agmark Standards", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bureau of Indian Standards", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PFA standards", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. PFA standards</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Codex Alimentarius: Joint FAO/WHO standards for international markets ; Food standards in India are based on Codex Alimentarius</li><li>• Option A. Codex Alimentarius: Joint FAO/WHO standards</li><li>• international markets</li><li>• Codex Alimentarius</li><li>• Option C. Agmark standards: Purely voluntary ; express degree of excellence above PFA standards.</li><li>• Option C. Agmark standards: Purely voluntary</li><li>• Option D. Bureau of Indian Standards: Purely voluntary ; express degree of excellence above PFA standards</li><li>• Option D. Bureau of Indian Standards: Purely voluntary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (FSSAI)</li><li>➤ FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA</li><li>➤ Background : Established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 Head office : New Delhi Function : Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>➤ Background : Established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006</li><li>➤ Background</li><li>➤ Head office : New Delhi</li><li>➤ Head office</li><li>➤ Function : Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>➤ Function</li><li>➤ Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>➤ Lay down Science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption</li><li>➤ Various Central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Milk and Milk Products Order 1992, etc. to be repealed</li><li>➤ Single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards</li><li>➤ Establishment of the Authority : Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI</li><li>➤ Establishment of the Authority : Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI</li><li>➤ Establishment of the Authority</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 749)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A policy advisor is consulting with a team of public health officials on the historical legal framework for food safety in India. They are reviewing past legislation to understand how food quality standards have evolved. The advisor asks the team to identify the year in which the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, a pivotal health mandate aimed at addressing food adulteration, was enacted. Which year did this legislative action take place?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1950", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1954", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1960", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1964", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1954", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1954</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Enacted by the Indian Parliament in 1954 , with the objective of ensuring pure and wholesome food to the consumers and to protect them from fraudulent and deceptive trade practices , the Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act was amended in 1964, 1976 and lately in 1986 .</li><li>• Enacted</li><li>• Indian Parliament in 1954</li><li>• ensuring pure and wholesome food</li><li>• consumers</li><li>• protect them from fraudulent</li><li>• deceptive trade practices</li><li>• Prevention of Food Adulteration</li><li>• Act</li><li>• amended</li><li>• 1964, 1976</li><li>• 1986</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important pointers related to PFA -</li><li>➤ Some important pointers related to PFA</li><li>➤ According to Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act 1954 : – Level of iodisation in salt is 30 ppm at production level and 15 ppm at consumer level PFA standards: Laid under ‘Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954’; to obtain a minimum level of quality of food stuffs attainable under Indian conditions</li><li>➤ According to Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act 1954 : – Level of iodisation in salt is 30 ppm at production level and 15 ppm at consumer level</li><li>➤ Prevention of Food Adulteration</li><li>➤ Act 1954</li><li>➤ Level of iodisation</li><li>➤ salt is 30 ppm</li><li>➤ production level</li><li>➤ 15 ppm</li><li>➤ consumer level</li><li>➤ PFA standards: Laid under ‘Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954’; to obtain a minimum level of quality of food stuffs attainable under Indian conditions</li><li>➤ minimum level of quality of food</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 748)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 748)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A food safety officer is conducting a training session on food safety protocols as mandated by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). She emphasizes a particular systematic approach that the FSSAI encourages for identifying and controlling hazards throughout the food chain. What does the acronym HACCP, as endorsed by FSSAI, stand for?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health Analysis and Critical Control Points", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hazard Analysis and Critical Care Points", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health Analysis and Critical Care Points", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) is the cornerstone of FSSAI . HACCP is a structured approach that focuses on identifying potential food safety hazards and establishing critical control points to prevent, eliminate , or reduce these hazards to an acceptable level , which is critical for maintaining food safety standards.</li><li>• Hazard Analysis</li><li>• Critical Control Points</li><li>• cornerstone of FSSAI</li><li>• HACCP</li><li>• structured approach</li><li>• focuses on identifying potential food safety hazards</li><li>• establishing critical control points</li><li>• prevent, eliminate</li><li>• reduce these hazards</li><li>• acceptable level</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HACCP is a systematic preventive approach to food safety , focusing on the identification and control of hazards throughout the food chain , a process endorsed by the FSSAI.</li><li>➤ HACCP</li><li>➤ systematic preventive approach</li><li>➤ food safety</li><li>➤ focusing</li><li>➤ identification</li><li>➤ control of hazards</li><li>➤ food chain</li><li>➤ HACCP - Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points</li><li>➤ Ref : https://foodregulatory.fssai.gov.in/HACCP-certification</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : https://foodregulatory.fssai.gov.in/HACCP-certification</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is rotating in a public health department and is reviewing the quality control measures for pasteurized milk. Which of the following is NOT a standard test for assessing the quality of pasteurized milk?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Phosphatase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Standard plate count", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coliform count", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paper chromatography test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Paper chromatography test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-153823.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Paper chromatography test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Effect/sufficiency/adequacy of pasteurization is assessed by –</li><li>• Option A. Phosphatase test (MC): This test is widely used to check the efficiency of pasteurization .</li><li>• Option A. Phosphatase test (MC):</li><li>• check the efficiency</li><li>• pasteurization</li><li>• Option B. Standard plate count: The bacteriological quality of pasteurized milk is determined by the standard plate count . Enforced limit is 30,000 bacterial count per ml of pasteurized milk</li><li>• Option B. Standard plate count:</li><li>• bacteriological quality</li><li>• pasteurized milk</li><li>• standard plate count</li><li>• Option C. Coliform count: Coliform organisms are usually completely destroyed by pasteurization , and therefore, their presence in pasteurized milk is an indication either of improper pasteurization or post-pasteurization contamination . Standard is coliforms be absent in 1 ml of milk</li><li>• Option C. Coliform count:</li><li>• completely destroyed</li><li>• pasteurization</li><li>• presence in pasteurized milk</li><li>• improper pasteurization</li><li>• post-pasteurization contamination</li><li>• Some important pointers related to Pasteurization -</li><li>• Some important pointers related to Pasteurization -</li><li>• Pasteurization of milk is a type of - Primary prevention</li><li>• Chemical Disinfectants - Pasteurization (70° Celsius for 30 minutes for pathogenic microorganisms except spores)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Effect / sufficiency / adequacy of pasteurization of Milk is assessed by – Phosphatase test (MC used test).</li><li>➤ Effect</li><li>➤ sufficiency</li><li>➤ adequacy of pasteurization</li><li>➤ Milk is assessed</li><li>➤ Phosphatase test</li><li>➤ Methods of Pasteurization -</li><li>➤ Methods of Pasteurization -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 745)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 745)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is studying the effects of various natural toxins on human health. Match the following toxins with the diseases they are commonly associated with:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "a- i, b- ii, c-iii", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "a- iii, b- i, c-ii", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "a- ii, b- iii, c-i", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "a- ii, b- i, c-iii", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. a- ii, b- i, c-iii", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/14/picture48.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-154238.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. a- ii, b- i, c-iii</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cause of Nuerolathyrism is a toxin , Beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA) which is found in the seeds of the pulse , L.sativus (Khesari dhal).</li><li>• Nuerolathyrism is a toxin</li><li>• Beta oxalyl amino alanine</li><li>• seeds of the pulse</li><li>• L.sativus</li><li>• Epidemic dropsy - sanguinarine from argemone oil This toxic substance interferes with the oxidation of pyruvic acid which accumulates in the blood.</li><li>• Epidemic dropsy</li><li>• Endemic ascites - pyrrolizidine alkaloids in Jhunjhunia seeds were found to be hepatotoxins.</li><li>• Endemic ascites</li><li>• Lathyrism - Neurolathyrism is caused by eating the pulse ‘Khesari Dal (Lathyrus sativus)’. Diets containing over 30% of this dal consumed over a period of 2 - 6 months result in neurolathyrism. Toxin is present in lathyrus seeds is Beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA). It manifests as following stages: Latent stage; No-stick stage; One-stick stage; Two-stick stage and Crawler stage.</li><li>• Lathyrism</li><li>• Neurolathyrism</li><li>• ‘Khesari Dal</li><li>• Interventions for prevention and control of lathyrism :</li><li>• Interventions for prevention and control of lathyrism</li><li>• Vitamin C prophylaxis Banning the crop Removal of toxin: Steeping method and Parboiling Education Genetic approach Socio-economic changes</li><li>• Vitamin C prophylaxis</li><li>• Banning the crop</li><li>• Removal of toxin: Steeping method and Parboiling</li><li>• Education</li><li>• Genetic approach</li><li>• Socio-economic changes</li><li>• Epidemic Dropsy – This is caused by contamination of mustard oil with ‘Argemone oil’ . Toxin ‘Sanguinarine’ is contained in argemone oil. It may lead to sudden noninflammatory edema of bilateral lower limbs, diarrhea, dyspnoea, cardiac failure and death; It can also lead to glaucoma; It may sometimes manifest as ‘Sarcoids’ (dilatation of skin capillaries). Epidemic dropsy may occur in all ages except breast-fed infants. Edema in Epidemic dropsy occurs due to proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin).</li><li>• Epidemic Dropsy</li><li>• contamination of mustard oil with ‘Argemone oil’</li><li>• Argemone oil may be detected by following tests:</li><li>• Nitric acid test Paper chromatography test : Most sensitive test</li><li>• Nitric acid test</li><li>• Paper chromatography test : Most sensitive test</li><li>• Paper chromatography test</li><li>• sensitive test</li><li>• Endemic Ascites :</li><li>• Endemic Ascites</li><li>• Toxin : Pyrrolizidine alkaloids (Hepatotoxins) Adulterant : Crotalaria plant (Jhunjhunia)</li><li>• Toxin</li><li>• Adulterant</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 746, 747)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 746, 747)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the context of food safety, A medical resident is reviewing food safety regulations concerning grain products. He notes that certain regulations specify maximum allowable concentrations of natural contaminants. What is the upper safe limit for ergot alkaloids in food material, as per safety guidelines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.01 mg per 100 grams of food material", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.02 mg per 100 grams of food material", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.05 mg per 100 grams of food material", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.10 mg per 100 grams of food material", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.05 mg per 100 grams of food material", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 0.05 mg per 100 grams of food material</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The upper safe limit for the ergot alkaloids has been estimated to be 0.05 mg per 100 grams of the food material .</li><li>• upper safe limit</li><li>• ergot alkaloids</li><li>• estimated to be 0.05 mg per 100 grams</li><li>• food material</li><li>• Ergotism</li><li>• Ergotism</li><li>• Description: Occurs due to food toxicant - ergot fungus ‘Claviceps fusiformis’ (Toxin - Clavine alkaloids) Removal of ergot : – Float them in 20% salt water Hand-picking Air-floatation</li><li>• Description: Occurs due to food toxicant - ergot fungus ‘Claviceps fusiformis’ (Toxin - Clavine alkaloids)</li><li>• food toxicant</li><li>• Removal of ergot : – Float them in 20% salt water Hand-picking Air-floatation</li><li>• Removal of ergot</li><li>• Hand-picking Air-floatation</li><li>• Hand-picking</li><li>• Air-floatation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Upper safe limit for ergot - 0.05 mg per 100 grams food material</li><li>➤ Upper safe limit for ergot</li><li>➤ 0.05 mg</li><li>➤ 100 grams food material</li><li>➤ Food items having a tendency for ergotism – Bajra, Rye, Sorghum, Wheat</li><li>➤ Food items</li><li>➤ tendency for ergotism</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 747)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 747)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician is investigating a cluster of epidemic dropsy cases in a community. The common link appears to be the consumption of mustard oil, which may be contaminated with argemone oil. Which test is most sensitive for the detection of argemone oil contamination in food products?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nitric acid test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methylene blue test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Phosphatase test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paper chromatography test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Paper chromatography test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Paper chromatography test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Nitric acid test: It can detect contamination of mustard oil with argemone oil , but not as sensitive as Paper Chromatography test</li><li>• Option A. Nitric acid test:</li><li>• detect contamination of mustard oil with argemone oil</li><li>• Option B. Methylene blue test: An indirect method for detection of microorganisms in milk (Test for Contamination of milk)</li><li>• Option B. Methylene blue test:</li><li>• indirect method</li><li>• detection of microorganisms</li><li>• milk</li><li>• Option C. Phosphatase test: Widely used test for Pasteurized Milk to check adequacy/sufficiency of pasteurization</li><li>• Option C. Phosphatase test:</li><li>• Pasteurized Milk</li><li>• adequacy/sufficiency of pasteurization</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidemic Dropsy - Is caused by contamination of mustard oil with ‘Argemone oil’</li><li>➤ Epidemic Dropsy</li><li>➤ contamination of mustard oil</li><li>➤ ‘Argemone oil’</li><li>➤ Toxin : ‘Sanguinarine’ is the toxin contained in argemone oil Mechanism - Sanguinarine interferes with oxidation of ‘pyruvic acid’, which accumulates in blood: It may lead to sudden non-inflammatory edema of bilateral lower limbs, diarrhea, dyspnoea, cardiac failure and death; It can also lead to glaucoma; It may sometimes manifest as ‘Sarcoids’ (dilatation of skin capillaries). Epidemic dropsy may occur in all ages except breast-fed infants The mortality of epidemic dropsy varies from 5 to 50% Edema in Epidemic dropsy occurs due to proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin).</li><li>➤ Toxin : ‘Sanguinarine’ is the toxin contained in argemone oil</li><li>➤ Toxin</li><li>➤ ‘Sanguinarine’</li><li>➤ toxin contained in argemone oil</li><li>➤ Mechanism - Sanguinarine interferes with oxidation of ‘pyruvic acid’, which accumulates in blood: It may lead to sudden non-inflammatory edema of bilateral lower limbs, diarrhea, dyspnoea, cardiac failure and death; It can also lead to glaucoma; It may sometimes manifest as ‘Sarcoids’ (dilatation of skin capillaries). Epidemic dropsy may occur in all ages except breast-fed infants The mortality of epidemic dropsy varies from 5 to 50% Edema in Epidemic dropsy occurs due to proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin).</li><li>➤ Epidemic dropsy may occur in all ages except breast-fed infants The mortality of epidemic dropsy varies from 5 to 50% Edema in Epidemic dropsy occurs due to proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin).</li><li>➤ Epidemic dropsy may occur in all ages except breast-fed infants</li><li>➤ The mortality of epidemic dropsy varies from 5 to 50%</li><li>➤ Edema in Epidemic dropsy occurs due to proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin).</li><li>➤ Paper chromatography test as the most sensitive method for detecting argemone oil (toxin Sanguinarine) contamination in food products.</li><li>➤ Paper chromatography test as the most sensitive method for detecting argemone oil (toxin Sanguinarine) contamination in food products.</li><li>➤ Paper chromatography test</li><li>➤ sensitive method</li><li>➤ detecting argemone oil</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 747)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 747)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health seminar on nutrition, a presentation is given on the various methods used to combat micronutrient deficiencies in populations. One method discussed is food fortification. Which of the following is NOT an example of food fortification?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluoridation of water", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Iodization of salt", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D in milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vanaspati in Ghee", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Vanaspati in Ghee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-154814.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Vanaspati in Ghee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Example of fortification of food or water.</li><li>• Option A. Fluoridation of water as a prevention of dental caries</li><li>• Option A. Fluoridation of water</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• dental caries</li><li>• Option B. Iodization of salt for combating the problem of endemic goitre (According to Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act’ 1954.</li><li>• Option B. Iodization of salt</li><li>• combating the problem</li><li>• endemic goitre</li><li>• Level of iodisation - Minimum 30 ppm at production level and 15 ppm at consumer level;</li><li>• Level of iodisation</li><li>• Moisture content : &lt; 6.0% by weight; Sodium chloride: &gt; 96.0% by weight.</li><li>• Moisture content</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D in milk: Food fortification (e.g., vanaspati, milk) with vitamins A and D (2500 IU Vitamin A and 175 IU Vitamin D per 100 grams).</li><li>• Option C. Vitamin D in milk: Food fortification</li><li>• vitamins A</li><li>• D</li><li>• Food fortification : Is a public health , measure where nutrients are added to food (in relatively small quantities), to maintain/improve the quality of diet of a group , community or a population. Food Fortification is an example of ‘Primary Level of Prevention’</li><li>• Food fortification</li><li>• public health</li><li>• nutrients are added to food</li><li>• maintain/improve the quality of diet</li><li>• group</li><li>• community</li><li>• ‘Primary Level of Prevention’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Examples of fortification of food or water are - Fluoridation of water; Iodization of salt; vanaspati ghee with vitamins A and D</li><li>➤ Examples of fortification of food or water are</li><li>➤ Food Adulteration diseases -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 748)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 748)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While preparing for a public health policy exam, a medical student needs to cite the article from the Indian Constitution that defines \"Scheduled Tribes\" for her thesis on healthcare disparities. Which article of the Indian Constitution should she refer to for the accurate definition of \"Scheduled Tribes\"?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Article 366", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Article 322", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Article 360", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Article 320", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Article 366", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Article 366</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Article 322: The expenses of the Union or a State Public Service Commission , including any salaries , allowances and pensions</li><li>• Option B. Article 322:</li><li>• expenses</li><li>• Union or a State Public Service Commission</li><li>• salaries</li><li>• allowances</li><li>• pensions</li><li>• Option C. Article 360: This article gives the President the authority to declare a financial emergency in the country if there is a threat to India's financial stability or credit.</li><li>• Option C. Article 360:</li><li>• President the authority</li><li>• financial emergency</li><li>• country</li><li>• Option D. Article 320: Functions of Public Service Commissions (Union and State) like to conduct examinations for appointments to the services.</li><li>• Option D. Article 320:</li><li>• Public Service Commissions</li><li>• conduct examinations</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Scheduled Tribes [Article 366 (25)] - Includes tribes or communities as deemed under Article 342</li><li>➤ Scheduled Tribes</li><li>➤ tribes or communities</li><li>➤ Article 342</li><li>➤ Other Important Articles -</li><li>➤ Article 21 - Right to life of citizens of India</li><li>➤ Article 21</li><li>➤ Right to life</li><li>➤ Article 24 - Article of child rights - Prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories; Prevents abuse of children at tender age</li><li>➤ Article 24</li><li>➤ Article of child rights</li><li>➤ Article 45 - Provides for free and compulsory education for all children till 14 years of age.</li><li>➤ Article 45</li><li>➤ free and compulsory education</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 795)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 795)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "When planning public health interventions for tribal areas in India, it is crucial to understand the established norms for healthcare facilities. As per the norms, which of the following is correct regarding the establishment of health centers in tribal areas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "One HSC per 5000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "One HSC per 3000 population", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "One CHC per 50000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "One PHC per 50000 population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. One HSC per 3000 population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. One HSC per 3000 population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• As per the present norms , tribal and hilly areas should have one Health Sub-centre (HSC) per 3,000 populations , one Primary Health Centre (PHC) per 20,000 populations , and a Community Health Centre (CHC) per 80,000 populations .</li><li>• present norms</li><li>• tribal and hilly areas</li><li>• one Health Sub-centre</li><li>• 3,000 populations</li><li>• one Primary Health Centre</li><li>• 20,000 populations</li><li>• Community Health Centre</li><li>• 80,000 populations</li><li>• Healthcare Infrastructure for Tribal Population -</li><li>• 27–40% shortfall in Health care institutions 27% shortfall in Subcentres (11 states) (8% shortfall in UT Dadra and Nagar Haveli) 40% shortfall in PHCs (7 states) 31% shortfall in CHCs (10 states) (1 CHC shortfall in UT Dadra and Nagar Haveli)</li><li>• 27–40% shortfall in Health care institutions</li><li>• 27% shortfall in Subcentres (11 states) (8% shortfall in UT Dadra and Nagar Haveli)</li><li>• 40% shortfall in PHCs (7 states)</li><li>• 31% shortfall in CHCs (10 states) (1 CHC shortfall in UT Dadra and Nagar Haveli)</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to Tribal Population -</li><li>• NTEP - Designated Microscopy Centre (DMC) - Most peripheral unit - Population covered: 50,000 in hilly/ tribal areas ICDS - 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects and 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–300 population. Community Development Block covering a population of 35,000 (550 villages) Population Norms for Health Workers in India [Current Norms] Health Assistant (male and female) – 1 per 20,000 population in tribal and hilly areas Health Worker/Multi-purpose worker (male and female) – 1 per 3,000 population in tribal and hilly areas</li><li>• NTEP - Designated Microscopy Centre (DMC) - Most peripheral unit - Population covered: 50,000 in hilly/ tribal areas</li><li>• NTEP</li><li>• ICDS - 1 Anganwadi centre per 300–800 population in tribal projects and 1 Mini-Anganwadi centre per 150–300 population. Community Development Block covering a population of 35,000 (550 villages)</li><li>• ICDS</li><li>• Population Norms for Health Workers in India [Current Norms] Health Assistant (male and female) – 1 per 20,000 population in tribal and hilly areas Health Worker/Multi-purpose worker (male and female) – 1 per 3,000 population in tribal and hilly areas</li><li>• Population Norms for Health Workers in India</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As per the present norms , tribal and hilly areas should have one Health Sub-centre (HSC) per 3,000 populations , one Primary Health Centre (PHC) per 20,000 populations , and a Community Health Centre (CHC) per 80,000 populations.</li><li>➤ present norms</li><li>➤ tribal</li><li>➤ hilly areas</li><li>➤ one Health Sub-centre</li><li>➤ 3,000 populations</li><li>➤ one Primary Health Centre</li><li>➤ 20,000 populations</li><li>➤ Community Health Centre</li><li>➤ 80,000 populations.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 797)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 797)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents to your clinic. He reports that he has been compliant with his medication regimen but has recently been experiencing a return of his symptoms of high blood pressure. Upon further investigation, you discover that he purchased his medication from an online source that is not associated with a licensed pharmacy. This raises your concern about the authenticity of his medication. Which of the following statements is incorrect about counterfeit medicines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A drug/medicine is counterfeit if it is produced with an intention to cheat.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Includes mis-labelling, absence of active ingredients, a wrong ingredient, or the correct ingredient in an insufficient quantity.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Only generic products can be counterfeited.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anti-malarial are amongst the most commonly reported sub-standard and falsified medical products.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Only generic products can be counterfeited.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Only generic products can be counterfeited.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ QUALITY CONTROL IN DRUG SECTOR IN INDIA</li><li>➤ QUALITY CONTROL IN DRUG SECTOR IN INDIA</li><li>➤ Quality control of drugs in India: Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO): – Headed by: 1. Central level: Drugs Controller General, India (DGHS, MOHFW) 2. State level: State Drugs Controllers Main functions:</li><li>➤ Quality control of drugs in India: Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO): – Headed by: 1. Central level: Drugs Controller General, India (DGHS, MOHFW) 2. State level: State Drugs Controllers Main functions:</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation</li><li>➤ Main functions:</li><li>➤ Main functions:</li><li>➤ Main functions:</li><li>➤ 1. Quality control of imported drugs 2. Coordination of activities under State Drugs Control Authorities 3. Approval for importation/manufacture of new drugs 4. Laying standards for and act as ‘Central Licensing Authority for blood and blood products, iv fluids, sera, vaccines, r-DNA products’</li><li>➤ Zonal offices: Mumbai, Kolkata, Ghaziabad, Chennai.</li><li>➤ Zonal offices: Mumbai, Kolkata, Ghaziabad, Chennai.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 550)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 550)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As on 2022, total number of essential drugs approved by Government of India under NLEM is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "321 drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "309 drugs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "384 drugs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "356 drugs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 384 drugs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 384 drugs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NEW National Lists of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2022</li><li>• NEW National Lists of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2022</li><li>• 384 Drugs included in NLEM 2022; 34 new drugs added Criteria followed for inclusion in NLEM : be useful in diseases which is a public health problem in India be licensed /approved Drugs Controller General (India) (DCGI) have proven efficacy and safety profile based on scientific evidence be comparatively cost effective be aligned with the current treatment guidelines recommended under National Health Programs of India . (e.g. Ivermectin part of Accelerated Plan for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis 2018). when more than one medicine are available from the same therapeutic class , one prototype /medically best suited medicine of that class to be included. price of total treatment is considered and not the unit price of a medicine fixed dose combinations are usually not included vaccines as and when are included in Universal Immunization Program (e.g. Rotavirus vaccine).</li><li>• 384 Drugs included in NLEM 2022; 34 new drugs added</li><li>• 384 Drugs</li><li>• 34 new drugs added</li><li>• Criteria followed for inclusion in NLEM : be useful in diseases which is a public health problem in India be licensed /approved Drugs Controller General (India) (DCGI) have proven efficacy and safety profile based on scientific evidence be comparatively cost effective be aligned with the current treatment guidelines recommended under National Health Programs of India . (e.g. Ivermectin part of Accelerated Plan for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis 2018). when more than one medicine are available from the same therapeutic class , one prototype /medically best suited medicine of that class to be included. price of total treatment is considered and not the unit price of a medicine fixed dose combinations are usually not included vaccines as and when are included in Universal Immunization Program (e.g. Rotavirus vaccine).</li><li>• Criteria followed for inclusion in NLEM</li><li>• be useful in diseases which is a public health problem in India be licensed /approved Drugs Controller General (India) (DCGI) have proven efficacy and safety profile based on scientific evidence be comparatively cost effective be aligned with the current treatment guidelines recommended under National Health Programs of India . (e.g. Ivermectin part of Accelerated Plan for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis 2018). when more than one medicine are available from the same therapeutic class , one prototype /medically best suited medicine of that class to be included. price of total treatment is considered and not the unit price of a medicine fixed dose combinations are usually not included vaccines as and when are included in Universal Immunization Program (e.g. Rotavirus vaccine).</li><li>• be useful in diseases which is a public health problem in India</li><li>• public health problem in India</li><li>• be licensed /approved Drugs Controller General (India) (DCGI)</li><li>• licensed</li><li>• have proven efficacy and safety profile based on scientific evidence</li><li>• proven efficacy</li><li>• safety profile</li><li>• be comparatively cost effective</li><li>• comparatively cost effective</li><li>• be aligned with the current treatment guidelines</li><li>• aligned</li><li>• current treatment guidelines</li><li>• recommended under National Health Programs of India . (e.g. Ivermectin part of Accelerated Plan for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis 2018).</li><li>• National Health Programs of India</li><li>• when more than one medicine are available from the same therapeutic class , one prototype /medically best suited medicine of that class to be included.</li><li>• more than one medicine are available</li><li>• same therapeutic class</li><li>• one prototype</li><li>• price of total treatment is considered and not the unit price of a medicine</li><li>• price of total treatment</li><li>• fixed dose combinations are usually not included</li><li>• fixed dose combinations</li><li>• vaccines as and when are included in Universal Immunization Program (e.g. Rotavirus vaccine).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 384 Drugs included in NLEM 2022; 34 new drugs added</li><li>➤ 384 Drugs</li><li>➤ NLEM 2022; 34 new drugs added</li><li>➤ Ref : National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM), 2022</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM), 2022</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a medical officer in a tertiary care hospital, you are part of a committee responsible for ensuring the safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs used within the institution. You are currently reviewing protocols for adherence to national standards in drug regulation. In this context, understanding the functions and scope of the Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is essential. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "CDSCO control the quality of drugs imported into the country", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "States has no role in controlling drugs in state.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Approval of new drugs proposed to be imported or manufactured in the country", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Central License Approving Authority in respect of whole human blood and its products, sera and vaccines and r-DNA products.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. States has no role in controlling drugs in state.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. States has no role in controlling drugs in states.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• These are the main functions -</li><li>• These are the main functions -</li><li>• 1. Quality control of imported drugs (Option A)</li><li>• (Option A)</li><li>• 2. Coordination of activities under State Drugs Control Authorities</li><li>• 3. Approval for importation/manufacture of new drugs (Option C)</li><li>• (Option C)</li><li>• 4. Laying standards for and act as ‘Central Licensing Authority for blood and blood products, iv fluids, sera, vaccines, r-DNA products’ (Option D)</li><li>• (Option D)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ QUALITY CONTROL IN DRUG SECTOR IN INDIA</li><li>➤ QUALITY CONTROL IN DRUG SECTOR IN INDIA</li><li>➤ Quality control of drugs in India:</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940</li><li>➤ Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation</li><li>➤ Headed by: Central level: Drugs Controller General, India (DGHS, MOHFW) State level: State Drugs Controllers Zonal offices : Mumbai, Kolkata, Ghaziabad, Chennai. Other Pointers -</li><li>➤ Headed by: Central level: Drugs Controller General, India (DGHS, MOHFW) State level: State Drugs Controllers</li><li>➤ State level: State Drugs Controllers</li><li>➤ State level: State Drugs Controllers</li><li>➤ State level: State Drugs Controllers</li><li>➤ State level: State Drugs Controllers</li><li>➤ Zonal offices : Mumbai, Kolkata, Ghaziabad, Chennai.</li><li>➤ Zonal offices</li><li>➤ Other Pointers -</li><li>➤ Two new drugs named Bedaquiline and Delamanid with anti-TB effect were approved for treatment of multidrug resistant TB by The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)</li><li>➤ Two new drugs</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline</li><li>➤ Delamanid with anti-TB effect</li><li>➤ multidrug resistant TB</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organization</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 551</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed 551</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male patient presents with a cough, weight loss, and night sweats. He was previously treated for tuberculosis (TB) but has not shown improvement with standard first-line therapy. Sputum culture and sensitivity testing reveal resistance to both isoniazid and rifampicin. How should this patient's tuberculosis resistance profile be classified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monoresistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Polydrug resistance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multidrug resistance", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Extensive drug resistance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Multidrug resistance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Multidrug resistance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Monoresistance: Resistance to one first-line anti-TB drug only.</li><li>• Option A. Monoresistance:</li><li>• one first-line anti-TB drug only.</li><li>• Option B. Polydrug Resistance: Resistance to more than one first-line anti-TB drug , other than both isoniazid and rifampicin</li><li>• Option B. Polydrug Resistance:</li><li>• more than one first-line anti-TB drug</li><li>• Option D. Extensive Drug Resistant TB (XDR–TB): Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid as well as to any member of the quinolone family and at least one of the following second-line TB treatments : kanamycin, capreomycin, or amikacin</li><li>• Option D. Extensive Drug Resistant TB (XDR–TB):</li><li>• rifampicin and isoniazid</li><li>• member of the quinolone family</li><li>• second-line TB treatments</li><li>• kanamycin, capreomycin, or amikacin</li><li>• XDR–TB is MDR TB with further resistance to 3 – 6 classes of second line drugs (older definition) Principles of treatment for MDR-TB and for XDR-TB are same. XDR-TB does not transmit easily in healthy populations, yet is capable of causing ‘epidemics in populations which are already stricken by HIV</li><li>• XDR–TB is MDR TB with further resistance to 3 – 6 classes of second line drugs (older definition)</li><li>• Principles of treatment for MDR-TB and for XDR-TB are same.</li><li>• XDR-TB does not transmit easily in healthy populations, yet is capable of causing ‘epidemics in populations which are already stricken by HIV</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Multidrug Resistant TB (MDR-TB): Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin with or without resistance to other drugs and Polydrug Resistance is resistance to more than one first-line anti-TB drug , other than both isoniazid and rifampicin</li><li>➤ Multidrug Resistant TB</li><li>➤ Resistance</li><li>➤ Isoniazid and Rifampicin</li><li>➤ resistance to other drugs and Polydrug Resistance</li><li>➤ resistance</li><li>➤ one first-line anti-TB drug</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 208)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 208)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is reviewing a sputum smear microscopy report for a patient suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. The report indicates the presence of acid-fast bacilli (AFB) on Ziehl-Neelsen staining. The resident must classify the smear result according to the NTEP guidelines for reporting smear microscopy results. The presence of 1 to 10 acid-fast bacilli (AFB) per oil immersion field on a sputum smear is classified as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Scanty", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1+", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2+", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "3+", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2+", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-162032.png", "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/7/71/Mycobacterium_tuberculosis_Ziehl-Neelsen_stain_02.jpg/1280px-Mycobacterium_tuberculosis_Ziehl-Neelsen_stain_02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2+</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Zeihl Neelsen (ZN) Staining (AFB Staining)</li><li>• Zeihl Neelsen</li><li>• Staining</li><li>• Sputum smear of a suspected TB patient is used for the diagnosis Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) of TB : ‘Rod shaped’ with ‘beaded appearance’ (Beads: Mycolic Acid) &gt;10,000 bacilli per mL sputum must be present for a positive result Results of ZN staining : Minimum 100 fields examined</li><li>• Sputum smear of a suspected TB patient is used for the diagnosis</li><li>• Sputum smear</li><li>• suspected TB patient</li><li>• diagnosis</li><li>• Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) of TB : ‘Rod shaped’ with ‘beaded appearance’ (Beads: Mycolic Acid)</li><li>• Acid Fast Bacilli</li><li>• of TB</li><li>• ‘Rod shaped’</li><li>• ‘beaded appearance’</li><li>• &gt;10,000 bacilli per mL sputum must be present for a positive result</li><li>• &gt;10,000 bacilli per mL sputum</li><li>• present</li><li>• positive result</li><li>• Results of ZN staining : Minimum 100 fields examined</li><li>• Results of ZN staining</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Grading criteria under ZN staining - 1-10 bacilli per oil immersion field - 2+ grade</li><li>➤ Grading criteria</li><li>➤ ZN staining</li><li>➤ 1-10 bacilli per oil immersion field</li><li>➤ 2+ grade</li><li>➤ ZN staining Procedure -</li><li>➤ ZN staining Procedure</li><li>➤ Fix smear on slide : Pass slide 3 times over flame (smear upside) Carbol Fuschin cover : Steam gently for 5 minutes over direct flame Washing : with de-ionised water Decolourisation : 25% sulphuric acid Washing : With water Counter-staining : 1 minute with Loeffler’s methylene blue Washing : With de-ionised water Dry the slide</li><li>➤ Fix smear on slide : Pass slide 3 times over flame (smear upside)</li><li>➤ Fix smear on slide</li><li>➤ Carbol Fuschin cover : Steam gently for 5 minutes over direct flame</li><li>➤ Carbol Fuschin cover</li><li>➤ Washing : with de-ionised water</li><li>➤ Washing</li><li>➤ Decolourisation : 25% sulphuric acid</li><li>➤ Decolourisation</li><li>➤ Washing : With water</li><li>➤ Washing</li><li>➤ Counter-staining : 1 minute with Loeffler’s methylene blue</li><li>➤ Counter-staining</li><li>➤ Washing : With de-ionised water</li><li>➤ Washing</li><li>➤ Dry the slide</li><li>➤ Dry the slide</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 212)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 212)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a seminar on tuberculosis control, a question is posed to the medical residents about the transmission dynamics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is emphasized that understanding the mechanisms of transmission is crucial for implementing effective infection control strategies. It is estimated that a single cough can generate how many droplet nuclei?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000 droplet nuclei", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2000 droplet nuclei", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3000 droplet nuclei", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4000 droplet nuclei", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3000 droplet nuclei", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3000 droplet nuclei</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A cough is estimated to generate 3000 droplet nuclei .</li><li>• cough</li><li>• generate 3000 droplet nuclei</li><li>• Droplet nuclei are small respiratory droplets that may carry tubercle bacilli and can remain suspended in the air for several hours . These droplets are typically less than 5 micrometers in size , which allows them to stay airborne and potentially be inhaled by other individuals , leading to the spread of infection .</li><li>• Droplet nuclei</li><li>• small respiratory droplets</li><li>• carry tubercle bacilli</li><li>• remain suspended</li><li>• air for several hours</li><li>• droplets</li><li>• less than 5 micrometers in size</li><li>• stay airborne</li><li>• potentially be inhaled</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• spread of infection</li><li>• TB bacteria remain alive : in sputum for 1 day and in droplet nuclei for 10 days</li><li>• TB bacteria remain alive</li><li>• sputum for 1 day</li><li>• droplet nuclei for 10 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ TB mode of transmission - Droplet infection, droplet nuclei. Droplet nuclei is a type of Indirect transmission.</li><li>➤ TB mode of transmission</li><li>➤ A cough is estimated to generate 3000 droplet nuclei .</li><li>➤ cough</li><li>➤ generate 3000 droplet nuclei</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Bhalwar (4th edition) (page 773)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Bhalwar (4th edition) (page 773)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old woman with a newly diagnosed case of pulmonary tuberculosis is starting her antitubercular therapy (ATT). As the treating physician, you begin to educate her about the different medications she will be taking as part of her regimen. You explain that some drugs are bactericidal, killing the actively dividing bacteria, while others are bacteriostatic, inhibiting the growth and replication of the bacteria. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is known to be bacteriostatic?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ethambutol", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Ethambutol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-162411.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Ethambutol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ethambutol</li><li>• Ethambutol is bacteriostatic and is used in combination to prevent the emergence of resistance to other drugs . It is given orally . Its major side-effect is retrobulbar neuritis ; this however does not occur at the usual dosage. Ethambutol has replaced para-amino salicylic acid (PAS) almost entirely among adults.</li><li>• bacteriostatic</li><li>• combination to prevent</li><li>• emergence of resistance to other drugs</li><li>• orally</li><li>• major side-effect is retrobulbar neuritis</li><li>• Ethambutol</li><li>• replaced para-amino salicylic acid</li><li>• Antitubercular Drugs</li><li>• Antitubercular Drugs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important Facts of Antitubercular Drugs -</li><li>➤ Important Facts of Antitubercular Drugs</li><li>➤ Most effective anti-tubercular drug: Rifampicin Most bactericidal antitubercular drug: Rifampicin Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid Antitubercular drug causing rapid sputum conversion : Rifampicin Antitubercular drug causing orange discoloration of urine : Rifampicin Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance : Isoniazid Antitubercular drug contraindicated AIDS patients on Protease Inhibitors : Rifampicin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in HIV : Thiacetazone (Exfoliative dermatitis) Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS : Rifampicin and Isoniazid Injectable Antitubercular drug: Streptomycin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in pregnancy : Streptomycin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in children &lt; 6 years age : Ethambutol Antitubercular drug causing Optic neuritis (Red-Green color blindness): Ethambutol Antitubercular drug causing vestibular damage: Streptomycin Only Bacteriostatic drug in Primary ATT Drugs - Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Most effective anti-tubercular drug: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most effective</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most bactericidal antitubercular drug: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most bactericidal</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Most toxic</li><li>➤ Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing rapid sputum conversion : Rifampicin</li><li>➤ rapid sputum conversion</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing orange discoloration of urine : Rifampicin</li><li>➤ orange discoloration of urine</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance : Isoniazid</li><li>➤ develop resistance</li><li>➤ Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated AIDS patients on Protease Inhibitors : Rifampicin</li><li>➤ contraindicated AIDS</li><li>➤ Protease Inhibitors</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated in HIV : Thiacetazone (Exfoliative dermatitis)</li><li>➤ contraindicated in HIV</li><li>➤ Thiacetazone</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS : Rifampicin and Isoniazid</li><li>➤ contained in all phases</li><li>➤ all categories of DOTS</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Injectable Antitubercular drug: Streptomycin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in pregnancy : Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Injectable</li><li>➤ Streptomycin</li><li>➤ contraindicated in pregnancy</li><li>➤ Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated in children &lt; 6 years age : Ethambutol</li><li>➤ contraindicated in children &lt; 6 years age</li><li>➤ Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing Optic neuritis (Red-Green color blindness): Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Optic neuritis</li><li>➤ Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing vestibular damage: Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Only Bacteriostatic drug in Primary ATT Drugs - Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 215)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 215)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is conducting a seminar on tuberculosis (TB) screening methods. One topic of discussion is the use of the tuberculin skin test (TST), which is commonly used in the identification of TB infection. The resident is aware that while the TST is a valuable tool in TB control, it has certain characteristics and limitations that must be understood for proper interpretation and application. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the tuberculin skin test (TST)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carried out by injecting 1 TU of PPD in 0.1 ml intradermally on the flexor surface of the left forearm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Result of the test is read after 48-96 hours but 72 hours (3rd day) is the ideal.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "For HIV positive persons 2 mm induration is significant", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "For persons with no risk factors for tuberculosis 15 mm is significant", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. For HIV positive persons 2 mm induration is significant", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://i.pinimg.com/474x/cd/b4/a4/cdb4a48dd959cbea9ac399486b7b48a1.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. For HIV positive persons 2 mm induration is significant</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Correct: The TST is indeed administered by injecting 1 TU (Tuberculin Unit) of purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally on the forearm. This is the standard method of administration .</li><li>• Option A. Correct:</li><li>• TST</li><li>• indeed administered by injecting 1 TU</li><li>• purified protein derivative</li><li>• intradermally</li><li>• .</li><li>• Option B. Correct: The results of the TST are typically read between 48-96 hours after administration , with 72 hours being the ideal time frame for reading the result.</li><li>• Option B. Correct:</li><li>• TST</li><li>• read between 48-96 hours</li><li>• after administration</li><li>• Option D. Correct: In individuals with no known risk factors for tuberculosis , a larger induration (≥15 mm) is necessary to be considered significant. This is because the likelihood of TB exposure or latent infection is lower in this group.</li><li>• Option D. Correct:</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• no known risk factors for tuberculosis</li><li>• larger induration</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Tuberculin Test and Mantoux Test (Pirquet test or PPD Test) are the tool for detecting TB infection</li><li>➤ Tuberculin Test</li><li>➤ Mantoux Test</li><li>➤ detecting TB infection</li><li>➤ Tuberculin/PPD</li><li>➤ Tuberculin/PPD</li><li>➤ Tuberculin : Purified protein derivative (PPD) has replaced the antigen old tuberculin (OT). Tuberculins have also been prepared from atypical mycobacterium: PPD-Y (M. Kansasii), PPD-B (Battey mycobacterium), Scrofula (M. scrofulaceum) Discovered by Von Pirquet (1907) Standard PPD (PPD-S) contains - 50,000 tuberculin units (TU) per mg [1TU= 0.00002 mg PPD] WHO advocates ’PPD-RT-23 with Tween-80’ Dosage : First strength (1TU), Intermediate strength (5TU), Second strength (250TU) Tuberculin test conversion is defined as an increase of 10 mm or more within a 2-year period , regardless of age Tuberculin test in use : Mantoux intradermal test: More precise test of tuberculin sensitivity Heaf test: Quick, easy, reliable and cheap, preferred for testing large groups Tine multiple puncture test unreliable, not recommended Tuberculin test is the ‘only way of estimating the prevalence of infection in a population’ Tuberculin test has lost its sensitivity as an indicator of the true prevalence of infection, in countries with high coverage of BCG – True prevalence rates are exaggerated by infection with atypical mycobacteria and boosting effect of a second dose of tuberculin</li><li>➤ Tuberculin : Purified protein derivative (PPD) has replaced the antigen old tuberculin (OT). Tuberculins have also been prepared from atypical mycobacterium: PPD-Y (M. Kansasii), PPD-B (Battey mycobacterium), Scrofula (M. scrofulaceum)</li><li>➤ Tuberculin</li><li>➤ Purified protein derivative</li><li>➤ replaced</li><li>➤ antigen old tuberculin</li><li>➤ Discovered by Von Pirquet (1907) Standard PPD (PPD-S) contains - 50,000 tuberculin units (TU) per mg [1TU= 0.00002 mg PPD] WHO advocates ’PPD-RT-23 with Tween-80’</li><li>➤ Von Pirquet</li><li>➤ Standard PPD (PPD-S) contains - 50,000 tuberculin units (TU) per mg [1TU= 0.00002 mg PPD] WHO advocates ’PPD-RT-23 with Tween-80’</li><li>➤ Standard PPD (PPD-S) contains - 50,000 tuberculin units (TU) per mg [1TU= 0.00002 mg PPD]</li><li>➤ Standard PPD</li><li>➤ contains</li><li>➤ WHO advocates ’PPD-RT-23 with Tween-80’</li><li>➤ ’PPD-RT-23 with Tween-80’</li><li>➤ Dosage : First strength (1TU), Intermediate strength (5TU), Second strength (250TU)</li><li>➤ Dosage</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test conversion is defined as an increase of 10 mm or more within a 2-year period , regardless of age</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test conversion</li><li>➤ increase of 10 mm</li><li>➤ more within a 2-year period</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test in use : Mantoux intradermal test: More precise test of tuberculin sensitivity Heaf test: Quick, easy, reliable and cheap, preferred for testing large groups Tine multiple puncture test unreliable, not recommended</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test in use</li><li>➤ Mantoux intradermal test: More precise test of tuberculin sensitivity Heaf test: Quick, easy, reliable and cheap, preferred for testing large groups Tine multiple puncture test unreliable, not recommended</li><li>➤ Mantoux intradermal test: More precise test of tuberculin sensitivity</li><li>➤ Heaf test: Quick, easy, reliable and cheap, preferred for testing large groups</li><li>➤ Tine multiple puncture test unreliable, not recommended</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test is the ‘only way of estimating the prevalence of infection in a population’</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test</li><li>➤ ‘only way of estimating</li><li>➤ prevalence of infection</li><li>➤ population’</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test has lost its sensitivity as an indicator of the true prevalence of infection, in countries with high coverage of BCG – True prevalence rates are exaggerated by infection with atypical mycobacteria and boosting effect of a second dose of tuberculin</li><li>➤ Mantoux Test (Tool for detection of TB infection) (Pirquet Test)</li><li>➤ Mantoux Test</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test conversion : Increase of &gt; 10 mm within 2 years period Dose : 1 TU of PPD in 0.1ml injected intradermally on forearm WHO advocated preparation: PPD–RT–23 with Tween–80 Is a test of prognostic significance Has limited validity due to lack of specificity Readings: Result read after 72 hrs (3d) Only induration is measured: Induration &gt;9 mm: Positive (Past OR current infection with TB) Induration 6-9 mm: Doubtful (M. tuberculosis or Atypical mycobacteria) Induration &lt;6 mm: Negative</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test conversion : Increase of &gt; 10 mm within 2 years period</li><li>➤ Tuberculin test conversion</li><li>➤ Dose : 1 TU of PPD in 0.1ml injected intradermally on forearm</li><li>➤ Dose</li><li>➤ WHO advocated preparation: PPD–RT–23 with Tween–80</li><li>➤ Is a test of prognostic significance</li><li>➤ Has limited validity due to lack of specificity</li><li>➤ Readings: Result read after 72 hrs (3d)</li><li>➤ Only induration is measured: Induration &gt;9 mm: Positive (Past OR current infection with TB) Induration 6-9 mm: Doubtful (M. tuberculosis or Atypical mycobacteria) Induration &lt;6 mm: Negative</li><li>➤ Induration &gt;9 mm: Positive (Past OR current infection with TB) Induration 6-9 mm: Doubtful (M. tuberculosis or Atypical mycobacteria) Induration &lt;6 mm: Negative</li><li>➤ Induration &gt;9 mm: Positive (Past OR current infection with TB)</li><li>➤ Induration 6-9 mm: Doubtful (M. tuberculosis or Atypical mycobacteria)</li><li>➤ Induration &lt;6 mm: Negative</li><li>➤ Results of tuberculin test must be interpreted carefully : The person’s medical risk factors determine at which increment (5 mm, 10 mm, or 15 mm) of induration the result is considered positive 5 mm or more is positive in :</li><li>➤ Results of tuberculin test must be interpreted carefully : The person’s medical risk factors determine at which increment (5 mm, 10 mm, or 15 mm) of induration the result is considered positive</li><li>➤ Results of tuberculin test must be interpreted carefully</li><li>➤ 5 mm or more is positive in :</li><li>➤ 5 mm or more is positive in</li><li>➤ HIV-positive person Recent contacts of TB case Persons with nodular or fibrotic changes on chest X-ray consistent with old healed TB Patients with organ transplants Other immunosuppressed patients 10 mm or more is positive in: Recent arrivals (less than 5 years) from high-prevalence countries Injection drug users Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes,hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.) Mycobacteriology lab personnel Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (diabetes, prolonged corticosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes,low body weight) Children less than 4 years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories 15 mm or more is positive in: Persons with no known risk factors for TB</li><li>➤ HIV-positive person</li><li>➤ Recent contacts of TB case</li><li>➤ Persons with nodular or fibrotic changes on chest X-ray consistent with old healed TB</li><li>➤ Patients with organ transplants</li><li>➤ Other immunosuppressed patients</li><li>➤ 10 mm or more is positive in: Recent arrivals (less than 5 years) from high-prevalence countries Injection drug users Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes,hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.) Mycobacteriology lab personnel Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (diabetes, prolonged corticosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes,low body weight) Children less than 4 years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories</li><li>➤ 10 mm or more is positive in:</li><li>➤ Recent arrivals (less than 5 years) from high-prevalence countries Injection drug users Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes,hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.) Mycobacteriology lab personnel Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (diabetes, prolonged corticosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes,low body weight) Children less than 4 years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories</li><li>➤ Recent arrivals (less than 5 years) from high-prevalence countries</li><li>➤ Injection drug users</li><li>➤ Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes,hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.)</li><li>➤ Mycobacteriology lab personnel</li><li>➤ Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (diabetes, prolonged corticosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes,low body weight)</li><li>➤ Children less than 4 years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories</li><li>➤ 15 mm or more is positive in: Persons with no known risk factors for TB</li><li>➤ 15 mm or more is positive in:</li><li>➤ no known risk factors for TB</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 213)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 213)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pulmonologist is reviewing the eligibility criteria for the addition of Bedaquiline to the treatment regimen of patients with tuberculosis. Bedaquiline, a newer medication, is used in specific scenarios and patient populations based on the national guidelines to improve treatment outcomes while considering the risk of side effects. Which of the following patients with tuberculosis is NOT typically eligible for Bedaquiline therapy according to standard tuberculosis management guidelines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MDR TB with resistance to fluoroquinolones", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "XDR TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mixed pattern resistant TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Treatment failure of drug sensitive TB", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Treatment failure of drug sensitive TB", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Treatment failure of drug sensitive TB</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The following group of patients are eligible for BDQ therapy :</li><li>• patients are eligible for BDQ therapy</li><li>• MDR/RR TB with resistance to any/all fluoroquinolones (FQ) or to any/all second-line injectable agents (SLI) (Option A) XDR-TB (Option B) Mixed pattern resistant TB (XDR-TB + additional first line I second line resistant TB) (Option C) Treatment failure of MDR-TB + FQ/SLI resistance or XDR-TB</li><li>• MDR/RR TB with resistance to any/all fluoroquinolones (FQ) or to any/all second-line injectable agents (SLI) (Option A)</li><li>• (Option A)</li><li>• XDR-TB (Option B)</li><li>• (Option B)</li><li>• Mixed pattern resistant TB (XDR-TB + additional first line I second line resistant TB) (Option C)</li><li>• (Option C)</li><li>• Treatment failure of MDR-TB + FQ/SLI resistance or XDR-TB</li><li>• New Anti-Tubercular Drugs</li><li>• New Anti-Tubercular Drugs</li><li>• Two new drugs named Bedaquiline and Delamanid with anti-TB effect were approved for treatment of multidrug resistant TB by The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)</li><li>• Two</li><li>• Bedaquiline</li><li>• Delamanid</li><li>• anti-TB effect</li><li>• treatment of multidrug resistant TB</li><li>• Central Drugs Standard Control Organization</li><li>• Bedaquiline</li><li>• Bedaquiline</li><li>• Introduction: Diarylquinoline drug which targets Mycobacterial ATP synthase Extended half-life: Present even 5.5 months after stoppage Significant use in culture-conversion time for MDR-TB Patient selection criteria: Age 18 years or more with MDR-TB Contraindications: Pregnancy, Cardiac arrhythmia Dosage Week 0–2 - BDQ 400 mg daily + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 3–24 - BDQ 200 mg thrice a week + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 25 - End Continue other 2nd line drugs as per RNTCP</li><li>• Introduction: Diarylquinoline drug which targets Mycobacterial ATP synthase</li><li>• Diarylquinoline drug</li><li>• Mycobacterial ATP synthase</li><li>• Extended half-life: Present even 5.5 months after stoppage</li><li>• Significant use in culture-conversion time for MDR-TB</li><li>• Patient selection criteria: Age 18 years or more with MDR-TB</li><li>• Contraindications: Pregnancy, Cardiac arrhythmia</li><li>• Dosage Week 0–2 - BDQ 400 mg daily + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 3–24 - BDQ 200 mg thrice a week + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 25 - End Continue other 2nd line drugs as per RNTCP</li><li>• Week 0–2 - BDQ 400 mg daily + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 3–24 - BDQ 200 mg thrice a week + OBR (Optimized background regimen) Week 25 - End Continue other 2nd line drugs as per RNTCP</li><li>• Week 0–2 - BDQ 400 mg daily + OBR (Optimized background regimen)</li><li>• Week 3–24 - BDQ 200 mg thrice a week + OBR (Optimized background regimen)</li><li>• Week 25 - End Continue other 2nd line drugs as per RNTCP</li><li>• Delamanid</li><li>• Delamanid</li><li>• DCG India allow 50 mg usage as Combination regimen for Pulmonary MDT-TB.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline and Delamanid with anti-TB effect were approved for treatment of multidrug resistant TB by The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline</li><li>➤ Delamanid</li><li>➤ anti-TB effect</li><li>➤ treatment of multidrug resistant TB</li><li>➤ Central Drugs Standard Control Organization</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline is reserved for use in cases of MDR-TB and XDR-TB , where first-line treatments are either not effective or not tolerated.</li><li>➤ Bedaquiline</li><li>➤ MDR-TB and XDR-TB</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 215)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 215)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the outpatient clinic, a resident physician is tasked with prescribing anti-tuberculosis therapy for an adult patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient’s weight is 60 kg, and as per the latest protocols, Fixed-Dose Combinations (FDCs) are to be used to simplify the regimen and improve adherence. How many tablets of the Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) regimen should be given to a patient weighing between 50 to 64 kg according to the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "6", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-114650.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-114710.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Treatment Protocol : NEW Guidelines</li><li>• Treatment Protocol</li><li>• NEW Guidelines</li><li>• Patients are given fixed drug combinations (FDCs), on a Daily basis (1 November 2017 onwards PAN-India) Reduced pill burden: 3–4 drugs in a single pill (as against 7 tablets earlier) Lesser relapses Reduction in drug-resistance Greater compliance Paediatric patients are given easily-dissolvable and flavored drugs (instead of bitter tablets earlier) Weight bands : Patients get appropriate dosages as per body weight TB-HIV Coinfection : ‘Intensified TB case finding and appropriate treatment’ through single window delivery of services from all ART centres INH preventive therapy for prevention of TB among PLHIV Implementation of Pharmacovigilance by establishing adverse drug reaction monitoring centres at ART centres Patients not registered under DOTS are provided Intermittent (alternate day OR Thrice weekly) regimen.</li><li>• Patients are given fixed drug combinations (FDCs), on a Daily basis (1 November 2017 onwards PAN-India) Reduced pill burden: 3–4 drugs in a single pill (as against 7 tablets earlier) Lesser relapses Reduction in drug-resistance Greater compliance</li><li>• fixed drug combinations</li><li>• Daily basis</li><li>• Reduced pill burden: 3–4 drugs in a single pill (as against 7 tablets earlier) Lesser relapses Reduction in drug-resistance Greater compliance</li><li>• Reduced pill burden: 3–4 drugs in a single pill (as against 7 tablets earlier)</li><li>• Lesser relapses</li><li>• Reduction in drug-resistance</li><li>• Greater compliance</li><li>• Paediatric patients are given easily-dissolvable and flavored drugs (instead of bitter tablets earlier)</li><li>• Paediatric patients</li><li>• easily-dissolvable</li><li>• flavored drugs</li><li>• Weight bands : Patients get appropriate dosages as per body weight</li><li>• Weight bands</li><li>• TB-HIV Coinfection : ‘Intensified TB case finding and appropriate treatment’ through single window delivery of services from all ART centres INH preventive therapy for prevention of TB among PLHIV Implementation of Pharmacovigilance by establishing adverse drug reaction monitoring centres at ART centres Patients not registered under DOTS are provided Intermittent (alternate day OR Thrice weekly) regimen.</li><li>• TB-HIV Coinfection</li><li>• ‘Intensified TB case finding and appropriate treatment’ through single window delivery of services from all ART centres INH preventive therapy for prevention of TB among PLHIV Implementation of Pharmacovigilance by establishing adverse drug reaction monitoring centres at ART centres Patients not registered under DOTS are provided Intermittent (alternate day OR Thrice weekly) regimen.</li><li>• ‘Intensified TB case finding and appropriate treatment’ through single window delivery of services from all ART centres</li><li>• INH preventive therapy for prevention of TB among PLHIV</li><li>• Implementation of Pharmacovigilance by establishing adverse drug reaction monitoring centres at ART centres</li><li>• Patients not registered under DOTS are provided Intermittent (alternate day OR Thrice weekly) regimen.</li><li>• Patients not registered under DOTS</li><li>• provided Intermittent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Treatment of TB under NTEP</li><li>➤ Treatment of TB</li><li>➤ NTEP</li><li>➤ Treatment Regimen for Drug-Sensitive TB (DSTB) New and previously treated cases : 2 HRZE (IP 56 doses) + 4HRE (CP 112 doses) Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs): Products containing two or more active ingredients in fixed doses, used for a particular indication(s) Adults: 4-FDC (IP – HRZE) and 3-FDC (CP – HRE) Paediatric patients: Dispersible 3-FDC (HRZ) and Dispersible 2-FDC (HR)</li><li>➤ Treatment Regimen for Drug-Sensitive TB (DSTB) New and previously treated cases : 2 HRZE (IP 56 doses) + 4HRE (CP 112 doses)</li><li>➤ Treatment Regimen</li><li>➤ Drug-Sensitive TB</li><li>➤ New</li><li>➤ previously treated cases</li><li>➤ 2 HRZE</li><li>➤ 4HRE</li><li>➤ Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs): Products containing two or more active ingredients in fixed doses, used for a particular indication(s) Adults: 4-FDC (IP – HRZE) and 3-FDC (CP – HRE) Paediatric patients: Dispersible 3-FDC (HRZ) and Dispersible 2-FDC (HR)</li><li>➤ Adults: 4-FDC (IP – HRZE) and 3-FDC (CP – HRE) Paediatric patients: Dispersible 3-FDC (HRZ) and Dispersible 2-FDC (HR)</li><li>➤ Adults: 4-FDC (IP – HRZE) and 3-FDC (CP – HRE)</li><li>➤ Paediatric patients: Dispersible 3-FDC (HRZ) and Dispersible 2-FDC (HR)</li><li>➤ 1. Weight Bands Based Treatment</li><li>➤ Weight bands Adults - FIVE</li><li>➤ Weight bands Adults - FIVE</li><li>➤ Weight bands Paediatrics - SIX</li><li>➤ Weight bands Paediatrics - SIX</li><li>➤ 2. Long term Follow-up - After completion of treatment, the patients should be followed up clinically at the end of 6, 12,18 &amp; 24 months.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 218)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a departmental meeting at a local health clinic, a discussion is held regarding the digitization of health records for better monitoring and follow-up of patients with tuberculosis (TB). A new medical officer who recently joined the clinic is learning about the various protocols and systems in place as per the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP). Which portal is utilized for the entry and management of treatment details of patients with tuberculosis, as mandated by the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Nikshay", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nitchay", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "End TB portal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "TB mukt bharat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Nikshay", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/09/image-20231109192341-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Nikshay</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NIKSHAY: ICT-based Surveillance Support</li><li>• NIKSHAY: ICT-based Surveillance Support</li><li>• ICT enabled state-of-art surveillance system (Online monitoring software) to get notification of TB cases at diagnosis from both public and private sector including drug-resistant TB patients Continuous monitoring and treatment adherence for all TB patients registered Enable tracking of all notified TB patients across TB care cycle, geographies, transfers and referrals .</li><li>• ICT enabled state-of-art surveillance system (Online monitoring software) to get notification of TB cases at diagnosis from both public and private sector including drug-resistant TB patients</li><li>• ICT enabled state-of-art surveillance system</li><li>• notification of TB cases</li><li>• both public</li><li>• private sector</li><li>• drug-resistant TB patients</li><li>• Continuous monitoring and treatment adherence for all TB patients registered</li><li>• Continuous monitoring</li><li>• treatment adherence</li><li>• TB patients registered</li><li>• Enable tracking of all notified TB patients across TB care cycle, geographies, transfers and referrals .</li><li>• Enable tracking of all notified TB patients</li><li>• TB care cycle, geographies, transfers</li><li>• referrals</li><li>• NIKSHAY FLOW</li><li>• Nikshay Entry: Once the treatment regimen is finalized, all patients will be initiated on treatment after opening of the treatment card and entries are done in Nikshay Patient flow in Nikshay: Nikshay 1 : Initiating the patient on appropriate treatment regimen Nikshay 2: Transfer / referral flow after initiation of treatment Nikshay 3: Nikshay Aushadhi</li><li>• Nikshay Entry: Once the treatment regimen is finalized, all patients will be initiated on treatment after opening of the treatment card and entries are done in Nikshay</li><li>• Patient flow in Nikshay: Nikshay 1 : Initiating the patient on appropriate treatment regimen Nikshay 2: Transfer / referral flow after initiation of treatment Nikshay 3: Nikshay Aushadhi</li><li>• Nikshay 1 : Initiating the patient on appropriate treatment regimen Nikshay 2: Transfer / referral flow after initiation of treatment Nikshay 3: Nikshay Aushadhi</li><li>• Nikshay 1 : Initiating the patient on appropriate treatment regimen</li><li>• Nikshay 1</li><li>• Nikshay 2: Transfer / referral flow after initiation of treatment</li><li>• Nikshay 2:</li><li>• Nikshay 3: Nikshay Aushadhi</li><li>• Nikshay 3:</li><li>• NIKSHAY MITRA INITIATIVE (NMI)</li><li>• NIKSHAY MITRA INITIATIVE</li><li>• NMI is a part of Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan launched by The President of India on September 9, 2022 Nikshay Mitra is a government project that enables people to adopt tuberculosis patients and take care of their nutritional and medical requirement, with an aim to combat stigma associated with the disease Nikshay Mitra has a number of choices for help, including dietary, diagnostic, occupational , and supplementary nutritional supplements . In addition, they can select a support period of one to three years. They can select the state, district, building, and medical facilities. The district TB officer will make it easier to become Nikshay Mitra. Objectives of the Initiative : Provide additional patient support to improve treatment outcomes of TB patients Augment community involvement in meeting India’s commitment to end TB by 2025 Leverage Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities Additional assistance that may be provided by the Nikshay Mitra to on-treatment TB patients : Nutritional support, Additional investigations for the diagnosed TB patients, Vocational support, Additional nutritional supplements</li><li>• NMI is a part of Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan launched by The President of India on September 9, 2022</li><li>• NMI</li><li>• Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan</li><li>• President of India</li><li>• Nikshay Mitra is a government project that enables people to adopt tuberculosis patients and take care of their nutritional and medical requirement, with an aim to combat stigma associated with the disease</li><li>• Nikshay Mitra</li><li>• government project</li><li>• adopt tuberculosis patients</li><li>• Nikshay Mitra has a number of choices for help, including dietary, diagnostic, occupational , and supplementary nutritional supplements . In addition, they can select a support period of one to three years. They can select the state, district, building, and medical facilities. The district TB officer will make it easier to become Nikshay Mitra.</li><li>• Nikshay Mitra</li><li>• number of choices</li><li>• dietary, diagnostic, occupational</li><li>• supplementary nutritional supplements</li><li>• Objectives of the Initiative : Provide additional patient support to improve treatment outcomes of TB patients Augment community involvement in meeting India’s commitment to end TB by 2025 Leverage Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities</li><li>• Objectives of the Initiative</li><li>• Provide additional patient support to improve treatment outcomes of TB patients Augment community involvement in meeting India’s commitment to end TB by 2025 Leverage Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities</li><li>• Provide additional patient support to improve treatment outcomes of TB patients</li><li>• Augment community involvement in meeting India’s commitment to end TB by 2025</li><li>• Leverage Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities</li><li>• Additional assistance that may be provided by the Nikshay Mitra to on-treatment TB patients : Nutritional support, Additional investigations for the diagnosed TB patients, Vocational support, Additional nutritional supplements</li><li>• Additional assistance</li><li>• Nikshay Mitra to on-treatment TB patients</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers about NTEP -</li><li>➤ Nikshay Poshan Yojana:</li><li>➤ Nikshay Poshan Yojana:</li><li>➤ Financial incentive of Rs 500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentive All TB patients who have been diagnosed and registered under NTEP will be referred for screening for Diabetes Two new drugs named Bedaquiline and Delamanid with anti-TB effect were approved for treatment of multidrug resistant TB by The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)</li><li>➤ Financial incentive of Rs 500/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment</li><li>➤ Financial incentive of Rs 500/- per month</li><li>➤ All TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018 including all existing TB patients under treatment are eligible to receive incentive</li><li>➤ TB patients notified on or after 1st April 2018</li><li>➤ All TB patients who have been diagnosed and registered under NTEP will be referred for screening for Diabetes</li><li>➤ Two new drugs named Bedaquiline and Delamanid with anti-TB effect were approved for treatment of multidrug resistant TB by The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 218)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 218)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old boy presents to a rural health clinic with a persistent cough, fever, and weight loss. His history reveals contact with an uncle who was recently diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. The child is too young to produce a reliable sputum sample for direct acid-fast bacilli (AFB) testing, and the healthcare team must consider alternative diagnostic methods as per the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) guidelines for pediatric tuberculosis cases. Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT recommended for detecting tuberculosis in children who cannot provide a sputum sample, according to NTEP guidelines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chest X ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tuberculin skin test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gastric aspirate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serological tests", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Serological tests", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Serological tests</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In situations where M. tuberculosis is not detected or a specimen is not available , chest X-ray (option A) and Tuberculin skin test (TST) (Option B) by Mantoux technique using 2 TU of PPD RT 23 should be done. Gastric aspirate (Option C) can be used.</li><li>• M. tuberculosis</li><li>• not detected</li><li>• specimen is not available</li><li>• chest X-ray</li><li>• Tuberculin skin test</li><li>• Gastric aspirate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of TB under NTEP/ RNTCP</li><li>➤ 1. Microscopy:</li><li>➤ Microscopy:</li><li>➤ ZN staining-based Conventional Microscopy (First main test performed) Light Emitting Diode-based Fluorescence Microscopy (LED FM)</li><li>➤ ZN staining-based Conventional Microscopy (First main test performed)</li><li>➤ Light Emitting Diode-based Fluorescence Microscopy (LED FM)</li><li>➤ 2. Culture (Diagnosis):</li><li>➤ Culture</li><li>➤ Solid Lowenstein Jensen (LJ) Medium Automated Liquid Culture Systems (BACTEC MGIT 960, Bactialert, VersaTrek)</li><li>➤ Solid Lowenstein Jensen (LJ) Medium</li><li>➤ Automated Liquid Culture Systems (BACTEC MGIT 960, Bactialert, VersaTrek)</li><li>➤ 3. Culture (Drug Sensitivity Testing):</li><li>➤ Culture</li><li>➤ Modified PST for MGIT 960 system (for both 1st and 2nd line drugs) Proportional Sensitivity Testing (1%) Economic variant using LJ Medium (as back-up)</li><li>➤ Modified PST for MGIT 960 system (for both 1st and 2nd line drugs)</li><li>➤ Proportional Sensitivity Testing (1%) Economic variant using LJ Medium (as back-up)</li><li>➤ 4. Rapid Molecular Diagnostic Testing:</li><li>➤ Rapid Molecular Diagnostic Testing:</li><li>➤ Line Probe Assay (MTB complex and INH/RIF resistance) Cartridge based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT–Xpert/MTB/Rif testing using GeneXpert system)</li><li>➤ Line Probe Assay (MTB complex and INH/RIF resistance)</li><li>➤ Cartridge based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT–Xpert/MTB/Rif testing using GeneXpert system)</li><li>➤ 5. Other Diagnostic Tests :</li><li>➤ Other Diagnostic Tests</li><li>➤ Chest X-ray (Mainly for screening. If used for diagnosis its known as Clinically diagnosed TB) Standardized Tuberculin Skin Test (Complimentary test in children) Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA–Not recommended for adults in India) Serological tests (Banned in India).</li><li>➤ Chest X-ray (Mainly for screening. If used for diagnosis its known as Clinically diagnosed TB)</li><li>➤ Standardized Tuberculin Skin Test (Complimentary test in children)</li><li>➤ Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA–Not recommended for adults in India)</li><li>➤ Serological tests (Banned in India).</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 224)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 224)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health internship, a medical resident is tasked with finding the updated recent protocol for tuberculosis (TB) contact tracing and prophylaxis. One key component of the protocol involves the administration of isoniazid as a chemoprophylactic agent to prevent the development of active TB in individuals who have been in close contact with TB patients. What is the recommended dose of isoniazid for chemoprophylaxis in individuals who have been identified as close contacts of patients with tuberculosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 mg/kg daily for 6 months", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 mg/kg daily for 6 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 mg/kg daily for 12 months", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5 mg/kg daily for 12 months", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 10 mg/kg daily for 6 months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 10 mg/kg daily for 6 months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The dose of INH for chemoprophylaxis is 10 mg/kg (instead of 5 mg/kg) administered daily for 6 months .</li><li>• dose of INH</li><li>• chemoprophylaxis is 10 mg/kg</li><li>• 6 months</li><li>• INH Preventive Therapy</li><li>• INH Preventive Therapy</li><li>• 1. INH Preventive Therapy in Children -</li><li>• INH Preventive Therapy in Children</li><li>• Children &lt;6 years of age in close contact (But TB excluded) HIV infected children who either had a known exposure to an infectious TB case or are</li><li>• Children &lt;6 years of age in close contact (But TB excluded)</li><li>• Children &lt;6 years of age</li><li>• close contact</li><li>• HIV infected children who either had a known exposure to an infectious TB case or are</li><li>• exposure to an infectious TB case</li><li>• Tuberculin skin test (TST) positive (&gt;=5mm induration) but have no active TB disease</li><li>• Tuberculin skin test</li><li>• positive</li><li>• All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy (e.g. Children with nephrotic syndrome, acute leukaemia, etc.) A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy provided congenital TB has been ruled out</li><li>• All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy (e.g. Children with nephrotic syndrome, acute leukaemia, etc.)</li><li>• TST positive children</li><li>• immunosuppressive therapy</li><li>• A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy provided congenital TB has been ruled out</li><li>• 2. INH Preventive Therapy in Adults -</li><li>• INH Preventive Therapy in Adults</li><li>• Adults and adolescents living with HIV unlikely to have active TB Children living with HIV who do not have poor weight gain, fever or current cough unlikely to have active TB Children living with HIV if evaluation shows no TB</li><li>• Adults and adolescents living with HIV unlikely to have active TB</li><li>• Adults</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• HIV</li><li>• unlikely</li><li>• active TB</li><li>• Children living with HIV who do not have poor weight gain, fever or current cough unlikely to have active TB</li><li>• Children living with HIV if evaluation shows no TB</li><li>• 3 . Dose of IPT Used under NTEP -</li><li>• . Dose of IPT Used under NTEP -</li><li>• Adult and Adolescent: Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyridoxine 50 mg per day × 6 months Children above 12 months: Isoniazid 10 mg/kg + Pyridoxine 25 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>• Adult and Adolescent: Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyridoxine 50 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>• Children above 12 months: Isoniazid 10 mg/kg + Pyridoxine 25 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>• Other Important Pointers:</li><li>• Other Important Pointers:</li><li>• Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS : Rifampicin and Isoniazid Most effective drug out of HRZES - H and R Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance: Isoniazid Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid Multidrug Resistant TB (MDR–TB): Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin ‘with or without resistance to other drugs’ Extensive Drug Resistant TB (XDR–TB): Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid AND to any member of the quinolone family AND to one of the injectable second-line drugs (kanamycin, capreomycin, or amikacin) XDR–TB is MDR TB with further resistance to 3 – 6 classes of second line drugs (Older definition)</li><li>• Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS : Rifampicin and Isoniazid</li><li>• Antitubercular drugs</li><li>• all phases of all categories of DOTS</li><li>• Rifampicin</li><li>• Isoniazid</li><li>• Most effective drug out of HRZES - H and R</li><li>• effective drug</li><li>• HRZES - H and R</li><li>• Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance: Isoniazid</li><li>• Antitubercular drug</li><li>• Isoniazid</li><li>• Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid</li><li>• Multidrug Resistant TB (MDR–TB): Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin ‘with or without resistance to other drugs’</li><li>• Extensive Drug Resistant TB (XDR–TB): Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid AND to any member of the quinolone family AND to one of the injectable second-line drugs (kanamycin, capreomycin, or amikacin)</li><li>• XDR–TB is MDR TB with further resistance to 3 – 6 classes of second line drugs (Older definition)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Dose of IPT Used under NTEP -</li><li>➤ Dose of IPT Used under NTEP</li><li>➤ Adult and Adolescent : Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyridoxine 50 mg per day × 6 months Children above 12 months : Isoniazid 10 mg/kg + Pyridoxine 25 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>➤ Adult and Adolescent : Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyridoxine 50 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>➤ Adult and Adolescent</li><li>➤ Children above 12 months : Isoniazid 10 mg/kg + Pyridoxine 25 mg per day × 6 months</li><li>➤ Children above 12 months</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 225)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 225)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with a cough, night sweats, and a weight loss of 10 pounds over the last two months. A sputum sample is positive for acid-fast bacilli, and a chest X-ray is consistent with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The patient is HIV negative. Her obstetrician must now collaborate with an infectious disease specialist to determine an appropriate treatment regimen that is safe for both the mother and the fetus. Which of the following anti-tuberculous medications is CONTRAINDICATED in this pregnant patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isoniazid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rifampicin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pyrazinamide", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Streptomycin", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Streptomycin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Streptomycin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Before initiating treatment for tuberculosis , women of childbearing age should be asked about current or planned pregnancy and counselled appropriately . A successful treatment of TB is important for successful outcome of pregnancy . With the exception of streptomycin, the first line anti-TB drugs are safe for use in pregnancy . Streptomycin is oto-toxic to the foetus and should not be used during pregnancy.</li><li>• Before initiating treatment</li><li>• tuberculosis</li><li>• women of childbearing age</li><li>• current or planned pregnancy</li><li>• counselled appropriately</li><li>• successful treatment of TB</li><li>• successful outcome of pregnancy</li><li>• first line anti-TB drugs</li><li>• safe for use in pregnancy</li><li>• Streptomycin</li><li>• oto-toxic</li><li>• foetus</li><li>• Other 3 options (Isoniazid, Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide) are safe to use in pregnancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important Facts of Antitubercular Drugs</li><li>➤ Important Facts of Antitubercular Drugs</li><li>➤ Most effective anti-tubercular drug: Rifampicin Most bactericidal antitubercular drug: Rifampicin Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid Antitubercular drug causing rapid sputum conversion : Rifampicin Antitubercular drug causing orange discoloration of urine : Rifampicin Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance : Isoniazid Antitubercular drug contraindicated AIDS patients on Protease Inhibitors: Rifampicin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in HIV: Thiacetazone (Exfoliative dermatitis) Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS: Rifampicin and Isoniazid Injectable Antitubercular drug: Streptomycin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in children &lt; 6 years age: Ethambutol Antitubercular drug causing Optic neuritis (Red-Green color blindness): Ethambutol Antitubercular drug causing vestibular damage: Streptomycin Antitubercular drug contraindicated in pregnancy: Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Most effective anti-tubercular drug: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most effective</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most bactericidal antitubercular drug: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most bactericidal</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Most toxic antitubercular drug: Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Most toxic</li><li>➤ Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing rapid sputum conversion : Rifampicin</li><li>➤ rapid sputum conversion</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing orange discoloration of urine : Rifampicin</li><li>➤ orange discoloration of urine</li><li>➤ Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug first to develop resistance : Isoniazid</li><li>➤ first to develop resistance</li><li>➤ Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated AIDS patients on Protease Inhibitors: Rifampicin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated in HIV: Thiacetazone (Exfoliative dermatitis)</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drugs contained in all phases of all categories of DOTS: Rifampicin and Isoniazid</li><li>➤ Injectable Antitubercular drug: Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated in children &lt; 6 years age: Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing Optic neuritis (Red-Green color blindness): Ethambutol</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug causing vestibular damage: Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Antitubercular drug contraindicated in pregnancy: Streptomycin</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 225)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 225)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a primary care clinic, a group of nursing students is being taught about the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine, its administration, and its role in tuberculosis prevention. The discussion covers various aspects of the vaccine, including production, dosage, administration, and duration of protection. Which of the following statements regarding the BCG vaccine is NOT accurate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jeryl Lynn strain is used for production of BCG vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "For vaccination, the usual strength is 0.1 mg in 0.1 ml volume", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The site of injection should be just above the insertion of the left deltoid muscle", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The duration of protection is from 15 to 20 years.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jeryl Lynn strain is used for production of BCG vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Jeryl Lynn strain is used for production of BCG vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Correct: The typical dosage for the BCG vaccine is 0.1 mg in a 0.1 ml volume. This is a standard concentration used in the administration of the vaccine.</li><li>• Option B. Correct:</li><li>• Option C. Correct : The recommended site of injection for the BCG vaccine is intradermally just above the insertion of the deltoid muscle, often on the left arm. This is a common practice for ease of administration and monitoring of the site.</li><li>• Option C. Correct</li><li>• Option D. Correct: The duration of protection provided by the BCG vaccine is generally estimated to be between 15 to 20 years. This duration can vary based on individual immune response and other factors.</li><li>• Option D. Correct:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strains of Commonly Used Vaccines</li><li>➤ BCG - Danish-1331 strain (WHO recommended) OPV/IPV - P1, P2, P3 strains (Monovalent or Trivalent or Bivalent) Measles vaccine - Edmonston Zagreb strain (MC); Schwartz strain; Moraten strain Mumps vaccine - Jeryll Lynn strain Rubella vaccine - RA 27/3 Yellow Fever vaccine - 17 D strain Varicella vaccine - OKA strain Japanese Encephalitis vaccine - Nakayama strain; Beijing P3 strain; SA 14-14-2 (Used in India) Swine Flu Vaccine (killed) - A7/California/2009 Malaria vaccine SPf - 66 strain (Lytic Coktail); Pf 25 strain; RTS, S/AS01 (Mosquirix) HIV vaccines - mVA (modified Vaccinia Ankara) strain; rAAV (recombinant Adeno associated viral vaccine) strain; CTL (Cytotoxic T-lymphocytic) strain; AIDSVAX strain; Subunit Vaccine strain Typhoral vaccine - Ty 21 a Covaxin - Niv-2020-770</li><li>➤ BCG - Danish-1331 strain (WHO recommended)</li><li>➤ BCG - Danish-1331 strain</li><li>➤ OPV/IPV - P1, P2, P3 strains (Monovalent or Trivalent or Bivalent)</li><li>➤ Measles vaccine - Edmonston Zagreb strain (MC); Schwartz strain; Moraten strain</li><li>➤ Measles vaccine</li><li>➤ Mumps vaccine - Jeryll Lynn strain</li><li>➤ Mumps vaccine</li><li>➤ Rubella vaccine - RA 27/3</li><li>➤ Rubella vaccine</li><li>➤ Yellow Fever vaccine - 17 D strain</li><li>➤ Yellow Fever vaccine</li><li>➤ Varicella vaccine - OKA strain</li><li>➤ Varicella vaccine</li><li>➤ Japanese Encephalitis vaccine - Nakayama strain; Beijing P3 strain; SA 14-14-2 (Used in India)</li><li>➤ Japanese Encephalitis vaccine</li><li>➤ Swine Flu Vaccine (killed) - A7/California/2009</li><li>➤ Swine Flu Vaccine</li><li>➤ Malaria vaccine SPf - 66 strain (Lytic Coktail); Pf 25 strain; RTS, S/AS01 (Mosquirix)</li><li>➤ Malaria vaccine SPf</li><li>➤ HIV vaccines - mVA (modified Vaccinia Ankara) strain; rAAV (recombinant Adeno associated viral vaccine) strain; CTL (Cytotoxic T-lymphocytic) strain; AIDSVAX strain; Subunit Vaccine strain</li><li>➤ Typhoral vaccine - Ty 21 a</li><li>➤ Covaxin - Niv-2020-770</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 226)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 226)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Lokesh, a public health officer, is reviewing the historical efforts in global tuberculosis (TB) control to prepare for a lecture on infectious diseases. She notes that the World Health Organization (WHO) has transitioned from the STOP TB strategy to the more recent END TB strategy. Which of the following was NOT part of the WHO's previous STOP TB strategy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pursue high quality DOTS expansion and enhancement", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Engage all care providers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Empower people with TB and communities", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Case detection through predominantly passive case finding", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Case detection through predominantly passive case finding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Case detection through predominantly passive case finding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Correct: The STOP TB strategy did focus on the expansion and enhancement of high-quality DOT S (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course). DOTS is the foundation of TB control programs under this strategy, emphasizing direct observation of treatment to ensure compliance and effectiveness.</li><li>• Option A. Correct:</li><li>• STOP TB strategy</li><li>• expansion and enhancement of high-quality DOT</li><li>• Option B. Correct: Engaging all care providers was a key component of the STOP TB strategy . This included both public and private healthcare providers, aiming to ensure a coordinated and effective approach to TB treatment and prevention.</li><li>• Option B. Correct:</li><li>• Engaging all care providers</li><li>• key component of the STOP TB strategy</li><li>• Option C. Correct: Empowering people with TB and communities was also a vital aspect of the STOP TB strategy. This involved education, awareness, and community participation to improve TB control efforts and reduce stigma.</li><li>• Option C. Correct:</li><li>• Empowering people with TB</li><li>• communities</li><li>• vital aspect of the STOP TB strategy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ STOP TB strategy:</li><li>➤ STOP TB strategy:</li><li>➤ Pursue high-quality DOTS expansion and enhancement. Address TB/HIV, MDR-TB and other challenges. Contribute to health system strengthening. Engage all care providers. Empower people with TB and communities. Enable and promote research.</li><li>➤ Pursue high-quality DOTS expansion and enhancement.</li><li>➤ Address TB/HIV, MDR-TB and other challenges.</li><li>➤ Contribute to health system strengthening.</li><li>➤ Engage all care providers.</li><li>➤ Empower people with TB and communities.</li><li>➤ Enable and promote research.</li><li>➤ Elimination level for Tuberculosis (WHO and STOP TB Strategy): &lt;1 case per million populations (to eliminate TB as a public health problem)</li><li>➤ Elimination level for Tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 233)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 233)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of an initiative to contribute to the END TB strategy, a team of public health professionals is developing a comprehensive plan to combat tuberculosis (TB). They are focusing on the three pillars that underpin the strategy, which were set forth by the World Health Organization (WHO). Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of the END TB strategy as set by the World Health Organization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Address TB/HIV, MDR TB and other challenges", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Integrated patient centred care and prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bold policies and supportive systems", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intensified research and innovation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Address TB/HIV, MDR TB and other challenges", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/07/screenshot-2024-08-07-171552.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Address TB/HIV, MDR TB and other challenges</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Integrated, patient-centered care and prevention: Focusing on early diagnosis , treatment, and care for all, including vulnerable populations.</li><li>• Option B. Integrated, patient-centered care and prevention:</li><li>• Focusing</li><li>• early diagnosis</li><li>• Option C. Bold policies and supportive systems: This involves strengthening health systems and improving social determinants of health.</li><li>• Option C. Bold policies and supportive systems:</li><li>• strengthening health systems</li><li>• Option D. Intensified research and innovation: Aiming to advance new tools for diagnosis , treatment , and vaccines .</li><li>• Option D. Intensified research and innovation:</li><li>• advance new tools</li><li>• diagnosis</li><li>• treatment</li><li>• vaccines</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ End TB Strategy 2016-2035</li><li>➤ End TB Strategy 2016-2035</li><li>➤ Goal: End the Global TB Epidemic</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 233)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 233)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is assigned to prepare a presentation on tuberculosis research institutions in India as part of their infectious diseases rotation. They need to locate the leading research institution where significant work on tuberculosis (TB) is conducted, including clinical trials, drug resistance studies, and epidemiological research. The National Institute for Research in Tuberculosis (NIRT), a premier institute dedicated to TB research in India, is located in which city?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Agra", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bhopal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chennai", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Delhi", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Chennai", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Chennai</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Institute for Research in Tuberculosis (NIRT), formerly known as the Tuberculosis Chemotherapy Centre , is situated in Chennai . It is one of the institutes of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and plays a pivotal role in TB research in India . NIRT conducts a wide array of research activities related to tuberculosis, including basic science research, clinical trials, and epidemiological studies.</li><li>• National Institute for Research in Tuberculosis</li><li>• Tuberculosis Chemotherapy Centre</li><li>• Chennai</li><li>• one of the institutes</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research</li><li>• pivotal role in TB research in India</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National reference Laboratories for TB in India</li><li>➤ National reference Laboratories for TB in India</li><li>➤ National Institute for Research in Tuberculosis (NIRT), Chennai National Tuberculosis Institute (NTI), Bangalore National Institute of TB and Respiratory Diseases (NITRD), Delhi Delhi and National Japanese Leprosy Mission for Asia (JALMA)—Institute of Leprosy and other Mycobacterial Diseases, Agra Regional Medical Research Centre (RMRC), Bhubaneswar Bhopal Memorial Hospital and Research Centre (BMHRC), Bhopal</li><li>➤ National Institute for Research in Tuberculosis (NIRT), Chennai</li><li>➤ National Tuberculosis Institute (NTI), Bangalore</li><li>➤ National Institute of TB and Respiratory Diseases (NITRD), Delhi</li><li>➤ Delhi and National Japanese Leprosy Mission for Asia (JALMA)—Institute of Leprosy and other Mycobacterial Diseases, Agra</li><li>➤ Regional Medical Research Centre (RMRC), Bhubaneswar</li><li>➤ Bhopal Memorial Hospital and Research Centre (BMHRC), Bhopal</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a country with an ongoing effort to control tuberculosis, a public health official is tasked with planning and organizing local TB control efforts in line with the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP). A critical aspect of this planning involves understanding the operational capacity of a Tuberculosis Unit (TU) to ensure comprehensive coverage. According to the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP), a Tuberculosis Unit is designed to cater to what size of the population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5000.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "200000", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 200000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 200000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A major organizational change in NTEP is the creation of a sub-district level (Tuberculosis Unit-TU). TUs have been created based on a population -</li><li>• major organizational change</li><li>• NTEP</li><li>• creation of a sub-district level</li><li>• 1 TB unit - 1 per 1.5-2.5 lac population</li><li>• 1 DMC - 1 per 50000 -1 lac population</li><li>• Most peripheral unit under RNTCP - DMC</li><li>• DMCs are manned by a trained laboratory technician (LT) of the State health system .</li><li>• DMCs</li><li>• trained laboratory technician</li><li>• State health system</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1 TB unit (RNTCP) is for a population of 2.0 Lac (Range - 1.5 -2.5 lac population)</li><li>➤ 1 TB unit</li><li>➤ population of 2.0 Lac</li><li>➤ RNTCP District microscopic center is recommended for 50000 - 1 lac population</li><li>➤ RNTCP District microscopic center</li><li>➤ 50000 - 1 lac population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 478)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of public health professionals is evaluating the country’s progress toward the targets set by the National Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis (TB) elimination. In the course of their review, they compare the set objectives against the milestones reached and strategize on how to address the gaps. Which of the following is NOT an objective within the National Strategic Plan to achieve the elimination of tuberculosis by 2025?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0% having catastrophic expenditure due to TB", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "70% increase in case finding", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "80% reduction in TB incidence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90% reduction in TB mortality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 70% increase in case finding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 70% increase in case finding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under SDGs –Specific Targets for SDG Target 3.3 on Infectious Diseases - Targets for TB are:</li><li>• Under SDGs</li><li>• Targets for SDG Target 3.3 on Infectious Diseases</li><li>• Option A. 0% patient having catastrophic expenditure due to TB</li><li>• Option A. 0% patient</li><li>• catastrophic expenditure</li><li>• Option C. 80% reduction in TB incidence (i.e. reduction from 211 per lakh to 43 per lakh)</li><li>• Option C. 80% reduction</li><li>• TB incidence</li><li>• Option D. 90% reduction in TB mortality (i.e. reduction from 32 per lakh to 3 per lakh)</li><li>• Option D. 90% reduction</li><li>• TB mortality</li><li>• Timeline of TB Programs in India</li><li>• Timeline of TB Programs in India</li><li>• 1962: National TB Control Program (NTP) launched [Strategy: BCG vaccination, TB treatment] 1992-93 : Revised National TB Control Program (RNTCP) launched [Strategy: DOTS] 01 January 2020 : National TB Elimination Program (NTEP) launched</li><li>• 1962: National TB Control Program (NTP) launched [Strategy: BCG vaccination, TB treatment]</li><li>• 1962:</li><li>• 1992-93 : Revised National TB Control Program (RNTCP) launched [Strategy: DOTS]</li><li>• 1992-93</li><li>• 01 January 2020 : National TB Elimination Program (NTEP) launched</li><li>• 01 January 2020</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SDG target (3.3) for Ending the epidemic of TB are 90% reduction in TB deaths ; 80% reduction in TB incidence rate and Zero TB-affected families facing catastrophic costs due to TB</li><li>➤ SDG target</li><li>➤ Ending the epidemic of TB</li><li>➤ 90% reduction in TB deaths</li><li>➤ 80% reduction</li><li>➤ TB incidence rate</li><li>➤ Zero TB-affected families</li><li>➤ catastrophic costs</li><li>➤ National Strategic Plan (NSP) - TB 2017-25</li><li>➤ National Strategic Plan (NSP) - TB 2017-25</li><li>➤ VISION : TB-Free India with zero deaths, disease and poverty due to TB GOAL: To achieve a rapid decline in burden of TB, morbidity and mortality while working towards elimination of TB in India by 2025 NSP sets out the strategic direction and key initiatives that the MoHFW will undertake from 2017-25 for working towards achieving the goals of eliminating TB by 2025 (Achieve SDG and End TB targets for India) Approach: ‘DETECT-TREAT-PREVENT-BUILD’ approach Strategic Focus Areas : Early diagnosis of all the TB patients Prompt treatment with the right drugs and regimens Patient financial and nutritional support Active case finding Contact tracing LTBI management in high risk population Airborne infection control</li><li>➤ VISION : TB-Free India with zero deaths, disease and poverty due to TB</li><li>➤ VISION</li><li>➤ GOAL: To achieve a rapid decline in burden of TB, morbidity and mortality while working towards elimination of TB in India by 2025</li><li>➤ GOAL:</li><li>➤ NSP sets out the strategic direction and key initiatives that the MoHFW will undertake from 2017-25 for working towards achieving the goals of eliminating TB by 2025 (Achieve SDG and End TB targets for India)</li><li>➤ Approach: ‘DETECT-TREAT-PREVENT-BUILD’ approach</li><li>➤ ‘DETECT-TREAT-PREVENT-BUILD’ approach</li><li>➤ Strategic Focus Areas : Early diagnosis of all the TB patients Prompt treatment with the right drugs and regimens Patient financial and nutritional support Active case finding Contact tracing LTBI management in high risk population Airborne infection control</li><li>➤ Strategic Focus Areas</li><li>➤ Early diagnosis of all the TB patients Prompt treatment with the right drugs and regimens Patient financial and nutritional support Active case finding Contact tracing LTBI management in high risk population Airborne infection control</li><li>➤ Early diagnosis of all the TB patients</li><li>➤ Prompt treatment with the right drugs and regimens</li><li>➤ Patient financial and nutritional support</li><li>➤ Active case finding</li><li>➤ Contact tracing</li><li>➤ LTBI management in high risk population</li><li>➤ Airborne infection control</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 483)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 483)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is participating in a seminar discussing the various aspects of national tuberculosis control programs. One of the topics under discussion is the funding and support for these programs. The resident is aware that these initiatives are often supported by a combination of domestic and international sources. Which of the following is NOT typically a funding agency for National Tuberculosis Control Programs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colombo plan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "SIDA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "WHO", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "World Bank", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Colombo plan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Colombo plan.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National TB Control programmes are being assisted by the following organizations:</li><li>• National TB Control programmes</li><li>• assisted</li><li>• World Bank (Option D ) Department for International Development (DFID) WHO (Option C) Global TB Drug Facility (GDF), Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (GFATM) United States Agency for International Development (USAID) SIDA (Option B) DANIDA.</li><li>• World Bank (Option D )</li><li>• (Option D</li><li>• Department for International Development (DFID)</li><li>• WHO (Option C)</li><li>• (Option C)</li><li>• Global TB Drug Facility (GDF),</li><li>• Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (GFATM)</li><li>• United States Agency for International Development (USAID)</li><li>• SIDA (Option B)</li><li>• (Option B)</li><li>• DANIDA.</li><li>• The government of India provides 100 percent grant in- aid to the implementing agencies i.e., states/UTs, besides free drugs.</li><li>• government of India</li><li>• 100 percent grant in- aid</li><li>• implementing agencies</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The programme is being assisted by the World Bank and the Department for International Development (DFID) via WHO. In addition, the RNTCP is supported by the Global TB Drug Facility (GDF), Global Fund to Fight AIDS , Tuberculosis and Malaria (GFATM), the United States Agency for International Development (USAID), SIDA and DANIDA. Government of India provides 100 per cent grantin- aid to the implementing agencies i.e., states/UTs, besides free drugs.</li><li>➤ programme</li><li>➤ World Bank and the Department for International Development</li><li>➤ RNTCP</li><li>➤ Global TB Drug Facility</li><li>➤ Global Fund to Fight AIDS</li><li>➤ Tuberculosis</li><li>➤ Malaria</li><li>➤ United States Agency</li><li>➤ International Development</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 484)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 484)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 73 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Health Care System In India - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 32</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 32 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 32-year-old teacher from Mumbai attends a health workshop aimed at understanding the basics of health care systems. During a group discussion, she realizes that her perception of health care might be limited, basing it only on her experiences with hospitals and clinics. The facilitator of the workshop provides a series of statements to the attendees for further clarification.Which of the following statements is most incorrect regarding the concept of health care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Medical care is synonymous with health care.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The purpose of health care is promoting, maintaining, monitoring, or restoring health.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health care is a public right.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical care range from domiciliary care to resident hospital care.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Medical care is synonymous with health care.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-092402.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Medical care is synonymous with health care.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option B. The purpose of health care, including promoting, maintaining, monitoring, or restoring health: Is a correct and encompassing definition of the goals of health care .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• The purpose of health care, including promoting, maintaining, monitoring, or restoring health:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• definition</li><li>• goals</li><li>• health care</li><li>• Option C. Health care is a public right: The view of health care as a public right varies by region and political perspective , but it is increasingly recognized as a fundamental aspect of societal wellbeing .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Health care is a public right:</li><li>• health care</li><li>• public right</li><li>• region</li><li>• political perspective</li><li>• increasingly</li><li>• societal wellbeing</li><li>• Option D. Medical care range from domiciliary care to resident hospital care : Medical care does indeed range from domiciliary (in-home) care to resident hospital care, covering a wide spectrum of services .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Medical care range from domiciliary care to resident hospital care</li><li>• :</li><li>• Medical care</li><li>• domiciliary (in-home) care</li><li>• resident hospital care,</li><li>• wide spectrum of services</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 980</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 980</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Rahul, a 29-year-old journalist, is preparing a report on the structure of health care systems in India. As he reviews various sources, he comes across some descriptions of the levels of health care. He jots down a few statements but is unsure about the accuracy of one of them. Which of the following statements about the levels of health care is most incorrect?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Tertiary health care is generally provided in district hospitals.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sound referral system is the fundamental function.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Secondary level of health care constitutes the first referral unit.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "More specialized services are available at tertiary level.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Tertiary health care is generally provided in district hospitals.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921030.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Tertiary health care is generally provided in district hospitals.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option B. Sound referral system is the fundamental function: Correct . A sound referral system is fundamental to the effective functioning of healthcare systems , facilitating appropriate patient care at various levels.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Sound referral system is the fundamental function:</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• referral system</li><li>• fundamental</li><li>• effective</li><li>• healthcare systems</li><li>• facilitating</li><li>• patient care</li><li>• various levels.</li><li>• Option C. Secondary level of health care constitutes the first referral unit: Correct . The secondary level of health care often constitutes the first referral unit, where patients are referred from primary health centers .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Secondary level of health care constitutes the first referral unit: Correct</li><li>• patients</li><li>• referred</li><li>• primary health centers</li><li>• Option D. More specialized services are available at tertiary level: Correct. Tertiary level health care facilities indeed offer more specialized services , including advanced medical investigation and treatment.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• More specialized services are available at tertiary level:</li><li>• Correct.</li><li>• Tertiary level health care</li><li>• specialized services</li><li>• advanced</li><li>• medical investigation</li><li>• treatment.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 981</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 981</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Priya, a 26-year-old health administrator, is assigned the task of evaluating health resources in a rural district of Uttar Pradesh. During her initial assessment, she comes across a Community Health Centre (CHC) and wishes to determine the number of people this center should ideally serve. She recalls some of her training but seeks confirmation on the population range that a CHC in a rural setting is intended to cater to. Which of the following is the most accurate population range that a Community Health Centre in a rural area is designed to serve?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "80,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1,20,000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1,50,000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2,00,000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1,20,000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921031.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1,20,000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• At plains,</li><li>• At plains,</li><li>• 1 PHC- 30,000 population 1 CHC- 1,20,000 Population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 30,000 population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 30,000 population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 30,000</li><li>• 1 CHC- 1,20,000 Population</li><li>• 1 CHC- 1,20,000 Population</li><li>• 1 CHC- 1,20,000</li><li>• At Hilly areas</li><li>• At Hilly areas</li><li>• 1 PHC- 20,000 population 1 CHC- 80,000 Population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 20,000 population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 20,000 population</li><li>• 1 PHC- 20,000</li><li>• 1 CHC- 80,000 Population</li><li>• 1 CHC- 80,000 Population</li><li>• 1 CHC- 80,000</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1038</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1038</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anand, a 45-year-old health policy consultant, is preparing a presentation on the evolution of the health care system in India for an international conference. While discussing the foundations of comprehensive health care in India, he recalls a significant committee that first emphasized this approach. Which committee is Dr. Anand most likely referring to when discussing the early emphasis on comprehensive health care in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High level Expert committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bhore Committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Planning commission", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Bhore Committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-093510.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Bhore Committee.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The term comprehensive health care was first used by the Bhore Committee in 1946 . By comprehensive services , the Bhore committee meant provision of integrated preventive, curative and promotional health services from “ womb to tomb ” to every individual residing in a defined geographic area .</li><li>• comprehensive health care</li><li>• first</li><li>• Bhore Committee</li><li>• 1946</li><li>• comprehensive services</li><li>• Bhore committee</li><li>• provision</li><li>• integrated preventive, curative</li><li>• promotional health services</li><li>• womb to tomb</li><li>• every individual</li><li>• defined geographic area</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 981</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg. 981</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Lakshmi, a 35-year-old public health specialist, is training a group of new health workers in a village in Bihar. As part of her training, she explains the various elements of primary health care. One of the trainees lists several elements, but Dr. Lakshmi identifies one that doesn't typically belong to primary health care. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an element of primary health care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Provision of essential drugs.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Provision of rehabilitative services.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal and child health care, including family planning.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Provision of rehabilitative services.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Provision of rehabilitative services</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Provision of essential drugs : A key element of primary health care , ensuring access to necessary medications .</li><li>• Option A. Provision of essential drugs</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• ensuring</li><li>• necessary medications</li><li>• Option B. Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition: Fundamental to primary health care , focusing on preventive health and wellness .</li><li>• Option B. Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition:</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• preventive health</li><li>• wellness</li><li>• Option D. Maternal and child health care, including family planning : Central aspects of primary health care, addressing critical health needs of mothers and children .</li><li>• Option D. Maternal and child health care, including family planning</li><li>• Central</li><li>• primary health care,</li><li>• health needs</li><li>• mothers</li><li>• children</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Elements of Primary Health Care:</li><li>➤ Elements of Primary Health Care:</li><li>➤ Education concerning prevailing health problems and the methods of preventing and controlling them. Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition. An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation . Maternal and child health care , including family planning . Immunization against major infectious diseases Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases. Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries Provision of essential drugs.</li><li>➤ Education concerning prevailing health problems and the methods of preventing and controlling them.</li><li>➤ Education concerning prevailing health problems and the methods of preventing and controlling them.</li><li>➤ Education concerning</li><li>➤ health problems</li><li>➤ methods</li><li>➤ preventing</li><li>➤ controlling them.</li><li>➤ Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.</li><li>➤ Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.</li><li>➤ Promotion</li><li>➤ food supply</li><li>➤ proper nutrition.</li><li>➤ An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation .</li><li>➤ An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation .</li><li>➤ adequate supply</li><li>➤ safe water</li><li>➤ basic sanitation</li><li>➤ Maternal and child health care , including family planning .</li><li>➤ Maternal and child health care , including family planning .</li><li>➤ Maternal</li><li>➤ child health care</li><li>➤ family planning</li><li>➤ Immunization against major infectious diseases</li><li>➤ Immunization against major infectious diseases</li><li>➤ Immunization</li><li>➤ major infectious diseases</li><li>➤ Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases.</li><li>➤ Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases.</li><li>➤ Prevention</li><li>➤ control</li><li>➤ endemic diseases.</li><li>➤ Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries</li><li>➤ Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries</li><li>➤ Appropriate treatment</li><li>➤ common diseases</li><li>➤ injuries</li><li>➤ Provision of essential drugs.</li><li>➤ Provision of essential drugs.</li><li>➤ essential drugs.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, p 981.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, p 981.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i-c, ii- a, iii- d, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i-b, ii- d, iii- a, iv- c", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "i-c, ii- d, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i-d, ii- a, iii- c, iv- b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. i-b, ii- d, iii- a, iv- c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-092401.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The term comprehensive health care was first used by the Bhore Committee in 1946 .</li><li>• comprehensive health care</li><li>• first</li><li>• Bhore Committee in 1946</li><li>• In 1965 , the term “ basic health services ” was used by UNICEF/WHO in their joint health policy .</li><li>• 1965</li><li>• basic health services</li><li>• UNICEF/WHO</li><li>• joint health policy</li><li>• Primary health care came into existence in 1978 , following an international conference at Alma-Ata (USSR).</li><li>• Primary health care</li><li>• existence</li><li>• 1978</li><li>• international conference at Alma-Ata</li><li>• During September 2000, representatives from 189 countries met at the Millennium Summit in New York , to adopt the United Nations Millennium Declaration .</li><li>• September 2000,</li><li>• 189 countries</li><li>• Millennium Summit</li><li>• New York</li><li>• adopt</li><li>• United Nations Millennium Declaration</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• International Conference at Alma-Ata (1978) gave concept of Primary Health. Care</li><li>• International Conference at Alma-Ata (1978)</li><li>• Primary Health. Care</li><li>• Bhore Committee (1946) - gave concept of Comprehensive Health Care.</li><li>• Bhore Committee (1946)</li><li>• Comprehensive Health Care.</li><li>• Mukherji Committee (1966) : Basic Health Services should be provided at block level.</li><li>• Mukherji Committee (1966)</li><li>• Basic Health Services</li><li>• block level.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 981)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 981)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a district in Tamil Nadu, there's a sudden surge in reported dengue cases. The District collector issues an order to mobilize resources to address the situation. Acting promptly, the district health officer allocates the provided manpower to areas identified as high-risk for dengue to initiate control activities. This action taken by the district health officer exemplifies which principle of health care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Equitable distribution", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community participation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appropriate technology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Universal health coverage", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Equitable distribution", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Equitable distribution</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Community participation: It should be based on active participation of the community individuals and must meet the specific needs of the population. Active community participation gives a sense of empowerment ensuring better compliance and better implementation of the health care interventions. For example, the ASHA .</li><li>• Option B. Community participation:</li><li>• active participation</li><li>• community individuals</li><li>• specific needs</li><li>• Active community participation</li><li>• empowerment</li><li>• better compliance</li><li>• better implementation</li><li>• health care</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• Option C. Appropriate technology : It should promote measures which are cost-effective and can be used universally by anyone, for example ORS, Kangaroo mother care, Exclusive breastfeeding etc. Such techniques are effective in reducing the burden of the diseases and improve the health outcomes .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Appropriate technology</li><li>• cost-effective</li><li>• universally</li><li>• anyone,</li><li>• ORS, Kangaroo</li><li>• mother care,</li><li>• Exclusive breastfeeding</li><li>• effective</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• burden</li><li>• diseases</li><li>• improve the health outcomes</li><li>• Option D. Universal health coverage : This principle aims at providing access to health services for all individuals, but the scenario specifically focuses on targeting high-risk areas rather than universal access.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Universal health coverage</li><li>• providing access</li><li>• health services</li><li>• scenario</li><li>• focuses on</li><li>• high-risk areas</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The four pillars/ principles of primary healthcare are – Equitable distribution, Community participation, appropriate technology and Intersectoral coordination</li><li>➤ four pillars/ principles</li><li>➤ primary healthcare</li><li>➤ – Equitable distribution, Community participation, appropriate technology</li><li>➤ Intersectoral coordination</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 981</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 981</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During the COVID-19 pandemic, healthcare workers, along with staff from other departments and voluntary organizations, were actively involved in managing COVID-19 cases. This collective effort encompassed a range of activities, from direct patient care to broader community support and logistical management. This scenario is an example of which healthcare principle?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Equitable distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community participation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appropriate technology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intersectoral coordination", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Intersectoral coordination", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Intersectoral coordination</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Equitable distribution: The healthcare services should aim at the equitable distribution of resources to all strata of the population irrespective of the social, demographic and economic status.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Equitable distribution:</li><li>• healthcare services</li><li>• equitable distribution</li><li>• all strata</li><li>• irrespective</li><li>• social, demographic</li><li>• economic status.</li><li>• Option B. Community participation: It should be based on active participation of the community individuals and must meet the specific needs of the population. Active community participation gives a sense of empowerment ensuring better compliance and better implementation of the health care interventions. For example, the ASHA .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Community participation:</li><li>• active participation</li><li>• community individuals</li><li>• specific needs</li><li>• Active community participation</li><li>• empowerment</li><li>• better compliance</li><li>• better implementation</li><li>• health care</li><li>• ASHA</li><li>• .</li><li>• Option C. Appropriate technology : It should promote measures which are cost-effective and can be used universally by anyone, for example ORS, Kangaroo mother care, Exclusive breastfeeding etc. Such techniques are effective in reducing the burden of the diseases and improve the health outcomes .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Appropriate technology</li><li>• cost-effective</li><li>• universally</li><li>• anyone,</li><li>• ORS, Kangaroo</li><li>• mother care,</li><li>• Exclusive breastfeeding</li><li>• effective</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• burden</li><li>• diseases</li><li>• improve the health outcomes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The four pillars of primary healthcare are – Equitable distribution ; Appropriate Technology; Community Participation and Intersectoral Coordination.</li><li>➤ four pillars</li><li>➤ primary healthcare</li><li>➤ Equitable distribution</li><li>➤ Appropriate Technology; Community Participation</li><li>➤ Intersectoral Coordination.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 982)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 982)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ravi, a medical student in Chennai, is researching global strategies in primary health care. He comes across an article about \"Barefoot doctors\" from the 1960s and 1970s in China. These were farmers trained to provide basic health care, preventive services, and medical treatments in their rural communities using methods tailored to their environment. He realizes that this approach resonates with a specific primary health care principle. Which of the following principles of primary health care is most closely aligned with the \"Barefoot doctors\" approach?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Equitable distribution", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Community participation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Appropriate technology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Intersectoral coordination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Community participation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Community participation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Equitable distribution : The healthcare services should aim at the equitable distribution of resources to all strata of the population irrespective of the social, demographic , and economic status.</li><li>• Option A. Equitable distribution</li><li>• healthcare services</li><li>• equitable distribution</li><li>• resources</li><li>• all strata</li><li>• irrespective</li><li>• social, demographic</li><li>• economic status.</li><li>• Option C. Appropriate Technology : It should promote measures which are cost-effective and can be used universally by anyone, for example ORS, Kangaroo mother care , Exclusive breastfeeding etc. Such techniques are effective in reducing the burden of the diseases and improve the health outcomes.</li><li>• Option C. Appropriate Technology</li><li>• promote measures</li><li>• cost-effective</li><li>• universally</li><li>• ORS, Kangaroo mother care</li><li>• Exclusive breastfeeding</li><li>• techniques</li><li>• effective</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• diseases</li><li>• improve</li><li>• health outcomes.</li><li>• Option D. Intersectoral Coordination : Effective primary health care can only be delivered if there is proper and good coordination between the different sectors of the Health Care . Teamwork of a Doctors, ASHA, Trained DAIs etc. can help implement an intervention more effectively.</li><li>• Option D. Intersectoral Coordination</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• delivered</li><li>• proper and good</li><li>• between</li><li>• different sectors</li><li>• Health Care</li><li>• Teamwork</li><li>• Doctors, ASHA, Trained DAIs</li><li>• implement</li><li>• more effectively.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The \"Barefoot doctors \" program is closely aligned with the principle of 'Community participation' in primary health care . Community participation is fundamental in primary health care as it empowers community members to take an active role in their own health care and ensures that services are tailored to the specific needs of the community.</li><li>• \"Barefoot doctors</li><li>• closely aligned</li><li>• 'Community participation'</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• fundamental</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• empowers</li><li>• community members</li><li>• active role</li><li>• own health care</li><li>• ensures</li><li>• services</li><li>• tailored</li><li>• specific needs</li><li>• community.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 982)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 982)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ananya, a newly appointed health officer in a district of Maharashtra, is attending a workshop on health system strengthening. She is presented with a series of statements about norms for health personnel in India. Though most seem accurate based on her training, one statement appears to be incorrect. Which of the following statements is incorrect about norms for health personnel?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 nurse per 5000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 trained dai for each village", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 pharmacist for 10000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 lab technician for 1000 population", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 lab technician for 1000 population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-094252.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1 lab technician for 1000 population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• It is incorrect as per the current Population Norms for Health Workers in India , the correct norm is 1 lab technician per 10,000 population.</li><li>• incorrect</li><li>• current Population Norms</li><li>• Health Workers</li><li>• India</li><li>• correct norm</li><li>• 1 lab technician</li><li>• 10,000 population.</li><li>• Other Options - The other 3 options are correct.</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• correct.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 987)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 987)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rhea, a public health specialist from an International NGO, is working on a reproductive health project in a tribal village. After a preliminary survey, it becomes evident that there is a significant unmet need for contraceptives in the area. To address this, the local health department decided to recruit and train ASHAs. During a team meeting, various statements about ASHAs are made. Which of the following statements is incorrect about ASHA?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ASHA must be resident of the village.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Have Formal education up to 10th standard.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "In hilly and tribal areas, norms can be relaxed to 1 ASHA per hamlet/Habitation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Should be in the age group of 18 to 60 years.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Should be in the age group of 18 to 60 years.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Should be in the age group of 18 to 60 years.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. ASHA must be a resident of the village : Correct. Being a local resident helps in understanding community needs and gaining trust .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• ASHA must be a resident of the village</li><li>• Correct.</li><li>• local resident</li><li>• community needs</li><li>• gaining trust</li><li>• Option B. Have formal education up to the 10th standard : This is generally true , but educational requirements can vary based on the local context .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Have formal education up to the 10th standard</li><li>• true</li><li>• educational requirements</li><li>• based</li><li>• local context</li><li>• Option C. In Hilly and Tribal areas, norms can be relaxed to 1 ASHA per hamlet/habitation - Correct . This relaxation allows for better coverage in areas with dispersed populations.</li><li>• Option C. In Hilly and Tribal areas, norms can be relaxed to 1 ASHA per hamlet/habitation - Correct</li><li>• better coverage</li><li>• dispersed</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)</li><li>➤ Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)</li><li>➤ Proposed population norm: 2 ASHA workers per 1000 population (Village) ASHA is expected to act as an interface between the Community and Health care system , a Bridge between ANM and village , Accountable to Panchayat Selection criteria of ASHA - Woman resident of local community Preferably 25 – 45 years of age Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas) Training - The induction training of ASHA is for 23 days spread in five rounds over a period of 12 months , to be followed by periodic re-training for about 2 days every alternate month.</li><li>➤ Proposed population norm: 2 ASHA workers per 1000 population (Village)</li><li>➤ Proposed population norm: 2 ASHA workers per 1000 population (Village)</li><li>➤ 2 ASHA workers per 1000 population (Village)</li><li>➤ ASHA is expected to act as an interface between the Community and Health care system , a Bridge between ANM and village , Accountable to Panchayat</li><li>➤ ASHA is expected to act as an interface between the Community and Health care system , a Bridge between ANM and village , Accountable to Panchayat</li><li>➤ ASHA</li><li>➤ interface between</li><li>➤ Community</li><li>➤ Health care system</li><li>➤ Bridge</li><li>➤ ANM</li><li>➤ village</li><li>➤ Accountable</li><li>➤ Panchayat</li><li>➤ Selection criteria of ASHA - Woman resident of local community Preferably 25 – 45 years of age Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ Selection criteria of ASHA -</li><li>➤ Woman resident of local community Preferably 25 – 45 years of age Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ Woman resident of local community</li><li>➤ Woman resident of local community</li><li>➤ resident of local community</li><li>➤ Preferably 25 – 45 years of age</li><li>➤ Preferably 25 – 45 years of age</li><li>➤ 25 – 45 years of age</li><li>➤ Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ Literate with formal education up to 10th class (Relaxable for Tribal areas)</li><li>➤ formal education up to 10th class</li><li>➤ Training - The induction training of ASHA is for 23 days spread in five rounds over a period of 12 months , to be followed by periodic re-training for about 2 days every alternate month.</li><li>➤ Training - The induction training of ASHA is for 23 days spread in five rounds over a period of 12 months , to be followed by periodic re-training for about 2 days every alternate month.</li><li>➤ Training</li><li>➤ training</li><li>➤ ASHA</li><li>➤ 23 days</li><li>➤ five rounds</li><li>➤ 12 months</li><li>➤ periodic re-training</li><li>➤ 2 days</li><li>➤ alternate month.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 989)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 989)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Arvind, a young medical graduate, is posted in a remote district of Chhattisgarh for a community medicine rotation. He is excited to work closely with the grassroots health workers who are the backbone of primary healthcare in these areas. On his first day, he's introduced to several health personnel who play a vital role at the grassroots level. However, he later realizes that one of the individuals he was introduced to doesn't primarily operate at the grass-root level. Which of the following health personnel is NOT primarily a grass-root level worker?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ASHA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anganwadi workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Female Health Assistants", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Village Health guide", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Female Health Assistants", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-095139.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Female Health Assistants</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Grass root level workers are individuals who work at the local level to address social, economic , and political issues with their communities . These workers are the cornerstone of the community development and social change efforts .</li><li>• Grass root level workers</li><li>• local level</li><li>• social, economic</li><li>• political</li><li>• communities</li><li>• workers</li><li>• cornerstone</li><li>• development</li><li>• social change efforts</li><li>• Grass root level workers includes ASHA (Option A), Anganwadi workers (Option B), Traditional birth attendants, Village health guides (Option D).</li><li>• Grass root level workers</li><li>• ASHA (Option A),</li><li>• Anganwadi workers (Option B), Traditional birth attendants, Village health guides (Option D).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 467</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 467</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ayesha has been posted as a Medical Officer at a PHC in Himachal Pradesh. During her initial assessment, she visits a Type A Health Sub Centre to understand the services offered there. She is briefed about several healthcare services provided at the centre to cater to the needs of the village population. However, later in her review, she realizes that one of the mentioned services is not typically provided by a Type A Health Sub Centre. Which of the following services is NOT offered in a Type A Health Sub Centre?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Delivery services", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lab investigations- urine albumin and sugar, haemoglobin estimation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inj. Tetanus toxoid administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Assess growth and development of infant and make timely referral.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Delivery services", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/02/screenshot-2024-09-02-092532.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Delivery services</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Delivery services are provided at Type B subcentre .</li><li>• Delivery services</li><li>• Type B subcentre</li><li>• Type A sub-centre is a health facility that is a part of the healthcare infrastructure . It serves as the most peripheral and first contact point between the primary healthcare system and the community .</li><li>• Type A sub-centre</li><li>• health facility</li><li>• healthcare infrastructure</li><li>• peripheral</li><li>• first contact point</li><li>• primary healthcare system</li><li>• the community</li><li>• The facilities available at Type A Subcentre are –</li><li>• facilities</li><li>• Type A Subcentre</li><li>• OPD services for common illnesses Immunization Family Planning &amp; reproductive health Child Health Services Health Education &amp; Awareness Basic Laboratory Services Emergency Care Medications, Pharmacy and Record Keeping</li><li>• OPD services for common illnesses</li><li>• OPD services for common illnesses</li><li>• OPD services</li><li>• common illnesses</li><li>• Immunization</li><li>• Immunization</li><li>• Immunization</li><li>• Family Planning &amp; reproductive health</li><li>• Family Planning &amp; reproductive health</li><li>• Family Planning &amp; reproductive health</li><li>• Child Health Services</li><li>• Child Health Services</li><li>• Child Health Services</li><li>• Health Education &amp; Awareness</li><li>• Health Education &amp; Awareness</li><li>• Basic Laboratory Services</li><li>• Basic Laboratory Services</li><li>• Emergency Care</li><li>• Emergency Care</li><li>• Emergency Care</li><li>• Medications, Pharmacy and Record Keeping</li><li>• Medications, Pharmacy and Record Keeping</li><li>• Medications, Pharmacy and Record Keeping</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 990)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 990)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, a public health specialist, is mentoring a group of young medical interns at a medical college in Odisha. During a session on the evolution of community health in India, he mentions the introduction of a key grassroots health initiative aimed at bringing healthcare closer to the rural masses. This program involved training selected individuals from villages, equipping them with basic medical knowledge and skills, and tasking them with the responsibility of guiding their communities towards better health. One of the interns, intrigued by this historical development, asks Dr. Mehta about the year this concept was introduced. Which of the following years marks the introduction of the Village Health Guide concept in India ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1949", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1977", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1992", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2005", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1977", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1977</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Village Health Guides’ scheme in India was launched in 2nd Oct 1977 - this was recommended by Shrivastava Committee (1975)</li><li>• Village Health Guides’</li><li>• India</li><li>• 2nd Oct 1977</li><li>• Shrivastava Committee (1975)</li><li>• A Village Health Guide , also known as a Community Health Worker (CHW) or Village Health Worker , is an essential frontline health worker who plays a crucial role in providing healthcare services and promoting health at the community level , especially in rural and remote areas. Village Health Guides are typically community members themselves, selected and trained to serve their own communities .</li><li>• Village Health Guide</li><li>• known</li><li>• Community Health Worker</li><li>• Village Health Worker</li><li>• frontline health worker</li><li>• healthcare services</li><li>• promoting health</li><li>• community level</li><li>• rural and remote areas.</li><li>• community members</li><li>• selected</li><li>• trained</li><li>• own communities</li><li>• Population Norms - 1 per 1000 (Village)</li><li>• Population Norms - 1 per 1000 (Village)</li><li>• Selection criteria -</li><li>• Preferably women , permanent residents of local community Minimum VI standard education , able to read and write Acceptable to all sections of the community Able to spare 2–3 hours of work every day</li><li>• Preferably women , permanent residents of local community</li><li>• women</li><li>• permanent residents</li><li>• local community</li><li>• Minimum VI standard education , able to read and write</li><li>• Minimum</li><li>• VI standard education</li><li>• read and write</li><li>• Acceptable to all sections of the community</li><li>• all sections</li><li>• Able to spare 2–3 hours of work every day</li><li>• spare 2–3 hours</li><li>• Training at nearby PHC , 200 hours ( 3 months ) duration and Stipend - 3000 per month</li><li>• Training</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• 200 hours</li><li>• 3 months</li><li>• Stipend - 3000 per month</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Village Health Guides' scheme in India , launched in 1977 based on the Shrivastava Committee's recommendations , employs local community members , preferably educated women , as frontline health workers for rural areas .</li><li>➤ Village Health Guides'</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ 1977</li><li>➤ Shrivastava Committee's recommendations</li><li>➤ local community members</li><li>➤ educated women</li><li>➤ frontline health workers</li><li>➤ rural areas</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 22</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 22</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, a medical officer, is conducting a training session for new healthcare workers at a rural subcentre in Bihar. As part of the training, she emphasizes the importance of understanding the contents of the medical kits available at the subcentre. Drug kit A, which is provided to the subcentre, contains essential medicines for common illnesses and first aid. A new health worker, trying to recall the kit's contents, lists several items. Which of the following is NOT typically a content of drug kit A at the subcentre?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ORS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tab. Paracetamol", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tablet. IFA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A solution", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tab. Paracetamol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tab. Paracetamol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Parcetamol is part of Drug Kit B at subcentre and the Other 3 options are part of Drug Kit A</li><li>• Parcetamol</li><li>• Drug Kit B</li><li>• subcentre</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• Drug Kit A</li><li>• Contents of drug kits at subcentre -</li><li>• Contents of drug kits</li><li>• Drug Kit A - ORS, Tablet IFA (small &amp; large), Syp IFA (100ml), Tab Zinc ( 20 mg), Tab Folic acid (5 mg), Vitamin A solution, Tab. Cotrimoxazole ( pediatric )</li><li>• Drug Kit A</li><li>• ORS, Tablet IFA</li><li>• Syp IFA (100ml),</li><li>• Tab Zinc</li><li>• 20</li><li>• Tab Folic acid (5 mg),</li><li>• Vitamin A</li><li>• Tab. Cotrimoxazole</li><li>• pediatric</li><li>• Drug Kit B – Tab. Methyl ergometrine maleate . Tab. Paracetamol, Injection Methyl ergometrine, Tab. Mebendazole, Tab. Dicyclomine, Chloramphenicol eye ointment, Ointment Povidone iodine, Cetrimide powder, Absorbent cotton, Cotton bandage</li><li>• Drug Kit B</li><li>• Tab. Methyl ergometrine maleate</li><li>• Tab. Paracetamol,</li><li>• Injection Methyl ergometrine, Tab. Mebendazole, Tab. Dicyclomine, Chloramphenicol eye ointment, Ointment Povidone iodine, Cetrimide powder, Absorbent cotton, Cotton bandage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the RCH Program , Kit A and B are kept at the Subcentre Level.</li><li>➤ RCH Program</li><li>➤ Kit A</li><li>➤ B</li><li>➤ Subcentre Level.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1033)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1033)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rajan, working with a non-governmental organization, is planning a health awareness campaign in rural Tamil Nadu. He understands the importance of involving local administrative leaders to ensure the campaign's success. During a preparatory meeting, a new member of his team, who is unfamiliar with the Panchayat Raj system of India, asks about the organizational head at the block level to coordinate the campaign's activities. Who is the organizational head of the block level in the Panchayat Raj system?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chief executive officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Village development officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Block medical officer.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Block development officer", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Block development officer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/07/screenshot-2023-12-07-105220.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Block development officer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)</li><li>• Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)</li><li>• Panchayati Raj System : Is a 3-tier system of rural local self-government in India , linking village to the district Panchayati Raj Institutions were strengthened in India by Constitution – 73rd amendment and 74th amendment. 3-tier Panchayati Raj system was proposed by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee ( 1957 ) The 3 level PRIs: Panchayat: Village level Panchayat Samiti/ Janapada Panchayat: Block level Zila Parishad/ Zila Panchayat: District level Panchayati Raj at Village Level comprises of: Gram Sabha Gram Panchayat Nyaya Panchayat</li><li>• Panchayati Raj System : Is a 3-tier system of rural local self-government in India , linking village to the district</li><li>• Panchayati Raj System</li><li>• 3-tier system</li><li>• rural local self-government</li><li>• India</li><li>• village</li><li>• district</li><li>• Panchayati Raj Institutions were strengthened in India by Constitution – 73rd amendment and 74th amendment.</li><li>• Panchayati Raj Institutions</li><li>• Constitution – 73rd</li><li>• amendment</li><li>• 74th amendment.</li><li>• 3-tier Panchayati Raj system was proposed by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee ( 1957 )</li><li>• 3-tier Panchayati Raj system</li><li>• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee</li><li>• 1957</li><li>• The 3 level PRIs: Panchayat: Village level Panchayat Samiti/ Janapada Panchayat: Block level Zila Parishad/ Zila Panchayat: District level</li><li>• Panchayat: Village level Panchayat Samiti/ Janapada Panchayat: Block level Zila Parishad/ Zila Panchayat: District level</li><li>• Panchayat: Village level</li><li>• Panchayat: Village level</li><li>• Panchayat Samiti/ Janapada Panchayat: Block level</li><li>• Panchayat Samiti/ Janapada Panchayat: Block level</li><li>• Zila Parishad/ Zila Panchayat: District level</li><li>• Zila Parishad/ Zila Panchayat: District level</li><li>• Panchayati Raj at Village Level comprises of: Gram Sabha Gram Panchayat Nyaya Panchayat</li><li>• Panchayati Raj</li><li>• Gram Sabha Gram Panchayat Nyaya Panchayat</li><li>• Gram Sabha</li><li>• Gram Panchayat</li><li>• Nyaya Panchayat</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Organizational head of the block level in the Panchayati Raj system - Block development officer.</li><li>➤ Organizational head</li><li>➤ block level</li><li>➤ Panchayati Raj system</li><li>➤ Block development officer.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1031)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine 4th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1031)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, a public health consultant, is collaborating with the local government to strategize healthcare delivery in urban areas of Maharashtra. During a planning session, she emphasizes the need to establish urban primary health centres (UPHCs) to cater to the growing population. A new team member, who recently transitioned from rural healthcare planning, is keen to understand the target population served by each UPHC in urban settings as per the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) norms. According to NUHM guidelines, one urban primary health centre (UPHC) is established to serve how many people?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30000 to 40000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50000 to 60000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "80000 to 120000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20000 to 30000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 50000 to 60000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 50000 to 60000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• As per NUHM ,</li><li>• NUHM</li><li>• One UPHC for every 50000 to 60000 population.</li><li>• One UPHC for every 50000 to 60000 population.</li><li>• One UPHC for every 50000 to 60000 population.</li><li>• One UPHC</li><li>• 50000 to 60000</li><li>• Other Norms</li><li>• Other Norms</li><li>• One Urban CHC for five to six UPHCs in big cities . [ 30-50 bedded in cities ( 500,000 population) and 75-100 bedded in metros ] One ANM for 10000 population ( Outreach services will be provided through Female Health Workers (FHWs)/ Auxiliary Nursing Midwives (ANMs) headquartered at the UPHCs ) One USHA for 1000 - 2500 population ( 250-500 Households ) One Mahila Aarogya Samiti ( MAS ) for 250–500 population.</li><li>• One Urban CHC for five to six UPHCs in big cities . [ 30-50 bedded in cities ( 500,000 population) and 75-100 bedded in metros ]</li><li>• One Urban CHC</li><li>• five to six UPHCs</li><li>• big cities</li><li>• 30-50 bedded</li><li>• 500,000</li><li>• 75-100 bedded</li><li>• metros</li><li>• One ANM for 10000 population ( Outreach services will be provided through Female Health Workers (FHWs)/ Auxiliary Nursing Midwives (ANMs) headquartered at the UPHCs )</li><li>• One ANM</li><li>• 10000 population</li><li>• Outreach services</li><li>• provided</li><li>• Female Health Workers</li><li>• Auxiliary Nursing Midwives</li><li>• headquartered</li><li>• UPHCs</li><li>• One USHA for 1000 - 2500 population ( 250-500 Households )</li><li>• One USHA</li><li>• 1000 - 2500</li><li>• 250-500 Households</li><li>• One Mahila Aarogya Samiti ( MAS ) for 250–500 population.</li><li>• One Mahila Aarogya Samiti</li><li>• MAS</li><li>• 250–500 population.</li><li>• Note - Subcentres: Not Established in NUHM - Outreach services will be provided through Female Health Workers (FHWs)/ Auxiliary Nursing Midwives (ANMs) headquartered at the UPHCs</li><li>• Note</li><li>• Not Established</li><li>• NUHM</li><li>• Female Health Workers</li><li>• Auxiliary Nursing Midwives</li><li>• headquartered</li><li>• UPHCs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ One UPHC for every 50000 to 60000 population . Provides services like OPD (consultation), basic lab diagnosis , drug/contraceptive dispensing and delivery of RCH services , as well as preventive and promotive aspects of all diseases.</li><li>➤ One UPHC</li><li>➤ 50000 to 60000 population</li><li>➤ OPD</li><li>➤ basic lab diagnosis</li><li>➤ drug/contraceptive dispensing</li><li>➤ delivery</li><li>➤ RCH services</li><li>➤ preventive</li><li>➤ promotive</li><li>➤ all diseases.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1031)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1031)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, a healthcare administrator, was recently appointed to oversee operations at a public hospital in Bihar. In one of his initial meetings with the staff, he expressed a desire to increase community involvement in the hospital's administration. He believes this will make the hospital more responsive to the needs of the patients and the community it serves. During a discussion with the senior nursing staff, one of the head nurses, unfamiliar with some administrative terms, asks about a mechanism she had overheard in a previous meeting that fosters community participation in public hospitals. Which of the following mechanisms helps to bring in community control into the management of public hospitals?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Village health day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Village health and sanitation committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rogi Kalyan samiti", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "ASHA", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Rogi Kalyan samiti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rogi Kalyan Samiti</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Rogi Kalyan Samities (RKSs) / Hospital Management Committees were introduced in 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) as a forum to improve the functioning and service provision in public health facilities, increase participation and enhance accountability.</li><li>• Rogi Kalyan Samities</li><li>• Hospital Management Committees</li><li>• 2005</li><li>• National Rural Health Mission</li><li>• forum</li><li>• improve</li><li>• functioning</li><li>• service provision</li><li>• public health facilities,</li><li>• increase participation</li><li>• enhance accountability.</li><li>• As a part of IPHS , each hospital would be required to set up a Rogi Kalyan Samiti / hospital management committee which will bring community control into the management of public hospitals . The chairperson is the District Magistrate .</li><li>• IPHS</li><li>• each hospital</li><li>• Rogi Kalyan Samiti</li><li>• hospital management committee</li><li>• bring community control</li><li>• public hospitals</li><li>• chairperson</li><li>• District Magistrate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rogi Kalyan Samities are an important vehicle to enable citizen participation and ownership in health facilities . They also serve the important function of increasing accountability of the health facility to the public .</li><li>➤ Rogi Kalyan Samities</li><li>➤ enable citizen participation and ownership in health facilities</li><li>➤ increasing accountability</li><li>➤ health facility</li><li>➤ public</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1034)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1034)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Megha, a public health consultant in Bihar, is conducting a training workshop for ASHAs and ANMs. As part of her session on maternal health, she highlights the importance of recognizing where pregnant women can receive emergency obstetric care, especially in critical situations. During a discussion, Sunita, a senior ANM from a remote village, mentions the services available at her health sub-centre and the nearby non 24x7 Primary Health Centre (PHC). Curious about the level of care these institutions can provide, a young ASHA poses a question. At which level of emergency obstetric care are health sub-centres and non 24x7 PHCs classified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Level 1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Level 2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Level 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level 4", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Level 1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-100012.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Level 1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Level 1 - Health sub centres and non 24x7 PHCs (Essential Obs care )</li><li>• Level 1</li><li>• Health sub centres</li><li>• non 24x7 PHCs</li><li>• Obs care</li><li>• Level 2 - BEmONC (non-FRU CHCs and PHCs functional 24 x 7)</li><li>• Level 2</li><li>• BEmONC</li><li>• One condition that must be fulfilled for a PHC to become a First referral unit is Emergency obstetric care.</li><li>• One condition</li><li>• fulfilled</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• First referral unit</li><li>• Emergency obstetric care.</li><li>• Level 3 - CEmONC centres (CHCs with FRU, Subdistrict hospitals, District hospitals and higher hospitals)</li><li>• Level 3</li><li>• CEmONC centres</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1036)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1036)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priyanka, an obstetrician working in a district hospital in Uttar Pradesh, is mentoring a group of young medical officers on maternal health care. During one of her sessions, she explains the importance of Basic Emergency Obstetric Care (BEmOC) services, which are crucial in managing obstetric emergencies. She then lists out several services and asks her mentees to identify the one that is NOT typically included as a BEmOC service. Which of the following is NOT a standard service of Basic Emergency Obstetric Care (BEmOC)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administer parenteral antibiotics.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administer parenteral anticonvulsants.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Undertake manual removal of placenta.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer blood transfusion.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Administer blood transfusion.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-100127.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Administer blood transfusion.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Blood transfusion service is included under level 3 (CEmONC - Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric &amp; Newborn Care ) components.</li><li>• Blood transfusion</li><li>• level 3</li><li>• Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric &amp; Newborn Care</li><li>• BEmOC services:</li><li>• BEmOC services:</li><li>• Administer parenteral antibiotics . (Option A) Administer uterotonic drugs . Administer parenteral anticonvulsants. (Option B) Undertake manual removal of placenta . (Options C) Remove retained products . Perform assisted vaginal delivery . Perform basic neonatal resuscitation.</li><li>• Administer parenteral antibiotics . (Option A)</li><li>• parenteral antibiotics</li><li>• (Option A)</li><li>• Administer uterotonic drugs .</li><li>• uterotonic drugs</li><li>• Administer parenteral anticonvulsants. (Option B)</li><li>• parenteral anticonvulsants.</li><li>• (Option B)</li><li>• Undertake manual removal of placenta . (Options C)</li><li>• manual removal of placenta</li><li>• (Options C)</li><li>• Remove retained products .</li><li>• retained products</li><li>• Perform assisted vaginal delivery .</li><li>• assisted vaginal delivery</li><li>• Perform basic neonatal resuscitation.</li><li>• basic</li><li>• neonatal resuscitation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1036)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1036)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr Harsha, a senior health officer at a district hospital, is conducting a training session for new staff on the roles and designations within the healthcare system in India. During her session, she discusses the role of the Female Health Assistant, also known as the Lady Health Visitor (LHV). A junior nurse, Riya, raises her hand and asks about the typical placement of an LHV within the healthcare hierarchy. Dr. Harsha uses this opportunity to test the group's knowledge. At which level is the Female Health Assistant, commonly known as the Lady Health Visitor (LHV), typically situated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health subcentre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PHC", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "CHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "District hospital", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PHC", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-100301.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. PHC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Female Health Assistant located at the PHC level , is entrusted with the task of supervision of the work of Health Workers of six health sub centres .</li><li>• Female Health Assistant</li><li>• PHC level</li><li>• task of supervision</li><li>• work</li><li>• Health Workers</li><li>• six health sub centres</li><li>• Suggested norm for Health Assistant ( male and female ): 1 per 30,000 population in plain area ( 1 per 20,000 population in tribal and hilly areas )</li><li>• Health Assistant</li><li>• male and female</li><li>• 1</li><li>• 30,000</li><li>• plain area</li><li>• 1</li><li>• 20,000</li><li>• tribal</li><li>• hilly areas</li><li>• Some important Points related to PHCs -</li><li>• Some important Points related to PHCs -</li><li>• PHC is ‘ First contact point’ between village community and the Medical Officer. Each PHC acts as a ‘Referral centre for 6 Sub-centers’. Medical officer is the ‘Leader of team at PHC’ PHCs are established and maintained by State Governments under Minimum Needs Program (MNP)/ Basic Minimum Services Program (BMS) PHC has provision of ‘4–6 beds’ No . of PHCs in India : 25, 743 [2018] Type A PHC: PHC with delivery load of &lt; 20 deliveries in a month Type B PHC: PHC with delivery load of &gt; 20 deliveries in a month</li><li>• PHC is ‘ First contact point’ between village community and the Medical Officer.</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• First contact point’</li><li>• village community</li><li>• Medical Officer.</li><li>• Each PHC acts as a ‘Referral centre for 6 Sub-centers’.</li><li>• Each PHC</li><li>• ‘Referral centre</li><li>• 6 Sub-centers’.</li><li>• Medical officer is the ‘Leader of team at PHC’</li><li>• Medical officer</li><li>• ‘Leader</li><li>• team</li><li>• PHC’</li><li>• PHCs are established and maintained by State Governments under Minimum Needs Program (MNP)/ Basic Minimum Services Program (BMS)</li><li>• PHCs</li><li>• established</li><li>• State Governments</li><li>• Minimum Needs Program</li><li>• Basic Minimum Services Program</li><li>• PHC has provision of ‘4–6 beds’</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• ‘4–6 beds’</li><li>• No . of PHCs in India : 25, 743 [2018]</li><li>• No</li><li>• PHCs</li><li>• India</li><li>• 25, 743</li><li>• Type A PHC: PHC with delivery load of &lt; 20 deliveries in a month</li><li>• Type A</li><li>• &lt; 20 deliveries</li><li>• Type B PHC: PHC with delivery load of &gt; 20 deliveries in a month</li><li>• Type B</li><li>• &gt; 20 deliveries</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staff at PHC</li><li>➤ Staff at PHC</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1032)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition, Rajvir Bhalwar (page 1032)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ramesh, a health officer responsible for the planning and allocation of health resources in a district of Rajasthan, is reviewing the deployment of health personnel across various regions. He understands that distribution needs to be done based on population norms to ensure adequate healthcare access for the community. Dr. Ramesh turns to his assistant, Dr. Naina, and asks about the population norm for assigning a single health assistant (male) to a specific region. How many individuals should ideally be catered to by one health assistant (male) in plain areas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 per 30000 population", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 per 5000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 per 1 lakh population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 per 5 lakh population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 per 30000 population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-100631.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 per 30000 population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under the multipurpose workers scheme a Health assistant male is expected to cover a population of 30000 in which there are six sub centres each with the health worker male .</li><li>• multipurpose workers</li><li>• Health assistant male</li><li>• cover</li><li>• 30000</li><li>• six sub centres</li><li>• health worker male</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1006)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1006)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr . Aarav, a consultant to the Ministry of Health in India, is participating in a meeting about implementing strategies based on the National Health Policy 2017. During the meeting, a junior policy analyst, Ms. Meera, is presenting her findings on strengthening the primary health care system. She makes a particular mention of an initiative proposed by the National Health Policy 2017 that focuses on enhancing primary health care delivery. Dr. Aarav quizzes the team to test their knowledge on the policy's recommendations. Which of the following establishments did the National Health Policy 2017 recommend to strengthen the delivery system of primary health care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "New CHCs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "New medical colleges", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health and Wellness centres", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "New district hospitals", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Health and Wellness centres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Health and Wellness centres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Health Policy 2017 recommended strengthening the delivery system of primary health care through the establishment of Health and Wellness centres (HWCs).</li><li>• National Health Policy</li><li>• 2017</li><li>• strengthening</li><li>• delivery system</li><li>• primary health care</li><li>• Health</li><li>• Wellness centres</li><li>• EW IPHS Guidelines 2022</li><li>• EW IPHS Guidelines 2022</li><li>• Sub-centres HWCs</li><li>• Sub-centres HWCs</li><li>• HWC – SHC Rural - 1/5000 (plains); 1/3000 hilly (tribal areas) UHWC – URBAN – 1/15,000–20,000</li><li>• SHC Rural</li><li>• 1/5000</li><li>• 1/3000</li><li>• URBAN</li><li>• 1/15,000–20,000</li><li>• HWC - PHC</li><li>• HWC - PHC</li><li>• Rural PHC - 1/30,000 (Plains); 1/20,000 (Hilly/Tribal) Urban PHC - 1/50,000 Polyclinic - 1/2,50,000–3,00,000</li><li>• Rural PHC</li><li>• 1/30,000 (Plains); 1/20,000 (Hilly/Tribal)</li><li>• Urban PHC - 1/50,000</li><li>• Polyclinic</li><li>• 1/2,50,000–3,00,000</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Objectives of the National Health Policy 2017 -</li><li>➤ Objectives of the National Health Policy 2017 -</li><li>➤ Universal Healthcare Coverage. Strengthening the Healthcare Infrastructure. Preventive Healthcare Increase in Healthcare Spending : The NHP 2017 sets a target to increase public health spending to 2.5% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 2025. Integration of Traditional Medicine. Health and Wellness Centres Mental Health National Digital Health Authority (NDHA) Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Regulatory Framework Rural and Remote Healthcare.</li><li>➤ Universal Healthcare Coverage.</li><li>➤ Universal Healthcare Coverage.</li><li>➤ Strengthening the Healthcare Infrastructure.</li><li>➤ Healthcare Infrastructure.</li><li>➤ Preventive Healthcare</li><li>➤ Preventive Healthcare</li><li>➤ Increase in Healthcare Spending : The NHP 2017 sets a target to increase public health spending to 2.5% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 2025.</li><li>➤ Increase</li><li>➤ Healthcare Spending</li><li>➤ NHP 2017</li><li>➤ target</li><li>➤ increase</li><li>➤ public health</li><li>➤ 2.5%</li><li>➤ Gross Domestic Product</li><li>➤ 2025.</li><li>➤ Integration of Traditional Medicine.</li><li>➤ Traditional Medicine.</li><li>➤ Health and Wellness Centres</li><li>➤ Health</li><li>➤ Wellness Centres</li><li>➤ Mental Health</li><li>➤ Mental Health</li><li>➤ National Digital Health Authority (NDHA)</li><li>➤ National Digital Health Authority</li><li>➤ Public-Private Partnership (PPP)</li><li>➤ Public-Private Partnership</li><li>➤ Regulatory Framework</li><li>➤ Rural and Remote Healthcare.</li><li>➤ Rural</li><li>➤ Remote Healthcare.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ms. Anjali, a public health researcher, visits a rural district in Maharashtra to study the delivery of primary health care services. She learns about the Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) which aim to provide comprehensive primary health care. Curious about the management of these centers, she approaches Mr. Vinod, the district health officer. She inquires about the leadership at the sub-centre level HWC. Who is designated to lead a Health and Wellness Centre at the Sub centre level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health assistant (female)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mid-level health provider", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ayushman officer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mid-level health provider", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-100848.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mid-level health provider</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The HWCs at the Sub centre level would be equipped and staffed by a trained primary health care team , comprising of multipurpose workers &amp; ASHAs , and led by a Mid-Level Health Provider (CHO - Community Health Officer ).</li><li>• HWCs</li><li>• Sub centre level</li><li>• equipped</li><li>• staffed</li><li>• primary health care team</li><li>• multipurpose</li><li>• workers &amp; ASHAs</li><li>• Mid-Level Health Provider</li><li>• Community Health Officer</li><li>• Health and Wellness Centre's Population Norms as per New IPHS Guidelines 2022</li><li>• Health and Wellness Centre's Population Norms as per New IPHS Guidelines 2022</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HWCs</li><li>➤ HWCs</li><li>➤ 1.5 Lac HWC centres. Comprehensive health care (including MCH, NCDs ). Free essential drugs and diagnostic services. Primary Health Care Team - The CHO heads the team of Multi-Purpose Workers ( Male and Female ) and Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs).</li><li>➤ 1.5 Lac HWC centres.</li><li>➤ 1.5 Lac</li><li>➤ Comprehensive health care (including MCH, NCDs ).</li><li>➤ Comprehensive health care</li><li>➤ MCH, NCDs</li><li>➤ Free essential drugs and diagnostic services.</li><li>➤ Free essential drugs</li><li>➤ diagnostic services.</li><li>➤ Primary Health Care Team - The CHO heads the team of Multi-Purpose Workers ( Male and Female ) and Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs).</li><li>➤ Primary Health Care Team</li><li>➤ CHO heads</li><li>➤ Multi-Purpose</li><li>➤ Male and Female</li><li>➤ Accredited Social Health Activists</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1001)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 1001)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, working with an NGO focusing on healthcare, is giving a presentation about the importance and functions of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) in India. After her presentation, she decided to quiz her colleagues to gauge their understanding. Which of the following statements regarding Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HWCs are created by transforming existing sub centres and primary health centres.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HWCs provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC).", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "HWCs were specially established to provide services to tribal areas.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The medical officer at the PHC is responsible for ensuring services at all HWCs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. HWCs were specially established to provide services to tribal areas.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. HWCs were specially established to provide services to tribal areas.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. HWCs are created by transforming existing sub centres and primary health centres: Transforming existing subcentres and PHCs into HWCs is a correct strategy under the initiative to strengthen primary healthcare infrastructure.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• HWCs are created by transforming existing sub centres and primary health centres:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• initiative</li><li>• strengthen</li><li>• primary healthcare infrastructure.</li><li>• Option B. HWCs provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC): Providing CPHC is indeed a core function of HWCs , aligning with their goal to offer a broader range of health services.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• HWCs provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC):</li><li>• indeed</li><li>• core function</li><li>• HWCs</li><li>• goal</li><li>• broader range</li><li>• health services.</li><li>• Option D. The medical officer at the PHC being responsible for ensuring services at all HWCs : Under their jurisdiction is a typical administrative arrangement .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• The medical officer at the PHC being responsible for ensuring services at all HWCs</li><li>• jurisdiction</li><li>• administrative arrangement</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ HWCs -</li><li>➤ HWCs -</li><li>➤ HWCs are created by transforming existing sub centres and primary health centres. HWCs provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC). PHCs in rural and urban area will be converted to HWCs. The medical officer at the PHC would be responsible for ensuring that CPHC services are delivered through all HWCs in his area and through PHC itself.</li><li>➤ HWCs are created by transforming existing sub centres and primary health centres.</li><li>➤ HWCs</li><li>➤ transforming</li><li>➤ sub centres</li><li>➤ primary health centres.</li><li>➤ HWCs provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC).</li><li>➤ HWCs</li><li>➤ Comprehensive Primary Health Care</li><li>➤ PHCs in rural and urban area will be converted to HWCs.</li><li>➤ PHCs</li><li>➤ rural and urban</li><li>➤ HWCs.</li><li>➤ The medical officer at the PHC would be responsible for ensuring that CPHC services are delivered through all HWCs in his area and through PHC itself.</li><li>➤ medical officer</li><li>➤ PHC</li><li>➤ CPHC services</li><li>➤ all HWCs</li><li>➤ area</li><li>➤ PHC itself.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical students is visiting a Health and Wellness Centre (HWC) as part of their community medicine rotation. Their mentor, Dr. Anita, while giving them a tour, highlights the various services provided at the centre. She later poses a question to test their understanding. During the tour of the Health and Wellness Centre (HWC), Dr. Anita explained that HWCs have been designed to address a wide range of health concerns. However, which of the following services is NOT typically offered at an HWC?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Palliative health care services", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Screening and basic management of mental health ailments", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral health care services", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Comprehensive Trauma and Accident services", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Comprehensive Trauma and Accident services", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/22/image_fSYwxnZ.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Comprehensive Trauma and accident services</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Comprehensive Trauma and Accident services are not typically offered at Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).</li><li>• Comprehensive Trauma</li><li>• Accident services</li><li>• not</li><li>• Health</li><li>• Wellness Centres</li><li>• HWCs deliver Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) bringing healthcare closer to the homes of people covering both maternal and child health services and non-communicable diseases , including free essential drugs and diagnostic services .</li><li>• HWCs</li><li>• Comprehensive Primary Health Care</li><li>• healthcare closer</li><li>• homes</li><li>• maternal</li><li>• child health</li><li>• non-communicable diseases</li><li>• free</li><li>• essential drugs</li><li>• diagnostic services</li><li>• Other 3 options are part of the expanded service Package available at HWCs, as mentioned below:</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• expanded service Package available</li><li>• HWCs,</li><li>• Expanded range of services at HWCs -</li><li>• Expanded range of services at HWCs -</li><li>• Care in pregnancy and childbirth . Neonatal and infant health care services. Childhood and adolescent health care services . Family planning, Contraceptive services and other Reproductive Health Care services. Management of Communicable diseases including National Health Programmes. Management of Common Communicable Diseases and Outpatient care for acute simple illnesses and minor ailments. Screening, Prevention, Control and Management of Non-Communicable diseases. Care for Common Ophthalmic and ENT problems. Basic Oral health care ( Option C ) Elderly and Palliative health care services ( Option A ) Emergency Medical Services Screening and Basic management of Mental health ailments ( Option B )</li><li>• Care in pregnancy and childbirth .</li><li>• Care</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• childbirth</li><li>• Neonatal and infant health care services.</li><li>• Neonatal</li><li>• infant health care services.</li><li>• Childhood and adolescent health care services .</li><li>• Childhood</li><li>• adolescent health care services</li><li>• Family planning, Contraceptive services and other Reproductive Health Care services.</li><li>• Family planning, Contraceptive</li><li>• Reproductive Health Care services.</li><li>• Management of Communicable diseases including National Health Programmes.</li><li>• Communicable diseases</li><li>• Management of Common Communicable Diseases and Outpatient care for acute simple illnesses and minor ailments.</li><li>• Common Communicable Diseases</li><li>• Outpatient care</li><li>• acute simple illnesses</li><li>• Screening, Prevention, Control and Management of Non-Communicable diseases.</li><li>• Screening, Prevention, Control</li><li>• Management</li><li>• Non-Communicable</li><li>• diseases.</li><li>• Care for Common Ophthalmic and ENT problems.</li><li>• Common Ophthalmic</li><li>• ENT problems.</li><li>• Basic Oral health care ( Option C )</li><li>• Basic Oral health care</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Elderly and Palliative health care services ( Option A )</li><li>• Elderly</li><li>• Palliative health care services</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Emergency Medical Services</li><li>• Screening and Basic management of Mental health ailments ( Option B )</li><li>• Screening</li><li>• Basic management</li><li>• Mental health ailments</li><li>• Option B</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health Care Services at HWCs</li><li>➤ Health Care Services at HWCs</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1001)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 1001)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "While visiting a Community Health Centre (CHC) in a semi-urban region of India, Dr. Rohan, a medical officer, noticed a group of patients and their families attentively reading a large board at the entrance. The board detailed the various services available at the CHC, as well as information on patient rights and entitlements. Dr. Rohan's intern, Dr. Ayesha, was curious about this board. Dr. Rohan decided to quiz her. Dr. Rohan asks, \"Dr. Ayesha, having such a board at the entrance of CHCs is a practice recommended to ensure transparency and awareness among the public. What is this specific practice called?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Patients’ rights", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Quality goals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Citizen charter", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "NQAS objectives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Citizen charter", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Citizen charter</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Patients’ rights : While information on patient rights may be included on the board , the term 'Patients’ rights' does not encompass the broader range of information typically provided in a Citizen charter .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Patients’ rights</li><li>• patient rights</li><li>• board</li><li>• 'Patients’ rights'</li><li>• not</li><li>• broader range of information</li><li>• Citizen charter</li><li>• Option B. Quality goals : These are specific objectives related to the quality of healthcare services but are not typically the focus of such informational boards .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Quality goals</li><li>• quality</li><li>• healthcare services</li><li>• not</li><li>• focus</li><li>• informational boards</li><li>• Option D. NQAS objectives : NQAS (National Quality Assurance Standards) objectives are related to maintaining quality standards in healthcare facilities but do not specifically refer to the public information practice described.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• NQAS objectives</li><li>• quality standards</li><li>• healthcare facilities</li><li>• not</li><li>• public information</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The practice of displaying a board at the entrance of Community Health Centres (CHCs), detailing available services , patient rights , and entitlements, is known as a 'Citizen charter' . The Citizen Charter is a practice recommended in healthcare facilities to ensure transparency and awareness among the public . It serves as an informative tool that outlines the services that the public can expect to receive at the health facility , thereby fostering accountability and informed utilization of healthcare services .</li><li>➤ practice</li><li>➤ displaying</li><li>➤ board</li><li>➤ entrance</li><li>➤ Community Health Centres</li><li>➤ available services</li><li>➤ patient rights</li><li>➤ 'Citizen charter'</li><li>➤ healthcare facilities</li><li>➤ transparency</li><li>➤ awareness</li><li>➤ public</li><li>➤ serves</li><li>➤ informative tool</li><li>➤ expect</li><li>➤ receive</li><li>➤ health facility</li><li>➤ fostering accountability</li><li>➤ informed utilization</li><li>➤ healthcare services</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine 5 th edition, Sunder Lal (page 697)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine 5 th edition, Sunder Lal (page 697)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sunita recently took up a position as the chief health administrator for an urban district in Delhi. In one of her early meetings, her team discussed the need to increase the health workforce in the slum regions of the district to enhance outreach and health promotion activities. During the discussion, a proposal for recruiting more USHA (Urban Social Health Activist) workers was presented. Sunita wanted to ensure that the number of USHA workers recruited aligns with the recommended national norms. How many people should one USHA worker cater to as per the recommended norm for urban areas?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 for 200-500 households", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 for 50-100 households", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 for every 1000 households", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 for every 10000 households", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1 for 200-500 households", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-101333.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 1 for 200-500 households</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• USHA - She is a frontline community worker expected to deliver services at the doorstep in urban community , she is a link between Urban Primary Health Centre (UPHC) and urban slum population .</li><li>• USHA -</li><li>• frontline community worker</li><li>• deliver services</li><li>• doorstep</li><li>• urban community</li><li>• Urban Primary Health</li><li>• Centre</li><li>• urban slum population</li><li>• 1 USHA (Urban Social Health Activist): for 1000-2500 Population i.e. every 200 to 500 households</li><li>• 1 USHA</li><li>• 1000-2500 Population</li><li>• 200 to 500 households</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Population covered by health workers :</li><li>➤ Population</li><li>➤ health workers</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 502)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 502)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Riya has recently taken charge of overseeing the establishment of a newly upgraded healthcare facility in a rural part of Karnataka. The local administration has decided to set it up as a Community Health Centre (CHC) to serve as a referral center for Primary Health Centres (PHCs) and cater to the healthcare needs of the local population. Dr. Riya is working on infrastructure planning and is keen on ensuring that the CHC meets the minimum requirements as laid down by the health guidelines. According to standard guidelines, what is the minimum number of beds that should be present in a Community Health Centre?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "40", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 30", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-101458.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 30</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 30 beds are present in a CHC.</li><li>• 30 beds</li><li>• CHC.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 1000)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anil, a district health officer in Rajasthan, is planning to enhance the healthcare services at the subcentres within his jurisdiction. He is referencing the latest Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS) guidelines from 2022 to ensure that he is aligning with the recommended staffing patterns. He realizes that ensuring adequate female health workers at each subcentre is crucial, especially given the population's health needs and the cultural dynamics in certain areas where women prefer female health professionals. According to the IPHS guidelines, how many female health workers are desired at a health subcentre?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-102004.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• male health workers are essential in a health sub centre.</li><li>• Sub-centre - 2 types -</li><li>• Sub-centre -</li><li>• Type A subcentre - Provide all recommended services except the facilities for conducting delivery .</li><li>• Type A</li><li>• Provide all</li><li>• services</li><li>• except</li><li>• delivery</li><li>• Type B (MCH) Sub-centre: Will provide all recommended services PLUS facilities for conducting delivery (Centrally/better located with good connectivity to catchment areas, having good physical infrastructure and a good case load of deliveries from catchment areas with no nearby higher level delivery facilities ).</li><li>• Type B (MCH)</li><li>• all</li><li>• services</li><li>• PLUS</li><li>• delivery</li><li>• good physical infrastructure</li><li>• good case load</li><li>• deliveries</li><li>• catchment areas</li><li>• no</li><li>• higher level delivery facilities</li><li>• The subcentre is most peripheral and first contact point between the primary health care system and community. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is providing 100% Central assistance.</li><li>• subcentre</li><li>• peripheral</li><li>• first contact point</li><li>• primary health care system</li><li>• community.</li><li>• Ministry of Health</li><li>• Family Welfare</li><li>• 100% Central assistance.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Staff at Sub-centre -</li><li>➤ Staff at Sub-centre -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 993)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 993)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ravi is a newly appointed health officer in a metropolitan city. In one of the training sessions, he was briefed about the distribution of powers and responsibilities between different levels of the government, especially in the health sector. Intrigued, he wishes to understand more about the functions that fall under the Union List pertaining to the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Union List concerning the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "International health relations and administration of port quarantine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Establishment and maintenance of drug standards", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevention of adulteration of foodstuffs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immigration and emigration", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prevention of adulteration of foodstuffs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-102135.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prevention of adulteration of foodstuffs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The prevention of adulteration of foodstuffs is not listed under the functions of the Union List for the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare as per the seventh schedule of Article 246 of the Constitution of India . The Union List includes functions are -</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• adulteration of foodstuffs</li><li>• not</li><li>• Union List</li><li>• Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare</li><li>• Article 246</li><li>• Constitution</li><li>• India</li><li>• International health relations and administration of port quarantine Administration of central institutes such as the All-India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health , Kolkata ; National Centre for Disease Control. Delhi etc. Promotion of research through research centres and other bodies Regulation and development of medical, pharmaceutical, dental , and nursing professions . Establishment and maintenance of drug standards Census , and collection and publication of other statistical data . Immigration and emigration Regulation of labour in the working of mines and oil fields and Coordination with States and with other ministries for promotion of health.</li><li>• International health relations and administration of port quarantine</li><li>• International health relations and administration of port quarantine</li><li>• Administration of central institutes such as the All-India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health , Kolkata ; National Centre for Disease Control. Delhi etc.</li><li>• Administration of central institutes such as the All-India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health , Kolkata ; National Centre for Disease Control. Delhi etc.</li><li>• Administration</li><li>• central institutes</li><li>• All-India Institute</li><li>• Hygiene</li><li>• Public Health</li><li>• Kolkata</li><li>• National Centre</li><li>• Disease Control. Delhi</li><li>• Promotion of research through research centres and other bodies</li><li>• Promotion of research through research centres and other bodies</li><li>• Promotion</li><li>• research centres</li><li>• Regulation and development of medical, pharmaceutical, dental , and nursing professions .</li><li>• Regulation and development of medical, pharmaceutical, dental , and nursing professions .</li><li>• Regulation</li><li>• development</li><li>• medical, pharmaceutical, dental</li><li>• nursing professions</li><li>• Establishment and maintenance of drug standards</li><li>• Establishment and maintenance of drug standards</li><li>• Establishment</li><li>• drug standards</li><li>• Census , and collection and publication of other statistical data .</li><li>• Census , and collection and publication of other statistical data .</li><li>• Census</li><li>• collection</li><li>• publication</li><li>• statistical data</li><li>• Immigration and emigration</li><li>• Immigration and emigration</li><li>• Immigration</li><li>• emigration</li><li>• Regulation of labour in the working of mines and oil fields and</li><li>• Regulation of labour in the working of mines and oil fields and</li><li>• labour</li><li>• mines and oil fields</li><li>• Coordination with States and with other ministries for promotion of health.</li><li>• Coordination with States and with other ministries for promotion of health.</li><li>• Coordination</li><li>• States</li><li>• ministries</li><li>• promotion</li><li>• health.</li><li>• Other Options: A, B, D - These are correctly listed under the Union List.</li><li>• Other Options: A, B, D -</li><li>• correctly</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 972</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 972</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Nandini, working in a rural health post in Maharashtra, India, is actively involved in community health programs. She often collaborates with local self-governing institutions to ensure effective healthcare delivery. During a recent community meeting, a discussion arose about the structure and functions of the Panchayati Raj system at the village level. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Panchayati Raj at the village level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Gram Sabha", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Panchayat Samiti", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gram Panchayat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nyaya Panchayat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Panchayat Samiti", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Panchayat Samiti</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Panchayati Raj is a 3-tier structure of rural local self-government in India, linking the village to the district. The three institutions are:</li><li>• Panchayati Raj</li><li>• 3-tier</li><li>• rural local self-government</li><li>• linking</li><li>• village</li><li>• district.</li><li>• Panchayat - at the village level . Panchayat Samiti - at the block level ; and Zilla Parishad - at the district level.</li><li>• Panchayat - at the village level .</li><li>• Panchayat - at the village level .</li><li>• Panchayat</li><li>• village level</li><li>• Panchayat Samiti - at the block level ; and</li><li>• Panchayat Samiti - at the block level ; and</li><li>• Panchayat Samiti</li><li>• block level</li><li>• Zilla Parishad - at the district level.</li><li>• Zilla Parishad - at the district level.</li><li>• Zilla Parishad</li><li>• district level.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Panchayati Raj at the village level consists of:</li><li>➤ The Panchayati Raj at the village level consists of:</li><li>➤ The Gram Sabha. The Gram Panchayat ; and The Nyaya Panchayat .</li><li>➤ The Gram Sabha.</li><li>➤ The Gram Sabha.</li><li>➤ Gram Sabha.</li><li>➤ The Gram Panchayat ; and</li><li>➤ The Gram Panchayat ; and</li><li>➤ Gram Panchayat</li><li>➤ The Nyaya Panchayat .</li><li>➤ The Nyaya Panchayat .</li><li>➤ Nyaya Panchayat</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 975</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 975</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 42 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Health Communication - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 22</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 22 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Dr. Ravi, a Medical Officer in a rural district of India, recently launched a campaign to encourage the community to adopt preventive measures against vector-borne diseases. After the campaign's run, he organized focus group discussions to gauge its impact. He found that beyond mere knowledge acquisition, there had been a genuine shift in community members' attitudes and behaviors concerning the use of bed nets and environmental sanitation. Pleased, he discussed these findings during a department meeting. Dr. Ravi states, \"It's evident from the feedback that our campaign didn't just provide information. We have achieved a change at the _______ level of communication.\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cognitive level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychomotor level", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Affective level", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Both B and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Affective level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Affective level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cognitive level : This relates to knowledge and awareness . At this level , the target audience simply acquires information or becomes aware of the message .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Cognitive level</li><li>• knowledge and awareness</li><li>• level</li><li>• target audience</li><li>• acquires information</li><li>• aware of the message</li><li>• Option B. Psychomotor level : This concerns skills and the actual change in behavior , entailing the capability to demonstrate a procedure or behavior.</li><li>• Option B. Psychomotor level</li><li>• skills</li><li>• actual change in behavior</li><li>• entailing</li><li>• capability</li><li>• Option D. Both B and C : While the campaign might have some elements of psychomotor change (in terms of actions taken like using bed nets), the primary impact as described is on the affective level (change in attitudes and behaviors).</li><li>• Option D. Both B and C</li><li>• campaign</li><li>• elements of psychomotor change</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The goal of all communication is to bring about a change in the desired direction of the person who receives the communication . These may be at cognitive (knowledge), affective (attitudes and feelings), or psychomotor (physical skills) levels . These are referred to as learning objectives .</li><li>➤ goal of all communication</li><li>➤ bring about a change</li><li>➤ desired direction</li><li>➤ person</li><li>➤ receives the communication</li><li>➤ cognitive</li><li>➤ affective</li><li>➤ psychomotor</li><li>➤ levels</li><li>➤ learning objectives</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 950.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 950.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Anjali, a young medical officer, is attending a workshop on effective health communication in a tertiary care hospital in Mumbai. The instructor emphasizes the importance of various components in the communication process. During a breakout session, Dr. Anjali discusses with her peers about how certain elements in communication can provide immediate feedback, acting almost like a \"mirror\" to the communicator. Which of the following components of communication is Dr. Anjali referring to as the \"mirror\" of communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Message", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Feedback", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Channels of communication", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sender", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Feedback", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Feedback</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Message : This is the content being communicated , but it does not serve as a mirror to the communicator.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Message</li><li>• content being communicated</li><li>• Option C. Channels of communication : These are the mediums through which the message is conveyed (like verbal, written, digital, etc.).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Channels of communication</li><li>• mediums through</li><li>• message is conveyed</li><li>• Option D. Sender : This is the person or entity delivering the message , not the element that provides feedback on how the message is received.</li><li>• Option D. Sender</li><li>• person</li><li>• entity delivering the message</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Communication process : Process of exchanging ideas , feelings and information . The components of communication process are:</li><li>➤ Communication process</li><li>➤ exchanging ideas</li><li>➤ feelings and information</li><li>➤ Sender (source) Receiver (audience) Message (content) Channel(s) (medium) Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Sender (source)</li><li>➤ Sender (source)</li><li>➤ Receiver (audience)</li><li>➤ Receiver (audience)</li><li>➤ Message (content)</li><li>➤ Message (content)</li><li>➤ Channel(s) (medium)</li><li>➤ Channel(s) (medium)</li><li>➤ Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 621.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 621.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Meera, a health communication specialist in New Delhi, is mentoring a group of junior health educators on designing effective public health campaigns. She uses a whiteboard to illustrate the sequential steps involved in the process of communication. She emphasizes that understanding this sequence is crucial for crafting impactful health messages. Which of the following represents the logical sequence of components Dr. Meera might be referring to in the process of communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sender- Receiver- Message- Feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sender- Message- Receiver- Feedback", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Receiver- Message- Sender- Feedback", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Message- Sender- Receiver- Feedback", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sender- Message- Receiver- Feedback", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/1-3-1_vQnqSyE.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sender- Message- Receiver- Feedback</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This sequence is fundamental in understanding effective communication , especially in the context of public health campaigns .</li><li>• sequence is fundamental</li><li>• effective communication</li><li>• public health campaigns</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Communication process : Process of exchanging ideas , feelings and information . The components of communication process are:</li><li>➤ Communication process</li><li>➤ exchanging ideas</li><li>➤ feelings and information</li><li>➤ Sender (source) Receiver (audience) Message (content) Channel(s) (medium) Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Sender (source)</li><li>➤ Sender (source)</li><li>➤ Receiver (audience)</li><li>➤ Receiver (audience)</li><li>➤ Message (content)</li><li>➤ Message (content)</li><li>➤ Channel(s) (medium)</li><li>➤ Channel(s) (medium)</li><li>➤ Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Feedback (effect)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg. 950.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg. 950.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Ms. Priya, a public health consultant in Bangalore, is planning a health promotion campaign on the importance of immunizations. In a team meeting, she is evaluating various media platforms to disseminate the message to a wide audience. While discussing the advantages and disadvantages of each platform, she mentions one particular medium where feedback mechanisms are not as immediate or organized as others. Which of the following media systems is Ms. Priya likely referring to regarding the poorly organized feedback mechanisms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interpersonal communication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mass media", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Folk media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Traditional method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mass media", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mass media</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Interpersonal communication : This involves direct, face-to-face communication between individuals . It typically allows for immediate and organized feedback due to the personal and interactive nature of the communication.</li><li>• Option A. Interpersonal communication</li><li>• direct, face-to-face communication</li><li>• between individuals</li><li>• Option C. Folk media : Folk media involves traditional, community-based forms of communication like street plays , folk songs , and storytelling . While it is more interactive and community-oriented than mass media, feedback can vary in organization and immediacy, but it is generally more direct and organized than mass media.</li><li>• Option C. Folk media</li><li>• traditional, community-based forms</li><li>• communication</li><li>• street plays</li><li>• folk songs</li><li>• storytelling</li><li>• Option D. Traditional method : This could refer to various conventional forms of communication , including folk media or even older mass communication methods like print media. The feedback mechanisms in traditional methods can vary, but they are often not as immediate or organized as modern digital platforms. However, they tend to be more immediate and organized compared to mass media like television and radio.</li><li>• Option D. Traditional method</li><li>• conventional forms</li><li>• communication</li><li>• folk media</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• The total communication effort is based on three media systems :</li><li>• total communication effort</li><li>• three media systems</li><li>• Interpersonal communication Mass media Traditional or folk media</li><li>• Interpersonal communication</li><li>• Interpersonal communication</li><li>• Mass media</li><li>• Mass media</li><li>• Traditional or folk media</li><li>• Traditional or folk media</li><li>• Mass media such as television , radio , newspapers , and online platforms , often lack immediate and structured feedback mechanisms . The communication is mostly one-way, reaching a wide audience with limited direct interaction.</li><li>• Mass media</li><li>• television</li><li>• radio</li><li>• newspapers</li><li>• online platforms</li><li>• lack immediate</li><li>• structured feedback mechanisms</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 951</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 951</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a remote village in Rajasthan, a new vaccination drive is being initiated to combat a recent outbreak of a communicable disease. Dr. Rahul, the leading physician for the campaign, encounters resistance from the community. The villagers have been influenced by rumors that the vaccine may lead to impotence in the future. In an effort to address these concerns, Dr. Rahul organizes a community meeting to debunk the myth and provide accurate information. By addressing the concern about the vaccine leading to impotence, Dr. Rahul is tackling which type of barrier in communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physiological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Psychological barrier", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cultural barrier", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Environmental barrier", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cultural barrier", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cultural barrier</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Physiological barrier : This refers to physical or biological factors that affect communication , such as hearing loss or speech difficulties . This is not applicable in this scenario.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Physiological barrier</li><li>• physical or biological factors</li><li>• affect communication</li><li>• hearing loss</li><li>• speech difficulties</li><li>• Option B. Psychological barrier : These barriers are related to emotional and mental factors . While fear of impotence could be influenced by psychological factors, the primary issue here is the cultural belief system.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Psychological barrier</li><li>• emotional and mental factors</li><li>• Option D. Environmental barrier : Environmental barriers are external factors that hinder communication , such as noise or distance . This type of barrier is not relevant in the context of the villagers' concerns about the vaccine.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Environmental barrier</li><li>• external factors that hinder communication</li><li>• noise or distance</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health education may often fail due to communication barriers between the educator and the community – these may be Physiological, Psychological, Environmental , and Cultural .</li><li>➤ Health education</li><li>➤ fail due to communication barriers</li><li>➤ educator and the community</li><li>➤ Physiological, Psychological, Environmental</li><li>➤ Cultural</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Ref : Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 951</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a training seminar in Mumbai for medical educators, Dr. Sunita is discussing various teaching methodologies. She emphasizes the difference between interactive and didactic methods of communication. While listing out the didactic methods, she mistakenly includes one method that is actually not didactic. Which of the following methods that Dr. Sunita mentioned is NOT a didactic method of communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Television", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lecture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Group Discussion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Stage show", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Group Discussion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921025.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Group Discussion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Television : Television is a didactic method of communication . It involves a one-way (didactic) transmission of information without interactive engagement from the audience.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Television</li><li>• didactic method of communication</li><li>• Option B. Lecture : Lectures are classic examples of didactic communication , where the educator speaks and the learners listen , typically without much interaction.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Lecture</li><li>• classic examples of didactic communication</li><li>• educator speaks</li><li>• learners listen</li><li>• Option D. Stage show : Stage shows are generally didactic as they are performances presented to an audience , lacking interactive elements with the viewers.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Stage show</li><li>• didactic</li><li>• performances presented to an audience</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 951</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 951</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a health promotion workshop in Delhi, public health officials discuss various strategies to discourage smoking. An emphasis is placed on the importance of the COTPA (Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act) regulation, which mandates that 85% of a cigarette pack should display pictorial warnings along with written messages. Dr. Anand, a seasoned health educator, explains the rationale behind this approach and highlights which specific aspect of communication it targets to have a greater impact on smokers. This strategy of using large pictorial warnings on cigarette packs is primarily focused on which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Message", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Receiver", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sender", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Channel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Message", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Message</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Receiver : While the ultimate aim is to influence the receiver (the smoker), the primary focus of this strategy is on the content and presentation of the message itself.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Receiver</li><li>• ultimate aim</li><li>• influence the receiver</li><li>• content</li><li>• presentation of the message</li><li>• Option C. Sender : The sender, in this case, would be the authorities or organizations responsible for public health messages . The strategy is not specifically focused on the sender but on how the message they are sending is presented.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Sender</li><li>• authorities</li><li>• organizations responsible</li><li>• public health messages</li><li>• Option D. Channel : The channel refers to the medium through which the message is conveyed . While cigarette packs are a channel, the primary focus here is on how the message is formulated and presented within this channel.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Channel</li><li>• medium through which the message</li><li>• conveyed</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Transmitting the right message to the right people at the right time is a crucial factor in successful communication . The elements of the communication process are -</li><li>➤ Transmitting</li><li>➤ right message</li><li>➤ right people</li><li>➤ right time</li><li>➤ crucial factor</li><li>➤ successful communication</li><li>➤ Sender - Source</li><li>➤ Receiver- Audience Message- Content Channel- Medium Feedback- Effect</li><li>➤ Receiver- Audience</li><li>➤ Message- Content</li><li>➤ Channel- Medium</li><li>➤ Feedback- Effect</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 950</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 950</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the context of organizational communication, there's a term referred to as \"grapevine communication.\" What does this term specifically refer to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Visual communication", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Informal communication", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nonverbal Communication", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Verbal Communication", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Informal communication", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Informal communication</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Visual communication : This involves the conveyance of ideas and information in forms that can be read or looked upon , like graphs, charts, logos, and other visualizations.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Visual communication</li><li>• conveyance of ideas</li><li>• information</li><li>• forms</li><li>• read or looked upon</li><li>• Option C. Nonverbal Communication : Nonverbal communication involves conveying a message without the use of spoken language , often through body language, facial expressions, and gestures. While grapevine communication can include nonverbal elements, it is not exclusively nonverbal.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Nonverbal Communication</li><li>• conveying a message</li><li>• use of spoken language</li><li>• Option D. Verbal Communication : This is the use of sounds and words to express oneself . Although grapevine communication often includes verbal elements, it is characterized more broadly by its informal nature than by being specifically verbal or nonverbal.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Verbal Communication</li><li>• use of sounds</li><li>• words to express oneself</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Communication has been classified into : -</li><li>➤ Communication</li><li>➤ classified into</li><li>➤ Formal (follows lines of authority) and Informal (grapevine) communication. Informal networks (e.g., gossip circles) exist in all organizations . The informal channels may be more active if the formal channels do not cater to the information needs.</li><li>➤ Formal</li><li>➤ Informal</li><li>➤ Informal networks</li><li>➤ exist in all organizations</li><li>➤ Formal communication follows a line of authority while non-formal communication may be more active than the formal channels .</li><li>➤ Formal communication</li><li>➤ line of authority</li><li>➤ non-formal communication</li><li>➤ active</li><li>➤ formal channels</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 951.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed 951.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Iyer, a general practitioner in Chennai, noticed a sudden increase in patients inquiring about a new health supplement. Upon further inquiry, she realized that a series of advertisements and endorsements from celebrities were making rounds on television and social media. The supplement promised a range of health benefits without any scientific backing. While discussing the scenario with her colleague, Dr. Rao, mentioned a term for such kind of publicity campaigns. What term best describes this type of publicity campaign?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Advocacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Propaganda", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health education", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Authoritative communication", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Propaganda", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Propaganda</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Advocacy : Advocacy involves supporting a particular cause or policy . While this campaign is promoting a product, it does not necessarily align with the principles of advocacy, which is typically more issue-focused and fact-based.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Advocacy</li><li>• supporting a particular cause or policy</li><li>• Option C. Health Education : Health education is the process of providing health information and knowledge to enhance health literacy and promote healthy behaviors . The described campaign does not educate factually or scientifically but instead uses potentially misleading information to promote a product.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Health Education</li><li>• process of providing health information</li><li>• knowledge</li><li>• enhance health literacy</li><li>• promote healthy behaviors</li><li>• Option D. Authoritative communication : This refers to communication that comes from an authority or expert source . While the advertisements and endorsements may attempt to portray authority, the lack of scientific backing does not align with the principles of authoritative communication in a healthcare context.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Authoritative communication</li><li>• communication</li><li>• comes from an authority</li><li>• expert source</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Persuasion is “a conscious attempt by one individual to change or influence the general beliefs , understanding, values and behavior of another individual or group of individuals in some desired way ”. When persuasive communication is deliberately employed to manipulate feelings, attitudes, and beliefs, it becomes “propaganda” or “brain washing”.</li><li>➤ Persuasion</li><li>➤ conscious attempt</li><li>➤ one individual</li><li>➤ change or influence the general beliefs</li><li>➤ values and behavior</li><li>➤ another individual</li><li>➤ group of individuals</li><li>➤ some desired way</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 953.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed 953.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health resident is attending a seminar on various strategies to reduce the prevalence of tobacco use among youth. The speaker mentions that in certain regions, there is a prohibition on the sale of tobacco products within 100 yards of educational institutions. This strategy is best described as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regulatory approach", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Service approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Primary Health care approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health education approach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Regulatory approach", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Regulatory approach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Service approach : This approach involves providing services , such as counseling or treatment programs, to address a health issue.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Service approach</li><li>• providing services</li><li>• Option C. Primary Health Care approach : This approach is centered on providing accessible and comprehensive health care services at the primary level.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Primary Health Care approach</li><li>• centered on providing accessible</li><li>• comprehensive health care services</li><li>• Option D. Health education approach : Health education focuses on educating the public about health matters to influence behaviors and decisions.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Health education approach</li><li>• educating the public</li><li>• health matters</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The prohibition of the sale of tobacco products within a specific distance from educational institutions is an example of a regulatory approach . This strategy uses laws or rules to restrict or limit certain behaviors, in this case, the sale of tobacco products near schools to prevent easy access for students.</li><li>➤ prohibition of the sale of tobacco products</li><li>➤ specific distance</li><li>➤ educational institutions</li><li>➤ example of a regulatory approach</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 954.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 954.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student, while on a community medicine rotation, is engaged in a discussion with a professor about the principles and significance of health education. They are examining various statements about health education to understand its core aspects. Among the following statements, which one is NOT true about health education?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knowledge and skills actively acquired.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Appeals to the reason.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The process is information centered.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Develops reflective behavior", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The process is information centered.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/03/screenshot-2024-08-03-120246.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. The process is information centered.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Knowledge and skills are actively acquired : This is true . Health education aims to actively engage individuals in the learning process, helping them acquire knowledge and skills that promote health.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Knowledge and skills are actively acquired</li><li>• true</li><li>• Option B. Appeals to the reason : This is accurate . Health education seeks to appeal to individuals' reasoning and understanding, encouraging them to make informed decisions about their health.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Appeals to the reason</li><li>• accurate</li><li>• Option D. Develops reflective behavior : This statement is true . One of the goals of health education is to develop reflective behavior, enabling individuals to contemplate and make informed decisions about their health practices.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Develops reflective behavior</li><li>• true</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 955 .</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 955</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a faculty development workshop, educators are engaged in a discussion about effective teaching methods. One of the topics is the \"chalk and talk\" method of teaching. This traditional method involves the teacher using a chalkboard (or whiteboard) to write notes or draw diagrams while verbally delivering the content. For this method to be most effective, the group of learners should ideally not exceed a certain number. What is the ideal maximum number of learners for the \"chalk and talk\" method to be most effective?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "50", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "75", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 30", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 30</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chalk and Talk (Lecture) - For effective communication, the group size should be &lt;30, talk duration &lt;15–20 minutes , can be combined with flip charts , flannelgraphs , exhibits , films , and charts . T he effectiveness of chalk-and-talk communication depends largely on the speaker’s ability to write legibly and draw with chalk on a blackboard . The talk should be based on a topic of current interest or the health needs of the group.</li><li>• Chalk and Talk (Lecture) -</li><li>• the group size should be &lt;30, talk duration</li><li>• &lt;15–20 minutes</li><li>• combined with flip charts</li><li>• flannelgraphs</li><li>• exhibits</li><li>• films</li><li>• charts</li><li>• effectiveness of chalk-and-talk communication</li><li>• largely</li><li>• speaker’s ability</li><li>• write legibly</li><li>• draw with chalk</li><li>• blackboard</li><li>• Advantages -</li><li>• Advantages -</li><li>• Most economical method Information transfer in a short time to a large group Less preparation and minimal resources</li><li>• Most economical method</li><li>• Information transfer in a short time to a large group</li><li>• Less preparation and minimal resources</li><li>• Disadvantages -</li><li>• Disadvantages -</li><li>• Learning is passive; it does not motivate Suitable only for small groups Students are involved to a minimal extent Do not stimulate thinking or problem-solving capacity Comprehension and retention varies with student The health behavior of listeners is not necessarily affected</li><li>• Learning is passive; it does not motivate</li><li>• Suitable only for small groups</li><li>• Students are involved to a minimal extent</li><li>• Do not stimulate thinking or problem-solving capacity</li><li>• Comprehension and retention varies with student</li><li>• The health behavior of listeners is not necessarily affected</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The \"chalk and talk \" method of teaching is most effective in smaller groups , ideally not exceeding 30 learners . This method , being somewhat unidirectional and less interactive , works best when the group size is limited . Smaller groups allow for better visibility of the chalkboard , clearer audio communication , and more opportunity for the educator to gauge learner understanding and provide individual attention.</li><li>➤ \"chalk and talk</li><li>➤ teaching</li><li>➤ most effective</li><li>➤ smaller groups</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ exceeding 30 learners</li><li>➤ method</li><li>➤ unidirectional</li><li>➤ less interactive</li><li>➤ works best</li><li>➤ group size is limited</li><li>➤ Smaller groups allow</li><li>➤ better visibility</li><li>➤ chalkboard</li><li>➤ clearer audio communication</li><li>➤ opportunity</li><li>➤ educator to gauge learner</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 956</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 956</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is addressing a severe issue in a village where there are frequent cases of acute diarrheal diseases among under-five children. Given the background of the mothers being mostly illiterate and belonging to a lower socioeconomic class, which method would likely be most effective in promoting the use of Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) for treating diarrhea?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Role playing", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Printed material", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mass media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lectures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Role playing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/27/32025.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Role playing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Roleplaying and Demonstration are the best methods to make the village people understand the use of ORS in the treatment of diarrhea .</li><li>• Roleplaying</li><li>• Demonstration</li><li>• best methods</li><li>• village people understand</li><li>• use of ORS</li><li>• treatment of diarrhea</li><li>• Ref : Park 26th ed</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26th ed</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health officer plans to promote exclusive breastfeeding among a large number of mothers visiting the Maternal and Child Health (MCH) center. To ensure effective health education, it is decided to conduct group discussions. What would be the most appropriate size for each discussion group to ensure active participation and effective communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3-5", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "4-6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6-12", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8-14", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 6-12", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 6-12</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For effective group discussion , the group should comprise not less than 6 and not more than 12 members . The participants are all seated in a circle, so that each is fully visible to all the others.</li><li>• For effective group discussion</li><li>• group</li><li>• comprise not less than 6</li><li>• not more than 12 members</li><li>• Advantages of Group Discussion:</li><li>• Advantages of Group Discussion:</li><li>• Effective method of health communication Permits learning by free exchange of ideas, knowledge, and opinions. Provides wider interaction among members. Valuable to long term compliance</li><li>• Effective method of health communication</li><li>• Permits learning by free exchange of ideas, knowledge, and opinions.</li><li>• Provides wider interaction among members.</li><li>• Valuable to long term compliance</li><li>• Disadvantages of Group Discussion:</li><li>• Disadvantages of Group Discussion:</li><li>• Unequal participation</li><li>• Unequal participation</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed 960</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed 960</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A national health committee is keen on reducing the prevalence of anemia among pregnant women and adolescent girls. In order to create an effective strategy, they decide to invite experts from across the country to collaboratively devise a plan after a thorough discussion. Which method best describes this approach?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Group discussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Symposium", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Panel discussion", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Workshop", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Panel discussion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Panel discussion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In Panel discussion , 4 to 8 people who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem, or the topic in front of a large group or audience . The panel comprises a chairman or moderator and 4 to 8 expert speakers .</li><li>• Panel discussion</li><li>• 4 to 8 people</li><li>• qualified to talk</li><li>• topic sit</li><li>• topic in front of a large group</li><li>• audience</li><li>• panel comprises</li><li>• chairman</li><li>• moderator</li><li>• 4 to 8 expert speakers</li><li>• If there is an arrangement for the audience to throw their questions at end , it will become panel discussion forum .</li><li>• arrangement for the audience</li><li>• throw their questions at end</li><li>• become panel discussion forum</li><li>• In panel discussion , there is no specific order of speaking , no specific agenda, and no set speeches.</li><li>• panel discussion</li><li>• no specific order of speaking</li><li>• Advantages –</li><li>• Advantages –</li><li>• Flexible, Spontaneous, and keeps the audience alert. If properly planned and guided, it can become the most effective method of health communication.</li><li>• Flexible, Spontaneous, and keeps the audience alert.</li><li>• If properly planned and guided, it can become the most effective method of health communication.</li><li>• Disadvantages –</li><li>• Disadvantages –</li><li>• It needs thorough planning and preparation in advance. Panelists need to be of sufficient experience. The audience is usually passive.</li><li>• It needs thorough planning and preparation in advance.</li><li>• Panelists need to be of sufficient experience.</li><li>• The audience is usually passive.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 961.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg. 961.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brings her child, who is suffering from diarrhea, to a Primary Health Care (PHC) center. The healthcare worker at the center decides to educate the mother on the use of Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) for treating diarrhea. Which method would likely be the most effective in teaching her about the preparation and administration of ORS?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lecture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Flash cards", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Role play", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Demonstration", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Demonstration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Demonstration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Lecture : While lectures can provide detailed information , they lack the practical , hands-on aspect that is crucial for teaching skills like preparing and administering ORS.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Lecture</li><li>• provide detailed information</li><li>• lack the practical</li><li>• hands-on aspect</li><li>• Option B. Flash cards : Flash cards could be a useful supplementary tool but may not be as effective as a demonstration for teaching a practical skill.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Flash cards</li><li>• useful supplementary tool</li><li>• Option C. Role play : Role play can be useful for practicing interpersonal skills or scenarios, but in this case, a demonstration would provide a more direct and practical method for teaching the preparation and use of ORS.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Role play</li><li>• useful for practicing interpersonal skills</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Demonstration is likely the most effective teaching method , it's a hands-on approach that allows the healthcare worker to visually and practically show the clear step-by-step process . Additionally, demonstration allows for immediate feedback and correction.</li><li>➤ Demonstration</li><li>➤ most effective teaching method</li><li>➤ hands-on approach</li><li>➤ healthcare worker</li><li>➤ visually and practically show</li><li>➤ clear step-by-step process</li><li>➤ The demonstration is mainly used in environmental sanitation , ORS technique , and control of diseases like scabies .</li><li>➤ demonstration</li><li>➤ environmental sanitation</li><li>➤ ORS technique</li><li>➤ control of diseases like scabies</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 960</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 960</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare professional is determining which approach to adopt to help patients reduce their tobacco consumption. He recalls that certain methods have proven generally more effective in achieving lasting behavior change. Which of the following methods is most effective in changing human behavior?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Counseling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Focus group discussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mass media", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "A series of lectures", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Counseling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Counseling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Focus group discussion : While useful for gathering insights and discussing issues in a group setting , focus group discussions are generally less effective for individual behavior change as they do not provide personalized support or tailored strategies.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Focus group discussion</li><li>• useful for gathering insights</li><li>• discussing issues</li><li>• group setting</li><li>• Option C. Mass media : Mass media campaigns can raise awareness and influence public attitudes , but they are less effective in producing individual behavior change due to their impersonal and non-targeted nature.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Mass media</li><li>• raise awareness</li><li>• influence public attitudes</li><li>• Option D. A series of lectures : Lectures can provide valuable information but are generally less effective in changing individual behavior . They lack the interactive and personalized aspects that are crucial for addressing individual challenges in behavior change.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• A series of lectures</li><li>• valuable information</li><li>• less effective</li><li>• changing individual behavior</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Counseling is face-to-face communication through which a person is helped to decide or solve a problem . It helps clients make informed decisions.</li><li>➤ Counseling</li><li>➤ face-to-face communication</li><li>➤ person is helped</li><li>➤ decide</li><li>➤ solve a problem</li><li>➤ Elements of Counselling: ( GATHER Approach )</li><li>➤ GATHER Approach</li><li>➤ G: Greet the clients (make them comfortable, give attention)</li><li>➤ A: Ask/ascertain needs/problems or reasons for coming</li><li>➤ T: Telling different methods/options/choices to solve the problem</li><li>➤ H: Help the client to make voluntary decisions</li><li>➤ E: Explain fully the chosen decision/action/method</li><li>➤ R: Return for a follow-up visit</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed, pg. 48.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed, pg. 48.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical professor is introducing first-year students to various instructional methods. Among the methods discussed, the Socratic method stands out for its emphasis on questioning and critical thinking. Which of the following is NOT typically an example of the Socratic method?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Demonstration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seminar", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lecture", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tutorial", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lecture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lecture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Demonstration , B . Seminar and D . Tutorial : Usually incorporate some elements of the Socratic method , as it involves questioning, engagement, discussion and interaction of the participants.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Demonstration</li><li>• B</li><li>• Seminar</li><li>• D</li><li>• Tutorial</li><li>• incorporate some elements</li><li>• Socratic method</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ One-way communication / Didactic Method - Ex - Lecture method (Chalk and talk method), Television, Radio, Newsprint</li><li>➤ One-way communication</li><li>➤ Didactic Method</li><li>➤ Two-way communication /Socratic Method - Ex - Focus Group Discussion (FGD), Symposium, Panel discussion</li><li>➤ Two-way communication</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 959.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 959.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health educator is conducting a session on the foundational principles of health education. After detailing various principles, she quizzes her students to test their understanding. Which of the following is NOT a principle of health education?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Consent", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Credibility", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Comprehension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Content", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Consent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Consent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Credibility : This is a core principle of health education , emphasizing that the information provided should be accurate, evidence-based, and trustworthy.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Credibility</li><li>• core principle of health education</li><li>• Option C. Comprehension : Ensuring that the audience understands the health information is a fundamental principle of health education. It involves tailoring the message to the audience’s level of understanding and learning style.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Comprehension</li><li>• audience understands</li><li>• health information</li><li>• Option D. Content : The relevance and accuracy of the content are essential in health education . It should be appropriate to the learner's needs and based on valid and current information.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Content</li><li>• relevance</li><li>• accuracy of the content</li><li>• essential in health education</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health Education : The process by which individuals and groups of people learn to behave in a manner conducive to the promotion , maintenance or restoration of health (John M. Last)</li><li>➤ Health Education</li><li>➤ process by which individuals</li><li>➤ groups of people learn</li><li>➤ behave in a manner conducive</li><li>➤ promotion</li><li>➤ maintenance</li><li>➤ restoration of health</li><li>➤ Principles of Health Education -</li><li>➤ Principles of Health Education</li><li>➤ Credibility Interest (Content) Participation Motivation Comprehension Reinforcement Learning by doing Known too unknown. Setting an example Good Human relations Feedback Leaders</li><li>➤ Credibility</li><li>➤ Interest (Content)</li><li>➤ Participation</li><li>➤ Motivation</li><li>➤ Comprehension</li><li>➤ Reinforcement</li><li>➤ Learning by doing</li><li>➤ Known too unknown.</li><li>➤ Setting an example</li><li>➤ Good Human relations</li><li>➤ Feedback</li><li>➤ Leaders</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 958.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 958.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A psychiatrist is discussing the treatment plan with a patient who has been dealing with depression. The patient reveals sensitive personal information during the conversation. Later, a trainee asks the psychiatrist about the details of the patient's life, curious about the case's background. Remembering the principles of medical ethics, the psychiatrist declines to provide specific details. The act of ensuring the patient's information remains private and protected aligns with which type of communication?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Focus group discussion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Counselling", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lecture", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mass communication", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Counselling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Counselling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Focus group discussion : While confidentiality is important in focus groups , these discussions are not typically centered around the privacy of individual patient information but rather focus on group dynamics and shared experiences.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Focus group discussion</li><li>• confidentiality</li><li>• focus groups</li><li>• discussions</li><li>• centered around the privacy</li><li>• individual patient</li><li>• Option C. Lecture : Lectures are a form of communication where information is provided , usually to a group , without the expectation of personal or sensitive information being shared by audience members.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Lecture</li><li>• form of communication</li><li>• information is provided</li><li>• group</li><li>• Option D. Mass communication : This involves disseminating information to a wide audience , typically not focused on individual privacy or the sharing of personal health information.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Mass communication</li><li>• disseminating information</li><li>• wide audience</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ensuring confidentiality is a fundamental component of counselling .</li><li>➤ Ensuring confidentiality</li><li>➤ fundamental component</li><li>➤ counselling</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed, pg. 48.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed, pg. 48.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In medical practice, the SPIKES Protocol is a well-known strategy. This protocol is often utilized in a specific context or situation within the healthcare setting. What is the SPIKES Protocol most commonly used for?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Informed consent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Counselling", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breaking the bad news", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Discharge Against Medical Advice", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Breaking the bad news", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Breaking the bad news.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Informed consent : While obtaining informed consent is a critical aspect of patient care , it is not the specific context in which the SPIKES Protocol is used.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Informed consent</li><li>• obtaining informed consent</li><li>• critical aspect</li><li>• patient care</li><li>• Option B. Counselling : Although elements of the SPIKES Protocol can be helpful in counseling , its primary purpose is not general counseling but specifically the delivery of bad news.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Counselling</li><li>• elements of the SPIKES Protocol</li><li>• helpful in counseling</li><li>• Option D. Discharge Against Medical Advice (DAMA): The SPIKES Protocol is not specifically designed for situations where a patient chooses to leave the hospital against medical advice.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Discharge Against Medical Advice</li><li>• SPIKES Protocol</li><li>• not</li><li>• designed for situations</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The SPIKES Protocol is designed to aid healthcare professionals in delivering bad news sensitively and effectively is crucial for patient care. This knowledge is essential for ensuring that difficult information is communicated in a way that is considerate of the patient’s emotional state and understanding , thereby maintaining a high standard of patient-centered care.</li><li>➤ SPIKES Protocol</li><li>➤ aid healthcare professionals</li><li>➤ delivering bad news sensitively</li><li>➤ effectively</li><li>➤ knowledge</li><li>➤ essential for ensuring</li><li>➤ difficult information</li><li>➤ communicated</li><li>➤ patient’s emotional state</li><li>➤ understanding</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 1153.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 1153.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health officer is organizing a series of health communication events to promote awareness about a new vaccination program in the community. She considers various methods like focused group discussions, panel discussions, symposiums, and workshops. As she plans, she recalls key characteristics of each method. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the different methods of Health Communication? 1. A Sociogram is made in a focused group discussion to promote or restrict people from participating in a discussion. 2. There are no set speeches or specific order of speeches in a Panel discussion. 3. Symposium is a series of lectures by experts in front of the audience, in a specific order. 4. A workshop is a series of meetings to impart training or skill to the participants. 5. In focused group discussion, there are 6-12 participants", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1, 2, 3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3, 4, 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1, 3, 4, 5", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/21/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 1. A Sociogram in a focused group discussion : Sociogram is a visual representation of the relationships within a group . In the context of a focused group discussion, it can be used to analyze and understand how participants interact, thereby guiding the facilitation of the discussion.</li><li>• A Sociogram in a focused group discussion</li><li>• visual representation</li><li>• relationships within a group</li><li>• Pic - Sociogram of a good group discussion</li><li>• 2. Panel discussion characteristics : Panel discussions typically involve a group of experts who discuss a topic in an informal setting . There are usually no set speeches, and the order of speaking can be flexible, encouraging a dynamic and interactive discussion.</li><li>• 2. Panel discussion characteristics</li><li>• group of experts</li><li>• discuss a topic</li><li>• informal setting</li><li>• 3. Symposium format : A symposium is indeed a series of lectures or presentations by experts on a specific topic , often following a specific order. Each expert presents their perspective or findings to the audience.</li><li>• 3. Symposium format</li><li>• series of lectures</li><li>• presentations by experts</li><li>• specific topic</li><li>• 4. Workshop format : Workshops are designed to be interactive sessions where participants are engaged in learning a specific skill or knowledge . They often involve a series of meetings or sessions focused on hands-on or practical training.</li><li>• 4. Workshop format</li><li>• interactive sessions</li><li>• participants are engaged</li><li>• specific skill</li><li>• knowledge</li><li>• 5. Size of a focused group discussion : A typical focused group discussion involves 6-12 participants . This size is considered optimal for encouraging active participation and discussion while allowing for manageable group dynamics.</li><li>• 5. Size of a focused group discussion</li><li>• typical focused group discussion</li><li>• 6-12 participants</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understanding the specific features and purposes of various health communication methods is crucial for effective planning and execution of health campaigns , like promoting a new vaccination program . This includes recognizing the use of sociograms in focused group discussions , the informal nature of panel discussions, the structured format of symposiums, the interactive and skill-focused nature of workshops, and 6-12 is the ideal participant size for focused group discussions.</li><li>➤ specific features</li><li>➤ purposes of various health communication methods</li><li>➤ effective planning</li><li>➤ execution of health campaigns</li><li>➤ promoting</li><li>➤ new vaccination program</li><li>➤ recognizing</li><li>➤ use of sociograms</li><li>➤ focused group</li><li>➤ discussions</li><li>➤ Ref - Park 27/e p992-993</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ - Park 27/e p992-993</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 32 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Health Management - 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This involves a meticulous process where he must supervise healthcare activities, ensure proper execution, and manages the daily operational aspect of the hospital. In order to enhance healthcare service delivery, what is Dr. Mehta primarily focusing on?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Management", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Planning", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Administration : Although closely related , administration typically refers more broadly to the process of organizing , policy making , decision making , and controlling the affairs of the hospital , not just the operational and service delivery aspects.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Administration</li><li>• closely related</li><li>• administration</li><li>• more broadly</li><li>• process of organizing</li><li>• policy making</li><li>• decision making</li><li>• controlling the affairs of the hospital</li><li>• Option C. Planning : Planning involves setting objectives and outlining strategies to achieve these goals , which is a part of management but not its sole focus.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Planning</li><li>• setting objectives</li><li>• outlining strategies</li><li>• achieve these goals</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Policy making, planning, and decision making are the basic components of administration.</li><li>➤ administration.</li><li>➤ Supervision, implementation, and operational aspects are considered components of management.</li><li>➤ management.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 316</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC textbook, Pg 316</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old manager, Mr. Sharma, is appointed to lead a new project team at a healthcare NGO in Mumbai. He believes that each member of his team should have a single supervisor and that the entire project should have a unified plan and objective to ensure smooth execution and avoid confusion. Mr. Sharma's management approach of unity of direction and unity of command is best represented by which of the following principles?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Planning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Organizing", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Staffing", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Directing", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Organizing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Organizing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation -</li><li>• Option A. Planning : Involves defining goals and outlining strategies to achieve them , but does not specifically address the structure of supervision and team alignment.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Planning</li><li>• defining goals</li><li>• outlining strategies</li><li>• achieve them</li><li>• Option C. Staffing : Pertains to the recruitment, training , and development of staff , and does not directly relate to the principles of unity of direction and command.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Staffing</li><li>• recruitment, training</li><li>• development of staff</li><li>• Option D. Directing : Involves leading and motivating employees to achieve organizational objectives , but is broader than the specific focus on team structure and unified objectives.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Directing</li><li>• leading and motivating employees</li><li>• achieve organizational objectives</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Organizing is key to establishing efficient operational structures in management , characterized by clear command lines and unified direction . The unity of direction ensures that all team members are working towards the same objectives , while the unity of command ensures that each team member has only one direct supervisor , thereby streamlining decision-making and reducing confusion. This principle is essential for establishing clear lines of authority and responsibilities within a team or organization</li><li>➤ Organizing</li><li>➤ efficient operational structures</li><li>➤ management</li><li>➤ clear command lines</li><li>➤ unified direction</li><li>➤ unity of direction</li><li>➤ all team members</li><li>➤ working</li><li>➤ same objectives</li><li>➤ unity of command</li><li>➤ team member</li><li>➤ one direct supervisor</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 316</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC textbook, Pg 316</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Raghav, a new hospital administrator at a tertiary care center in New Delhi, is attending a workshop on healthcare management. He learns about the importance of the \"Four M's\" in healthcare management, which are essential for the efficient running of a healthcare facility. As he revises his notes, he realizes one of the items he listed doesn't belong to the \"Four M's\" of healthcare management. Which of the following does NOT constitute the \"Four M’s\" requiring management in healthcare?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Manpower", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Material", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Moment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maintenance", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Maintenance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Maintenance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The \" Four M's \" of healthcare management traditionally refer to Manpower, Material, Money, and Moment (or sometimes Methods). These elements are considered fundamental for the efficient and effective operation of a healthcare facility .</li><li>• Four M's</li><li>• healthcare management</li><li>• Manpower, Material, Money, and Moment</li><li>• fundamental</li><li>• efficient</li><li>• effective operation</li><li>• healthcare facility</li><li>• Manpower refers to the human resources , Material to the supplies and equipment , Money to the financial resources , and Moment to the time management (or Methods to the technological and procedural aspects). Maintenance , while important in healthcare settings , is not typically classified as one of the core \"Four M's\" in healthcare management.</li><li>• Manpower</li><li>• human resources</li><li>• Material</li><li>• supplies and equipment</li><li>• Money</li><li>• financial resources</li><li>• Moment to the time management</li><li>• Maintenance</li><li>• healthcare settings</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The four M's are -</li><li>➤ The four M's are -</li><li>➤ Human resources management ( M anpower) M aterials Financial and economic management ( M oney) Time management ( M oments)</li><li>➤ Human resources management ( M anpower)</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ M aterials</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ Financial and economic management ( M oney)</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ Time management ( M oments)</li><li>➤ M</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 1003.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Text of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed. Pg 1003.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, a hospital administrator in a busy urban hospital in New Delhi, is tasked with implementing strategies to streamline patient flow and improve overall hospital efficiency. He has gathered a team to discuss potential strategies. They've listed various techniques, and while Dr. Sharma appreciates the team's enthusiasm, he wants to focus on quantitative methods. Which of the following techniques proposed by his team is NOT a quantitative method of management technique?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cost accounting", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Network analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Model", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Personnel management", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Personnel management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-092605.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Personnel management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cost accounting: This is a quantitative method that involves the measurement, analysis , and reporting of financial and non-financial information related to the costs of acquiring or using resources in an organization.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Cost accounting:</li><li>• quantitative method</li><li>• measurement, analysis</li><li>• reporting of financial</li><li>• non-financial information</li><li>• Option B. Network analysis: A quantitative technique used for planning, scheduling , and controlling projects . It involves using diagrams and paths to illustrate and analyze the progress of tasks.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Network analysis:</li><li>• quantitative technique</li><li>• planning, scheduling</li><li>• controlling projects</li><li>• Option C. Model : This encompasses creating a mathematical or simulation model of a system or process, which is a quantitative approach.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Model</li><li>• encompasses</li><li>• mathematical</li><li>• simulation model</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Patel, an economist working with a health policy think-tank in Mumbai, is given the task of evaluating a new health intervention program that aims to reduce the incidence of tuberculosis. The government wants to ensure that the money invested in the program will yield a positive impact in terms of both health outcomes and economic savings. To do this, Dr. Patel must assess both the costs associated with implementing the program and the economic benefits derived from it. Which of the following techniques will Dr. Patel use to compare the economic benefits of the program with its costs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Planning programming budgeting system", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Input output analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cost benefit analysis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cost effective analysis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cost benefit analysis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cost benefit analysis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Planning-Programming-Budgeting System (PPBS) is primarily a system to help decision makers to allocate resources so that the available resources of an organization are used in the most effective way in achieving its objectives.</li><li>• Option A. Planning-Programming-Budgeting System (PPBS)</li><li>• primarily</li><li>• system to help decision makers</li><li>• allocate resources</li><li>• Option B. Input- Output analysis: Input refers to all health service activities which consume resources (manpower, money, materials, and time); and output refers to such useful outcomes as cases treated , lives saved , or inoculations performed . An input output table shows how much of each “input” is needed to produce a unit amount of each “output”.</li><li>• Option B. Input- Output analysis:</li><li>• health service activities</li><li>• consume resources</li><li>• output</li><li>• useful outcomes</li><li>• cases treated</li><li>• lives saved</li><li>• inoculations performed</li><li>• Option D. Cost effective analysis: It is like cost-benefit analysis except that benefit , instead of being expressed in monetary terms is expressed in terms of results achieved , e.g., number of lives saved or the number of days free from disease. Cost-effectiveness analysis is easier to perform than Cost-benefit analysis</li><li>• Option D. Cost effective analysis:</li><li>• cost-benefit analysis</li><li>• benefit</li><li>• being expressed</li><li>• monetary terms</li><li>• terms of results achieved</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis is expressed as: –</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis</li><li>• Dollars per life years gained Dollars per case prevented Dollars per quality-adjusted life years gained</li><li>• Dollars per life years gained</li><li>• Dollars per life years gained</li><li>• Dollars per case prevented</li><li>• Dollars per case prevented</li><li>• Dollars per quality-adjusted life years gained</li><li>• Dollars per quality-adjusted life years gained</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Evaluation of efficiency :</li><li>• Evaluation of efficiency</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis: Both input as well as output is in monetary terms Cost-effectiveness analysis: Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis: Both input as well as output is in monetary terms</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis: Both input as well as output is in monetary terms</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis: Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis: Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rajan, recently appointed as the head of a busy outpatient department in a metropolitan hospital in Mumbai, is finding it challenging to manage the numerous responsibilities, tasks, and the team effectively. To streamline the operations and improve efficiency, he considers integrating various time management techniques into his daily routine. He's presented with a list of options but is unsure which one might not be a direct time management technique. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a direct time management technique?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Work Sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "PERT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "CPM", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Gantt Chart", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Work Sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921029.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/image_VnVgm3T.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-092605_Y4MFCk3.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Work Sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Option B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning, scheduling, and monitoring the project; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT):</li><li>• arrow diagram</li><li>• logical sequence</li><li>• events must take place</li><li>• Option C. Critical Path Method (CPM): The ‘ longest path’ of the network is called as critical path . If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Critical Path Method (CPM):</li><li>• longest path’</li><li>• network</li><li>• critical path</li><li>• Option D. Gantt Chart : Named after Henry Gantt is a type of bar chart that illustrates a work schedule (time relationship between events of the program). It breaks down an entire project into controllable pieces and carefully follows them.</li><li>• Option D. Gantt Chart</li><li>• Henry Gantt</li><li>• bar chart</li><li>• illustrates a work schedule</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old hospital administrator is discussing inventory management and hospital equipment during a training session for new staff. He emphasizes the importance of understanding the classification of different materials in the hospital for efficient management. As an example, he asks about the classification of hospital beds. Which of the following best classifies hospital beds in terms of hospital materials?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Immovable, non-expandable materials", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Movable, Non-Expandable materials.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expandable material for basic administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Expandable material of indirect health care", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Movable, Non-Expandable materials.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Movable, Non-Expandable materials.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Non-Expandable: Those materials which cannot be consumed.</li><li>• Non-Expandable: Those materials which cannot be consumed.</li><li>• Immovable/Fixed - e.g., Building Movable - Hospital beds, X-ray machines, etc</li><li>• Immovable/Fixed - e.g., Building</li><li>• Immovable/Fixed</li><li>• Movable - Hospital beds, X-ray machines, etc</li><li>• Movable</li><li>• Expandable- Materials which can be consumed.</li><li>• Expandable- Materials which can be consumed.</li><li>• Expandable material of direct patient or health care - e.g., Drugs, laboratory reagents, X ray films Expandable material of indirect health care or patient care - Food items consumed by patients in hospitals, fuels, etc. Expandable material for basic administration - Electricity, Water, office stationery, etc.</li><li>• Expandable material of direct patient or health care - e.g., Drugs, laboratory reagents, X ray films</li><li>• Expandable material</li><li>• direct patient</li><li>• health care</li><li>• Expandable material of indirect health care or patient care - Food items consumed by patients in hospitals, fuels, etc.</li><li>• Expandable material</li><li>• indirect health</li><li>• Expandable material for basic administration - Electricity, Water, office stationery, etc.</li><li>• Expandable material</li><li>• basic administration</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Inventory management - Science primarily about specifying the shape and placement of stocked goods. It is required at different locations within a facility or within many locations of a supply network to precede the regular and planned course of production and stock of materials . Right stock at right quantity, in right place, at right time, and at right cost. Minimize costs and minimize wastage</li><li>➤ Inventory management</li><li>➤ Science</li><li>➤ specifying the shape</li><li>➤ placement of stocked goods.</li><li>➤ different locations</li><li>➤ facility</li><li>➤ locations of a supply network</li><li>➤ precede the regular</li><li>➤ planned course</li><li>➤ production</li><li>➤ stock of materials</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old laboratory technician at a tertiary care hospital is responsible for maintaining inventory and ensuring all supplies are readily available for diagnostic procedures. She realizes that understanding the classification of different materials in the laboratory is crucial for efficient management. During an inventory check, she reviews the stock of laboratory reagents. Which of the following best classifies laboratory reagents in terms of laboratory materials?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Expandable material of indirect health care.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Expandable material of direct patient or health care.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Expandable material for basic administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Movable, non-expandable", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Expandable material of direct patient or health care.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Expandable material of direct patient or health care.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Laboratory reagents are best classified as 'Expandable material of direct patient or health care .' This classification indicates that the reagents are consumable items used directly in patient diagnosis and treatment processes.</li><li>• Laboratory reagents</li><li>• 'Expandable material of direct patient or health care</li><li>• reagents</li><li>• consumable items</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-Expandable: Those materials which cannot be consumed.</li><li>➤ Non-Expandable: Those materials which cannot be consumed.</li><li>➤ Immovable/Fixed - e.g., Building Movable- Hospital beds, X ray machines, etc</li><li>➤ Immovable/Fixed - e.g., Building</li><li>➤ Movable- Hospital beds, X ray machines, etc</li><li>➤ Expandable- Materials which can be consumed.</li><li>➤ Expandable- Materials which can be consumed.</li><li>➤ Expandable material of direct patient or health care - e.g., Drugs, laboratory reagents, X ray films Expandable material of indirect health care or patient care - Food items consumed by patients in hospitals, fuels, etc. Expandable material for basic administration - Electricity, Water, office stationery, etc</li><li>➤ Expandable material of direct patient or health care - e.g., Drugs, laboratory reagents, X ray films</li><li>➤ Expandable material of indirect health care or patient care - Food items consumed by patients in hospitals, fuels, etc.</li><li>➤ Expandable material for basic administration - Electricity, Water, office stationery, etc</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A project manager at a new healthcare facility is given the responsibility of setting up a new clinical laboratory within a span of six months. In order to manage the various tasks involved efficiently, he decides to employ a technique that breaks down the entire project into smaller, more manageable tasks and depicts them in relation to time. This method will help him visualize and plan the entire duration and sequences of tasks. Which of the following tools is he most likely considering to use for this purpose?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PERT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CPM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gantt Chart", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Budgeting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Gantt Chart", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/18/image_VscwmVN.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921029_XLm72xT.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Gantt Chart</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Option A. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) : An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place. It aids in planning , scheduling , and monitoring the project; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress reports.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Programme Evaluation and Review Technique</li><li>• :</li><li>• arrow diagram</li><li>• logical sequence</li><li>• aids in planning</li><li>• scheduling</li><li>• monitoring the project;</li><li>• Option B. Critical Path Method (CPM) - The ‘ longest path ’ of the network is called as critical path . If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.</li><li>• Option B. Critical Path Method</li><li>• -</li><li>• longest path</li><li>• network</li><li>• critical path</li><li>• Option D. Budgeting : This refers to the financial planning aspect of a project and does not provide a visual representation of tasks over time.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Budgeting</li><li>• financial planning</li><li>• project</li><li>• visual representation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Gantt Chart is an effective tool for visually planning and tracking the progress of projects by breaking them down into smaller tasks over a timeline . This contrasts with other tools like PERT and CPM, which are more analytical and complex, and budgeting, which is focused on financial aspects.</li><li>➤ Gantt Chart</li><li>➤ effective tool</li><li>➤ visually planning</li><li>➤ tracking the progress of projects</li><li>➤ breaking</li><li>➤ down into smaller tasks over a timeline</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1004</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1004</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A project manager in a tertiary care hospital is tasked with overseeing the construction of a new wing dedicated to pediatric care. Recognizing the complexity and the need for timely completion, the manager wants to utilize a project management tool that can analyze and sequence tasks in the project, especially when the exact time needed for each task is uncertain. As the manager lists down various components of this tool, one of the elements seems out of place. Which of the following is NOT typically an element of PERT ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Activity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Node", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Network", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Accounts", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Accounts", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/21/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Accounts</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Activity : Represented by arrow is a task or an item of work to be done that consumes resources and efforts.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Activity</li><li>• Represented</li><li>• arrow</li><li>• task or an item of work</li><li>• Option B. Node : The specific point in time at which the activity begins or ends</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Node</li><li>• specific point</li><li>• time</li><li>• activity begins or ends</li><li>• Option C. Network : Graphic representation of project operations and is composed of activities and node .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Network</li><li>• Graphic representation</li><li>• project operations</li><li>• activities and node</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning , scheduling , and monitoring the project ; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely , updated progress reports .</li><li>• Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT):</li><li>• arrow diagram</li><li>• logical sequence</li><li>• events must take place</li><li>• planning</li><li>• scheduling</li><li>• monitoring the project</li><li>• better communication between various levels</li><li>• helps furnish timely</li><li>• Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Patel is managing a complex healthcare facility expansion project. He's using the Critical Path Method (CPM) to ensure that the project stays on track and is completed efficiently. While discussing the CPM with his team, he mentions the concept of the \"critical path.\" Which of the following best describes the \"critical path\" in the context of the Critical Path Method (CPM)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Longest time-consuming path", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shortest Time-consuming path", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Most Congested path", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Most Expensive path", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Longest time-consuming path", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921029_wqjPIKQ.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Longest time-consuming path</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Critical path is the longest time-consuming path . Activities falling in this path are called as critical paths , as any delay in those activities will delay the entire project .</li><li>• Critical path</li><li>• longest time-consuming path</li><li>• Activities falling</li><li>• path</li><li>• critical paths</li><li>• delay</li><li>• activities</li><li>• delay the entire project</li><li>• For Example: In below diagram, critical path is 4 days.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Critical Path Method (CPM): The ‘ longest path’ of the network</li><li>➤ Critical Path Method</li><li>➤ longest path’</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Patel, a healthcare administrator, is always looking for ways to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of his hospital's operations. He's aware of the \"80:20 principle\" and its potential applications in healthcare management. In which of the following healthcare management techniques is the \"80:20 principle\" commonly applied to identify critical factors and prioritize resources?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PERT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "CPM", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Management by Objectives", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Operational research", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Management by Objectives", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921029_AgVEPyb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Management by Objectives</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning, scheduling, and monitoring the project; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress reports .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT):</li><li>• arrow diagram</li><li>• logical sequence</li><li>• events must take place</li><li>• Option B. Critical Path Method (CPM): The ‘longest path’ of the network is called as critical path . If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Critical Path Method (CPM):</li><li>• ‘longest path’</li><li>• network</li><li>• critical path</li><li>• Option D. Operational Research (OR): OR is an analytical method of problem-solving and decision-making that is useful in the management of organizations . In operations research, problems are broken down into basic components and then solved in defined steps by mathematical analysis.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Operational Research (OR):</li><li>• analytical method</li><li>• problem-solving</li><li>• decision-making</li><li>• useful</li><li>• management of organizations</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management by objectives (MBO) refers to the process of setting specific objectives for your employees to work towards . This has become a key part of performance management in recent decades . The following four major components of the MBO process are believed to contribute to its effectiveness: (1) setting specific goals ; (2) setting realistic and acceptable goals ; (3) joint participation in goal setting , planning , and controlling ; and (4) feedback</li><li>➤ Management by objectives</li><li>➤ process of setting specific objectives</li><li>➤ employees to work towards</li><li>➤ key part of performance management</li><li>➤ decades</li><li>➤ setting specific goals</li><li>➤ setting realistic and acceptable goals</li><li>➤ joint participation in goal setting</li><li>➤ planning</li><li>➤ controlling</li><li>➤ feedback</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1005</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, a healthcare administrator at a large hospital, is focused on improving facility management. He's considering VED analysis and FSN analysis. In what context are VED analysis and FSN analysis commonly used in healthcare management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human resource management", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Materials Management", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Time Management", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Finance management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Materials Management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Materials Management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Human Resource Management : This area focuses on managing the workforce , not inventory.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Human Resource Management</li><li>• area focuses</li><li>• managing the workforce</li><li>• Option C. Time Management : Concerns the efficient allocation and use of time , not materials.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Time Management</li><li>• efficient allocation</li><li>• use of time</li><li>• Option D. Finance Management: This involves budgeting, investment, and cost control</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Finance Management:</li><li>• budgeting, investment, and cost control</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ VED : Based on criticality and importance of consumables, items are classified as Vital (V), Essential (E) and Desirable (D). HML : Items are classified based on the cost of individual item as High cost (H), Medium cost (M) and Low cost (L). SDE system is based on the ease of availability of items and items are classified as Scarce (S), Difficult to obtain (D) and Easy to obtain (E). GOLF system is based on the source of supply &amp; include Governmental sources (G), Ordinary (O), Local (L) and Foreign (F). FSN : Items are classified based on the rate of issue from the stores into Fast- moving (F), Slow moving (S) and Non-moving (N) items. SOS is the classification of items based on Seasonal (S) and Off-seasonal (OS) availability. ABC: Inventory control based on annual total cost of items and not on unit cost of an item.</li><li>➤ VED : Based on criticality and importance of consumables, items are classified as Vital (V), Essential (E) and Desirable (D).</li><li>➤ VED</li><li>➤ criticality</li><li>➤ importance of consumables, items</li><li>➤ Vital</li><li>➤ Essential</li><li>➤ Desirable</li><li>➤ HML : Items are classified based on the cost of individual item as High cost (H), Medium cost (M) and Low cost (L).</li><li>➤ HML</li><li>➤ Items</li><li>➤ cost of individual item as High cost</li><li>➤ Medium cost</li><li>➤ Low cost</li><li>➤ SDE system is based on the ease of availability of items and items are classified as Scarce (S), Difficult to obtain (D) and Easy to obtain (E).</li><li>➤ SDE system</li><li>➤ ease of availability</li><li>➤ items</li><li>➤ Scarce</li><li>➤ Difficult to obtain</li><li>➤ Easy to obtain</li><li>➤ GOLF system is based on the source of supply &amp; include Governmental sources (G), Ordinary (O), Local (L) and Foreign (F).</li><li>➤ GOLF system</li><li>➤ source of supply</li><li>➤ Governmental sources</li><li>➤ Ordinary</li><li>➤ Local</li><li>➤ Foreign</li><li>➤ FSN : Items are classified based on the rate of issue from the stores into Fast- moving (F), Slow moving (S) and Non-moving (N) items.</li><li>➤ FSN</li><li>➤ Fast- moving</li><li>➤ Slow moving</li><li>➤ Non-moving</li><li>➤ SOS is the classification of items based on Seasonal (S) and Off-seasonal (OS) availability.</li><li>➤ SOS</li><li>➤ Seasonal</li><li>➤ Off-seasonal</li><li>➤ ABC: Inventory control based on annual total cost of items and not on unit cost of an item.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1003</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sudhir, a healthcare quality improvement officer, is leading a team to set objectives for improving patient care at a hospital in New Delhi. He emphasizes the importance of setting SMART objectives to ensure that the goals are well-defined and achievable. Which of the following statements about SMART objectives is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "S- Sensitive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "M- Measurable", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "A- Acceptable", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "R- Realistic", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. S- Sensitive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. S- Sensitive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Measurable: Correct . Objectives should be quantifiable or able to be measured to track progress.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Measurable:</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option C. Acceptable: Correct . While 'Acceptable' is correct, it also stands for 'Achievable' or 'Attainable,' meaning the objective should be realistically attainable given available resources.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Acceptable: Correct</li><li>• Option D. Realistic: Correct . Objective should be realistic and relevant to the mission.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Realistic: Correct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SMART objective -</li><li>➤ SMART objective</li><li>➤ S-Specific</li><li>➤ M-Measurable</li><li>➤ A-Acceptable</li><li>➤ R-Realistic</li><li>➤ T-Time bound.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1007</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1007</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Gupta, the Chief Medical Officer at a large hospital in Mumbai, is exploring different management approaches to enhance the hospital's performance and improve patient care. He's particularly interested in Management by Objectives (MBO) and its potential benefits. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Management by Objectives (MBO)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The manager focusses on the Activity.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The manager focusses on all areas of action.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The manager focusses on the results.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "The Manager focusses on the Goal.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. The manager focusses on the results.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. The manager focusses on the results.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• MBO is a managerial approach which uses objectives as a focal point to improve managerial performance &amp; effectiveness at individual and organizational levels .</li><li>• MBO</li><li>• managerial approach</li><li>• objectives</li><li>• focal point</li><li>• improve managerial performance</li><li>• effectiveness</li><li>• individual</li><li>• organizational levels</li><li>• The important feature of MBO is the emphasis is on results (objectives) rather than on activities &amp; processes , On outputs and not on inputs.</li><li>• important feature</li><li>• MBO</li><li>• emphasis</li><li>• activities</li><li>• processes</li><li>• On outputs</li><li>• Management by Objectives (MBO) is a management approach that emphasizes collaboration and participation . In MBO, employees at different levels are encouraged to be actively involved in setting their own objectives and performance goals, which are aligned with the overall objectives of the organization. This participatory approach is a key feature of MBO, promoting employee engagement and motivation.</li><li>• Management by Objectives</li><li>• management approach</li><li>• emphasizes collaboration</li><li>• participation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Management by Objectives (MBO) is a strategic management model that aims to improve organizational performance by clearly defining objectives that are agreed upon by both management and employees . The key feature of MBO is its focus on the results rather than just the processes or activities. This approach involves setting clear, measurable goals, and then monitoring the execution and outcomes, thus aligning individual objectives with organizational goals.</li><li>➤ Management by Objectives</li><li>➤ strategic management model</li><li>➤ improve organizational performance</li><li>➤ clearly defining objectives</li><li>➤ agreed upon</li><li>➤ both management</li><li>➤ employees</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1007</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1007</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Singh is tasked with managing a public health program that aims to reduce the prevalence of a particular infectious disease in a rural region of India. To ensure effective resource allocation and budgeting, Dr. Singh needs to gather essential information about the program's cost structure. Which source typically provides the fundamental data on the cost structure of a public health program like the one Dr. Singh is managing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Input Output Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cost Accounting", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Systems Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Model", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cost Accounting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cost Accounting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Input-Output Analysis: An economic technique which enables calculations to be made of the effects of changing the inputs.</li><li>• Option A. Input-Output Analysis:</li><li>• economic technique</li><li>• enables calculations</li><li>• Option C. Systems Analysis: Is a management technique of finding out the cost-effectiveness of the available alternatives .</li><li>• Option C. Systems Analysis:</li><li>• management technique</li><li>• finding out the cost-effectiveness</li><li>• Option D. Model: The model is a basic concept of management science . It is an aid to understand how the factors in a situation affect one another. It is an abstraction of reality, not reality itself. The decision process includes the use of a model .</li><li>• Option D. Model:</li><li>• basic concept</li><li>• management science</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Cost accounting is the most likely source to provide fundamental data on the cost structure of a public health program . It involves the process of recording , classifying , analyzing , summarizing , and allocating various costs associated with a project, and then developing actionable information to control and optimize costs.</li><li>• Cost accounting</li><li>• likely source</li><li>• fundamental data</li><li>• cost structure</li><li>• public health program</li><li>• process of recording</li><li>• classifying</li><li>• analyzing</li><li>• summarizing</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg. 967</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Mehta, a 42-year-old surgeon from Delhi, is entrusted with the responsibility of coordinating a large-scale medical camp that aims to provide free surgeries to underserved populations. Given the scale and complexity of the project, Dr. Mehta decides to use certain management tools to ensure that the medical camp runs smoothly. While reviewing different project management techniques with his team, they discuss the specifics of PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique). One of his junior associates makes a statement about PERT. Which of the following assertions regarding PERT is NOT accurate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It is quantitative method of management technique.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It represents the logical sequence in which events must takes place.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It is primarily a type of human resource management.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "It furnishes continuous, timely progress reports.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. It is primarily a type of human resource management.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. It is primarily a type of human resource management.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• PERT aids in planning, scheduling , and monitoring the project ; it allows better communication between the various levels of management ; it identifies potential problems ; it furnishes continuous , timely progress reports ; it forms a solid foundation upon which to build an evaluation and checking system. PERT is a component of network analysis. It is a type of quantitative management technique that helps in detailed planning and comprehensive supervision.</li><li>• PERT aids</li><li>• planning, scheduling</li><li>• monitoring the project</li><li>• allows better communication</li><li>• various levels of management</li><li>• potential problems</li><li>• furnishes continuous</li><li>• timely progress reports</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning , scheduling , and monitoring the project ; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress reports. The longest path in network analysis (PERT) is the Critical path</li><li>➤ Programme Evaluation</li><li>➤ Review Technique</li><li>➤ arrow diagram</li><li>➤ logical sequence</li><li>➤ events must take place</li><li>➤ aids in planning</li><li>➤ scheduling</li><li>➤ monitoring the project</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 968</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 968</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rathi, a 40-year-old RCH officer in Jaipur, is concerned about optimizing the efficiency of local health programs. In a particular community health center, she wants to understand how Female Health Assistants allocate their time throughout the day to ensure maximum effectiveness in patient care and education. Instead of observing them continuously, she chooses to monitor their activities at unpredictable moments during their shifts. In discussing this strategy with a fellow officer, she mentions the name of this specific observational method. Which of the following best describes the method Dr. Rathi has chosen?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Network Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Input Output Analysis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Work sampling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Queuing theory", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Work sampling", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Work sampling</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Network Analysis: Is the graphic plan of all events and activities to be completed in order to reach an end objective.</li><li>• Option A. Network Analysis:</li><li>• graphic plan</li><li>• all events</li><li>• activities</li><li>• Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning, scheduling, and monitoring the project; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress reports. Critical Path Method (CPM): The ‘longest path’ of the network is called as critical path. If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.</li><li>• Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT): An arrow diagram representing the logical sequence in which events must take place . It aids in planning, scheduling, and monitoring the project; allows better communication between various levels and helps furnish timely, updated progress reports.</li><li>• Program Evaluation and Review Technique</li><li>• arrow diagram</li><li>• logical sequence</li><li>• events must take place</li><li>• Critical Path Method (CPM): The ‘longest path’ of the network is called as critical path. If any activity along the critical path is delayed, the entire project will be delayed.</li><li>• Option B. Input-Output Analysis: An economic technique which enables calculations to be made of the effects of changing the inputs</li><li>• Option B. Input-Output Analysis:</li><li>• economic technique</li><li>• enables calculations</li><li>• made of the effects</li><li>• changing the inputs</li><li>• Option D. Queuing theory: Queuing theory is also called the waiting line theory and is applicable to situations where ‘ customers arrive at some service stations for some service’ then wait, and then leave the stations.</li><li>• Option D. Queuing theory:</li><li>• waiting line theory</li><li>• applicable to situations</li><li>• customers arrive at some service stations for some service’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Work sampling is a systematic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals , carried out at predetermined or random intervals . It provides quantitative measurement of the various activities . The major parameters that are analysed are the type of activities performed and the time needed to do specified jobs . Work sampling permits judgments to the appropriateness of current staff, job description and training. It helps in standardizing the methods of performing jobs and determining the manpower needs in any organization.</li><li>➤ Work sampling</li><li>➤ systematic observation</li><li>➤ recording of activities</li><li>➤ one or more individuals</li><li>➤ predetermined or random intervals</li><li>➤ quantitative measurement</li><li>➤ various activities</li><li>➤ major parameters</li><li>➤ analysed</li><li>➤ type of activities</li><li>➤ time needed</li><li>➤ specified jobs</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 968</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 968</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, a 45-year-old head of the department in a major hospital in Bangalore, is preparing for the upcoming fiscal year. The hospital administration has decided to adopt a new approach for the budgeting process this year. Instead of making adjustments to the previous year's budget, each department head, including Dr. Kapoor, is asked to build their budget from the ground up, detailing and justifying every expenditure, regardless of whether it was previously approved or not. Dr. Kapoor discusses this novel approach with a colleague, mentioning its specific name. Which of the following best describes the budgeting method the hospital administration has chosen?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Planning Programming budgeting system", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Zero Budget approach", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Incremental approach of budgeting", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cost Accounting", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Zero Budget approach", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Zero Budget approach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Planning Programming Budgeting System (PPBS): It helps decision makers to allocate resources to help achieve objectives in the most efficient way.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Planning Programming Budgeting System</li><li>• decision makers</li><li>• allocate resources</li><li>• help achieve objectives</li><li>• Option C. Incremental Approach of Budgeting : This approach builds on the previous year's budget , making incremental changes , which is the opposite of the zero-budget approach.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Incremental Approach of Budgeting</li><li>• approach builds</li><li>• previous year's budget</li><li>• incremental changes</li><li>• Option D. Cost Accounting : A quantitative management technique which provides basic data on the cost structure of any program.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Cost Accounting</li><li>• quantitative management technique</li><li>• basic data</li><li>• cost structure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Zero Budget Approach - all budgets start at zero and no one gets any budget that he cannot specifically justify on a year-to-year basis.</li><li>➤ Zero Budget Approach</li><li>➤ all budgets start at zero</li><li>➤ no one gets any budget</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 969</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 969</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Verma, a 50-year-old director of a large multi-specialty hospital in Hyderabad, is contemplating a restructuring of the hospital's management hierarchy. He believes that by increasing the number of subordinates each manager oversees, there might be an opportunity for more streamlined communication and potential cost savings. However, he is also aware that this approach may have certain implications. During a meeting, he discusses the consequences of adopting a wider span of control with his administrative team. Which of the following is a potential result of implementing a wider span of control in the organization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lesser levels of management", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wider levels of management", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Independent of each other", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Lesser levels of management", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/06/screenshot-2024-02-06-122530.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Lesser levels of management</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A wider span of control (generally found in highly technical organization with highly motivated subordinates) will result in lesser ‘levels of management’ than a narrow span of control (where one subordinate is controlled only by one superior). This can potentially streamline communication and decision-making processes and reduce management-related costs . However, it may also increase the workload and complexity of management roles due to the larger number of direct reports .</li><li>• wider span of control</li><li>• lesser ‘levels of management’</li><li>• narrow span of control</li><li>• potentially streamline communication</li><li>• decision-making processes</li><li>• reduce management-related costs</li><li>• increase the workload</li><li>• complexity of management roles</li><li>• larger number</li><li>• direct reports</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A ‘ flat organization’ (with lesser levels of management) has faster flow of information and greater satisfaction levels for individual subordinates . A wide span of control makes the structure flat. On the contrary, a narrow span of control makes the structure Tall.</li><li>➤ flat organization’</li><li>➤ faster flow of information</li><li>➤ greater satisfaction levels</li><li>➤ individual subordinates</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, Pg 319</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC textbook, Pg 319</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sindhu, the CEO of a prominent healthcare group, is leading a meeting to discuss the different levels of management within the organization and their respective roles. During the discussion, he mentions a specific level of management that is known for its focus on long-term planning and decision-making. Which level of management is commonly referred to as \"strategic management\"?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Top level", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Middle level", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lower level", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Middle level", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Middle Level</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Top level - Corporate management - They are involved with setting goals , finance , framing policy and strategy .</li><li>• Top level</li><li>• Corporate management</li><li>• setting goals</li><li>• finance</li><li>• framing policy and strategy</li><li>• Middle level - Strategic management - They are concerned with implementation , direction , control , monitoring and evaluation .</li><li>• Middle level</li><li>• Strategic management</li><li>• concerned with implementation</li><li>• direction</li><li>• control</li><li>• monitoring</li><li>• evaluation</li><li>• Lower level or first level - Supervisors - Supervise day to day execution of the activities for the intended goals .</li><li>• Lower level or first level</li><li>• Supervisors</li><li>• Supervise day to day execution</li><li>• activities</li><li>• intended goals</li><li>• Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1st edition, pg 969</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : IAPSM textbook, 1st edition, pg 969</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 31 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Health Planning - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 28</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 28 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Dr. Rajan, a 47-year-old public health administrator in Mumbai, is attending a workshop on strategic planning for healthcare institutions. The presenter lists several reasons why planning is essential for healthcare facilities. However, during a breakout session, a colleague of Dr. Rajan mentioned another reason, which seems unrelated to the primary purpose of planning in healthcare. Dr. Rajan is prompted to reconsider the authenticity of that reason.Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose of planning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Match the limited resources with many problems.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "To manage the funds efficiently.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Develop action plan to achieve the objectives.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "To reduce government’s expenditure on Health.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. To reduce government’s expenditure on Health.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. To reduce government’s expenditure on Health.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Matching limited resources with many problems : This is a primary purpose of planning, as it involves allocating resources effectively to meet the diverse and numerous health challenges faced by the hospital.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Matching limited resources with</li><li>• many problems</li><li>• primary</li><li>• allocating resources effectively</li><li>• diverse and numerous health challenges</li><li>• hospital.</li><li>• Option B. Managing the funds efficiently : Efficient management of funds is a crucial aspect of planning, ensuring that available resources are used judiciously to maximize healthcare delivery outcomes .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Managing the funds efficiently</li><li>• planning, ensuring</li><li>• available</li><li>• resources</li><li>• judiciously</li><li>• maximize healthcare delivery outcomes</li><li>• Option C. Developing an action plan to achieve objectives : This is central to strategic planning , as it involves setting clear objectives and designing steps to achieve them, thereby improving healthcare services .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Developing an action plan to achieve objectives</li><li>• central to strategic planning</li><li>• clear objectives and designing steps</li><li>• improving healthcare services</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ This is not a primary purpose . Planning aims for optimal resource utilization , quality care , and achieving health outcomes, not just cost-cutting . The purpose of planning is -</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ primary purpose</li><li>➤ aims</li><li>➤ utilization</li><li>➤ quality care</li><li>➤ achieving health outcomes,</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ cost-cutting</li><li>➤ To match the limited resources with many problems. To eliminate wasteful expenditure or duplication of expenditure. To develop the best course of action to accomplish a defined objective .</li><li>➤ To match the limited resources with many problems.</li><li>➤ match</li><li>➤ limited</li><li>➤ many problems.</li><li>➤ To eliminate wasteful expenditure or duplication of expenditure.</li><li>➤ eliminate wasteful expenditure</li><li>➤ duplication</li><li>➤ expenditure.</li><li>➤ To develop the best course of action to accomplish a defined objective .</li><li>➤ best course</li><li>➤ accomplish</li><li>➤ defined objective</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 964.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 964.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ayesha, a 38-year-old health officer in Chennai, is working on a new initiative to improve maternal health in her district. During a team meeting, she emphasizes the importance of setting a definitive point that they aim to reach within a specific time frame to measure the project's success. She uses a particular term to describe this definitive point, which acts as a tangible and measurable milestone for the team.Which of the following terms best describes the definitive point that Dr. Ayesha is referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Goal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Objectives", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Target", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vision", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Objectives", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Objectives</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Goal : Is a broad, general, intangible , and abstract aspiration . It doesn't necessarily have a time-bound aspect or specificity.</li><li>• Option A. Goal</li><li>• broad, general, intangible</li><li>• abstract aspiration</li><li>• doesn't</li><li>• time-bound</li><li>• specificity.</li><li>• Option C. Target: Target often refers to a discrete activity , it permits the concept of degree of achievement . Targets are thus concerned with the factors involved in a problem, whereas objectives are concerned directly with the problem itself.</li><li>• Option C. Target:</li><li>• discrete activity</li><li>• degree of achievement</li><li>• concerned</li><li>• factors</li><li>• problem,</li><li>• objectives</li><li>• concerned directly</li><li>• problem itself.</li><li>• Option D. Vision : Vision is an aspirational description of what an organization or initiative would like to achieve or accomplish in the mid-term or long-term future . It is broader and less time-specific than a target.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Vision</li><li>• aspirational description</li><li>• organization</li><li>• achieve</li><li>• accomplish</li><li>• mid-term</li><li>• long-term future</li><li>• broader</li><li>• less time-specific</li><li>• target.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Objective: Is the planned endpoint of all activities.</li><li>➤ Objective:</li><li>➤ endpoint</li><li>➤ all activities.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 964</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 964</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Malini, a 40-year-old community health officer in a rural area of Maharashtra, is reviewing a health initiative for the women in her district. She encounters a statement that outlines a specific aim concerning the health and well-being of pregnant women. The statement provides clear direction on what the health department wants to achieve for this population. While discussing this with her colleagues, they ponder on the precise nature of the statement in the context of project planning.The statement, “To improve the nutritional status of pregnant women and reduce the prevalence of anemia in pregnant women,” is best described as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mission", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Goal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Target", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Goal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Goal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A . Mission : Missions typically describe the fundamental purpose of an organization or project, answering the question of why it exists . They are broader than a specific goal and often encompass the overall approach or strategy of an organization.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Mission</li><li>• fundamental purpose</li><li>• organization</li><li>• project,</li><li>• answering the question</li><li>• exists</li><li>• broader</li><li>• specific goal</li><li>• encompass</li><li>• approach or strategy</li><li>• Option B. Vision : Visions are broader, aspirational descriptions of an organization's desired future . They provide long-term direction but are not specific or measurable .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Vision</li><li>• broader, aspirational descriptions</li><li>• organization's desired future</li><li>• long-term direction</li><li>• not specific or measurable</li><li>• Option D. Target: Targets are specific measurable outcomes or results with a clear time aspect . For instance, \" reduce the prevalence of anemia in pregnant women by 20% in the next two years \" would be a target.</li><li>• Option D. Target:</li><li>• specific measurable</li><li>• results</li><li>• clear time</li><li>• aspect</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• anemia</li><li>• pregnant women</li><li>• 20%</li><li>• next two years</li><li>• target.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Goal: Ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources are directed , not constrained by time or existing resources and not necessarily attainable.</li><li>➤ Goal:</li><li>➤ desired</li><li>➤ objectives and resources</li><li>➤ directed</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ constrained</li><li>➤ time or existing resources</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ attainable.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 964</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 964</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Suresh, a 45-year-old health program director in Kerala, is explaining the upcoming health initiative to his team. He emphasizes the importance of a step-by-step approach, which has been meticulously outlined to ensure that they adhere to the health department's guidelines and achieve their set milestones within the specified timeline. One of the younger team members, Dr. Anjali, is not familiar with the technical term for this step-by-step approach.Which of the following best describes the sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives within the scheduled time as mentioned by Dr. Suresh?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plan", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Target", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Program", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schedule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Program", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Program</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Plan : A plan outlines how goals will be met, including what actions need to be taken and when . It provides the framework but might not include the structured sequence of activities .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Plan</li><li>• outlines</li><li>• goals</li><li>• met, including</li><li>• actions</li><li>• taken and when</li><li>• framework</li><li>• not</li><li>• structured sequence</li><li>• activities</li><li>• Option B. Target : A target is a specific , measurable outcome or result with a clear time aspect.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Target</li><li>• specific</li><li>• measurable outcome</li><li>• result</li><li>• clear</li><li>• aspect.</li><li>• Option D. Schedule: A schedule is a detailed plan for carrying out activities or processes and includes dates and times . While it relates to the timing of activities , it doesn't necessarily encompass the broader policies and objectives that a program would.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Schedule:</li><li>• detailed plan</li><li>• carrying out activities</li><li>• dates and times</li><li>• relates</li><li>• timing of activities</li><li>• doesn't</li><li>• broader policies</li><li>• objectives</li><li>• a program would.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Program - Is the sequence of activities to achieve objectives .</li><li>➤ Program</li><li>➤ sequence</li><li>➤ activities</li><li>➤ achieve objectives</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 965</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : park 26 th pg. 965</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ayesha, a senior health official in a metropolitan city in India, is collaborating with local hospitals and clinics to improve patient care. In a team meeting, she presents a detailed outline highlighting the steps and strategies for enhancing healthcare delivery. Dr. Rajan, a young medical officer, is keen to understand the nature of this outline. Dr. Ayesha's blueprint which serves as a guide for action-taking, can best be described as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plan", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Target", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Program", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Schedule", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Plan", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Plan</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Target: A target is a specific, measurable outcome or result . It's what you aim for but doesn't detail the steps on how to get there.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Target:</li><li>• specific, measurable outcome</li><li>• result</li><li>• doesn't</li><li>• steps</li><li>• Option C. Program: A program refers to a sequence of activities or interventions designed to achieve specific objectives . While it can be seen as a structured plan .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Program:</li><li>• sequence of activities</li><li>• interventions designed</li><li>• specific objectives</li><li>• structured plan</li><li>• Option D. Schedule : A schedule details when certain activities or tasks will occur, often with specific dates and times.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Schedule</li><li>• certain activities</li><li>• tasks</li><li>• specific dates and times.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A 'Plan' in the context of healthcare management is a comprehensive outline that details the steps, strategies , and actions required to achieve specific goals . Plans are instrumental in organizing efforts and ensuring that all team members are aligned toward common objectives.</li><li>➤ 'Plan'</li><li>➤ healthcare</li><li>➤ comprehensive outline</li><li>➤ steps, strategies</li><li>➤ actions</li><li>➤ achieve specific goals</li><li>➤ instrumental</li><li>➤ organizing efforts and ensuring</li><li>➤ team members</li><li>➤ aligned</li><li>➤ common objectives.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th pg. 965</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : park 26 th pg. 965</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, a medical historian teaching at a reputed medical college in Delhi, is delivering a lecture on the evolution of healthcare policies in India. She poses a question to her students about the committees set up during the pre-independence era to assess the state of health in India.Which of the following committees was constituted during the pre-independence era?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health survey and development committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chadha committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Shrivastav committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Health survey and development committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Health survey and development committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Mudaliar Committee : Mudaliar Committee - 1962 - also known as Health Survey &amp; Planning Committee.</li><li>• Option B. Mudaliar Committee</li><li>• 1962</li><li>• Health Survey</li><li>• &amp; Planning Committee.</li><li>• Option C. Chadha Committee : Chadha Committee - 1963 - Constituted to study arrangements necessary for the ‘ Maintenance Phase of National Malaria Eradication Programm (NMEP), collection of vital statistics and family planning services .</li><li>• Option C. Chadha Committee</li><li>• 1963</li><li>• Maintenance Phase</li><li>• National Malaria Eradication Programm</li><li>• vital statistics</li><li>• family planning services</li><li>• Option D. Shrivastav committee: Shrivastav committee – ( 1974-1975) - was set up as \" Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower \" to determine steps needed to reorient medical education in accordance and to develop a curriculum for health assistants who were to function as a link between medical officers and MPWs.</li><li>• Option D. Shrivastav committee:</li><li>• 1974-1975)</li><li>• Group</li><li>• Medical Education</li><li>• Support Manpower</li><li>• reorient medical education</li><li>• curriculum</li><li>• health assistants</li><li>• link</li><li>• medical officers</li><li>• MPWs.</li><li>• Remember -</li><li>• Remember -</li><li>• Jungalwallah Committee - also known as the Committee on Integration of Health Services.</li><li>• Jungalwallah Committee</li><li>• Integration</li><li>• Health Services.</li><li>• Kartar Singh Committee - also known as Committee on MPWs under Health &amp; Family Planning.</li><li>• Kartar Singh Committee</li><li>• MPWs</li><li>• Health &amp; Family</li><li>• Planning.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommendations of Health survey and development committee (BHORE COMMITTEE 1946):</li><li>➤ Health survey</li><li>➤ development committee (BHORE COMMITTEE 1946):</li><li>➤ Short-term measure : 1 PHC per 40,000 population, 30 beds, 3 sub-centers , and 2 medical officers. Long-term measure ( 3 Million Plan): Primary health units with 75-bedded hospitals per 10,000-20,000 population; Secondary health units with 650-bedded hospitals ; Regional health units with 2,500 beds. Prepare ‘Social Physicians’ (3 months training in PSM in internship). School Health Comprehensive Health Care Concept</li><li>➤ Short-term measure : 1 PHC per 40,000 population, 30 beds, 3 sub-centers , and 2 medical officers.</li><li>➤ Short-term measure</li><li>➤ 1 PHC</li><li>➤ 40,000</li><li>➤ 30 beds, 3 sub-centers</li><li>➤ 2 medical officers.</li><li>➤ Long-term measure ( 3 Million Plan): Primary health units with 75-bedded hospitals per 10,000-20,000 population; Secondary health units with 650-bedded hospitals ; Regional health units with 2,500 beds.</li><li>➤ Long-term measure</li><li>➤ 3 Million</li><li>➤ Primary health units</li><li>➤ 75-bedded</li><li>➤ hospitals</li><li>➤ 10,000-20,000</li><li>➤ 650-bedded</li><li>➤ hospitals</li><li>➤ Regional health</li><li>➤ 2,500 beds.</li><li>➤ Prepare ‘Social Physicians’ (3 months training in PSM in internship).</li><li>➤ ‘Social Physicians’</li><li>➤ School Health</li><li>➤ Comprehensive Health Care Concept</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In line with the Bhore Committee's recommendations, what is the recommended population size that a Primary Health Center (PHC) should ideally serve to ensure effective healthcare accessibility within its designated area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20,000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40,000 population", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "25,000 population", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "30, 000 population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 40,000 population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 40,000 population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bhore committee recommendations ( Health survey and development committee , 1946 )</li><li>• Bhore committee</li><li>• Health survey and development committee</li><li>• 1946</li><li>• Integration of Preventive, Promotive and Curative services at all administrative levels . The development of Primary Health Centre’s for the delivery of comprehensive health services to the rural India . Each PHC should cater to a population of 40, 000 with a Secondary Health Centre (now called Community Health Centre ) to serve as a supervisory, coordinating and referral institution. In the long term ( 3 million plan), the PHC would have a 75 bedded hospital for a population of 10,000 to 20,000. It also reviewed the system of medical education and research and included compulsory 3 months training in Community Medicine . Prepare ‘ Social Physicians’ ( 3 months training in PSM in internship ). The committee proposed the development of National Programs of health services for the country.</li><li>• Integration of Preventive, Promotive and Curative services at all administrative levels .</li><li>• Integration of Preventive, Promotive and Curative services at all administrative levels .</li><li>• Preventive, Promotive</li><li>• Curative services</li><li>• all</li><li>• administrative levels</li><li>• The development of Primary Health Centre’s for the delivery of comprehensive health services to the rural India . Each PHC should cater to a population of 40, 000 with a Secondary Health Centre (now called Community Health Centre ) to serve as a supervisory, coordinating and referral institution.</li><li>• The development of Primary Health Centre’s for the delivery of comprehensive health services to the rural India . Each PHC should cater to a population of 40, 000 with a Secondary Health Centre (now called Community Health Centre ) to serve as a supervisory, coordinating and referral institution.</li><li>• Primary Health Centre’s</li><li>• delivery</li><li>• health services</li><li>• rural India</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• 40, 000</li><li>• Secondary Health Centre</li><li>• Community Health Centre</li><li>• supervisory, coordinating</li><li>• referral institution.</li><li>• In the long term ( 3 million plan), the PHC would have a 75 bedded hospital for a population of 10,000 to 20,000.</li><li>• In the long term ( 3 million plan), the PHC would have a 75 bedded hospital for a population of 10,000 to 20,000.</li><li>• long term</li><li>• 3 million</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• 75</li><li>• bedded</li><li>• population</li><li>• 10,000 to 20,000.</li><li>• It also reviewed the system of medical education and research and included compulsory 3 months training in Community Medicine . Prepare ‘ Social Physicians’ ( 3 months training in PSM in internship ).</li><li>• It also reviewed the system of medical education and research and included compulsory 3 months training in Community Medicine . Prepare ‘ Social Physicians’ ( 3 months training in PSM in internship ).</li><li>• reviewed</li><li>• medical education</li><li>• compulsory 3 months</li><li>• Community Medicine</li><li>• Social Physicians’</li><li>• 3 months</li><li>• PSM</li><li>• internship</li><li>• The committee proposed the development of National Programs of health services for the country.</li><li>• The committee proposed the development of National Programs of health services for the country.</li><li>• committee</li><li>• National Programs of health services</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bhore committee recommendation to improve primary health care - 1 PHC per 40,000 population , 30 beds , 3 sub-centers , and 2 medical officers.</li><li>➤ Bhore committee</li><li>➤ improve primary health care</li><li>➤ 1 PHC</li><li>➤ 40,000</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ 30 beds</li><li>➤ 3 sub-centers</li><li>➤ 2 medical officers.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Rajan, a medical educator at a prominent medical college in India, is discussing the evolution of medical education with his students. He emphasizes the significance of community medicine training during their internship. Dr. Rajan mentions a specific committee that played a pivotal role in mandating a 3-month training period in community medicine for MBBS students during their internship.Which committee was responsible for mandating the 3-month training in community medicine for MBBS students during their internship?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Srivastav Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bhore Committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jungalwalla Committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bhore Committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Bhore Committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mudalier Committee : Mudalier Committee - Also known as Health Survey and Planning Committee. Recommendations - 1 PHC per 40,000 population maximum; Constitution of All India Health Service , Strengthen district hospitals with specialist services ; Regional organizations in each state .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Mudalier Committee</li><li>• Health Survey and Planning Committee.</li><li>• 1 PHC</li><li>• 40,000</li><li>• population</li><li>• All India Health Service</li><li>• Strengthen district hospitals</li><li>• specialist services</li><li>• Regional organizations</li><li>• each state</li><li>• Option B. Shrivastava Committee: Shrivastava Committee - Also known as Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower . Recommendations - Create ‘ Bands of Para-professionals and Semi-professional health workers’ from within the community ; Establish 2 cadre of health workers - Villag e health guides and Health Assistants; Development of ‘ Referral Services Complex’ (between PHCs and higher level referral and services centers); Establishment of ‘ Medical and Health Education Commission’ ; Reorientation of Medical Education ’ ( ROME ) Scheme; Village Health Guide ( Community Health Worker ) Scheme.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Shrivastava Committee:</li><li>• Group</li><li>• Medical Education</li><li>• Support Manpower</li><li>• Bands of Para-professionals</li><li>• Semi-professional health workers’</li><li>• within</li><li>• community</li><li>• 2 cadre of health workers</li><li>• Villag</li><li>• health guides</li><li>• Health Assistants;</li><li>• Referral Services Complex’</li><li>• Establishment</li><li>• Medical and Health Education Commission’</li><li>• Reorientation</li><li>• Medical Education</li><li>• ROME</li><li>• Village Health Guide</li><li>• Community Health Worker</li><li>• Scheme.</li><li>• Option D. Jungalwalla Committee: Jungalwalla Committee - Also known as Committee on Integration of Health Services . Recommendations - Unified cadre , common seniority, recognition of extra qualifications, equal pay for equal work , special pay for specialized work , no private practice , and good service conditions.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Jungalwalla Committee:</li><li>• Committee</li><li>• Integration of Health Services</li><li>• Unified cadre</li><li>• seniority, recognition</li><li>• extra qualifications,</li><li>• equal pay</li><li>• equal work</li><li>• specialized work</li><li>• no private practice</li><li>• good service conditions.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Bhore Committee , established in pre-independent India in 1943 , played a significant role in shaping the landscape of medical education and public health in the country. One of its significant contributions was the recommendation for a 3-month training period in community medicine for MBBS students during their internship . This recommendation was aimed at equipping future medical professionals with the necessary skills and knowledge to address public health issues and to provide comprehensive healthcare services in community settings.</li><li>➤ Bhore Committee</li><li>➤ pre-independent</li><li>➤ 1943</li><li>➤ shaping</li><li>➤ landscape</li><li>➤ medical education</li><li>➤ public health</li><li>➤ recommendation</li><li>➤ 3-month training period</li><li>➤ community medicine</li><li>➤ MBBS students</li><li>➤ internship</li><li>➤ aimed</li><li>➤ equipping future medical professionals</li><li>➤ necessary skills and knowledge</li><li>➤ public health issues</li><li>➤ comprehensive healthcare services</li><li>➤ community settings.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, a renowned medical historian in India, is conducting a lecture on the evolution of healthcare policies in the country. He delves into the significant contributions of various committees in shaping healthcare. During the lecture, Dr. Kapoor brings up a crucial recommendation related to malaria control. Which committee in Indian healthcare history recommended the guideline of having one Basic Health Worker per 10,000 population for malaria-related activities?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chadha committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mukherji committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rural Health Scheme", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Chadha committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Chadha committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mudaliar committee : Also known as ‘ Health Survey and Planning Committee’ . Recommended 1 PHC per 40,000 population maximum and Constituted ‘All India Health Service'.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Mudaliar committee</li><li>• Health Survey and Planning Committee’</li><li>• 1 PHC</li><li>• 40,000 population</li><li>• Constituted ‘All India Health Service'.</li><li>• Option C. Mukherji committee : Recommendations are - Delink malaria activities from family planning , Separate staff for family planning program, Basic Health Service should be provided at block level .</li><li>• Option C. Mukherji committee</li><li>• Delink malaria</li><li>• family planning</li><li>• Separate staff</li><li>• family planning</li><li>• Basic Health Service</li><li>• block level</li><li>• Option D. Rural Health scheme : recommended by Srivastava Committee.</li><li>• Option D. Rural Health scheme</li><li>• Srivastava Committee.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chadha committee recommendation - 1 Basic Health Worker per 10,000 population (for malaria vigilance , collection of vital statistics and family planning )</li><li>➤ Chadha committee</li><li>➤ 1 Basic Health Worker</li><li>➤ 10,000 population</li><li>➤ malaria vigilance</li><li>➤ collection</li><li>➤ vital statistics</li><li>➤ family planning</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 1013</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Suresh, a passionate community health practitioner, is leading a seminar on the evolution of healthcare strategies. He emphasizes a pivotal moment when the concept of community participation in healthcare, placing people's health in their own hands, gained prominence.The concept of community participation, emphasizing the empowerment of people to take control of their health, was insisted upon by which influential healthcare committee?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kartar Singh Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shrivastav Committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mukherjee committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bhore Committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shrivastav Committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Shrivastav Committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Kartar Singh Committee - Also known as ‘ Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health and Family Planning’.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Kartar Singh Committee</li><li>• Committee</li><li>• Multipurpose Workers</li><li>• Health</li><li>• Family Planning’.</li><li>• Option C. Mukherjee committee : Basic Health Service should be provided at block level.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Mukherjee committee</li><li>• Basic Health Service</li><li>• block level.</li><li>• Option D. Bhore Committee : Also known as Health Survey and Development Committee ; Comprehensive Health Care Concept.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Bhore Committee</li><li>• Health Survey</li><li>• Development Committee</li><li>• Health Care Concept.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shrivastava Committee (1975): Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower ; ROME Scheme ; Village Health Guide ; Rural Health Scheme.</li><li>➤ Shrivastava Committee (1975):</li><li>➤ Medical Education</li><li>➤ Support Manpower</li><li>➤ ROME Scheme</li><li>➤ Village Health Guide</li><li>➤ Rural Health Scheme.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1014</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1014</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Gupta, a renowned medical educationist in India, is addressing a group of medical students. During the lecture, he emphasized the significance of a national medical education policy in shaping medical training in the country. In the context of Indian medical education, which committee was instrumental in recommending the formulation of a national medical education policy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mehta committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Jain committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bajaj committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "National commission on macroeconomics and health.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bajaj committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Bajaj committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• An expert committee for “ Health Manpower planning , production and Management ” was constituted under the chairmanship of Dr J S Bajaj (1986).</li><li>• Health Manpower planning</li><li>• production</li><li>• Management</li><li>• chairmanship</li><li>• Dr J S Bajaj (1986).</li><li>• Recommendations are:</li><li>• Recommendations</li><li>• Formulation of National Health Manpower Policy planning based on realistic survey. The formation of an Educational Commission for health sciences should be developed on the lines of UGC. Recommended for National Medical &amp; health education policy in which teachers are trained in health education technology. Setting up of Uniform standard of medical and health science education by establishing universities of health sciences in all states. Establishment of health manpower cells both at state and central level. Starting Vocational courses in paramedical sciences to get more health manpower.</li><li>• Formulation of National Health Manpower Policy planning based on realistic survey.</li><li>• National Health Manpower Policy</li><li>• realistic survey.</li><li>• The formation of an Educational Commission for health sciences should be developed on the lines of UGC.</li><li>• Educational Commission</li><li>• UGC.</li><li>• Recommended for National Medical &amp; health education policy in which teachers are trained in health education technology.</li><li>• National Medical &amp; health education policy</li><li>• teachers</li><li>• trained</li><li>• health education technology.</li><li>• Setting up of Uniform standard of medical and health science education by establishing universities of health sciences in all states.</li><li>• Uniform</li><li>• medical and health science education</li><li>• universities</li><li>• health sciences</li><li>• states.</li><li>• Establishment of health manpower cells both at state and central level.</li><li>• health manpower cells</li><li>• state and central level.</li><li>• Starting Vocational courses in paramedical sciences to get more health manpower.</li><li>• Vocational courses</li><li>• paramedical sciences</li><li>• more health manpower.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bajaj Committee (1986): Formulation of National Medical and Health Education Policy; National Health Manpower Policy; Education Commission; Health Manpower Cells</li><li>➤ Bajaj Committee (1986):</li><li>➤ National Medical</li><li>➤ Health Education</li><li>➤ Policy; National Health Manpower Policy; Education Commission; Health Manpower Cells</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1016</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1016</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma, a dedicated public health officer, is discussing the development of a comprehensive healthcare service in India during a seminar. He emphasizes a pivotal recommendation from an influential healthcare committee.Which healthcare committee in India recommended the establishment of an All-India Health Service, modeled after the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), to strengthen healthcare administration and service delivery?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chadha committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kartar Singh committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jungalwalla committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Mudaliar committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Mudaliar committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Option B. Chadha committee : 1 Basic Health Worker per 10,000 population for malaria vigilance , collection of vital statistics and family planning .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Chadha committee</li><li>• 1 Basic Health Worker</li><li>• 10,000 population</li><li>• malaria vigilance</li><li>• vital statistics and family planning</li><li>• Option C. Kartar Singh Committee : Also known as Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health and Family Planning.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Kartar Singh Committee</li><li>• Multipurpose Workers</li><li>• Health</li><li>• Family Planning.</li><li>• Option D. Jungalwalla Committee: Also known as Committee on Integration of Health Services . Major recommendations were on unified cadre, common seniority, recognition of extra qualifications , and equal pay for equal work, special pay for specialized work , no private practice , and good service conditions.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Jungalwalla Committee:</li><li>• Integration</li><li>• Health Services</li><li>• unified cadre, common seniority, recognition</li><li>• extra qualifications</li><li>• equal pay</li><li>• equal work,</li><li>• special pay</li><li>• specialized work</li><li>• no private practice</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Mudaliar Committee/ Health Survey and Planning Committee (1962) major recommendations - 1 PHC per 40,000 population maximum ; Constitution of All India Health Service ; strengthen district hospitals with specialist services ; Regional organizations in each state.</li><li>➤ Mudaliar Committee/ Health Survey</li><li>➤ Planning Committee</li><li>➤ 1 PHC</li><li>➤ 40,000 population maximum</li><li>➤ All India Health Service</li><li>➤ strengthen district hospitals</li><li>➤ specialist services</li><li>➤ Regional</li><li>➤ each state.</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref: Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion on the influence of various committees on healthcare policy in India, a focus is placed on the recommendations made by the Bajaj committee. This committee contributed significant insights and proposals for the improvement of healthcare services and education in the country. Regarding the recommendations of the Bajaj committee, which of the following statements is true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Formulation of national health manpower planning based on realistic survey.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Creation of MPWs and HA in between the levels of VHG and MO i/c PHC.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Integrated training of all health workers engaged in the field of health, family planning and nutrition.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Placing greater emphasis on public health education and prevention.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Formulation of national health manpower planning based on realistic survey.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Formulation of national health manpower planning based on realistic survey.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Creation of MPWs and HA in between the levels of VHG and MO i/c PHC: Shrivastav committee.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Creation of MPWs and HA in between the levels of VHG and MO i/c PHC:</li><li>• Option C. Integrated training of all health workers engaged in the field of health, family planning and nutrition : Kartar Singh committee.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Integrated training of all health workers engaged in the field of health, family planning and nutrition</li><li>• Option D. Placing greater emphasis on public health education and prevention : Vision 2020 report.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Placing greater emphasis on public health education and prevention</li><li>• 2020</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bajaj Committee (1986) Recommendations:</li><li>➤ Bajaj Committee (1986)</li><li>➤ Formulation of National Medical and Health Education Policy</li><li>➤ Formulation</li><li>➤ National Medical</li><li>➤ Health Education Policy</li><li>➤ Formulation of National Health Manpower Policy</li><li>➤ Formulation</li><li>➤ National Health Manpower Policy</li><li>➤ Education Commission</li><li>➤ Education Commission</li><li>➤ Health Manpower Cells</li><li>➤ Health Manpower Cells</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Gupta, a medical historian, is conducting a historical overview of healthcare committees in India. He presents a list of committees and their respective areas of significance. Match the following -", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i-c, ii- a, iii- d, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i-a, ii- c, iii- d, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i-c, ii- d, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i-d, ii- e, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. i-d, ii- e, iii- a, iv- b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/19/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921023.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-100129.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. i- d, ii- e, iii- a, iv- b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bhore Committee (1946)- iii) Health Survey and Development Committee Mudaliar Committee (1962)- iv) Health Survey and Planning Committee Bajaj Committee (1986) - National Medical and Health Education Policy and National Health Manpower Policy’ Jungalwalla Committee (1967) - i) Committee on Integration of Health Services. Shrivastava Committee (1975) –ii) Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower.</li><li>• Bhore Committee (1946)- iii) Health Survey and Development Committee</li><li>• Bhore Committee</li><li>• iii) Health Survey</li><li>• Development Committee</li><li>• Mudaliar Committee (1962)- iv) Health Survey and Planning Committee</li><li>• Mudaliar Committee</li><li>• iv)</li><li>• Health Survey</li><li>• Planning Committee</li><li>• Bajaj Committee (1986) - National Medical and Health Education Policy and National Health Manpower Policy’</li><li>• Bajaj Committee</li><li>• National Medical</li><li>• Health Education Policy</li><li>• National Health Manpower Policy’</li><li>• Jungalwalla Committee (1967) - i) Committee on Integration of Health Services.</li><li>• Jungalwalla Committee</li><li>• - i)</li><li>• Integration</li><li>• Health Services.</li><li>• Shrivastava Committee (1975) –ii) Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower.</li><li>• Shrivastava Committee</li><li>• –ii)</li><li>• Medical Education</li><li>• Support Manpower.</li><li>• Other important committees:</li><li>• Other important committees:</li><li>• Chadha Committee (1963) - Maintenance Phase of National Malaria Eradication Programmme</li><li>• Mukherji Committee (1965) - Delink malaria activities from family planning</li><li>• Mukherji Committee (1966) - BASIC HEALTH SERVICE should be provided at block level</li><li>• Kartar Singh Committee (1973) - Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health and Family Planning</li><li>• Krishnan Committee (1983) - Urban Revamping Scheme</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013-1016</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013-1016</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the realm of Indian healthcare policy evolution, the segregation of specific health services has been crucial for targeted and effective program implementation. A particular committee was instrumental in recommending the separation of family planning services from malaria control activities in healthcare programs, to streamline and enhance the focus of each initiative. Which committee is credited with this significant recommendation to separate family planning services from malaria control activities in healthcare programs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chadha committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mukherjee committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kartar Singh committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mudhaliar committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mukherjee committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-100129_kKGoV0n.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mukherjee committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Chadha committee: Constituted to study arrangements necessary for the Maintenance Phase of National Malaria Eradication Program (NMEP).</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Chadha committee:</li><li>• arrangements</li><li>• Maintenance</li><li>• National Malaria Eradication Program (NMEP).</li><li>• Option C. Kartar Singh committee : Also known as Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health and Family Planning.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Kartar Singh committee</li><li>• Multipurpose Workers</li><li>• Health and Family Planning.</li><li>• Option D. Mudhaliar Committee : A lso known as the Health Survey and Planning Committee.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Mudhaliar Committee</li><li>• Health Survey</li><li>• Planning Committee.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed pg. 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare strategist is leading a workshop on strategic planning in healthcare organizations. During the session, he discusses the SWOT analysis and its components. In the context of strategic planning for healthcare organizations, what does the \"S\" represent in SWOT analysis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Support", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Supervision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Strength", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surveillance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Strength", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/20/image_w8ohRNu.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Strength</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• S - Strengths - Characteristics existing within the organization which provide a competitive advantage .</li><li>• S - Strengths</li><li>• existing within</li><li>• organization</li><li>• competitive advantage</li><li>• W - Weakness- Characteristics which act as barrier disadvantage to achieve the success . They must be minimized .</li><li>• W - Weakness-</li><li>• barrier disadvantage</li><li>• achieve</li><li>• success</li><li>• minimized</li><li>• O - Opportunities - Ones if properly leveraged , can provide a competitive advantage .</li><li>• O - Opportunities</li><li>• leveraged</li><li>• competitive advantage</li><li>• T - Threats - Risks involved which erode the competitive advantage and can cause trouble in the program . They must be eliminated.</li><li>• T - Threats</li><li>• erode</li><li>• competitive advantage</li><li>• trouble</li><li>• program</li><li>• must</li><li>• eliminated.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SWOT analysis (or SWOT matrix ) is a strategic planning and strategic management technique used to help a person or organization identify Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities , and Threats related to project planning . It is sometimes called situational assessment or situational analysis .</li><li>➤ SWOT analysis</li><li>➤ SWOT matrix</li><li>➤ strategic planning</li><li>➤ strategic management technique</li><li>➤ person or organization</li><li>➤ Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities</li><li>➤ Threats</li><li>➤ project planning</li><li>➤ situational assessment</li><li>➤ situational analysis</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Surya kantha, 4 th ed, pg. 767.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Surya kantha, 4 th ed, pg. 767.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old city planner is leading an infrastructural development project in a metropolitan area. The project, backed by private investors, emphasizes rapid development and completion. During a strategy meeting, stakeholders discuss various factors deemed essential for the planning process. However, there's debate around one particular factor's significance. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a direct precondition for this type of rapid, investor-driven development planning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Government’s interest", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "People’s participation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Legislation", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administrative capacity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. People’s participation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. People’s participation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pre-planning is preparation for planning . There should be an organizational structure for the preparation of the various parts of the plan . The important preconditions are:</li><li>• Pre-planning</li><li>• planning</li><li>• organizational structure</li><li>• various parts</li><li>• plan</li><li>• preconditions</li><li>• Option A. Government interest: Any plan for the health and welfare of a country must be based on a strong ‘ political will’ as manifested by clear directives or policies given by the political authority .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Government interest:</li><li>• plan</li><li>• health and welfare</li><li>• country</li><li>• strong</li><li>• political will’</li><li>• clear directives</li><li>• policies</li><li>• political authority</li><li>• Option C. Legislation: The social and health policies formulated may have to be translated into legislation .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Legislation:</li><li>• social and health policies</li><li>• translated</li><li>• legislation</li><li>• Option D. Administrative capacity: One of the essential pre-conditions of planning is administrative capacity for proper coordination of activities and implementation of the plan at all levels .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Administrative capacity:</li><li>• essential pre-conditions</li><li>• administrative capacity</li><li>• proper coordination</li><li>• activities</li><li>• implementation</li><li>• at all levels</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Steps of Planning Cycle</li><li>➤ Steps of Planning Cycle</li><li>➤ Pre-planning - Government interest ; Legislation ; Organization for planning ; Administrative capacity.</li><li>➤ Pre-planning</li><li>➤ Government interest</li><li>➤ Legislation</li><li>➤ Organization</li><li>➤ planning</li><li>➤ Administrative capacity.</li><li>➤ Step 1: Analysis of health situation</li><li>➤ Analysis</li><li>➤ health situation</li><li>➤ Step 2: Establishment of goals and objectives</li><li>➤ Establishment</li><li>➤ goals</li><li>➤ objectives</li><li>➤ Step 3: Assessment of resources</li><li>➤ Assessment</li><li>➤ resources</li><li>➤ Step 4: Fixing priorities</li><li>➤ Fixing priorities</li><li>➤ Step 5: Write-up of formulated plan</li><li>➤ formulated plan</li><li>➤ Step 6: Programming and implementation</li><li>➤ Programming</li><li>➤ implementation</li><li>➤ Step 7: Monitoring</li><li>➤ Monitoring</li><li>➤ Step 8: Evaluation</li><li>➤ Evaluation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 965</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 965</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old health administrator is given the task of ensuring that a newly introduced vaccination campaign in a rural clinic runs efficiently. Every day, she closely tracks the number of vaccines given, staff attendance, and the clinic's adherence to safety protocols. This daily oversight ensures that the campaign proceeds without any hitches and any potential issues are promptly addressed. What is this continuous day-to-day oversight of activities during their execution commonly called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Supervision", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Monitoring", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Evaluation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Monitoring", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-101449.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Monitoring</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Supervision: Supervision is the observation of programme performance to ascertain that activities are accomplished in quantity and quality as planned . Supervision encourages open , two-way communication and builds team approaches that facilitate problem solving . Monitoring involves regular collection and analysis of data on various aspects of programme activities.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Supervision:</li><li>• observation</li><li>• performance</li><li>• activities</li><li>• accomplished</li><li>• quantity</li><li>• quality</li><li>• planned</li><li>• Supervision encourages</li><li>• open</li><li>• two-way</li><li>• builds</li><li>• facilitate problem solving</li><li>• regular collection</li><li>• analysis</li><li>• data</li><li>• programme activities.</li><li>• Option C. Surveillance: Continuous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease and other conditions of ill-health . It's a continuous cycle , has a feedback process , an inbuilt action component that continues even after initial work is done, it's a broader concept.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Surveillance:</li><li>• Continuous</li><li>• scrutiny</li><li>• occurrence and distribution</li><li>• ill-health</li><li>• continuous cycle</li><li>• a feedback process</li><li>• inbuilt</li><li>• continues even</li><li>• initial work</li><li>• done,</li><li>• broader concept.</li><li>• Option D. Evaluation : Involves the assessment of an activity or program after or during its implementation to determine its success, effectiveness, or areas that need improvement .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Evaluation</li><li>• assessment</li><li>• an activity</li><li>• implementation</li><li>• determine its success, effectiveness,</li><li>• areas</li><li>• improvement</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monitoring Vs Surveillance</li><li>➤ Monitoring Vs Surveillance</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg. 965</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : park 26 th ed pg. 965</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old pharmaceutical company executive has overseen the development of a new vaccine. After successfully completing three phases of clinical trials, the vaccine has been introduced to the market. As part of the post-marketing phase, the company aims to gather data on the vaccine's effectiveness and safety in a larger and more diverse population. This effort to assess the vaccine's performance under real-world conditions, beyond the controlled environment of clinical trials, is referred to as what?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Efficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Effectiveness", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Terminal Evaluation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Effectiveness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Effectiveness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Efficiency : Addresses the output in terms of monetary / economical way . It is the measure of relationship between the results achieved and the effort expended in terms of money, resources and time.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Efficiency</li><li>• output</li><li>• monetary / economical way</li><li>• measure</li><li>• results achieved</li><li>• effort expended</li><li>• money, resources</li><li>• time.</li><li>• Evaluation of efficiency:</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis : Both input as well as output is in monetary terms. Cost-effectiveness analysis : Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis : Both input as well as output is in monetary terms.</li><li>• Cost-benefit analysis</li><li>• input</li><li>• output</li><li>• monetary terms.</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis : Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Cost-effectiveness analysis</li><li>• Input</li><li>• monetary terms</li><li>• output</li><li>• ‘no. of lives saved’</li><li>• Option C. Efficacy : It is the effect or usefulness of an agent/drug/vaccine under ideal ‘ controlled laboratory’ conditions</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Efficacy</li><li>• effect or usefulness</li><li>• agent/drug/vaccine</li><li>• controlled laboratory’</li><li>• Option D. Terminal Evaluation : Is to review the achievements made to deliver the specified objectives and outcomes of the Sustainable Land Management project .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Terminal Evaluation</li><li>• achievements</li><li>• deliver</li><li>• specified objectives</li><li>• outcomes</li><li>• Sustainable Land Management project</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The extent to which a specific health care treatment, service, procedure, program , or other intervention does what it is intended to do when used in a community dwelling population is termed its Effectiveness.</li><li>➤ extent</li><li>➤ specific health care treatment,</li><li>➤ service, procedure, program</li><li>➤ intervention</li><li>➤ intended</li><li>➤ used</li><li>➤ community dwelling population</li><li>➤ its Effectiveness.</li><li>➤ COMMUNITY EFFECTIVENESS (CE): CE = Efficacy × Diagnostic accuracy × Patient compliance × Provider compliance × Coverage</li><li>➤ ( E × D × PtC × PrC × C )</li><li>➤ E × D × PtC × PrC × C</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1010</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1010</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old political science graduate student is researching the economic and developmental trajectory of India post-independence. During her research, she discovers that a pivotal body was formed to draft developmental plans for the nation in the aftermath of its independence. This body played a significant role in shaping India's socio-economic landscape in the subsequent decades. In which year was the Planning Commission, responsible for drafting these developmental plans, set up in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1947", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1948", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1950", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1962", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1950", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1950</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Planning Commission of India (National Planning Commission) was formed on 15 March 1950, which launched first five year plan in 1951. There were 29 divisions in the Planning Commission like agriculture, health, nutrition, education, environment, family welfare, housing, water supply, manpower, rural development, multilevel planning and monitoring, etc. It worked through 3 major divisions - General secretariat, Technical divisions, Program advisors</li><li>• 15 March 1950, which launched first five year plan in 1951.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NPC has been renamed as NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) , 1st January 2015 onwards</li><li>➤ NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)</li><li>➤ Chairperson - Prime Minister of India</li><li>➤ Functions of NITI Aayog -</li><li>➤ Promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community Assessment of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources and determining priorities</li><li>➤ Promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community</li><li>➤ Assessment of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources and determining priorities</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1018</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1018</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A policy researcher is compiling a report on the evolution of planning bodies in India. He knows that the Planning Commission, which played a significant role in the country's development strategy for decades, was eventually replaced by a new institution to meet contemporary challenges and requirements. What is the name of the institution that replaced the Planning Commission?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High level expert committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "NITI Aayog", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Health Policy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ayushmann Bharat Yojana", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. NITI Aayog", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. NITI Aayog</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• On January 1, 2015, Government of India replaced Planning commission (Top down model) with NITI Aayog (Bottom up approach).</li><li>• The NITI Aayog council comprises all the state Chief Ministers, along with the Chief Ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, Lieutenant Governors of all UTs, and a vice-chairman nominated by the Prime Minister. In addition, temporary members are selected from leading universities and research institutions. These members include a chief executive officer, four ex-official members, and three part-time members.</li><li>• Functions -</li><li>• Promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production, and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community Assessment of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources, and determining priorities</li><li>• Promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production, and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community</li><li>• Assessment of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources, and determining priorities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The NITI Aayog ( National Institution for Transforming India ) serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development, and fostering cooperative federalism and moving away from bargaining federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. Its initiatives include 15-year road map, 7-year vision, strategy, and action plan, etc.</li><li>➤ NITI Aayog</li><li>➤ National Institution for Transforming India</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1018</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg. 1018</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr Ishan, a senior public health specialist, is attending a health forum in Chennai. The discussions revolve around long-term health policies and their alignment with broader developmental goals set by the Indian government. A fellow attendee, a health economist, remarks on the significance of NITI Aayog's Vision plan in aligning health targets with overall developmental milestones. Curious, Dr. Ishan asks, \"For how many years does the Vision plan in NITI Aayog outline its strategic framework and objectives?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "25 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 15 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 15 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The entire National planning process by NITI Aayog has 3 different plans, spread over three different time periods, as follows.</li><li>• 15 Year vision plan 7 Year strategy plan 3 Year action agenda plan.</li><li>• 15 Year vision plan</li><li>• 7 Year strategy plan</li><li>• 3 Year action agenda plan.</li><li>• The Vision plan by NITI Aayog provides a strategic framework and objectives for a 15-year period. It is a long-term perspective plan that aligns with global sustainable development goals and sets the direction for India's sustained growth and development. The Vision plan serves as an umbrella under which specific, detailed, and shorter-term plans and strategies can be developed, ensuring that all efforts remain directed towards the long-term vision.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The NITI Aayog ( National Institution for Transforming India ) established in 2015 , serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development, and fostering cooperative federalism and moving away from bargaining federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.</li><li>➤ NITI Aayog</li><li>➤ National Institution for Transforming India</li><li>➤ 2015</li><li>➤ bottom-up approach.</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 1020</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Text of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 1020</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Verma, a health policy analyst, is delivering a lecture at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences on the National Health Policy of India. After discussing the various elements of the policy, she poses a challenge to her audience, \"Among the following options, which one is NOT recognized as a principle of the National Health Policy?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pluralism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Decentralization", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Dynamism and Adaptiveness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Privatization", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Privatization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Privatization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Privatization, as an approach, is not recognized as a principle of the National Health Policy. The policy emphasizes public health priorities such as equity, affordability, and universality, which do not align directly with the concept of privatization.</li><li>• The First National Health Policy was formulated in 1983. The ke y policy principles of National Health Policy are -</li><li>• Professionalism, Integrity, and Ethics Equity Affordability Universality Patient-centered and Quality of care. Accountability Inclusive partnership Pluralism (Option A) Decentralization (Option B) Dynamism and Adaptiveness (Option C)</li><li>• Professionalism, Integrity, and Ethics</li><li>• Equity</li><li>• Affordability</li><li>• Universality</li><li>• Patient-centered and Quality of care.</li><li>• Accountability</li><li>• Inclusive partnership</li><li>• Pluralism (Option A)</li><li>• Decentralization (Option B)</li><li>• Dynamism and Adaptiveness (Option C)</li><li>• Crucial factors for the realization of the goals of a National Health Policy are – Political commitment; Financial implications; Administrative reforms; Community participation and Basic legislation</li><li>• Important measure for National health policy - Population-attributable risk</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The National Health Policy of India is grounded in several key principles that guide its framework and implementation. These principles include Professionalism, Integrity, and Ethics; Equity; Affordability; Universality; Patient-centered and Quality of care; Accountability; Inclusive partnership; Pluralism; Decentralization; and Dynamism and Adaptiveness.</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook of Community Medicine, 1 st ed. Pg 1068</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : IAPSM textbook of Community Medicine, 1 st ed. Pg 1068</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Lakshmi, the Director of Public Health in Tamil Nadu, is holding a strategy meeting with district health officers. Their main agenda is to improve the utilization of public health facilities to ensure better health outcomes for the population. During the discussion, Dr. Lakshmi references the targets set by the National Health Policy 2017. She then questions her team, \"The NHP 2017 has outlined clear targets regarding the utilization of public health facilities. By 2025, by what percentage does the policy aim to increase the utilization of these facilities from current levels?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "25%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "75%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 50%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 50%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• 1. Coverage of health services</li><li>• 1. Coverage of health services</li><li>• Increase utilization of public health facilities by 50% from current levels by 2025. Antenatal care coverage to be sustained above 90% and skilled attendance at birth above 90% by 2025. More than 90% of the newborn are fully immunized by one year of age by 2025. Meet the need of family planning above 90% at national and sub-national level by 2025. 80% of known hypertensive and diabetic individuals at household level maintain controlled disease statuses by 2025.</li><li>• Increase utilization of public health facilities by 50% from current levels by 2025.</li><li>• Antenatal care coverage to be sustained above 90% and skilled attendance at birth above 90% by 2025.</li><li>• More than 90% of the newborn are fully immunized by one year of age by 2025.</li><li>• Meet the need of family planning above 90% at national and sub-national level by 2025.</li><li>• 80% of known hypertensive and diabetic individuals at household level maintain controlled disease statuses by 2025.</li><li>• 2. Cross-sectoral goals related to health.</li><li>• 2. Cross-sectoral goals related to health.</li><li>• Relative reduction in prevalence of current tobacco use is 15% by 2020 and 30% by 2025. Reduction of 40% in prevalence of stunting of under five children by 2025. Access to safe water and sanitation to all by 2020 (Swachh Bharat Mission). Reduction of occupational injury by half from current levels of 334 per lakh agricultural workers by 2020. National/state level tracking of selected health behavior.</li><li>• Relative reduction in prevalence of current tobacco use is 15% by 2020 and 30% by 2025.</li><li>• Reduction of 40% in prevalence of stunting of under five children by 2025.</li><li>• Access to safe water and sanitation to all by 2020 (Swachh Bharat Mission).</li><li>• Reduction of occupational injury by half from current levels of 334 per lakh agricultural workers by 2020.</li><li>• National/state level tracking of selected health behavior.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The National Health Policy 2017 of India sets forth an ambitious target to increase the utilization of public health facilities by 50% from current levels by the year 2025</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 969</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg. 969</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. Raghav, a monitoring officer for a major health initiative in Maharashtra, was evaluating various aspects of the program. During his assessment, he noticed a consistent issue related to the delay in the release of funds for the program, potentially affecting its smooth operation. At a review meeting with the project team and stakeholders, he presents his findings. The program manager, wanting to use the SWOT analysis methodology, asks the team, \"Considering the SWOT framework, how would we categorize the delay in the release of funds for our program?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Strength", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weakness", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Opportunity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Threat", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Weakness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/20/image_KiNG4SX.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Weakness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Strengths and Weaknesses are internal factors, referring to the characteristics of the program or organization itself. Opportunities and Threats are external factors, referring to external conditions, events, or situations that could affect the program or organization.</li><li>• Strengths</li><li>• Weaknesses</li><li>• Opportunities</li><li>• Threats</li><li>• A delay in the release of funds is an internal issue that the program is facing. It is not related to external conditions or external entities; it's about how the program or organization is managing its resources. Therefore, it is categorized as a \"Weakness\" in the context of a SWOT analysis.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ SWOT -</li><li>➤ Strengths- Characteristics existing within the organization which provide a competitive advantage.</li><li>➤ Weakness- Characteristics which act as barrier disadvantage to achieve the success. They must be minimized.</li><li>➤ Opportunities- Ones if properly leveraged, can provide a competitive advantage.</li><li>➤ Threats- Risks involved which erode the competitive advantage and can cause trouble in the program. They must be eliminated.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Surya kantha, 4 th ed, pg. 768.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine by Surya kantha, 4 th ed, pg. 768.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a district health office, Dr. Aparna is overseeing a vaccination campaign against measles. At the end of the campaign, she wants to determine the overall success of the program. Specifically, she's interested in understanding how well they met their objectives, how many children got vaccinated compared to their targets, and the quality of the outcomes, such as any adverse reactions or missed populations. To gather this comprehensive understanding, she decided to utilize a specific evaluative approach. She asks her team, \"To accurately measure how well we met our objectives and the quality of our results, is measured through ?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monitoring", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Evaluation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Supervision", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Surveillance", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Evaluation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Evaluation.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Monitoring: Involves ongoing tracking and review of program activities but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of effectiveness and quality like evaluation.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Monitoring:</li><li>• Option C. Supervision: Refers to overseeing the execution of a program but does not involve a detailed assessment of program outcomes.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Supervision:</li><li>• Option D. Surveillance: Is more about continuous, systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data, often used for the detection and control of diseases, rather than evaluating a program's overall effectiveness.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Surveillance:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Evaluation Measures the degree to which objectives and targets are fulfilled and the quality of the results obtained. It measures -</li><li>➤ The productivity of available resources in achieving clearly defined objectives. How much output or cost-effectiveness is achieved.</li><li>➤ The productivity of available resources in achieving clearly defined objectives.</li><li>➤ How much output or cost-effectiveness is achieved.</li><li>➤ It makes possible the reallocation of priorities and of resources based on changing health needs.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 966</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 966</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Meera, an obstetrician in a rural health center, is part of a team that aims to improve maternal health outcomes in the region. The health center has set specific benchmarks to evaluate program utilization and quality of care. One such benchmark states that every antenatal mother should receive a minimum of 4 antenatal checkups during her pregnancy. Dr. Meera is reviewing the data to see how well the center is adhering to this benchmark. During a team meeting, she poses a question to her colleagues, \"Setting a specific target of 4 antenatal checkups for every pregnant woman to evaluate our program utilization is an example of which evaluative standard?\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Structural criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Process criteria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Outcome criteria", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Behavioral criteria", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Process criteria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Process criteria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Structural criteria: These criteria relate to the resources, facilities, and organizational structure of a healthcare program, not to specific care processes.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Structural criteria:</li><li>• Option C. Outcome criteria: These criteria assess the results of healthcare interventions, such as health improvements in patients, rather than the processes of care delivery.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Outcome criteria:</li><li>• Option D. Behavioral criteria: This would involve assessing the health behaviors or practices of individuals or populations, which is not directly related to the benchmark of antenatal checkups.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Behavioral criteria:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Standards are a prerequisite for evaluation.</li><li>➤ Structural criteria: e.g., physical facilities and equipment.</li><li>➤ Process criteria: e.g., every postnatal mother must Receive 6 check-ups; every laboratory technician must examine 100 blood smears, etc.</li><li>➤ Outcome criteria: e.g., Alterations in patient health status (cured, death, disability); or behavior resulting from health care (satisfaction, Dissatisfaction); or the educational process (e.g., cessation of smoking, acceptance of a small family norm), etc.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg. 976</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : park 26 th ed pg. 976</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Arjun, a public health specialist, is assessing a nutritional intervention program that was implemented in a rural district to combat childhood malnutrition. After the program has been in place for several years, he wants to determine its overall effect on the health and well-being of children in the district, including any long-term changes in the prevalence of malnutrition, growth parameters, and related health outcomes. During a presentation to stakeholders, he is asked about the terminology he would use to describe the overarching effect or change attributed to the program. Dr. Arjun replies, \"The term we use to describe the overall, long-term effect of our intervention is known as _____.\"", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Efficiency", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Impact", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Effectiveness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Impact", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Impact</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Efficiency : Is the measure of relationship between the results achieved and the effort expended in terms of money, resources and time</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Efficiency</li><li>• Option B. Efficacy : Is the effect or usefulness of an agent/drug/vaccine under ideal ‘controlled laboratory’ conditions</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Efficacy</li><li>• Option D. Effectiveness : Is the effect or usefulness of an agent/drug/vaccine in real life community situations</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Effectiveness</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Components/elements of the evaluation process in health services are -</li><li>➤ Components/elements of the evaluation process in health services are -</li><li>➤ Relevance: Appropriateness (need) of a health service Adequacy: Sufficient attention to pre-determined course of action Accessibility: Proportion of population expected to use the service Acceptability: Socially and culturally acceptable Effectiveness: Extent of prevention/alleviation of underlying problem Efficiency: How well resources are utilized Impact: Overall effect of programme/service on health and development</li><li>➤ Relevance: Appropriateness (need) of a health service</li><li>➤ Adequacy: Sufficient attention to pre-determined course of action</li><li>➤ Accessibility: Proportion of population expected to use the service</li><li>➤ Acceptability: Socially and culturally acceptable</li><li>➤ Effectiveness: Extent of prevention/alleviation of underlying problem</li><li>➤ Efficiency: How well resources are utilized</li><li>➤ Impact: Overall effect of programme/service on health and development</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 977</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 977</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 38 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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Rabies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/12/picture9.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Rabies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Acute Diseases with no subclinical infections do not show iceberg phenomenon .</li><li>• Acute Diseases</li><li>• no subclinical infections</li><li>• not show iceberg phenomenon</li><li>• Iceberg phenomenon is not shown by –</li><li>• Iceberg phenomenon is not shown by –</li><li>• Measles Tetanus Rabies Rubella</li><li>• Measles</li><li>• Tetanus</li><li>• Rabies</li><li>• Rubella</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Iceberg phenomenon of disease given by Ernest Hemingway Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections Epidemiologists study the submerged part of the iceberg , while clinicians deal with the tip of iceberg. Screening is for the submerged section of the iceberg , whereas diagnosis addresses the tip of the iceberg .</li><li>➤ Iceberg phenomenon of disease given by Ernest Hemingway</li><li>➤ Iceberg phenomenon</li><li>➤ Ernest Hemingway</li><li>➤ Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections</li><li>➤ Line of demarcation</li><li>➤ between apparent</li><li>➤ inapparent infections</li><li>➤ Epidemiologists study the submerged part of the iceberg , while clinicians deal with the tip of iceberg.</li><li>➤ Epidemiologists study</li><li>➤ submerged part of the iceberg</li><li>➤ clinicians deal</li><li>➤ tip of iceberg.</li><li>➤ Screening is for the submerged section of the iceberg , whereas diagnosis addresses the tip of the iceberg .</li><li>➤ Screening</li><li>➤ submerged section</li><li>➤ iceberg</li><li>➤ diagnosis addresses</li><li>➤ tip of the iceberg</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 46</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 46</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A statistician is analyzing data to understand the factors influencing the disability rate in a particular region. She is categorizing various indicators based on their types and their relation to disability. Which of the following would she most likely NOT categorize as an event type indicator of disability rate?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Bed disability days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Days of restricted activities", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Limitation of mobility", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Work loss days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Limitation of mobility", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/screenshot-2023-08-11-192002_vd2ujuS.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Limitation of mobility</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Other 3 options are Event type indicator , as mentioned in above table .</li><li>• 3 options are Event type indicator</li><li>• above table</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Limitation of mobility is a person-type indicator , while bed disability , number of days of restricted activity and work loss days are the event-type indicators.</li><li>➤ Limitation of mobility</li><li>➤ person-type indicator</li><li>➤ bed disability</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A research team is conducting a study to assess the well-being of individuals in a large urban community. They are collecting various data points to evaluate both the subjective and objective aspects of well-being. Which of the following data points would primarily assess a subjective component of well-being?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Standard of living", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Level of Living", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quality of life", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "HDI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Quality of life", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Quality of life</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Standard of living : Objective Component. WHO includes Income &amp; Occupation , Standards of housing , sanitation &amp; nutrition , and level of provision of health , educational, recreational &amp; other services, within this component. The standard of living depends on ‘ Per capita GNP’.</li><li>• Option A. Standard of living</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• Income &amp; Occupation</li><li>• Standards of housing</li><li>• sanitation &amp; nutrition</li><li>• level of provision of health</li><li>• Per capita GNP’.</li><li>• Option B. Level of living : An objective Component. The most important indicator to assess level of living is IMR .</li><li>• Option B. Level of living</li><li>• indicator to assess level of living</li><li>• IMR</li><li>• Option D. HDI : Human Development Index is a composite index comprising of 3 dimensions : Knowledge , Income and Longevity .</li><li>• Option D. HDI</li><li>• Human Development Index</li><li>• composite index</li><li>• 3 dimensions</li><li>• Knowledge</li><li>• Income</li><li>• Longevity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ WHO Concept of Well-being</li><li>➤ Objective component : Standard of living, Level of living Subjective component : Quality of life</li><li>➤ Objective component : Standard of living, Level of living</li><li>➤ Objective component</li><li>➤ Subjective component : Quality of life</li><li>➤ Subjective component</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed, pg 16.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th ed, pg 16.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is giving a presentation on different indices used to measure the quality of life in various countries. She explains that the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is one of the indices used and it includes specific parameters. Which of the following parameters is NOT traditionally included in the Physical Quality of Life Index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infant mortality", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Life expectancy at age one", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Education", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Life expectancy at birth", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Life expectancy at birth", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/03/screenshot-2024-04-03-165503.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Life expectancy at birth</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health student is learning about different metrics used to assess the impact of diseases on populations. He comes across a measure that expresses the overall disease burden in terms of ill health, disability, or early death. What is this measure known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health adjusted life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sullivan's index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Disability free life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disability Adjusted life expectancy", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Disability Adjusted life expectancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Disability Adjusted life expectancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A . HALE : Health-Adjusted Life Expectancy , and it represents the average number of years that a person can expect to live in \"full health\", factoring in years lived in less than full health due to disease and/or injury.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• HALE</li><li>• Health-Adjusted Life Expectancy</li><li>• represents the average number of years</li><li>• person can expect to live</li><li>• \"full health\",</li><li>• Option B . Sullivan's index: Sullivan's index represents the expectation of life free from disability . It is a measure that combines both morbidity and mortality data to provide an estimate of the quality of life in terms of years lived without disability. It is one of the most advanced indicators currently available.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Sullivan's index:</li><li>• expectation of life free from disability</li><li>• measure that combines both morbidity</li><li>• mortality data</li><li>• estimate of the quality of life</li><li>• Sullivan’s Index = Life Expectancy MINUS Duration of disability (bed disability and inability to perform major activities)</li><li>• Option C . DFLE : Disability-Free Life Expectancy , represents the average number of years an individual is expected to live free of disability .</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• DFLE</li><li>• Disability-Free Life Expectancy</li><li>• average number of years</li><li>• individual</li><li>• live free of disability</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Disability Adjusted Life Years [ DALYs ] - Is the BEST measure of burden of disease in a defined population and the effectiveness of interventions . DALYs can measure ‘both mortality and disability together’</li><li>➤ Disability Adjusted Life Years</li><li>➤ DALYs</li><li>➤ BEST measure of burden of disease</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ effectiveness of interventions</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A microbiology student is studying the principles of pathogen identification and comes across Henle-Koch’s postulates. These postulates were formulated to establish a causative relationship between a specific microorganism and a specific disease. Which of the following best describes the central philosophy of Henle-Koch's postulates?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Miasma Theory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Germ Theory", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Web of causation theory", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Epidemiological Wheel theory", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Germ Theory", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Germ Theory</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Miasma Theory: Human diseases are due to bad air</li><li>• Option A. Miasma Theory:</li><li>• Human diseases</li><li>• bad air</li><li>• Option C. Web of causation theory : Various factors interact like web to cause disease.</li><li>• Option C. Web of causation theory</li><li>• Various factors</li><li>• web to cause disease.</li><li>• Option D. Epidemiological wheel theory: Visualizes human disease in form of wheel with central hub and spoke which are contributed by various factors.</li><li>• Option D. Epidemiological wheel theory:</li><li>• Visualizes human disease</li><li>• form of wheel</li><li>• central hub</li><li>• spoke</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Robert Koch was a distinguished German microbiologist; Koch's legacy lies in the germ theory . He is famed for determining the pathogens responsible for tuberculosis, cholera , and anthrax and for devising Koch's postulates.</li><li>➤ Robert Koch</li><li>➤ German microbiologist;</li><li>➤ Koch's legacy</li><li>➤ germ theory</li><li>➤ famed for determining the pathogens</li><li>➤ tuberculosis, cholera</li><li>➤ anthrax</li><li>➤ devising Koch's postulates.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 54-year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. The physician notices the presence of a well-defined transverse crease on the patient’s earlobe. The physician recalls that this physical finding has been associated with an increased risk of ischemic heart disease (IHD) in many studies. The development of a transverse crease on the earlobe is considered a ?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risk factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Predisposing factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risk Marker", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Enabling factor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Risk Marker", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Risk Marker.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Risk factor: A condition , quality or attribute , the presence of which increases the chances of an individual to have, develop or be adversely affected by a disease process.</li><li>• Option A. Risk factor:</li><li>• condition</li><li>• quality</li><li>• attribute</li><li>• presence of which increases</li><li>• chances of an individual</li><li>• develop</li><li>• Option B. Predisposing factors: Factors which create a state of susceptibility , so that the host becomes vulnerable to the agent or to necessary cause.</li><li>• Option B. Predisposing factors:</li><li>• create a state of susceptibility</li><li>• host</li><li>• vulnerable</li><li>• Option D. Enabling factors: Are those which assist in the development of (or in recovery from) the disease , e.g. housing conditions, socio-economic status.</li><li>• Option D. Enabling factors:</li><li>• assist in the development</li><li>• disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Recognize that the development of a transverse crease on the earlobe is considered a risk marker for ischemic heart disease , indicating an association with increased risk but not establishing a definitive diagnosis or causal relationship.</li><li>➤ Recognize</li><li>➤ development of a transverse crease</li><li>➤ earlobe</li><li>➤ risk marker for ischemic heart disease</li><li>➤ increased risk</li><li>➤ not establishing a definitive diagnosis</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar 2 nd Ed pg 20.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar 2 nd Ed pg 20.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A second-year medical student is learning about the progression in epidemiological models used to understand disease causation. Upon discussing the advanced epidemiological triad, which includes additional elements compared to the classic triad, the professor asks the student to identify which of the following is not a component of the advanced epidemiological triad. What should the student’s answer be?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Causative factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Behavioral and cultural factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Population characteristics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Duration of illness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Duration of illness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/image-20230707153254-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/12/screenshot-2024-07-12-165438.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Duration of illness.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Epidemiological triad - Agent, host, Environment.</li><li>• Epidemiological triad</li><li>• In Advanced model of triangle of epidemiology</li><li>• Advanced model of triangle</li><li>• epidemiology</li><li>• Agent factors are replaced by causative factors Host by Groups or populations and their characteristics Environment factors by Environmental behaviour, culture, Physiological factors, and ecological elements.</li><li>• Agent factors are replaced by causative factors</li><li>• Agent factors</li><li>• replaced</li><li>• causative factors</li><li>• Host by Groups or populations and their characteristics</li><li>• Host by Groups</li><li>• populations</li><li>• Environment factors by Environmental behaviour, culture, Physiological factors, and ecological elements.</li><li>• Environment factors</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 40.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 40.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical practitioner is evaluating a 40-year-old man who reports a persistent feeling of tiredness and a lack of energy for several weeks. He states that he is unable to describe exactly what is wrong but feels a general sense of not being well. In clinical terms, the patient's expression of his health status is best categorized as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disorder", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Illness", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickness", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Illness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Illness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Disease: Is a physiological/ psychological/ pathological dysfunction . Disease is usually characterized by identifiable signs and symptoms.</li><li>• Option A. Disease:</li><li>• physiological/ psychological/ pathological dysfunction</li><li>• Option B. Disorder : This term is often used to describe a disturbance of normal functioning of the body or mind . Like disease, a disorder is generally characterized by identifiable signs and symptoms.</li><li>• Option B. Disorder</li><li>• describe a disturbance of normal functioning</li><li>• body or mind</li><li>• Option D. Sickness: Is a state of social dysfunction , i.e., a role that the individual assumes when ill (\"sickness role\").</li><li>• Option D. Sickness:</li><li>• state of social dysfunction</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The objective is to recognize the difference between 'illness' and 'disease. ' 'Illness' is a person's own perception of unwellness , whereas 'disease' is a specific pathological process that can be identified and measured by healthcare professionals.</li><li>➤ objective</li><li>➤ recognize the difference between 'illness' and 'disease.</li><li>➤ 'Illness'</li><li>➤ person's own perception of unwellness</li><li>➤ 'disease'</li><li>➤ specific pathological process</li><li>➤ identified</li><li>➤ measured by healthcare professionals.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 39.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 39.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture about the progression of diseases, a professor is explaining various concepts related to disease outcomes and their pathways. He mentions a specific term used to describe the progression of a disease from its initial phase to its conclusion in the absence of any medical intervention. Which of the following terms best describes this concept?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Spectrum of health", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Epidemiology of disease", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Natural history of disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Spectrum of disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Natural history of disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/image-20230707155936-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Natural history of disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Natural history of disease describes the natural course of the disease from its early pre pathogenesis phases to termination .</li><li>• Natural history</li><li>• disease</li><li>• natural course of the disease</li><li>• early pre pathogenesis phases</li><li>• termination</li><li>• Whereas Epidemiology of a disease involves various factors contributing to disease and Spectrum of disease is a pattern.</li><li>• Epidemiology of a disease</li><li>• factors contributing to disease</li><li>• Spectrum of disease is a pattern.</li><li>• Educational objective :</li><li>• Educational objective</li><li>• :</li><li>• Natural history of disease is the course a disease takes in individual people from its pathological onset (inception) until its eventual resolution through complete recovery or death , in absence of any intervention</li><li>• Natural history of disease</li><li>• course a disease</li><li>• individual people</li><li>• pathological onset</li><li>• eventual resolution through complete recovery or death</li><li>• Ref : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 2 nd ed, pg 21.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Textbook of Community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 2 nd ed, pg 21.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 40-year-old man, presents to the primary health center with pronounced symptoms of hydrophobia, 10 days following a category 3 dog bite. He reports that he did not seek any medical treatment after the bite, and it was later confirmed that the dog died of rabies on the same day of the incident. Given his current clinical presentation, in which phase of pathogenesis is Mr. X?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Early pathogenesis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Discernible lesions", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Advanced disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Phase of termination", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Advanced disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Advanced disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• 4 phases of pathogenesis include:</li><li>• Asymptomatic or Early pathogenesis phase - Pathogenesis process started; detection is possible only by pathological phase. Early Discernible lesions - Mild or nonspecific signs and symptoms Phase of Advanced lesions - Full-fledged disease in classical form Termination phase - Recovery, chronic state, disability, or death.</li><li>• Asymptomatic or Early pathogenesis phase - Pathogenesis process started; detection is possible only by pathological phase.</li><li>• Asymptomatic</li><li>• or Early pathogenesis phase</li><li>• Early Discernible lesions - Mild or nonspecific signs and symptoms</li><li>• Early Discernible lesions</li><li>• Phase of Advanced lesions - Full-fledged disease in classical form</li><li>• Phase of Advanced lesions</li><li>• Termination phase - Recovery, chronic state, disability, or death.</li><li>• Termination phase</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The educational objective is to understand the phases of pathogenesis in rabies . In the case of Mr. X, the development of specific symptoms like hydrophobia 10 days after a rabies-prone dog bite indicates that he is in the advanced disease phase , where the virus has fully manifested and the prognosis is typically dire.</li><li>➤ phases of pathogenesis in rabies</li><li>➤ development of specific symptoms</li><li>➤ hydrophobia 10 days</li><li>➤ rabies-prone dog bite</li><li>➤ advanced disease phase</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community by Rajvir Balwar, 2 nd ed, pg 23.</li><li>➤ Ref : Text of Community by Rajvir Balwar, 2 nd ed, pg 23.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is reviewing infectious disease terminology in preparation for his exams. He comes across a term that describes a pathogen's capacity to cause noticeable illness in a host. Which of the following terms best defines this concept?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infectivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pathogenicity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "virulence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fatality.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pathogenicity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pathogenicity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Infectivity: ability of an infectious agent to invade and multiply (produce infection) in a host .</li><li>• Option A. Infectivity:</li><li>• ability</li><li>• infectious agent</li><li>• invade and multiply</li><li>• host</li><li>• Option C. Virulence: proportion of clinical cases resulting in severe clinical manifestations (including sequelae).</li><li>• Option C. Virulence:</li><li>• proportion</li><li>• clinical cases</li><li>• severe clinical manifestations</li><li>• Option D. Fatality: Death due to disease .</li><li>• Option D. Fatality:</li><li>• Death</li><li>• disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Define pathogenicity as a pathogen's ability to produce clinically apparent illness in a host , distinguishing it from other related infectious disease terms.</li><li>➤ Define pathogenicity</li><li>➤ pathogen's ability</li><li>➤ produce</li><li>➤ clinically apparent illness</li><li>➤ host</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In 2023, India reported, life expectancy at birth as 70.4 years, expected years of schooling as 11.9 years, mean years of schooling as 6.7 years, and GNI Per capita as 6590 US Dollars. What is the HDI of the country?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.589", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.741", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.615", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.598", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.615", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/01-2_o1GsNN9.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/02.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 0.615</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• HDI Calculation -</li><li>• Given:</li><li>• Life expectancy at birth: 70.4 years Expected years of schooling: 11.9 years Mean years of schooling: 6.7 years GNI Per capita: 6590 US Dollars</li><li>• Life expectancy at birth: 70.4 years</li><li>• Expected years of schooling: 11.9 years</li><li>• Mean years of schooling: 6.7 years</li><li>• GNI Per capita: 6590 US Dollars</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ HDI comprises Knowledge (Literacy and Mean years of schooling), Income and Longevity (Life Expectancy at Birth)</li><li>➤ HDI comprises Knowledge</li><li>➤ Income and Longevity</li><li>➤ HDI of India is 0.640 (Rank 130)</li><li>➤ HDI</li><li>➤ India is 0.640</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 18</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 18</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An epidemiologist is conducting a workshop for medical students on disease progression and diagnosis. During the session, she uses the metaphor of an iceberg to explain the prevalence of certain diseases within the community. While the tip of the iceberg represents those cases that are overt and diagnosed, the submerged part denotes those not readily visible or diagnosed. The submerged portion is often much larger and represents a significant part of the affected population. Which of the following does NOT accurately characterize this submerged portion of the iceberg metaphor?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diagnosed cases under treatment", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Undiagnosed cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carriers sub clinical cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Latent &amp; Healthy population", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Diagnosed cases under treatment", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/ES9xLBLtQI7HCou48VYPY3HMlxMB3xYC5Sic3QyKDvVQDu9FsyzUxRTPRkaghUzwJCNghiYzhBiFWWrieWVHlusf47ACGeezeJlsdpJmbELaZ5yTO27jPotlskB1EqEQ4_wSu57w5EhBAArINmLCw_M"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Diagnosed cases under treatment</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Iceberg Phenomenon of disease: Disease in a community may be compared to an iceberg Floating tip is what physician sees in community, i.e.,clinical cases Vast submerged portion of iceberg represents hidden mass of disease, i.e., latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in community Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections Water surrounding iceberg: Healthy population</li><li>• Iceberg Phenomenon of disease: Disease in a community may be compared to an iceberg Floating tip is what physician sees in community, i.e.,clinical cases Vast submerged portion of iceberg represents hidden mass of disease, i.e., latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in community Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections Water surrounding iceberg: Healthy population</li><li>• Floating tip is what physician sees in community, i.e.,clinical cases Vast submerged portion of iceberg represents hidden mass of disease, i.e., latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in community Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections Water surrounding iceberg: Healthy population</li><li>• Floating tip is what physician sees in community, i.e.,clinical cases</li><li>• Vast submerged portion of iceberg represents hidden mass of disease, i.e., latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in community</li><li>• Line of demarcation (water surface): Is between apparent and inapparent infections</li><li>• Water surrounding iceberg: Healthy population</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ ‘Epidemiologist is concerned with Hidden portion of iceberg’ whereas Clinician is concerned with Tip of iceberg ‘Screening is done for Hidden portion of Iceberg’ whereas diagnosis is done for tip of iceberg Iceberg phenomenon of disease is not shown by: Rabies Tetanus Measles Rubella</li><li>➤ ‘Epidemiologist is concerned with Hidden portion of iceberg’ whereas Clinician is concerned with Tip of iceberg</li><li>➤ ‘Screening is done for Hidden portion of Iceberg’ whereas diagnosis is done for tip of iceberg</li><li>➤ Iceberg phenomenon of disease is not shown by: Rabies Tetanus Measles Rubella</li><li>➤ Rabies Tetanus Measles Rubella</li><li>➤ Rabies</li><li>➤ Tetanus</li><li>➤ Measles</li><li>➤ Rubella</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 46</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 46</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 75-year-old female patient with a past medical history of arthritis and mild cognitive impairment is brought to your clinic by her daughter, who is concerned about her mother's ability to perform daily activities independently. You decide to conduct a comprehensive evaluation to determine the patient's functional status and need for assistance. Considering various indices to measure disability, which of the following would be the most appropriate to exclude from your assessment if you are specifically focusing on the patient’s physical and cognitive ability to perform daily activities?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Health Adjusted Life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sullivan’s index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Quality adjusted life years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physical Quality of Life Index", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Physical Quality of Life Index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Physical Quality of Life Index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A . HALE : Health-adjusted life expectancy : Equivalent number of years in “full health” that a new-born can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and mortality</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• HALE</li><li>• Health-adjusted life expectancy</li><li>• Equivalent number of years in “full health”</li><li>• new-born can expect to live</li><li>• current rates of ill health</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• Option B . Sullivan’s Index, now called DFLE (Disability-free life expectancy), means the average number of years an individual is expected to live free of disability (given the current mortality and disability). It is calculated as Life expectancy minus duration of disability</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Sullivan’s Index,</li><li>• DFLE</li><li>• average number of years</li><li>• individual is expected to live free of disability</li><li>• Life expectancy minus duration of disability</li><li>• Option C . QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years) is the measure of both quality and quantity of life lived . It is the years of life lived in perfect health and gives the best assessment of cost-effectiveness of the intervention.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• QALY</li><li>• measure of both quality</li><li>• quantity of life lived</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Following are the measures of Disability Rates:</li><li>➤ QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years) - QALY is a measure of both quality and quantity of life lived. QALY is years of life lived in perfect health. DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Years) - DALY is BEST measure of burden of disease in a defined population DFLE (Disability free life expectancy) = Sullivan's index</li><li>➤ QALY (Quality Adjusted Life Years) - QALY is a measure of both quality and quantity of life lived. QALY is years of life lived in perfect health.</li><li>➤ QALY</li><li>➤ DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Years) - DALY is BEST measure of burden of disease in a defined population</li><li>➤ DALY</li><li>➤ DFLE (Disability free life expectancy) = Sullivan's index</li><li>➤ DFLE</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 48-year-old policy maker is evaluating different indices to understand the overall health status of a population in a particular region. He comes across the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) and wants to understand its components and utilization better. Which of the following statements about the PQLI is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Performance ranges between 0-1", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Includes IMR, Life expectancy at age 1 and literacy rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "PQLI doesn’t not measure economic growth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sri Lanka has high PQLI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Performance ranges between 0-1", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/03/screenshot-2024-04-03-182754.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Performance ranges between 0-1</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• PQLI consolidates three indicators - infant mortality , life expectancy at age one , and literacy . It is calculated by averaging the three indicators , giving equal weight to each of them . The resulting PQLI thus is scaled 0 to 100. Sri Lanka and Kerala state in India have low per capita incomes with high PQLIs . PQLI does not measure economic growth; it measures the results of social, economic and political policies</li><li>• PQLI consolidates three indicators - infant mortality , life expectancy at age one , and literacy . It is calculated by averaging the three indicators , giving equal weight to each of them . The resulting PQLI thus is scaled 0 to 100.</li><li>• PQLI consolidates three indicators</li><li>• infant mortality</li><li>• life expectancy at age one</li><li>• literacy</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• averaging the three indicators</li><li>• equal weight to each of them</li><li>• Sri Lanka and Kerala state in India have low per capita incomes with high PQLIs .</li><li>• Sri Lanka</li><li>• Kerala state in India</li><li>• low per capita incomes</li><li>• high PQLIs</li><li>• PQLI does not measure economic growth; it measures the results of social, economic and political policies</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ HDI Vs PQLI</li><li>➤ HDI Vs PQLI</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health administrator is working on a global health project to assess the developmental progress of various countries. One of her tasks is to classify countries based on their Human Development Index (HDI) to better allocate resources and design interventions. The HDI is a composite index that assesses a country's average achievements in three basic aspects of human development: health, knowledge, and standard of living. Given this context, how would the administrator categorize India based on its HDI ranking?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Very low", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medium", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "High", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/screenshot-2024-04-04-142523.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/screenshot-2024-04-04-142615_kzj4S3d.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/picture3_Ffiok8Y.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Medium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• India’s HDI for 2021 - 0.633.</li><li>• HDI is a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development :</li><li>• HDI</li><li>• composite index</li><li>• average achievement</li><li>• three basic dimensions of human development</li><li>• Long and healthy life : Life expectancy at birth. Knowledge : Measured by a combination of expected years of schooling and mean years of schooling. Decent standard of living : Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.</li><li>• Long and healthy life : Life expectancy at birth.</li><li>• Long and healthy life</li><li>• Knowledge : Measured by a combination of expected years of schooling and mean years of schooling.</li><li>• Knowledge</li><li>• Decent standard of living : Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.</li><li>• Decent standard of living</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ HDI values range : 0 to + 1 (HDI of India is 0.633 &amp; Rank is 130 out of 189 countries) Human poverty index [HPI] is complementary to HDI</li><li>➤ HDI values range : 0 to + 1 (HDI of India is 0.633 &amp; Rank is 130 out of 189 countries)</li><li>➤ HDI values range</li><li>➤ 0 to + 1</li><li>➤ Human poverty index [HPI] is complementary to HDI</li><li>➤ Human poverty index</li><li>➤ complementary to HDI</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 18, Human Development Report 2021-22- UNDP</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 18, Human Development Report 2021-22- UNDP</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "To analyze the overall health and longevity of a population, a public health specialist reviews various mortality and health-related indicators. He understands that most of the following indicators provide insights into the mortality rates and life expectancy. Among the following indicators, which one does NOT primarily measure mortality?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Years of Potential life lost", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case fatality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "HALE", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. HALE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/11/picture2_5SlC70B.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/screenshot-2024-04-04-144547.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. HALE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A . Life Expectancy is the average number of additional years that a man is expected to live . It is commonly measured as Life expectancy at birth. It is a positive mortality indicator.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Life Expectancy</li><li>• average number of additional years</li><li>• expected to live</li><li>• Option B . Years of Potential Life Lost : It is based on the years of life lost through premature death . It is a type of mortality indicator.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Years of Potential Life Lost</li><li>• years of life lost</li><li>• premature death</li><li>• Option C . Case Fatality Rate: It is the number of deaths among the cases of a specific disease in a specified amount of time . It is mortality indicator and it depicts the virulence of the organism. It is typically used for acute infections.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Case Fatality Rate:</li><li>• number of deaths</li><li>• cases of a specific disease</li><li>• specified amount of time</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 26.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A microbiologist is teaching her students about the historical and foundational principles used to establish a causative relationship between a specific microorganism and a disease. She discusses Koch’s postulates, which consist of a series of criteria developed by Robert Koch in the 19th century. She emphasizes that while these postulates have played a crucial role in the field of microbiology and infectious diseases, there are certain limitations and exceptions to their applicability. She presents a list of statements to her students and asks them to identify which of the following does NOT constitute Koch's postulates.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The disease agent occurs in every case of that disease.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It occurs in other disease as a non-pathogenic parasite.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It must reproduce the original disease when introduced into a susceptible host", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It should be fully isolated from the body and repeatedly grown in pure culture.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It occurs in other disease as a non-pathogenic parasite.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It occurs in other disease as a non-pathogenic parasite.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• KOCHS POSTULATES:</li><li>• KOCHS POSTULATES:</li><li>• The disease agent occurs in every case of that disease and under circumstances which can account for the pathological changes and clinical course of the disease. It occurs in no other disease as a non-pathogenic parasite . After being fully isolated from the body and repeatedly grown in pure culture, it can induce the disease again.</li><li>• The disease agent occurs in every case of that disease and under circumstances which can account for the pathological changes and clinical course of the disease.</li><li>• disease agent</li><li>• every case of that disease</li><li>• under circumstances</li><li>• account for the pathological changes</li><li>• It occurs in no other disease as a non-pathogenic parasite .</li><li>• no other disease</li><li>• non-pathogenic parasite</li><li>• After being fully isolated from the body and repeatedly grown in pure culture, it can induce the disease again.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Robert Koch was a distinguished German microbiologist ; Koch's legacy lies in the germ theory of disease . He is famed for determining the pathogens responsible for tuberculosis, cholera, and anthrax and for devising Koch's postulates.</li><li>➤ Robert Koch</li><li>➤ German microbiologist</li><li>➤ Koch's legacy</li><li>➤ germ theory of disease</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar 2 nd Ed pg 18.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar 2 nd Ed pg 18.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health expert is educating a group of medical students about various models used to understand the complexity of disease causation. He introduces the concept of the \"web of causation,\" then presents a list of characteristics related to it and asks the students to identify which statement does NOT accurately describe this model?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It considers all the predisposing factors and their complex inter relationship with each other.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Removal or elimination of just one major link that is sufficiently important in pathogenic process is sufficient to control disease.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "It shows the possible interventions that can be taken to reduce the occurrence of disease.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It implies that, at all instances, all the chains of causation must be controlled to prevent the disease.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. It implies that, at all instances, all the chains of causation must be controlled to prevent the disease.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/i9r4SEVFrbnH3A2dgRjd3YdIcT_RcsHulfV6DHBAvD14ztE1Q_NDpt-fmM8wkmZrtU2VuUWXJXhAEylv4L62dDS0-jZoQbKWXO9mc3UK2ep3HyaJzNMAo5rWulUSMl2foiyoVh80JGMpdCVxcdLTIVI"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. It implies that individual facts in the chain have equal weightage and all the chains of causation must be controlled to prevent the disease.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Model \"Web of causation\" - proposed by McMohan and Pugh</li><li>• \"Web of causation\"</li><li>• McMohan and Pugh</li><li>• The web of causation considers all the predisposing factors and their complex interrelationship with each other . This model is ideally suited to study chronic disease . The web of causation does not imply that the disease is controlled only when all the multiple chains of causation are removed.</li><li>• web of causation</li><li>• predisposing factors</li><li>• complex interrelationship with each other</li><li>• model is ideally suited</li><li>• study chronic disease</li><li>• For preventing a disease , it is not necessary to take action against all the factors -identifying the “weakest links” in the inter-lacing webs , actions directed to these weakest links may be of considerable value in prevention.</li><li>• preventing a disease</li><li>• take action against all the factors</li><li>• “weakest links”</li><li>• inter-lacing webs</li><li>• actions directed</li><li>• weakest links</li><li>• value in prevention.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The educational objective is to understand the \"web of causation\" model in public health , which is used to describe the complex and interconnected factors leading to the development of diseases . This model highlights that disease prevention and intervention can be multifaceted and does not require the control of all factors, challenging the simplistic linear chain of causation approach.</li><li>➤ \"web of causation\" model</li><li>➤ public health</li><li>➤ complex</li><li>➤ interconnected factors</li><li>➤ development of diseases</li><li>➤ model highlights</li><li>➤ disease prevention</li><li>➤ intervention</li><li>➤ multifaceted</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 41.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 41.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Human development Index is a composite of all of the following parameters, except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Level of schooling", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Economic status", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Life expectancy at birth", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Infant Mortality rate", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Infant Mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/04/screenshot-2024-04-04-144952.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Infant Mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Human development index (HDI) is a composite index which includes three basic dimensions of human development :</li><li>• Human development index</li><li>• composite index</li><li>• three basic dimensions</li><li>• human development</li><li>• To lead a long and healthy life - measured by life expectancy at birth. The ability to acquire knowledge - measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling The ability to achieve decent standard of living - measured by gross national income per capita in PPP US $</li><li>• To lead a long and healthy life - measured by life expectancy at birth.</li><li>• To lead a long and healthy life</li><li>• The ability to acquire knowledge - measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling</li><li>• The ability to acquire knowledge</li><li>• The ability to achieve decent standard of living - measured by gross national income per capita in PPP US $</li><li>• The ability to achieve decent standard of living</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 17.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the context of public health, factors that facilitate the development of a disease or aid in recovery from an illness are crucial for understanding health outcomes. These factors can either expose individuals to higher risk or enhance their ability to cope and recover. Which term best describes these elements?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Predisposing factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Enabling factor", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Precipitating factor", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reinforcing factor.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Enabling factor", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Enabling factor</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Predisposing factors: Factors which create a state of susceptibility , so that the host becomes vulnerable to the agent or to necessary cause, e.g. age, sex, previous illness.</li><li>• Option A. Predisposing factors:</li><li>• create a state of susceptibility</li><li>• host becomes vulnerable</li><li>• agent</li><li>• Option C. Precipitating factors: Are those that are associated with immediate exposure to the disease agent or onset of disease, e.g. drinking contaminated water, close contact with an open case of pulmonary TB.</li><li>• Option C. Precipitating factors:</li><li>• associated with immediate exposure</li><li>• disease agent</li><li>• Option D. Reinforcing factors: Are those which aggravate an already existing disease , e.g. malnutrition, repeated, exposures, etc.</li><li>• Option D. Reinforcing factors:</li><li>• aggravate an already existing disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Enabling factors specifically refer to conditions that facilitate the development of a disease or support the recovery process , which can be essential for designing effective health interventions and recovery programs .</li><li>➤ Enabling factors</li><li>➤ conditions that facilitate the development of a disease</li><li>➤ support the recovery process</li><li>➤ designing effective health interventions</li><li>➤ recovery programs</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Red Book pg 20</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Red Book pg 20</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Sensitive indicator on availability, utilization and effectiveness of health care services in a country is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DALY", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infant Mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hospital bed occupancy rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Infant Mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/image-20230707113454-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039020.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Infant Mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A . Life Expectancy : It is the average number of additional years that a person of a given age can expect to live . Most common measure of life expectancy is life expectancy at birth. Currently, it is 70.42 years (2023).</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Life Expectancy</li><li>• average number of additional years</li><li>• person of a given age can expect to live</li><li>• Option B . DALY is disability-adjusted life years , which is the best measure of disease burden , including both reduction in life expectancy and diminished quality of life. It can measure both mortality and disability together.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• DALY</li><li>• disability-adjusted life years</li><li>• best measure of disease burden</li><li>• DALY = YLL (years of life lost) + YLD (years lost to disability)</li><li>• Option C. Hospital bed occupancy rate - Is calculated as the number of hospital bed-days related to curative care divided by the number of available curative care beds (multiplied by 365).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Hospital bed occupancy rate</li><li>• calculated</li><li>• number of hospital bed-days</li><li>• curative care</li><li>• divided</li><li>• number of available curative care beds</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed, pg25.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed, pg25.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Simplest measure of estimating burden of a disease in the community is?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disease specific mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proportional mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DALY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Years of Potential life lost", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Proportional mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039022.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Proportional mortality rate.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Disease specific mortality rate : It is the number of deaths occurring in a community due to a specific disease in a given period of time.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Disease specific mortality rate</li><li>• number of deaths</li><li>• community</li><li>• Option C. DALY is disability-adjusted life years , which is the best measure of disease burden , including both reduction in life expectancy and diminished quality of life. It can measure both mortality and disability together.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• DALY</li><li>• disability-adjusted life years</li><li>• best measure of disease burden</li><li>• DALY = YLL (years of life lost) + YLD (years lost to disability)</li><li>• Option D. Years of Potential Life Lost : It is based on the years of life lost through premature death. It is a type of mortality indicator.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Years of Potential Life Lost</li><li>• years of life lost</li><li>• premature death.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 25.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 25.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following index refers to Sullivan’s index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Life expectancy at birth", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disability free life expectancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Average life expectancy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Expectation of life at 1 year of age", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Disability free life expectancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Disability free life expectancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sullivan’s indicator is a health state measure of a group of persons which is independent of its age structure.</li><li>• Sullivan’s indicator</li><li>• health state measure</li><li>• group of persons</li><li>• independent</li><li>• age structure.</li><li>• Sullivan’s Index , now called DFLE (Disability-free life expectancy), means the average number of years an individual is expected to live free of disability (given the current mortality and disability). It is calculated as Life expectancy minus duration of disability</li><li>• Sullivan’s Index</li><li>• DFLE</li><li>• average number of years</li><li>• individual is expected to live free</li><li>• disability</li><li>• calculated as Life expectancy minus duration of disability</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ DFLE = Sullivan's Index</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community medicine, AH Suryakantha, 4 th ed, pg10.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community medicine, AH Suryakantha, 4 th ed, pg10.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Kapoor, a public health expert in Delhi, is giving a lecture on different health indicators. He discusses various metrics used to gauge the health of a population. Which of the following metrics presented by him is specifically considered a Mortality Indicator?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Notification Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Life expectancy", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "DALY", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bed turnover ratio", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Life expectancy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Life expectancy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation :</li><li>• Option A . Notification Rate is related to the number of cases of a particular disease that are reported in a specific time period.</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• Notification Rate</li><li>• number of cases</li><li>• particular disease</li><li>• Option C . DALY : Disability-Adjusted Life Years is a composite measure that combines information on premature mortality (years of life lost due to premature death) and morbidity (years lived with disability).</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• DALY</li><li>• Disability-Adjusted Life Years</li><li>• composite measure</li><li>• combines information</li><li>• premature mortality</li><li>• morbidity</li><li>• Option D . Bed turn-over ratio is a measure of hospital efficiency and represents the number of times a hospital bed gets occupied in a specific time frame.</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Bed turn-over ratio</li><li>• measure of hospital efficiency</li><li>• number of times</li><li>• hospital bed gets occupied</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Life Expectancy is a direct Mortality Indicator , contrasting with Notification's disease report focus , DALY's is a type of disability rate , and Bed turn-over's hospital efficiency metric / health care utilization rate .</li><li>➤ Life Expectancy</li><li>➤ direct Mortality Indicator</li><li>➤ Notification's disease report focus</li><li>➤ DALY's</li><li>➤ type of disability rate</li><li>➤ Bed turn-over's hospital efficiency metric</li><li>➤ health care utilization rate</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg25</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg25</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health data analyst is in the process of compiling and categorizing various health indicators for a comprehensive report. While sorting out the indicators based on their components, he comes across the \"Output\" component of the 100 core health indicators. Which of the following does not belong to the \"Output\" component of these core health indicators?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Service access and availability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Service quality and safety", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Health security", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Financial risk protection", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Financial risk protection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Financial risk protection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• WHO collaborated with international and multilateral partners and countries to develop and agree on a global reference list of 100 core health indicators that the global community would prioritize for the purposes of monitoring national and global progress , maintaining programme support, and advocating for resources and funding.</li><li>• WHO collaborated</li><li>• international and multilateral partners</li><li>• countries to develop</li><li>• global reference list of 100 core health indicators</li><li>• global community</li><li>• prioritize</li><li>• purposes of monitoring national</li><li>• global progress</li><li>• The main objectives are</li><li>• To guide monitoring of health results nationally and globally; To reduce excessive and duplicative reporting requirements; To enhance efficiency of data collection investments in countries; To enhance availability and quality of data on results; and To improve transparency and accountability.</li><li>• To guide monitoring of health results nationally and globally;</li><li>• To reduce excessive and duplicative reporting requirements;</li><li>• To enhance efficiency of data collection investments in countries;</li><li>• To enhance availability and quality of data on results; and</li><li>• To improve transparency and accountability.</li><li>• Inputs and processes</li><li>• Inputs and processes</li><li>• Health financing Health workforce Health infrastructure Health information</li><li>• Health financing</li><li>• Health workforce</li><li>• Health infrastructure</li><li>• Health information</li><li>• Output</li><li>• Output</li><li>• Service access and availability Service quality and safety Health security</li><li>• Service access and availability</li><li>• Service quality and safety</li><li>• Health security</li><li>• Outcome</li><li>• Outcome</li><li>• Coverage of interventions Risk factors and Behaviors</li><li>• Coverage of interventions</li><li>• Risk factors and Behaviors</li><li>• Impact</li><li>• Impact</li><li>• Health status Financial risk protection</li><li>• Health status</li><li>• Financial risk protection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ The global reference list of 100 core health indicators - the output component ‘includes following indicators</li><li>➤ global reference list</li><li>➤ 100 core health indicators</li><li>➤ Service access and availability Service quality and safety Health security</li><li>➤ Service access and availability</li><li>➤ Service quality and safety</li><li>➤ Health security</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 30</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 30</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man is living in an area where there has been a recent outbreak of a contagious viral disease. The disease agent has not yet entered his body, but all the environmental conditions and factors favoring interaction between the host and the agent are present. He is currently healthy and does not exhibit any symptoms of the disease. Based on this scenario, in which stage of the natural history of disease is this man currently situated?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pathogenesis phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pre pathogenesis phase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Pre symptomatic phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Latent phase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Pre pathogenesis phase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/07/image-20230707160024-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Pre pathogenesis phase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Natural history of disease – This refers to the progression of a disease in an individual over time , in the absence of treatment . It has two phases, a period of prepathogenesis and a period of pathogenesis.</li><li>• Natural history of disease</li><li>• progression of a disease</li><li>• individual over time</li><li>• absence of treatment</li><li>• 1. Pre pathogenesis phase - This refers to the period preliminary to the onset of disease in man . The disease agent has not yet entered man, but the factors which favor its interaction with the human host are already existing in the environment . It is the period of susceptibility.</li><li>• Pre pathogenesis phase</li><li>• period preliminary to the onset of disease in man</li><li>• .</li><li>• 2 . Pathogenesis phase - It begins with the entry of the disease \"agent\" in the susceptible human host . Progress through period of incubation and later through early and late pathogenesis. Pathogenesis may be modified by interventions such as immunization and chemotherapy.</li><li>• . Pathogenesis phase</li><li>• begins with the entry of the disease \"agent\" in the susceptible human host</li><li>• Rehabilitation has been defined as the use of medical, social, educational, and vocational measures for training the individual to the highest possible level of functional ability</li><li>• Rehabilitation</li><li>• use of medical, social, educational, and vocational measures</li><li>• training the individual</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 42.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 42.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The maximum and minimum value for life expectancy in HDI ranges between?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20 to 85 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "20.2 to 70.6 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 to 83.2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "20.6 to 80.2 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 20 to 85 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/08/screenshot-2023-12-08-103926.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/12/08/screenshot-2023-12-08-103040.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 20 to 85 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• HDI – Human Development Index</li><li>• HDI</li><li>• Human Development Index</li><li>• It is a composite index used to assess the health status and development of a country .</li><li>• composite index</li><li>• assess the health status</li><li>• development of a country</li><li>• Life Expectancy at Birth Education (Mean years of schooling and Completed &amp; Expected Years of Schooling) Standard of Living (Per capita income/Purchasing power parity) </li><li>• Life Expectancy at Birth</li><li>• Life Expectancy</li><li>• Birth</li><li>• Education (Mean years of schooling and Completed &amp; Expected Years of Schooling)</li><li>• Education</li><li>• Standard of Living (Per capita income/Purchasing power parity) </li><li>• Standard of Living</li><li>• HDI index as per New Guidelines for calculation, 2018 -</li><li>• Calculation of each dimension index:</li><li>• Calculation of each dimension index:</li><li>• Calculation of each dimension index:</li><li>• HDI is Geometric mean of 3-dimension indices – I life 1/3 x I Education 1/3 x I Income 1/3 HDI values range: 0 to + 1 HDI India is 0.633 (Rank 132 out of 189 countries) [2022] Human poverty index [HPI] is complementary to HDI.</li><li>• HDI is Geometric mean of 3-dimension indices – I life 1/3 x I Education 1/3 x I Income 1/3</li><li>• HDI values range: 0 to + 1</li><li>• HDI India is 0.633 (Rank 132 out of 189 countries) [2022]</li><li>• Human poverty index [HPI] is complementary to HDI.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26th ed, pg 18</li><li>• Ref : Park 26th ed, pg 18</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 39 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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While going through archives, she stumbles upon an early method of inducing immunity against smallpox by introducing material from cowpox lesions. She recalls reading about a British scientist who pioneered this method and coined a term that forms the basis of modern preventive medicine against infectious diseases. Identify the following scientist?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Louis Pasteur", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Robert Koch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edward Jenner", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "James Lind", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Edward Jenner", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/116.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/st0yUlMTqTVIYbe0_T5lh2_gzgBNaITolIqmXA6r-L6AnQx6dy0mNVmKCFtX_VJECZ3JYHLlfNtxFg5S9JIoDh_F1XoNbLP2I8rEVDdKBXlhuLd9nDaSC7Ukd9TYg90PZ0qa-aCYSoGeY05g2KJLK9M", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image.png", "https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/uT9qU5VsNeHUCQva_P_-bLHJdh6TFN6LNn14J2fLc4SfyuXl1Wm7-vg_FzX5RmIhpG2L2Im3QZMycEcXgfHIxar4bQQQZxl_JKAZBIjHsODJXQQo_0nN8wHB_e3zIEAmL4CTJk_SYAiXKkLafOlzvPs", "https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/QJiQpPv5bXTjO_4IPZIa2zY_iuuSSyoJ8b6WUSwh3AqbuyKiPoUF6OJea-wjEuMjwKpZKjOu8IoxtfdH2CnkiamrRhK4gGqPY_3NL0U_smdf-xeK2zwmgWnRuz8NWW8ew6rNr2fmWRfv2qOrqzNQhzo"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Edward Jenner</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Louis Pasteur: Formulated Germ theory of disease, Father of Microbiology , Father of Modern Microbiology , Father of Bacteriology , coined the term vaccine, developed vaccine against rabies and anthrax , Techniques of ‘Sterilization’ and ‘Pasteurization’</li><li>• Option A. Louis Pasteur:</li><li>• Germ theory of disease,</li><li>• Father</li><li>• Microbiology</li><li>• Modern Microbiology</li><li>• Bacteriology</li><li>• term vaccine,</li><li>• vaccine against rabies and anthrax</li><li>• ‘Sterilization’ and ‘Pasteurization’</li><li>• Louis Pasteur Pic</li><li>• Option B. Robert Koch: Father of bacteriology , discovered causative organism for Anthrax, TB and Cholera , gave experimental support for concept of infectious disease, Koch’s postulates (a series of four generalized principles linking specific microorganisms to specific diseases that remain today the “ gold standard ” in medical microbiology), received Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1905 .</li><li>• Option B. Robert Koch:</li><li>• Father</li><li>• bacteriology</li><li>• causative</li><li>• organism</li><li>• Anthrax, TB</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• support</li><li>• infectious disease, Koch’s postulates</li><li>• four generalized principles</li><li>• specific microorganisms</li><li>• specific diseases</li><li>• gold standard</li><li>• Nobel Prize</li><li>• Physiology</li><li>• Medicine</li><li>• 1905</li><li>• Robert Koch Pic</li><li>• Option D. James Lind: Discovered prevention of scurvy by intake of citrus fruits.</li><li>• Option D. James Lind:</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• scurvy</li><li>• citrus fruits.</li><li>• James Lind Pic</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Edward Jenner - Father of immunology, Small pox vaccine Louis Pasteur - Father of Microbiology/ Modern Microbiology , Father of Bacteriology, coined the term vaccine, developed vaccine against rabies and anthrax , Techniques of ‘Sterilization’ and ‘Pasteurization’ Robert Koch - father of bacteriology , discovered causative organism for Anthrax, TB and Cholera. James Lind : discovered prevention of scurvy by intake of citrus fruits.</li><li>➤ Edward Jenner - Father of immunology, Small pox vaccine</li><li>➤ Edward Jenner</li><li>➤ Father</li><li>➤ immunology, Small pox vaccine</li><li>➤ Louis Pasteur - Father of Microbiology/ Modern Microbiology , Father of Bacteriology, coined the term vaccine, developed vaccine against rabies and anthrax , Techniques of ‘Sterilization’ and ‘Pasteurization’</li><li>➤ Louis Pasteur</li><li>➤ Father</li><li>➤ Microbiology/ Modern Microbiology</li><li>➤ Bacteriology,</li><li>➤ term vaccine,</li><li>➤ vaccine against rabies and anthrax</li><li>➤ ‘Sterilization’ and ‘Pasteurization’</li><li>➤ Robert Koch - father of bacteriology , discovered causative organism for Anthrax, TB and Cholera.</li><li>➤ Robert Koch</li><li>➤ father</li><li>➤ bacteriology</li><li>➤ causative organism</li><li>➤ Anthrax, TB and Cholera.</li><li>➤ James Lind : discovered prevention of scurvy by intake of citrus fruits.</li><li>➤ James Lind</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ scurvy</li><li>➤ intake</li><li>➤ citrus fruits.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 6)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 6)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman from Mumbai has been seeking alternative therapeutic methods for her recurrent irritable bowel syndrome. During her visit to a holistic health clinic, she is introduced to a therapeutic system that emphasizes treatments with highly diluted substances to activate the body's natural healing processes. She learns that this system originated in Germany in the late 18th century. Identify the following founder who is credited for this therapeutic approach?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Samuel Hahnemann", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Avicenna", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Claude Bernard", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Andreas Vesalius", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Samuel Hahnemann", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/117.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image-20240123174939-1.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image-20240123175008-2.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image-20240123175030-3.jpeg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image_bhH3ln6.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Samuel Hahnemann</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Avicenna: Wrote the book The Canon of Medicine , The Book on Healing.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Avicenna:</li><li>• The Canon of Medicine</li><li>• Healing.</li><li>• Option C. Claude Bernard : Father of physiology.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Claude Bernard</li><li>• physiology.</li><li>• Option D. Andreas Vesalius : Father of modern anatomy.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Andreas Vesalius</li><li>• modern anatomy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 2)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 2)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old medical historian from Chennai is working on a paper about the roots of epidemiology. While discussing the origins with her mentor, they talk about an ancient physician as the first true epidemiologist in the history of medicine. This physician made early observations about the seasonal nature of certain diseases and the influence of the environment and living habits on health. Identify the following historical figure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Joseph Lister", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Avicenna", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hippocrates", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "James Lind", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hippocrates", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/118.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image-20231017123725-1.webp", "https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcSSzxz2qOj5u5HrwLkvGc6sgHzY1dyZL1xMaC3-xjDxR8tjl1BxtXoT9mgEMaqDHFxC3rEW-aZUVRYAqVVpXxixkbdTxnCtCKfh_SUaAw&s=10", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image-20231017123918-2.webp", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-151254.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hippocrates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Joseph Lister: Father of anti-sepsis/ modern surgery , wrote book \" Antiseptic Principle of the Practice of Surgery. \"</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Joseph Lister:</li><li>• Father</li><li>• anti-sepsis/ modern surgery</li><li>• Antiseptic Principle</li><li>• Practice of Surgery.</li><li>• Joseph Lister</li><li>• Option B. Avicenna: Wrote the book canon of medicine.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Avicenna:</li><li>• canon of medicine.</li><li>• Option D. James Lind: discovered that Citrus fruits could treat scurvy.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• James Lind:</li><li>• Citrus fruits</li><li>• treat scurvy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 3)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 3)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health seminar at a university in Pune, the professor highlights the significance of an 1854 cholera outbreak in London. This physician, often referred to as the \"Father of Modern Epidemiology,\" employed a novel approach by mapping the distribution of cholera cases in the city. His work played a pivotal role in understanding disease transmission and laid the foundation for modern methods in epidemiology. Who is the following renowned figure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Louis Pasteur", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Robert Koch", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edward Jenner", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "John Snow", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. John Snow", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/119.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/YcYS6kyKd7J2OUAlw4K1Vx0Ydj0zoI248shaM5nHo7ZHYjGXpjfPhzv5GpK5PxnWjzVhiKwbR9cGMxpDcTGD_2hOhgKp6xGOeFk3Mul50YK0MHTY0rsK-eUvRvm9Giy2Pw4hE3ZJ7DAdGEZ6Mb2ouAI", "https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/uT9qU5VsNeHUCQva_P_-bLHJdh6TFN6LNn14J2fLc4SfyuXl1Wm7-vg_FzX5RmIhpG2L2Im3QZMycEcXgfHIxar4bQQQZxl_JKAZBIjHsODJXQQo_0nN8wHB_e3zIEAmL4CTJk_SYAiXKkLafOlzvPs", "https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/CrvyRh5S5PEy8C3QksZjjtXKEiUBGm_r24sI4SVnPCifUT8kd4CE4zk4hV8ntpHbsm1maiMma5Fs6nEK4aZNwg_5oHYoqdshAO4MEPMcQxEUWBufBjbQzqaQtUbDFa0l9tTIB3Gqcbu-pVsb-2DVNFU"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. John Snow</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Louis Pasteur (1822-95) : Celebrated for his discoveries in vaccination (developed vaccine for rabies, chicken pox &amp; cholera ), microbial fermentation , sterilization and pasteurization techniques , Pasteur was instrumental in establishing the germ theory of disease.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Louis Pasteur (1822-95)</li><li>• discoveries</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• rabies,</li><li>• chicken pox &amp; cholera</li><li>• microbial fermentation</li><li>• sterilization</li><li>• pasteurization techniques</li><li>• instrumental</li><li>• germ theory of disease.</li><li>• Pic - Louis Pasteur</li><li>• Option B. Robert Koch : A distinguished German microbiologist , Koch's legacy lies in the germ theory of disease . He is famed for determining the pathogens responsible for tuberculosis, cholera and anthrax and for devising Koch's postulates.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Robert Koch</li><li>• distinguished</li><li>• German microbiologist</li><li>• Koch's legacy</li><li>• lies</li><li>• germ theory</li><li>• disease</li><li>• famed</li><li>• pathogens</li><li>• for tuberculosis, cholera</li><li>• anthrax</li><li>• devising Koch's postulates.</li><li>• Pic - Robert Koch</li><li>• Option C. Edward Jenner: In 1796 , demonstrated that material taken from cowpox lesions (a disease similar to smallpox but much less severe) could protect against smallpox . This pioneering work was the foundation for the development of the first vaccine , and Edward Jenner is often referred to as the \" father of immunology .\" Coined the Term Vaccination</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Edward Jenner:</li><li>• 1796</li><li>• material</li><li>• cowpox lesions</li><li>• similar to smallpox</li><li>• against smallpox</li><li>• first vaccine</li><li>• Edward Jenner</li><li>• father of immunology</li><li>• Term Vaccination</li><li>• Pic - Edward Jenner</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The pioneering contributions of four key figures in medicine : John Snow's identification of a cholera outbreak source and anaesthesia dosing , Louis Pasteur's developments in vaccination and germ theory , Robert Koch's discovery of pathogen s causing major diseases , and Edward Jenner's foundational work in developing the first vaccine and coining the term vaccination.</li><li>➤ four</li><li>➤ figures</li><li>➤ medicine</li><li>➤ John Snow's</li><li>➤ cholera outbreak</li><li>➤ source</li><li>➤ anaesthesia dosing</li><li>➤ Louis Pasteur's</li><li>➤ vaccination and germ theory</li><li>➤ pathogen</li><li>➤ major diseases</li><li>➤ Edward Jenner's</li><li>➤ first vaccine</li><li>➤ coining</li><li>➤ vaccination.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 5)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 5)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old infectious disease specialist in Bengaluru is lecturing medical students about the history of public health interventions. She delves into the ancient practice of isolating individuals to prevent the spread of contagious diseases, a method still used today in various forms. She mentions a historical context where this concept was first introduced as a formal containment measure. For which disease was the concept of quarantine first applied?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Covid 19", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "SARS", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Plague", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cholera", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Plague", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Plague</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Covid 19: Covid 19 saw extensive use of quarantine measures, but it was not the first disease for which quarantine was applied.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A.</li><li>• Covid 19:</li><li>• quarantine</li><li>• not</li><li>• first disease</li><li>• quarantine</li><li>• applied.</li><li>• Option B. SARS: SARS also involved quarantine measures, but it came much later in history .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• SARS:</li><li>• quarantine</li><li>• came</li><li>• later</li><li>• history</li><li>• Option D. Cholera: Cholera outbreaks have led to quarantine measures, but these were instituted long after the concept was first applied to plague.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Cholera:</li><li>• Cholera</li><li>• outbreaks</li><li>• quarantine</li><li>• long</li><li>• first</li><li>• plague.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The historical origin of quarantine as a public health measure , was first applied during the outbreak of the plague , notably during the 14th century . The practice of isolating ships and people for a period (originally 40 days ) was intended to prevent the spread of the plague , which was devastating Europe at the time . This measure was a crucial step in the development of modern public health strategies .</li><li>➤ historical origin</li><li>➤ quarantine</li><li>➤ public health measure</li><li>➤ first</li><li>➤ outbreak of the plague</li><li>➤ 14th century</li><li>➤ isolating ships</li><li>➤ 40 days</li><li>➤ prevent</li><li>➤ spread</li><li>➤ plague</li><li>➤ devastating</li><li>➤ time</li><li>➤ modern public</li><li>➤ health strategies</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Red Book, Pg 442</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC Red Book, Pg 442</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Connect the appropriate pairs from the lists below.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i-c, ii- d, iii- e, iv- b, v- a", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i-e, ii- d, iii- c, iv- b, v- a", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i-b, ii- e, iii- c, iv- a, v- d", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i-b, ii- c, iii- a, iv- d, v- e", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. i-c, ii- d, iii- e, iv- b, v- a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/111.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/113.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. i- c, ii- d, iii- e, iv- b, v- a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ref : AFMC red book Pg 8</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : AFMC red book Pg 8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man from Jaipur with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes visits his local clinic. He has been out of work for several months and expresses concerns about affording his medications. The attending physician reassures him, explaining a system where medicines are provided to citizens without direct charge, covered entirely by the government's funds. This system of healthcare provision, aiming to reduce the economic burden on individuals, is known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "State medicine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Socialized medicine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social medicine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Community Medicine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. State medicine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.State medicine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option B. Socialized Medicine: Provision of medical service and professional education by the State, as in state medicine , but the programme is operated and regulated by professional groups rather than by government. This ensures the social equity that is universally operated by professional health services.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Socialized Medicine:</li><li>• medical service</li><li>• professional education</li><li>• state medicine</li><li>• programme</li><li>• regulated</li><li>• professional groups</li><li>• social equity</li><li>• universally operated</li><li>• professional health services.</li><li>• Option C. Social Medicine : Study of the social, economical, environmental , cultural, psychological and genetic factors , which have a bearing on health is known as Social medicine.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Social Medicine</li><li>• social, economical, environmental</li><li>• cultural, psychological</li><li>• genetic factors</li><li>• bearing</li><li>• Social medicine.</li><li>• Option D. Community Medicine: This is also known as public health or preventive medicine or Preventive and social medicine , is concerned with the health of populations and communities . It focuses on preventing disease , promoting health, and improving the overall well-being of communities.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Community Medicine:</li><li>• public health</li><li>• preventive medicine</li><li>• Preventive and social medicine</li><li>• health</li><li>• populations and communities</li><li>• preventing disease</li><li>• promoting health,</li><li>• improving</li><li>• well-being</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ State medicine implies the provision of free medical services to the people at the Government's expense .</li><li>➤ State medicine</li><li>➤ provision</li><li>➤ free medical services</li><li>➤ Government's expense</li><li>➤ First country to socialize medicine completely is Russia</li><li>➤ First country</li><li>➤ socialize medicine</li><li>➤ Russia</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 10)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 10)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a college debate competition in Chennai, students were discussing Pioneers and their work in the field of public health, over the centuries. One student highlighted the onset of a specific epidemic that marked the beginning of significant advances in public health, leading to revolutionary interventions and sanitation measures. These changes had a profound effect on urban planning and health policies. Out of the following options, which option is commonly referred to as the Father of Public Health?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "James Lind", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "John snow", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cholera", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cholera", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image_cNoLImL.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cholera</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• The cholera epidemics , especially during the 19th century , are often referred to as the \" Father of Public Health \" due to their significant impact on the development of modern public health practices . The cholera outbreaks led to a better understanding of disease transmission, highlighting the importance of sanitation, clean water supply and urban planning . It was during these times that monumental public health measures , such as the construction of modern sewer systems and water filtration processes , were implemented , which had lasting effects on public health infrastructure and policy.</li><li>• cholera</li><li>• epidemics</li><li>• 19th century</li><li>• referred</li><li>• Father of Public Health</li><li>• development</li><li>• modern public health practices</li><li>• cholera outbreaks</li><li>• better understanding</li><li>• disease transmission,</li><li>• sanitation, clean water supply</li><li>• urban planning</li><li>• monumental public health measures</li><li>• construction</li><li>• modern</li><li>• sewer systems</li><li>• water filtration processes</li><li>• implemented</li><li>• public health infrastructure</li><li>• policy.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Few Important Diseases in Public Health -</li><li>➤ Few Important Diseases in Public Health -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 27-year-old public health student from Pune is researching the history of epidemiology for her thesis. While studying the evolution of disease surveillance, she comes across a figure from the 19th century who was instrumental in developing methods for systematic collection and interpretation of health data, paving the way for contemporary epidemiological surveillance systems. This individual's pioneering work in analyzing the epidemiology of various diseases through advanced statistical methods has led him to be referred to as the \"father of modern epidemiological surveillance.\" Who is this figure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "William Farr", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "James Lind", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Edwin Chadwick", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pettenkofer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. William Farr", "question_images": ["https://lh4.googleusercontent.com/IvRNqcfdjGXD-wAOZQn1h5Zdfj8jpFnnLbZBqXY0f6KtRCucmqgP76BUJ5_sV0wssdCYxL2RHYUtDiZjckPHojJtwH1Na-PD2V8dfOL2lEkFEbPhcgCuodeK1xM0n8HJ6HmakwOYyZg29WS8xbAimls"], "explanation_images": ["https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/jD_F4Iy0lLh4b9uS2cQQ5SKgGJ0_TimNqtTR1HP73Ymb3Bwci7AuK2TgFkA1Yol3avMbrXFbeOwEN1tidnRzcBvJ-T3U5F8PbbSiO-DrCTuV8RCd3k6zun68auW4Ru39Ut9hWU_xiMxR8Vm9HR3XTlI", "https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/QJiQpPv5bXTjO_4IPZIa2zY_iuuSSyoJ8b6WUSwh3AqbuyKiPoUF6OJea-wjEuMjwKpZKjOu8IoxtfdH2CnkiamrRhK4gGqPY_3NL0U_smdf-xeK2zwmgWnRuz8NWW8ew6rNr2fmWRfv2qOrqzNQhzo", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image-20231017150325-1.webp", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image-20231017150739-2.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. William Farr</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B . James Lind: He is related to the discovery of the Prevention of scurvy through citrus fruits.</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• . James Lind:</li><li>• Prevention</li><li>• scurvy</li><li>• citrus fruits.</li><li>• Pic - James Lind</li><li>• Option C . Edwin Chadwick : He found the link between poor living standards and the spread and growth of disease . He reformed the urban sanitation and public health laws in England.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Edwin Chadwick</li><li>• link</li><li>• poor living standards</li><li>• spread</li><li>• growth of disease</li><li>• reformed</li><li>• urban sanitation</li><li>• public health</li><li>• laws</li><li>• England.</li><li>• Pic - Edwin Chadwick</li><li>• Option D. Pettenkofer: He was the prototype of a modern researcher . In the field of hygiene , he sought ways and means of preserving health and preventing sickness . He is effectively the founder of hygiene as a medical discipline.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Pettenkofer:</li><li>• prototype</li><li>• modern researcher</li><li>• hygiene</li><li>• sought</li><li>• preserving health and preventing</li><li>• sickness</li><li>• the founder of hygiene</li><li>• medical discipline.</li><li>• Pic - Pettenkofer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ William Farr is the father of modern epidemiological surveillance.</li><li>➤ William Farr</li><li>➤ father</li><li>➤ modern epidemiological surveillance.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Red book, pg. 14</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC Red book, pg. 14</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 29-year-old health policy student from Hyderabad is presenting a seminar on the topic of socialized medicine to her classmates. As she delves into the features and principles associated with the socialization of medicine, she lists several elements that are commonly included. However, one of her points is not a characteristic feature of socialized medicine. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the concept of the socialization of medicine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Health care at government expenses regulated by professional group.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Social equity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Abolishes competition between government and clients.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health care at own expenses", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Health care at own expenses", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Health care at own expenses</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Health care at government expenses regulated by professional group: Health care funded and regulated by the government is a central aspect of socialized medicine .</li><li>• Option A. Health care at government expenses regulated by professional group:</li><li>• Health care funded</li><li>• regulated</li><li>• government</li><li>• socialized medicine</li><li>• Option B. Social equity: Social equity is a key principle of socialized medicine , aiming to ensure equal access to healthcare services for all individuals .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Social equity:</li><li>• principle</li><li>• socialized medicine</li><li>• ensure</li><li>• healthcare services</li><li>• all individuals</li><li>• Option C. Abolishes competition between government and clients: The reduction or elimination of competition between government and clients is also a feature of socialized medicine , focusing on equitable service rather than profit-making.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Abolishes competition between government and clients:</li><li>• reduction or elimination</li><li>• competition</li><li>• government</li><li>• clients</li><li>• socialized medicine</li><li>• equitable service</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Socialization of medicine is the concept of free medicine which is provided by the Government and regulated by professional groups . By this, the competition between the Government and Private sectors is abolished and there is establishment of social equity . State Medicine is the Provision of free medical services to the people at government expense. Social Medicine is the study that focuses on the various factors affecting Health like social, economical, environmental, cultural, psychological , and genetic factors.</li><li>➤ Socialization of medicine is the concept of free medicine which is provided by the Government and regulated by professional groups . By this, the competition between the Government and Private sectors is abolished and there is establishment of social equity .</li><li>➤ Socialization</li><li>➤ medicine</li><li>➤ free medicine</li><li>➤ provided</li><li>➤ Government</li><li>➤ regulated</li><li>➤ professional groups</li><li>➤ Government and Private sectors</li><li>➤ abolished</li><li>➤ establishment</li><li>➤ social equity</li><li>➤ State Medicine is the Provision of free medical services to the people at government expense.</li><li>➤ State Medicine</li><li>➤ free medical services</li><li>➤ government expense.</li><li>➤ Social Medicine is the study that focuses on the various factors affecting Health like social, economical, environmental, cultural, psychological , and genetic factors.</li><li>➤ Social Medicine</li><li>➤ study</li><li>➤ social, economical, environmental, cultural, psychological</li><li>➤ genetic factors.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg10</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg10</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in New Delhi, postgraduate students are discussing historical figures who have significantly influenced modern medicine. One student speaks about an ancient physician who emphasized the importance of the environment in relation to human health, highlighting that this physician was one of the first to recognize that environmental factors can play a critical role in determining health outcomes. This physician's teachings laid the foundation for understanding the intricate interplay between environment and health. Who was this pioneering physician?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Charaka", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sushruta", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Galen", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hippocrates", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hippocrates", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh4.googleusercontent.com/xXRQjLxDzfT1oWp-MxcD2kidfATVg36TbBqTW68vjct67t79FBu-VhyNwVhAylGkcqCl-Prb7LaW4H1zqYaY65EEMB4oNRH2DURuKCVSCS2_II_T7eCucIAWPMApDEWwONW2ZRByjdxrx9-4bLlh410", "https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/Ndr9gb8iNTPQEzUX4Im6cd4htuZaUOQfQaNs3qKmPGPOEf62tr9hcgBQsOsman8qrJSlJk3RIOfowduDaPgo1PYtRwmO6283ECtD1hyPtEzUbttA2oPzQ5m77uW6FfViQYBDpSIkVUkne6I_EnEi4-4", "https://lh6.googleusercontent.com/Ed-3lsUCBkdSBzuJSN28B1NlJV7Cmv11W4k8GerNGJKLK0_Ce0ftg4n2PDjUzNt4IrlhxlT6xZwV-nHkDal_1LCjghV3y1H0IaGOGBh0VM_5Rki0r7CMhsQyDKKA17irx9gq37nIh8M8xFzCXl7dyrs", "https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/A62_qcA-HtL0Z_-OtvKWOJnoUrD7TVspYicYBN9kHXLxFiBvBERN-enxmbqKZpkt8mC0S_Qk8LF2EDktCdrhJ8SwUya1bOZwd8c5ndfKDl4SwvFQYj0bNilcm2Te6Fo7CQpev6OcurjKJP8pI9vEdCU", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image_Lwe0B9l.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hippocrates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Sushruta: Wrote ‘ Sushruta Samhita’ - Father of Indian Surgery.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B.</li><li>• Sushruta:</li><li>• Sushruta Samhita’</li><li>• Indian Surgery.</li><li>• Is also known as ‘ Father of Plastic Surgery and Cosmetic Surgery.’ Father of Surgery: Ambroise Pare.</li><li>• Is also known as ‘ Father of Plastic Surgery and Cosmetic Surgery.’</li><li>• Father of Plastic Surgery</li><li>• Cosmetic Surgery.’</li><li>• Father of Surgery: Ambroise Pare.</li><li>• Father</li><li>• Surgery:</li><li>• Ambroise Pare.</li><li>• Option A. Charaka: An ancient Indian physician and scholar who made significant contributions to the field of Ayurveda , wrote Charaka Samhita.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Charaka:</li><li>• ancient Indian physician</li><li>• scholar</li><li>• field of Ayurveda</li><li>• Charaka Samhita.</li><li>• Option C. Galen: A Roma n Greek physician , surgeon and philosopher . Galen influenced the development of various scientific disciplines , including anatomy , physiology , pathology , pharmacology , and neurology as well as philosophy and logic .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Galen:</li><li>• Roma</li><li>• n Greek</li><li>• physician</li><li>• ,</li><li>• surgeon</li><li>• philosopher</li><li>• influenced</li><li>• development</li><li>• scientific disciplines</li><li>• anatomy</li><li>• physiology</li><li>• ,</li><li>• pathology</li><li>• ,</li><li>• pharmacology</li><li>• neurology</li><li>• philosophy</li><li>• logic</li><li>• .</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Some Important Honours</li><li>➤ Ref: AFMC Red book pg. 65</li><li>➤ Ref: AFMC Red book pg. 65</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At a national public health symposium in Mumbai, a panel of experts are discussing the evolution of public health concepts over time. A senior epidemiologist emphasizes a transformative period in which there was a newfound understanding of the role of specific risk factors as key determinants of disease. This phase marked a departure from mere disease treatment and shifted focus towards broader societal interventions and policies to modify these risk factors. In which phase of public health did the concept of risk factors predominantly emerge as determinants of disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disease control phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Health promotional phase", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social engineering phase", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health for all phase", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Social engineering phase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Social engineering phase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Disease control phase (1880-1920): Aimed mainly at control of man’s physical environment.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Disease control phase (1880-1920):</li><li>• control of man’s physical environment.</li><li>• Option B. Health Promotional phase (1920-1960): Health promotion activities along with disease control activities was instance . It was initiated as personal health services such as MCH services, School health, industrial health, mental health services etc. through PHCs and Subcentres .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Health Promotional phase (1920-1960):</li><li>• disease control activities</li><li>• instance</li><li>• personal health services</li><li>• MCH services, School health, industrial health, mental</li><li>• health services</li><li>• PHCs and Subcentres</li><li>• Option D. Health for All phase (1981-2000 AD): Considering huge disparity in accessing and availing health services, Health for all phase emphasized social equity .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Health for All phase (1981-2000 AD):</li><li>• huge disparity</li><li>• accessing</li><li>• availing health services, Health</li><li>• all phase</li><li>• social equity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In the history of public health , four distinct phases may be demarcated :</li><li>➤ history of public health</li><li>➤ four distinct phases</li><li>➤ demarcated</li><li>➤ The Disease Control Phase focusing on controlling diseases through environmental management ; the Health Promotional Phase , which combined health promotion with disease control and personal health services ; Social Engineering Phase is notable for its shift towards addressing risk factors as key determinants of disease , reflecting an evolution in public health strategies from direct disease control to broader preventive measures and societal interventions ; and the Health for All Phase, emphasizing social equity in health services access.</li><li>➤ Disease Control Phase focusing</li><li>➤ controlling diseases</li><li>➤ environmental management</li><li>➤ the Health Promotional Phase</li><li>➤ health promotion</li><li>➤ disease control</li><li>➤ personal health services</li><li>➤ Social Engineering Phase</li><li>➤ addressing risk factors</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ evolution</li><li>➤ direct disease control</li><li>➤ broader preventive measures</li><li>➤ societal interventions</li><li>➤ Health</li><li>➤ All Phase,</li><li>➤ social equity</li><li>➤ services access.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park textbook 26 th ed pg. 8</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Park textbook 26 th ed pg. 8</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old health policy analyst from Hyderabad is invited to speak at an international conference about the evolution of healthcare systems around the world. During his presentation, he discusses the merits and challenges of socialized medicine, emphasizing how it can reduce competition among physicians and focus on patient care. He mentions the pioneering nation that first adopted this system, setting a precedent for many countries that followed. Which country was the first to socialize medicine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "England", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Russia", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "China", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Germany", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Russia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Russia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Russia was the first country to socialize medicine completely and to give its citizens a constitutional right to all health services.</li><li>• Russia</li><li>• first country</li><li>• socialize medicine</li><li>• its citizens</li><li>• constitutional right</li><li>• all health services.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some firsts in Public Health:</li><li>➤ Some firsts in Public Health:</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Socialized medicine: Russia First country to introduce Compulsory Sickness Insurance: Germany First country to introduce Family Planning program: India First country to introduce Blindness Control program: India First country to introduce Fingerprint Bureau: India</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Socialized medicine: Russia</li><li>➤ Socialized medicine: Russia</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Compulsory Sickness Insurance: Germany</li><li>➤ Compulsory Sickness Insurance: Germany</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Family Planning program: India</li><li>➤ Family Planning program: India</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Blindness Control program: India</li><li>➤ Blindness Control program: India</li><li>➤ First country to introduce Fingerprint Bureau: India</li><li>➤ Fingerprint Bureau: India</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 10)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 10)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 23 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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He highlights the involvement of various international agencies in supporting public health initiatives. As part of his presentation, Dr. Kumar mentions the role of the Swedish International Development Cooperation Agency (SIDA) in providing financial support for healthcare initiatives in India. Which of the following communicable diseases has SIDA extended financial support for in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HIV/AIDS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dengue", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tuberculosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Poliomyelitis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tuberculosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/22/16.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tuberculosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SIDA (Swedish International Developmental Agency) is a government agency based in Sweden which promotes sustainable development and provides international aid around the world.</li><li>• SIDA (Swedish International Developmental Agency)</li><li>• government agency</li><li>• Sweden</li><li>• promotes sustainable development</li><li>• international aid</li><li>• Its primary goal is to reduce poverty and global burden of the diseases . It works in collaboration with the governments , civil society organizations and other stakeholders to implement programs that are aimed to overcome the developmental challenges.</li><li>• primary goal</li><li>• reduce poverty</li><li>• global burden</li><li>• diseases</li><li>• collaboration</li><li>• governments</li><li>• civil society organizations</li><li>• stakeholders</li><li>• In India , SIDA has assisted in the NTEP program .</li><li>• India</li><li>• SIDA</li><li>• assisted</li><li>• NTEP program</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Organization funds for the National TB Program of India are - SIDA, WHO, World Bank</li><li>➤ Organization funds</li><li>➤ National TB Program</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ SIDA, WHO, World Bank</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1018</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1018</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In global health monitoring and disease reporting, international health authorities, as per the International Health Regulations (IHR), mandate the notification of certain diseases to the World Health Organization (WHO). This is required to help in rapid response and containment, especially for diseases that can pose serious global health threats. Which of the following diseases is NOT required by the IHR for mandatory notification to the WHO, even if a single case is identified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smallpox", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poliomyelitis due to wild virus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ebola", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dengue", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Dengue", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Dengue</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Smallpox requires immediate notification because it is already been eradicated ; any new case would represent a significant event requiring rapid response.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Smallpox</li><li>• immediate notification</li><li>• already been eradicated</li><li>• Option B. Poliomyelitis due to wild virus also requires notification since the goal is global eradication , and any new case could signify a serious setback in this effort.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Poliomyelitis</li><li>• wild virus</li><li>• notification</li><li>• goal is global eradication</li><li>• Option C. Ebola is highly contagious and often has a high mortality rate , making immediate notification essential to prevent an outbreak from becoming an epidemic with potential international spread.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Ebola</li><li>• highly contagious</li><li>• high mortality rate</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Even one case of the following diseases needs to be notified to the WHO .</li><li>➤ Even one case of the following diseases needs to be notified to the WHO</li><li>➤ Smallpox Poliomyelitis due to wild polio virus Ebola Human influenza caused by a new subtype, for example H5N1 in humans. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)</li><li>➤ Smallpox</li><li>➤ Poliomyelitis due to wild polio virus</li><li>➤ Ebola</li><li>➤ Human influenza caused by a new subtype, for example H5N1 in humans.</li><li>➤ Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)</li><li>➤ Ref : Rajvir Bhalwar, Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition- page 109</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Rajvir Bhalwar, Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition- page 109</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following organization and their activities.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "I- d, II- b, III- a, IV- c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "I- d, II- c, III- a, IV- b", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "I- b, II- d, III- a, IV- c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "I- c, II- d, III- a, IV- b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. I- d, II- c, III- a, IV- b", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-153917.png"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• UNICEF has provided substantial aid to produce vaccines and sera in many countries . It has also assisted in the erection of a penicillin plant , near Pune ; donated a DDT plant; two plants for the manufacture of triple vaccine and iodized salt.</li><li>• UNICEF has provided substantial aid to produce vaccines and sera in many countries . It has also assisted in the erection of a penicillin plant , near Pune ; donated a DDT plant; two plants for the manufacture of triple vaccine and iodized salt.</li><li>• UNICEF</li><li>• provided substantial aid</li><li>• produce vaccines</li><li>• sera</li><li>• countries</li><li>• assisted in the erection</li><li>• penicillin plant</li><li>• Pune</li><li>• The All-India Institute of Medical Sciences at New Delhi was established with financial assistance from New Zealand by Colombo plan (1950). This plan is drawn up for cooperative economic development of South and South East Asia (20 countries) with main aim to improve living standards of people, Industrial and agricultural development, support for Health Promotion (mostly via fellowships), Canada supplied Cobalt therapy units to medical institutions in India</li><li>• The All-India Institute of Medical Sciences at New Delhi was established with financial assistance from New Zealand by Colombo plan (1950). This plan is drawn up for cooperative economic development of South and South East Asia (20 countries) with main aim to improve living standards of people, Industrial and agricultural development, support for Health Promotion (mostly via fellowships), Canada supplied Cobalt therapy units to medical institutions in India</li><li>• All-India Institute of Medical Sciences</li><li>• New Delhi</li><li>• financial assistance</li><li>• New Zealand</li><li>• Colombo plan</li><li>• plan</li><li>• cooperative economic development</li><li>• South</li><li>• South East Asia</li><li>• Establishment of NIHAE : The Ford Foundation supported the establishment of the National Institute of Health Administration and Education at Delhi .</li><li>• Establishment of NIHAE : The Ford Foundation supported the establishment of the National Institute of Health Administration and Education at Delhi .</li><li>• Establishment of NIHAE</li><li>• Ford Foundation</li><li>• establishment</li><li>• National Institute of Health Administration</li><li>• Education at Delhi</li><li>• The establishment of the All-India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health at Kolkata was in a large measure due to the cooperation of the Rockefeller Foundation . The Rockefeller Foundation has been known to contribute to medical and scientific advancements, including support for pharmaceutical developments.</li><li>• The establishment of the All-India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health at Kolkata was in a large measure due to the cooperation of the Rockefeller Foundation . The Rockefeller Foundation has been known to contribute to medical and scientific advancements, including support for pharmaceutical developments.</li><li>• establishment of the All-India Institute of Hygiene</li><li>• Public Health at Kolkata</li><li>• large measure</li><li>• cooperation of the Rockefeller Foundation</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1016, 1018</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th edition- page 1016, 1018</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a seminar on global health initiatives, the presenter displayed a logo that caught everyone's attention. The emblem represents an organization with 6 regional offices worldwide, dedicated to ensuring the attainment of the highest possible level of health for all people. The logo features a staff entwined with a snake, a universally recognized symbol of medicine. Can you identify the logo of this organization?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "United Nations", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "WHO", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UNDP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. WHO", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/2.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/e/ee/UN_emblem_blue.svg/2405px-UN_emblem_blue.svg.png", "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/fb/UNICEF_Logo_%28cropped%29.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image_gSY6KEx.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-162114_5sipEvn.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. WHO</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. United Nations logo -</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• United Nations logo</li><li>• Option C. UNICEF logo -</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• UNICEF logo</li><li>• Option D. UNDP logo</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• UNDP logo</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Additional Information -</li><li>➤ Additional Information</li><li>➤ WHO is unique among UN specialized agencies: It has its own constitution, own governing bodies, own membership and own budget WHO 6 regional organizations &amp; their HQ</li><li>➤ WHO is unique among UN specialized agencies: It has its own constitution, own governing bodies, own membership and own budget</li><li>➤ WHO 6 regional organizations &amp; their HQ</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1013</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1013</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health symposium, the moderator displayed a distinctive emblem representing an international organization. This organization, with its headquarters situated in New York, is primarily involved in promoting sexual and reproductive health rights worldwide. Which organization's logo was being shown?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UNFPA", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "WHO", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "UNDP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. UNFPA", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/4.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cdn.who.int/media/images/default-source/infographics/who-emblem.png?sfvrsn=877bb56a_2", "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/fb/UNICEF_Logo_%28cropped%29.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/23/image_ih76rCM.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. UNFPA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. WHO logo -</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• WHO logo</li><li>• Option C. UNICEF logo -</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• UNICEF logo</li><li>• Option D. UNDP logo -</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• UNDP logo</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead UN agency for delivering a world where every pregnancy is wanted , every childbirth is safe and every young person’s potential is fulfilled . Largest funding agency for the Population and Reproduction related programs . Organization has recently been known for its worldwide campaign against obstetric fistula and female genital mutilation .</li><li>➤ Lead UN agency</li><li>➤ delivering a world</li><li>➤ pregnancy is wanted</li><li>➤ childbirth</li><li>➤ safe</li><li>➤ young person’s potential</li><li>➤ fulfilled</li><li>➤ Largest funding agency</li><li>➤ Population</li><li>➤ Reproduction related programs</li><li>➤ Organization</li><li>➤ worldwide campaign</li><li>➤ against obstetric fistula</li><li>➤ female genital mutilation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "At an international economics symposium at Shri Ram College of Commerce (SRCC) in Delhi, the faculty highlighted various global financial institutions. One emblem, in particular, was showcased, representing an organization dedicated to financial and technical assistance to developing countries. This organization's headquarters is located in the USA. Which organization's logo was being referred to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UNICEF", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNFPA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "World Bank", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "UNDP", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. World Bank", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/21/9.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/fb/UNICEF_Logo_%28cropped%29.png", "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/1/14/UNFPA_logo.svg/1473px-UNFPA_logo.svg.png", "https://seeklogo.com/images/U/undp-logo-5682674D5C-seeklogo.com.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. World Bank</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. UNICEF : One element that unifies and represents UNICEF . It has been specially designed to symbolize name , but also what UNICEF stand for children . Lower case letters of ‘unicef’ used in the logo are friendly and approachable .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• UNICEF</li><li>• One element</li><li>• unifies</li><li>• represents UNICEF</li><li>• designed</li><li>• symbolize name</li><li>• UNICEF stand for children</li><li>• Lower case letters</li><li>• ‘unicef’</li><li>• logo are friendly</li><li>• approachable</li><li>• Parent and child symbol - Child as central purpose while the laurel leaves provide a link to UNICEF’s history with United Nations</li><li>• Parent and child symbol</li><li>• Child</li><li>• central purpose</li><li>• laurel leaves provide a link</li><li>• UNICEF’s history</li><li>• United Nations</li><li>• Headquarters: New York.</li><li>• Option B. UNFPA : Lead UN agency for delivering a world where every pregnancy is wanted , every childbirth is safe and every young person’s potential is fulfilled . Work involves the improvement of reproductive health; including creation of national strategies and protocols, and providing supplies and services. The organization has recently been known for its worldwide campaign against obstetric fistula and female genital mutilation.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• UNFPA</li><li>• Lead UN agency</li><li>• world</li><li>• pregnancy is wanted</li><li>• every childbirth</li><li>• safe and every young person’s potential is fulfilled</li><li>• Option D. UNDP : UNDP works as Main source of funds for technical assistance . Responsible for Sustainable development goals (SDGs)</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• UNDP</li><li>• Main source of funds</li><li>• technical assistance</li><li>• HQ - New York, USA .</li><li>• HQ - New York, USA</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WORLD BANK (WB) - An international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for capital programs</li><li>➤ WORLD BANK</li><li>➤ international financial institution</li><li>➤ loans to developing countries</li><li>➤ capital programs</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following organization with its respective headquarters location.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv- c", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i- d, ii- c, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i- b, ii- d, iii- a, iv- c", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i- c, ii- d, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv- c", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-153818.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-105643_TEU2MuG.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/26/screenshot-2024-02-26-165843.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv- c</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Agencies and HQ</li><li>➤ Ref : - Park 23/e p921-923, 27/e p1026-1029</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : - Park 23/e p921-923, 27/e p1026-1029</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old researcher at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in Delhi is preparing a presentation on global health institutions. She comes across a document that details the responsibilities and functions of the World Health Organization (WHO). She recalls her training where she learned about the varied roles that WHO plays in global health, from assisting countries in their health challenges to setting global health standards. However, she is unsure about one particular role of the WHO. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the World Health Organization (WHO)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It acts as the directing and coordinating authority on all international health work.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Concerned with the dissemination of statistics relating to health problems.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Acts as a clearing house for information on health problems.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Carries out research activities by itself.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Carries out research activities by itself.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Carries out research activities by itself.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. WHO’s first Constitutional function is to act as the directing and coordinating authority on all international health work .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• WHO’s first Constitutional function</li><li>• directing</li><li>• coordinating authority</li><li>• international health work</li><li>• Option B. From its earliest days in 1947 , WHO has been concerned with the dissemination of a wide variety of morbidity and mortality statistics relating to health problems.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• earliest days in 1947</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• concerned</li><li>• dissemination</li><li>• wide variety of morbidity</li><li>• mortality statistics</li><li>• Option C. WHO acts as a clearing house for information on health problems , providing critical information and data to countries and health practitioners.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• clearing house</li><li>• information on health problems</li><li>• critical information</li><li>• data to countries</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO - Broad areas of work :</li><li>➤ WHO - Broad areas of work</li><li>➤ Prevention and control of specific diseases Development of Comprehensive health services Family health Environmental health Health statistics Biomedical research Health literature and information Cooperation with other organization.</li><li>➤ Prevention and control of specific diseases</li><li>➤ Development of Comprehensive health services</li><li>➤ Family health</li><li>➤ Environmental health</li><li>➤ Health statistics</li><li>➤ Biomedical research</li><li>➤ Health literature and information</li><li>➤ Cooperation with other organization.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1014-1015</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1014-1015</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A health policy researcher is examining the various publications and reports released by the World Health Organization (WHO) to gather global health statistics. She is familiar with several of WHO's key publications but is uncertain about one particular report. Based on your knowledge, which of the following health statistics publications is NOT released by the World Health Organization (WHO)?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weekly Epidemiological Record.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "World Health Statistics Quarterly.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "World Health Statistics Annual.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "WHO environmental health Annual.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. WHO environmental health Annual.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-153902.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. WHO environmental health Annual.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• WHO disseminates wide variety of morbidity and mortality statistics relating to health problems . The data is published in the –</li><li>• WHO disseminates</li><li>• morbidity and mortality statistics</li><li>• health problems</li><li>• Weekly Epidemiological Record (Option A) World Health Statistics Quarterly (Option B) World Health Statistics, Annually (Option C)</li><li>• Weekly Epidemiological Record (Option A)</li><li>• World Health Statistics Quarterly (Option B)</li><li>• World Health Statistics, Annually (Option C)</li><li>• Note - WHO routinely collects and disseminates Communicable disease International surveillance information through – ATRS (Automated Telex Reply Service) and WER (Weekly Epidemiological Record)</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• collects and disseminates Communicable disease</li><li>• International surveillance information</li><li>• ATRS</li><li>• WER</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Publications by WHO</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1014; 27/e p1027</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1014; 27/e p1027</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a lecture on international health organizations, Assistant Professor Dr Raghav discussed the hierarchical structure and governance of the World Health Organization (WHO). He emphasized a specific body within WHO that holds paramount importance in decision-making. Which of the following is regarded as the \"Health Parliament of Nations\" and is the supreme governing body of WHO?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The World Health Assembly", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "The Executive Board", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The Secretariat", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "WHO regional office", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. The World Health Assembly", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. The World Health Assembly.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• World Health Assembly is the “Health Parliament of Nations and the supreme governing body of the organization . It meets annually , usually in May , and generally at the headquarters in Geneva , but from time to time in other countries.</li><li>• World Health Assembly</li><li>• “Health Parliament of Nations</li><li>• supreme governing body</li><li>• organization</li><li>• meets annually</li><li>• May</li><li>• headquarters</li><li>• Geneva</li><li>• The main functions of the Health Assembly are :</li><li>• The main functions of the Health Assembly are</li><li>• To determine international health policy and programmes To review the work of the past year To approve the budget needed for the following year. To elect Member States to designate a person to serve for three years on the Executive Board, and to replace the retiring members.</li><li>• To determine international health policy and programmes</li><li>• To review the work of the past year</li><li>• To approve the budget needed for the following year.</li><li>• To elect Member States to designate a person to serve for three years on the Executive Board, and to replace the retiring members.</li><li>• The Secretariat is the Chief technical and administrative unit of WHO</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ World Health Assembly is the highest decision-making body of WHO , and is crucial for individuals involved in global health policy , as it highlights the democratic and collaborative nature of global health governance.</li><li>➤ World Health Assembly</li><li>➤ highest decision-making body of WHO</li><li>➤ global health policy</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1015</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1015</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a workshop for community health workers in Mumbai, a representative from UNICEF discussed essential strategies for enhancing child health through the GOBI-FFF campaign. As a novice health worker, Rina attentively noted down the strategies mentioned in the talk. However, she later realizes that she might have included an item that is not part of the GOBI-FFF campaign. Based on your understanding, which of the following was NOT mentioned as a part of the GOBI-FFF campaign by UNICEF?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Female education", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Family spacing", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Food fortification", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Food supplementation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Food fortification", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Food fortification</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Female education (F) is indeed a part of the GOBI-FFF campaign and focuses on the critical role of educating girls and women for overall health improvement.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Female education</li><li>• part of the GOBI-FFF campaign</li><li>• focuses</li><li>• critical role of educating girls</li><li>• women</li><li>• Option B. Family spacing (F) is another element of the GOBI-FFF campaign , emphasizing the importance of planning and spacing births for the health of the mother and child.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Family spacing</li><li>• element of the GOBI-FFF campaign</li><li>• planning and spacing births</li><li>• Option D. Food supplementation (F) is a component of the GOBI-FFF strategy , aiming to provide additional nutrients to children's diets to combat malnutrition.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Food supplementation</li><li>• component of the GOBI-FFF strategy</li><li>• provide additional nutrients</li><li>• children's diets</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GOBI-FFF campaign</li><li>➤ GOBI-FFF campaign</li><li>➤ G - growth charts to better monitor child development.</li><li>➤ O - Oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration.</li><li>➤ B - Breast feeding.</li><li>➤ I - Immunization.</li><li>➤ F - Female education.</li><li>➤ F - Family spacing.</li><li>➤ F - Food supplementation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- pg 1016; 27/e p1029</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- pg 1016; 27/e p1029</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health conference in Mumbai, Dr. Patel emphasized the importance of international support for developing nations. He discussed the role of a specific international organization that has been instrumental in aiding poorer nations to harness their human and natural resources to their full potential. This organization not only provides financial support but also offers expertise in various developmental projects, from governance to environmental sustainability. Which organization is Dr. Patel most likely referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UNFPA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UNDP", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "ILO", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FAO", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. UNDP", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. UNDP</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. UNFPA , the United Nations Population Fund , focuses on reproductive health and population issues .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• UNFPA</li><li>• United Nations Population Fund</li><li>• reproductive health</li><li>• population issues</li><li>• Option C. ILO , the International Labour Organization , specializes in labor issues , employment , and workplace rights .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• ILO</li><li>• International Labour Organization</li><li>• labor issues</li><li>• employment</li><li>• workplace rights</li><li>• Option D. FAO , the Food and Agriculture Organization , is focused on food security and agriculture .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• FAO</li><li>• Food and Agriculture Organization</li><li>• food security</li><li>• agriculture</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ UNDP provides comprehensive development assistance that spans financial, technical , and policy support to help nations achieve sustainable development and effectively use their resources.</li><li>➤ UNDP</li><li>➤ comprehensive development assistance</li><li>➤ spans financial, technical</li><li>➤ policy support</li><li>➤ nations achieve sustainable development</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1017</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture series on the evolution of health and welfare organizations in India, a professor emphasized the historical significance of certain organizations. The Indian Red Cross Society was highlighted for its monumental contributions to health, disaster management, and the welfare of vulnerable populations. The professor mentioned that this esteemed organization received formal recognition through a specific act of the Indian Legislature. In which year was the Indian Red Cross Society officially established by an act of the Indian Legislature?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1910", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1920", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1930", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1940", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1920", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/17/image-20231017223150-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1920</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Red Cross Society of India was established by an Act of the Indian Legislature in 1920 .</li><li>• Red Cross Society</li><li>• India</li><li>• Act of the Indian Legislature</li><li>• 1920</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ International Red Cross</li><li>➤ International Red Cross</li><li>➤ Founded and Red Cross logo was designed by Henry Dunant Head quarter in Geneva , Switzerland The Red Cross logo was designed by Henri Dunant in 1863. The emblem of a red cross with arms of equal length on a white background is the visible sign of protection under the 1949 Geneva Conventions. As such, it is the emblem of the armed forces’ medical services.</li><li>➤ Founded and Red Cross logo was designed by Henry Dunant</li><li>➤ Founded</li><li>➤ Red Cross logo</li><li>➤ Henry Dunant</li><li>➤ Head quarter in Geneva , Switzerland</li><li>➤ Head quarter</li><li>➤ Geneva</li><li>➤ Switzerland</li><li>➤ The Red Cross logo was designed by Henri Dunant in 1863. The emblem of a red cross with arms of equal length on a white background is the visible sign of protection under the 1949 Geneva Conventions. As such, it is the emblem of the armed forces’ medical services.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1019</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1019</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, a public health officer in Mumbai, is organizing a community health awareness program. As part of her efforts to raise awareness about global health issues, she plans to highlight the themes of World Health Day over the past few years. Match the respective world health day theme with the year.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv- c", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "i- d, ii- c, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i- c, ii- d, iii- b, iv- a", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "i- c, ii- d, iii- a, iv- b", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. i- c, ii- d, iii- b, iv- a", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-153931.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/screenshot-2024-09-04-105915.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. i- c, ii- d, iii- b, iv- a</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• 2020 - Support nurses and midwives</li><li>• 2021 - Building a fairer, healthier world for everyone</li><li>• 2022 - Our planet, our health</li><li>• 2023 - Health for All – 75 years of public Health</li><li>• World Health Day is celebrated on 7th April</li><li>• World Health Day</li><li>• 7th April</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ World Health Day themes –</li><li>➤ World Health Day themes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference - https://www.who.int/campaigns/world-health-day</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Raj, an infectious disease specialist in Chennai, is attending a seminar on global health emergencies. The seminar discusses the criteria used by international health organizations to identify diseases as Public Health Emergencies of International Concern (PHEIC). As part of the discussion, Dr. Raj raised a question about the criteria for declaring a PHEIC. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for declaring a disease as PHEIC?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Events have a serious public health impact.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Event is usual and expected.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Risk of international spread", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risk of causing restrictions on international trade or travel", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Event is usual and expected.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Event is usual and expected.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Events that have a serious public health impact are considered for a PHEIC as they may necessitate immediate international attention and action.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Events that have a serious public health impact</li><li>• PHEIC</li><li>• immediate international attention</li><li>• Option C. The risk of international spread is a crucial factor since it implies that the event can cross borders and affect other countries , making it a concern for global health security.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• international spread</li><li>• implies that the event</li><li>• cross borders</li><li>• affect other countries</li><li>• Option D. The risk of restrictions on international trade or travel is also a factor as such restrictions can have significant repercussions on global movement and economy , warranting an international response to manage the event effectively.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• restrictions on international trade</li><li>• travel</li><li>• significant</li><li>• repercussions on global movement</li><li>• economy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The main criteria for identifying any disease/event as a PHEIC are as follows :</li><li>➤ main criteria</li><li>➤ identifying any disease/event</li><li>➤ PHEIC are as follows</li><li>➤ Does the event have a serious public health impact? Is the event unusual or unexpected? Is there is a risk of the event spreading internationally? Does the event carry a risk of causing restrictions on travel or trade?</li><li>➤ Does the event have a serious public health impact?</li><li>➤ Is the event unusual or unexpected?</li><li>➤ Is there is a risk of the event spreading internationally?</li><li>➤ Does the event carry a risk of causing restrictions on travel or trade?</li><li>➤ The member states must assess public health events using the decision protocols and notify the WHO , within 24 hours , of all events that may constitute a PHEIC.</li><li>➤ member states</li><li>➤ assess public health events</li><li>➤ decision protocols</li><li>➤ notify the WHO</li><li>➤ 24 hours</li><li>➤ Ref : Rajvir Bhalwar, Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition- page 1096</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Rajvir Bhalwar, Textbook of Community Medicine 4 th edition- page 1096</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Reddy, the renowned Public Health specialist, is discussing strategies to combat anemia among children and pregnant women during a medical seminar in Chennai. She emphasizes the role of international and national organizations in supporting anemia control projects. As part of her presentation, Dr. Reddy mentions the support provided by a specific organization for anemia control projects in India. Which of the following organizations is known to extend its support for anemia control projects in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ford foundation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USAID", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "International Red Cross", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CARE", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. CARE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. CARE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• CARE (Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere) founded in North America in 1945 began its operation in India in 1950 . Till the end of 1980s , the primary objective of CARE - India was to provide food for children in the age group of 6-11 years .</li><li>• CARE</li><li>• North America in 1945</li><li>• operation in India in 1950</li><li>• end of 1980s</li><li>• CARE - India</li><li>• provide food</li><li>• children</li><li>• age group of 6-11 years</li><li>• From mid 1980s , CARE-India focused its food support in the ICDS programme and development of programmes in the areas of health and income supplementation .</li><li>• mid 1980s</li><li>• CARE-India focused</li><li>• food support</li><li>• ICDS programme</li><li>• development of programmes</li><li>• areas of health</li><li>• income supplementation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ CARE supported Projects in India -</li><li>➤ CARE supported Projects in India</li><li>➤ Integrated Nutrition and Health Project Better Health and Nutrition Project Anaemia Control Project Improving Women's Health Project Improved Health Care for Adolescent Girl's Project Child Survival Project Improving Women's Reproductive Health and Family Spacing Project Konkan Integrate Development Project</li><li>➤ Integrated Nutrition and Health Project</li><li>➤ Better Health and Nutrition Project</li><li>➤ Anaemia Control Project</li><li>➤ Improving Women's Health Project</li><li>➤ Improved Health Care for Adolescent Girl's Project</li><li>➤ Child Survival Project</li><li>➤ Improving Women's Reproductive Health and Family Spacing Project</li><li>➤ Konkan Integrate Development Project</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 1018</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 1018</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 26 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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She is focusing on the most commonly abused substances in India. Based on prevalence and usage statistics, which of the following substances is the most commonly abused agent in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cannabis indica", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tobacco", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Heroine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Amphetamine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Tobacco", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Tobacco</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cannabis indica: Is the ‘most widely used drug today’ (Most commonly abused Narcotic substance). The most common reaction is Dreamy state of altered consciousness. Available forms of Cannabis are -</li><li>• Option A. Cannabis</li><li>• indica:</li><li>• ‘most widely used drug today’</li><li>• Bhang: Dried leaves and flowering shoots Hashish/Charas: Resinous exudates from flowering tops of the female plant Ganja: Resinous mass from small leaves and brackets of inflorescence Marijuana: Refer to any part of plant that induces somatic and psychic changes in man</li><li>• Bhang: Dried leaves and flowering shoots</li><li>• Bhang:</li><li>• Hashish/Charas: Resinous exudates from flowering tops of the female plant</li><li>• Hashish/Charas:</li><li>• Ganja: Resinous mass from small leaves and brackets of inflorescence</li><li>• Ganja:</li><li>• Marijuana: Refer to any part of plant that induces somatic and psychic changes in man</li><li>• Marijuana:</li><li>• Option C. Heroin: ‘ Heroin addiction is worst type of addiction’ . Heroin is Di-acetyl-morphine</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Heroin:</li><li>• Heroin addiction</li><li>• worst type of addiction’</li><li>• Di-acetyl-morphine</li><li>• Option D. Amphetamine : Synthetic drug structurally similar to adrenaline , known as ‘Superman drugs’ : This causes tremendous boost to energy and self-confidence.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Amphetamine</li><li>• Synthetic drug</li><li>• adrenaline</li><li>• ‘Superman drugs’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In India , tobacco use is the most prevalent form of substance abuse , posing significant public health challenges . Awareness of the most commonly abused substances is crucial for healthcare professionals for effective public health interventions, policy-making, and patient counseling.</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ tobacco use</li><li>➤ most prevalent form</li><li>➤ substance abuse</li><li>➤ posing</li><li>➤ public health challenges</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 23/e p834-835, 27/e p962</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 23/e p834-835, 27/e p962</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman visits a psychiatrist for her regular check-up. Over the past year, she has made significant improvements in managing her anxiety and has been actively participating in therapy. The psychiatrist praises her progress and discusses the holistic understanding of mental health, emphasizing various components that contribute to it. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a component of the concept of mental health?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ability to cope with stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Emotional well-being", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive self-perception", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Absence of physical illness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Absence of physical illness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Ability to cope with stress: This is an important aspect of mental health , as it involves managing and adapting to life's challenges and changes.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Ability to cope with stress:</li><li>• important aspect</li><li>• mental health</li><li>• Option B. Emotional well-being: Emotional health, including the ability to express and manage emotions , is a key component of overall mental health.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Emotional well-being:</li><li>• ability to express</li><li>• manage emotions</li><li>• Option C. Positive self-perception: How individuals perceive themselves significantly impacts their mental health , including aspects like self-esteem and confidence .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Positive self-perception:</li><li>• perceive themselves</li><li>• impacts</li><li>• mental health</li><li>• self-esteem</li><li>• confidence</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While physical health can influence mental health , the absence of physical illness is not a direct component of the concept of mental health . Mental health is concerned more with emotional well-being , cognitive functioning , and behavioral appropriateness.</li><li>➤ physical health</li><li>➤ influence mental health</li><li>➤ absence of physical illness</li><li>➤ direct component</li><li>➤ concept of mental health</li><li>➤ Mental health</li><li>➤ more</li><li>➤ emotional well-being</li><li>➤ cognitive functioning</li><li>➤ behavioral appropriateness.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 925</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 925</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician after experiencing an episode of intense sadness and crying that lasted a few hours after a breakup with her long-term partner. She has no prior history of mood disturbances or psychiatric disorders and is concerned about her mental health. Given this scenario, does this one episode of abnormal mood signify the presence of a mental or behavioral disorder?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "False", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "True &amp; False", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. False", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. False</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Individuals may suffer from one or more disorders during one or more periods of their life . One incidence of abnormal behavior or a short period of abnormal mood does not in itself, signify the presence of a mental or behavioral disorder .</li><li>• Individuals</li><li>• suffer from one or more disorders</li><li>• one or more periods</li><li>• life</li><li>• One incidence</li><li>• abnormal behavior</li><li>• short period of abnormal mood</li><li>• presence of a mental</li><li>• behavioral disorder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ It is important to understand that not all instances of mood changes or emotional distress signify a mental health disorder . Normal emotional responses to stressful or upsetting events are part of the human experience and do not always warrant a psychiatric diagnosis.</li><li>➤ not all instances of mood changes</li><li>➤ emotional distress</li><li>➤ mental health disorder</li><li>➤ Normal emotional</li><li>➤ stressful</li><li>➤ upsetting events</li><li>➤ human experience</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed p 926</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed p 926</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 33-year-old woman visits a psychiatrist due to persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness. During her consultation, the psychiatrist explores potential contributing factors to her mental state. She mentions a family history of depression and recent personal hardships, including losing her job. The psychiatrist explains the interplay between genetic and environmental factors in disease manifestation. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a socio-environmental factor associated with mental ill-health?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anxiety", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Endocrine disorder", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Population mobility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Emotional stress", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Endocrine disorder", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Endocrine disorders</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Anxiety: While anxiety, as an emotional response , can be both a symptom of mental ill-health and a result of socio-environmental stressors , it is not in itself a socio-environmental factor.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Anxiety:</li><li>• emotional response</li><li>• symptom</li><li>• mental ill-health</li><li>• socio-environmental stressors</li><li>• Option C. Population mobility: This refers to the movement of people , which can be a socio-environmental stressor due to changes in social networks , environments , and support systems .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Population mobility:</li><li>• movement of people</li><li>• socio-environmental stressor</li><li>• changes</li><li>• social networks</li><li>• environments</li><li>• support systems</li><li>• Option D. Emotional stress : Emotional stress is a key socio-environmental factor that can significantly impact mental health .</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Emotional stress</li><li>• socio-environmental factor</li><li>• impact mental health</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The social and environmental factors associated with mental ill health comprise worries, anxieties , emotional stress , tension , frustration , life events , unhappy marriages , broken homes , poverty, industrialization, urbanization, changing family structure, population mobility, economic insecurity, cruelty, rejection, stc.</li><li>➤ social and environmental factors</li><li>➤ mental ill health</li><li>➤ worries, anxieties</li><li>➤ emotional stress</li><li>➤ tension</li><li>➤ frustration</li><li>➤ life events</li><li>➤ unhappy marriages</li><li>➤ broken homes</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 927</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 927</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder visits a community health center for his regular follow-up. The physician explains the available resources under the District Mental Health Program (DMHP) for patients like him. Which of the following services or components is NOT typically a part of the District Mental Health Program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "House to house screening", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Training", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Public awareness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Record keeping", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. House to house screening", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. House to house screening</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Other 3 options are major components under DMHP</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• major components</li><li>• DMHP</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ DMHP was based on ‘Bellary Model’ with the following components -</li><li>➤ DMHP</li><li>➤ ‘Bellary Model’</li><li>➤ -</li><li>➤ Early detection and treatment Training: Imparting short-term training to general physicians for diagnosis and treatment of common mental illnesses with limited number of drugs under guidance of specialist; Health workers are being trained in identifying mentally ill persons IEC: Public awareness generation Monitoring: The purpose is for simple Record Keeping.</li><li>➤ Early detection and treatment</li><li>➤ Early detection</li><li>➤ treatment</li><li>➤ Training: Imparting short-term training to general physicians for diagnosis and treatment of common mental illnesses with limited number of drugs under guidance of specialist; Health workers are being trained in identifying mentally ill persons</li><li>➤ Training:</li><li>➤ IEC: Public awareness generation</li><li>➤ IEC:</li><li>➤ Monitoring: The purpose is for simple Record Keeping.</li><li>➤ Monitoring:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 532</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 532</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A district health officer is discussing the expansion of mental health services in her region with community leaders. She emphasizes the alignment of the district's strategies with those of the National Mental Health Program (NMHP). She provides an overview of the core strategies of the NMHP, hoping to garner community support. Which of the following strategies would NOT be part of her overview about the NMHP?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Integration of mental health with primary health care through the NMHP.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Provision of tertiary care institutions for treatment of mental disorders.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Eradicating stigmatization of mentally ill patients.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Free drugs distribution to all mentally ill patients to reduce the economic burden.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Free drugs distribution to all mentally ill patients to reduce the economic burden.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Free drugs distribution to all mentally ill patients to reduce the economic burden.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Integration of mental health with primary health care through the NMHP: This is a key strategy of the NMHP , aiming to ensure that mental health services are accessible at the primary health care level and integrated into general health care.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Integration of mental health with primary health care</li><li>• through the NMHP:</li><li>• key strategy</li><li>• NMHP</li><li>• ensure that mental health services</li><li>• accessible at the primary health care level</li><li>• Option B. Provision of tertiary care institutions for treatment of mental disorders : Establishing specialized institutions for the treatment of severe or complicated mental disorders is another important aspect of the NMHP . These institutions provide advanced care and support for patients requiring specialized treatment.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Provision of tertiary care institutions</li><li>• for treatment of mental disorders</li><li>• :</li><li>• specialized institutions</li><li>• treatment of severe</li><li>• important aspect</li><li>• NMHP</li><li>• Option C. Eradicating stigmatization of mentally ill patients : The NMHP often includes initiatives to reduce stigma and discrimination against people with mental illnesses . This involves public education campaigns, community engagement, and advocacy to change societal attitudes towards mental health.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Eradicating stigmatization</li><li>• of mentally ill patients</li><li>• NMHP</li><li>• initiatives to reduce stigma</li><li>• discrimination</li><li>• people with mental illnesses</li><li>• Understanding the scope and strategies of national mental health programs is crucial for effective planning, implementation, and community engagement in mental health services.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Mental Health Program (1982). The functional unit of implementation in NMHP is District. Objectives are -</li><li>➤ National Mental Health Program (1982).</li><li>➤ To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future , particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population . To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development To promote community participation in mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community</li><li>➤ To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future , particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of the population .</li><li>➤ availability and accessibility</li><li>➤ minimum mental healthcare</li><li>➤ foreseeable future</li><li>➤ most vulnerable</li><li>➤ underprivileged sections</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ To encourage the application of mental health knowledge in general healthcare and in social development</li><li>➤ encourage</li><li>➤ application of mental health knowledge</li><li>➤ general healthcare</li><li>➤ social development</li><li>➤ To promote community participation in mental health service development and to stimulate efforts towards self-help in the community</li><li>➤ promote community</li><li>➤ mental health service development</li><li>➤ stimulate efforts</li><li>➤ self-help</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 532</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 532</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old male with a history of chronic schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by his sister. Over the years, he has been hospitalized multiple times for psychotic episodes. The sister expresses concern about his ability to maintain employment, perform daily living activities, and maintain social relationships. She is aware of psychiatric rehabilitation programs and wonders if her brother would benefit from such an intervention. If the primary goal of psychiatric rehabilitation is to help this patient reintegrate into the community and enhance his quality of life, which level of prevention does this correspond to in disease prevention?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tertiary prevention", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quaternary prevention", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tertiary prevention", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tertiary prevention</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Primary prevention: This focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease or injury and is not applicable once a chronic illness like schizophrenia has been established.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Primary prevention:</li><li>• focuses on preventing</li><li>• occurrence of a disease</li><li>• Option B. Secondary prevention: This involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease , which would be more relevant during the earlier stages of schizophrenia, not after it has become chronic.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Secondary prevention:</li><li>• early detection</li><li>• intervention to prevent</li><li>• progression of a disease</li><li>• Option D. Quaternary prevention: This concept, less commonly used , involves the prevention of overmedicalization and unnecessary or harmful interventions, which is not the focus in this scenario.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Quaternary prevention:</li><li>• less commonly used</li><li>• prevention of overmedicalization</li><li>• unnecessary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rehabilitation has been defined as “the combined and coordinated use of medical, social, educational and vocational measures for training and retraining the individual to the highest possible level of functional ability ”. It includes all measures aimed at reducing the impact of disabling and handicapping conditions and at enabling the disabled and handicapped to achieve social integration.</li><li>➤ Rehabilitation</li><li>➤ “the combined and coordinated use of medical, social, educational</li><li>➤ vocational measures</li><li>➤ training and retraining</li><li>➤ individual</li><li>➤ highest possible level</li><li>➤ functional ability</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition- page 51</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition- page 51</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 23-year-old medical student is organizing a campus awareness campaign about mental health. He wants to align the event with a globally recognized day that focuses on mental health awareness to maximize impact and draw attention. On which date is World Mental Health Day celebrated every year?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "September 10", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "October 10", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "November 10", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "August 10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. October 10", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. October 10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• World Mental Health Day was celebrated for the first time on October 10, 1992 , at the initiative of Deputy Secretary General Richard Hunter .</li><li>• World Mental Health Day</li><li>• first time on October 10, 1992</li><li>• Deputy Secretary General Richard Hunter</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ World Mental Health Day is celebrated every year on October 10th . This day is dedicated to raising awareness of mental health issues around the world and mobilizing efforts in support of mental health.</li><li>➤ World Mental Health Day</li><li>➤ October 10th</li><li>➤ day</li><li>➤ raising awareness</li><li>➤ mental health</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 814</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 814</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman attends a public health seminar. The keynote speaker mentions a health concern that is pervasive and has broad societal impacts but is often under-discussed or overlooked, referring to it as the \"silent epidemic of the century.\" Which of the following conditions is the speaker most likely referencing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Schizophrenia", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Depression", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Alzheimer’s disease", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Paranoia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Alzheimer’s disease", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Alzheimer’s disease</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Silent Epidemic is often used interchangeably with \"invisible epidemic\" and \"hidden epidemic .\" It can mean anything from a disease spreading without symptoms for a prolonged period before it is detected to a disease or condition spreading without the individual being known of his/her problem.</li><li>• Silent Epidemic</li><li>• interchangeably</li><li>• \"invisible epidemic\"</li><li>• \"hidden epidemic</li><li>• disease spreading</li><li>• without</li><li>• prolonged period</li><li>• detected to a disease</li><li>• Alzheimer’s disease is often referred to as the \"silent epidemic of the century\" due to its increasing prevalence , particularly in aging populations , and its significant impact on individuals , families , and healthcare systems . Despite its widespread effects, Alzheimer’s disease is frequently under-discussed compared to other health conditions. This is due in part to the gradual onset of symptoms and the fact that it primarily affects older adults, a demographic often less represented in public health discussions.</li><li>• Alzheimer’s disease</li><li>• \"silent epidemic of the century\"</li><li>• increasing prevalence</li><li>• aging populations</li><li>• impact on individuals</li><li>• families</li><li>• healthcare systems</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Silent Epidemic of the century- Alzheimer’s disease</li><li>➤ Silent Epidemic</li><li>➤ Alzheimer’s disease</li><li>➤ Modern epidemic - Coronary heart disease</li><li>➤ Modern epidemic</li><li>➤ Coronary heart disease</li><li>➤ Most important discovery of 20th century - ORS</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 23</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 23</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neurologist is presenting a seminar on the neurodevelopmental aspects of mental health. She discusses that while every life phase has its distinct characteristics, there's a specific developmental period that plays a crucial role in laying the foundation for an individual's emotional and psychological well-being throughout their life. This foundational phase is instrumental in shaping the trajectory of an individual's mental health. Which of the following developmental periods is she most likely referring to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Perinatal period", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "First five years of life", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "School age", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Adolescence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. First five years of life", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. First five years of life</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The first five years of life are a critical period for neurodevelopment and play a pivotal role in shaping an individual's future emotional and psychological well-being . During these early years , the brain undergoes rapid growth and development , forming the neural foundations that affect cognitive , emotional , and social functioning throughout life. Experiences during this period, including attachment to caregivers , social interactions , and environmental stimuli , significantly influence the development of neural pathways .</li><li>• first five years</li><li>• critical period for neurodevelopment</li><li>• pivotal role in shaping</li><li>• individual's future emotional</li><li>• psychological well-being</li><li>• early years</li><li>• brain</li><li>• rapid growth</li><li>• development</li><li>• forming the neural foundations</li><li>• affect cognitive</li><li>• emotional</li><li>• social functioning</li><li>• Experiences</li><li>• attachment to caregivers</li><li>• social interactions</li><li>• environmental stimuli</li><li>• development of neural pathways</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The roots of mental health are in early childhood . The infant and young child should experience a warm, intimate , and continuous relationship with his mother and father . It is in this relationship that underlies the development of mental health. It follows that broken homes are likely to produce behavior disorders in children and several studies have confirmed this.</li><li>➤ roots of mental health</li><li>➤ early childhood</li><li>➤ infant</li><li>➤ young child</li><li>➤ experience</li><li>➤ warm, intimate</li><li>➤ continuous relationship</li><li>➤ mother and father</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 927</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of persistent fatigue, lack of interest in daily activities, and difficulty concentrating. She mentions that these symptoms have affected her ability to work, maintain social relationships, and care for her children. Upon further inquiry, the physician learns that the patient has been experiencing feelings of worthlessness and has had frequent thoughts of death. The physician realizes that this condition is not only affecting this patient but is also a significant global health concern. What condition, which has become the largest single cause of disability worldwide, is this patient most likely suffering from?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cardiovascular diseases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leprosy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depression", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetes Mellitus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Depression", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Depression</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cardiovascular diseases: While cardiovascular diseases are a leading cause of mortality globally , they do not typically present with symptoms like lack of interest, feelings of worthlessness, or thoughts of death.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Cardiovascular diseases:</li><li>• leading cause</li><li>• mortality globally</li><li>• Option B. Leprosy: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease but is not a leading cause of global disability and does not match the patient's symptom profile.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Leprosy:</li><li>• chronic infectious disease</li><li>• Option D. Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is a major global health issue primarily affecting physical health . It typically does not manifest with the psychological symptoms described in the scenario.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D. Diabetes Mellitus:</li><li>• major global health issue</li><li>• affecting physical health</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Depression alone accounts for 4.3% of the global burden of disease and is among the largest single causes of disability worldwide (11% of all years lived with disability globally), particularly for women .</li><li>➤ Depression</li><li>➤ 4.3% of the global burden of disease</li><li>➤ largest single</li><li>➤ disability worldwide</li><li>➤ women</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 927</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 927</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A psychiatrist is discussing drug dependence with a group of medical students. Which of the following statements regarding drug dependence is NOT typically included in its definition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Interaction between living organism and drug.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Characterized by behavioral and other responses.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Compulsion to take the drug on a periodic basis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "During his lifetime, a person can be dependent on only one drug.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. During his lifetime, a person can be dependent on only one drug.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. During his lifetime, person can be dependent on only one drug.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Interaction between a living organism and a drug: This is a core component of drug dependence , describing the physiological and psychological interactions that underpin addiction.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Interaction between a living organism and a drug:</li><li>• core component</li><li>• drug dependence</li><li>• Option B. Characterized by behavioral and other responses: Dependence is indeed marked by behavioral changes , often including an intense focus on obtaining and using the substance, alongside other psychological and physiological responses.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Characterized by behavioral and other responses:</li><li>• Dependence</li><li>• marked by behavioral changes</li><li>• intense focus</li><li>• obtaining</li><li>• Option C. Compulsion to take the drug on a periodic or continuous basis: A hallmark of drug dependence is a strong or uncontrollable urge to use the substance , whether sporadically or continuously, often to avoid withdrawal symptoms or to achieve a desired psychological state.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Compulsion to take the drug on a periodic or continuous basis:</li><li>• drug dependence</li><li>• strong</li><li>• uncontrollable urge</li><li>• use the substance</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Drug dependence is described as “ a state, psychic and sometimes also physical , resulting from the interaction between a living organism and a drug , characterized by behavioral and other responses that always include a compulsion to take the drug on a continuous or periodic basis to experience its psychic effects , and sometimes to avoid the discomfort of its absence.</li><li>➤ Drug dependence</li><li>➤ a state, psychic</li><li>➤ sometimes also physical</li><li>➤ interaction</li><li>➤ living organism</li><li>➤ drug</li><li>➤ behavioral</li><li>➤ responses</li><li>➤ compulsion to take the drug</li><li>➤ continuous</li><li>➤ periodic basis</li><li>➤ psychic effects</li><li>➤ A person may be dependent upon more than one drug.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 928</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 928</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 22-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends who report he took a pill they refer to as the \"Superman drug.\" The patient appears agitated with increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and excessive sweating. Which of the following substances did he most likely ingest?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heroin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Amphetamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cocaine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cannabis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Amphetamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Amphetamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Amphetamine is a synthetic drug that is structurally similar to adrenaline</li><li>• Amphetamine</li><li>• synthetic drug</li><li>• structurally</li><li>• adrenaline</li><li>• It acts on the central nervous system and causes mood elevation , elation , a feeling of well-being and increased alertness and a sense of heightened awareness . Because it gives a tremendous boost to self-confidence and energy , while increasing endurance , they are called “superman” drugs . The use of these drugs results in psychic dependence. With large doses, such dependence, is often rapid and strong.</li><li>• central nervous system</li><li>• mood elevation</li><li>• elation</li><li>• feeling of well-being</li><li>• increased alertness</li><li>• sense of heightened awareness</li><li>• gives</li><li>• tremendous boost</li><li>• self-confidence</li><li>• energy</li><li>• increasing endurance</li><li>• “superman” drugs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Amphetamine is a Synthetic drug structurally similar to adrenaline . Known as ‘Superman drugs’ as lead to Tremendous boost to energy and self-confidence.</li><li>➤ Amphetamine</li><li>➤ Synthetic drug</li><li>➤ adrenaline</li><li>➤ ‘Superman drugs’</li><li>➤ Tremendous boost</li><li>➤ energy</li><li>➤ Heroin addiction is worst type of addiction</li><li>➤ Heroin</li><li>➤ worst type of addiction</li><li>➤ Cannabis is the ‘most widely used drug today’ (Most commonly abused Narcotic substance)</li><li>➤ Cannabis</li><li>➤ ‘most widely used drug today’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Ref</li><li>↳ : Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 929</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical intern is preparing a presentation on public health initiatives aimed at reducing tobacco use in India. As part of the presentation, he discusses various legislative efforts, including the Cigarette and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA). He outlines its key provisions, highlighting the government's strategies to control tobacco consumption. In reviewing his statements for accuracy, consider the following claims made by the intern regarding the provisions of COTPA. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prohibition of smoking in public places.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prohibition of direct and indirect advertisement of cigarette and other products.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prohibition of sale of tobacco products near the educational institutions.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prohibits depiction of pictorial warnings on tobacco packs.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prohibits depiction of pictorial warnings on tobacco packs.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Prohibits depiction of pictorial warnings on tobacco packs.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Prohibition of smoking in public places: This is a correct provision of COTPA, aimed at reducing second-hand smoke exposure to non-smokers.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Prohibition of smoking in public places:</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Option B. Prohibition of direct and indirect advertisement of cigarette and other products: This statement is accurate . COTPA prohibits any form of advertising for tobacco products, which is a measure to reduce their promotion and consumption.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Prohibition of direct and indirect advertisement of cigarette and other products:</li><li>• accurate</li><li>• Option C. Prohibition of sale of tobacco products near educational institutions: This is also correct . The Act includes provisions to prevent the sale of tobacco products in the vicinity of educational institutions to protect young people from getting access to them.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. Prohibition of sale of tobacco products near educational institutions:</li><li>• correct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The important provisions of COTPA act are.</li><li>➤ The important provisions of COTPA act are.</li><li>➤ Prohibition of smoking in public places . Prohibition of direct and indirect advertisement of cigarette and other products. Prohibition of sale of cigarette and other tobacco products to a person below the age of 18 years, Prohibition of sale of tobacco products near the educational institutions . Mandatory depiction of statutory warnings (including pictorial warnings) on tobacco packs; and Mandatory depiction of tar and nicotine contents along with maximum permissible limits on tobacco packs.</li><li>➤ Prohibition of smoking in public places .</li><li>➤ Prohibition</li><li>➤ smoking</li><li>➤ public places</li><li>➤ Prohibition of direct and indirect advertisement of cigarette and other products.</li><li>➤ Prohibition</li><li>➤ direct and indirect advertisement</li><li>➤ cigarette</li><li>➤ Prohibition of sale of cigarette and other tobacco products to a person below the age of 18 years,</li><li>➤ Prohibition</li><li>➤ sale of cigarette</li><li>➤ tobacco products</li><li>➤ Prohibition of sale of tobacco products near the educational institutions .</li><li>➤ Prohibition</li><li>➤ sale of tobacco products</li><li>➤ educational institutions</li><li>➤ Mandatory depiction of statutory warnings (including pictorial warnings) on tobacco packs; and</li><li>➤ Mandatory depiction of tar and nicotine contents along with maximum permissible limits on tobacco packs.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 531</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 531</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 24 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Non Communicable Diseases - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 64</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 64 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "You are evaluating the impact of lifestyle factors on population health. One of the key factors under study is physical inactivity. What is the increased risk of all-cause mortality associated with lack of physical activity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10-20%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15-30%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20-30%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "25-45%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 20-30%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 20-30%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The WHO reports that people who are insufficiently physically active have a 20% to 30% increased risk of all-cause mortality compared to those who are sufficiently active . This indicates a significant health risk associated with physical inactivity.</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• insufficiently physically active</li><li>• 20% to 30% increased risk</li><li>• all-cause mortality</li><li>• compared</li><li>• sufficiently active</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ People who are insufficiently physically active have a 20% to 30% increased risk of all-cause mortality.</li><li>➤ insufficiently physically active</li><li>➤ 20% to 30% increased risk</li><li>➤ all-cause mortality.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 408</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 408</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. X brought her 8-year-old child to the hospital with symptoms suggestive of Rheumatic Heart Disease, and the child was found to have carditis. The medical officer initiated treatment with an injection of Benzathine Penicillin. For how long should this child continue to receive regular Benzathine Penicillin injections for secondary prophylaxis of Rheumatic Heart Disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "25 years", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 25 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-095627_v4BAZwr.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-100207.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 25 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prevention of RF with Benzathine benzyl penicillin :</li><li>• Prevention</li><li>• RF</li><li>• Benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>• Oral penicillin (Penicillin V or G) X 10 days is the ‘least expensive method’ of giving penicillin to eradicate Streptococci from throat</li><li>• Oral penicillin</li><li>• 10 days</li><li>• ‘least expensive method’</li><li>• penicillin</li><li>• Streptococci from throat</li><li>• Secondary prevention for patients with carditis: Continue for 10 yrs after the last attack or at least until 25 yrs age (whichever is longer)</li><li>• 10 yrs after the last attack or at least until 25 yrs age (whichever is longer)</li><li>• RHEUMATIC FEVER (RF)</li><li>• RHEUMATIC FEVER (RF)</li><li>• Causative agent : Group A beta hemolytic streptococci – Serotype M type 5 has highest rheumatogenic potential Recently Coxsackie virus B4 has been suggested as a ‘causative factor’ &amp; Streptococcus acting as a ‘conditioning agent’ RF is a disease of childhood &amp; adolescence (5–15 yrs) affecting both sexes equally RF is not a communicable disease : but it results from a communicable disease (streptococcal pharyngitis) MC cause of Heart disease in 5-30 yrs age group (globally): RF Prevalence of RHD in India : 5-7 per 1000 in 5–15 yrs age group RF occurs in 1–3% of Streptococcal infection Eradication of Grp A Streptococcus is not possible: Due to high carrier rate MC cardiac lesion seen in RF: – In children: Mitral regurgitation; In adults: Mitral stenosis MC ECG finding in RF: First degree AV block Diagnosis of RF is by employing NEW Revised Jones criteria -</li><li>• Causative agent : Group A beta hemolytic streptococci – Serotype M type 5 has highest rheumatogenic potential Recently Coxsackie virus B4 has been suggested as a ‘causative factor’ &amp; Streptococcus acting as a ‘conditioning agent’</li><li>• Causative agent</li><li>• Group A beta hemolytic streptococci</li><li>• Recently Coxsackie virus B4 has been suggested as a ‘causative factor’ &amp; Streptococcus acting as a ‘conditioning agent’</li><li>• Recently Coxsackie virus B4 has been suggested as a ‘causative factor’ &amp; Streptococcus acting as a ‘conditioning agent’</li><li>• RF is a disease of childhood &amp; adolescence (5–15 yrs) affecting both sexes equally</li><li>• disease of childhood</li><li>• adolescence</li><li>• both sexes equally</li><li>• RF is not a communicable disease : but it results from a communicable disease (streptococcal pharyngitis)</li><li>• not a communicable disease</li><li>• MC cause of Heart disease in 5-30 yrs age group (globally): RF</li><li>• MC</li><li>• Heart disease in 5-30 yrs age group</li><li>• Prevalence of RHD in India : 5-7 per 1000 in 5–15 yrs age group</li><li>• Prevalence of RHD in India</li><li>• 5-7 per 1000</li><li>• 5–15 yrs age group</li><li>• RF occurs in 1–3% of Streptococcal infection</li><li>• Eradication of Grp A Streptococcus is not possible: Due to high carrier rate</li><li>• MC cardiac lesion seen in RF: – In children: Mitral regurgitation; In adults: Mitral stenosis</li><li>• MC ECG finding in RF: First degree AV block</li><li>• Diagnosis of RF is by employing NEW Revised Jones criteria -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Treatment for RF - one intramuscular injection of benzathine benzyl penicillin (1.2 million units in adults and 600,000 units in children) at intervals of 3 weeks . This must be continued for at least 5 years or until the child reaches 18 years , whichever is later.</li><li>➤ Treatment for RF</li><li>➤ one intramuscular injection</li><li>➤ benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>➤ intervals of 3 weeks</li><li>➤ continued</li><li>➤ least 5 years</li><li>➤ child reaches 18 years</li><li>➤ For patients with carditis (mild mitral regurgitation or healed carditis) the treatment should continue for 10 years after the last attack , or at least until 25 years of age , whichever is longer. More severe valvular disease or post-valve surgery cases need life-long Treatment.</li><li>➤ carditis</li><li>➤ treatment</li><li>➤ continue for 10 years</li><li>➤ last attack</li><li>➤ at least until 25 years of age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an in-depth analysis of the four-tier structure proposed by the Vision 2020: The Right to Sight initiative, the conversation shifts to the specific services offered at each level of this structure, particularly for the treatment of glaucoma. Glaucoma surgeries are crucial in preventing blindness caused by this condition. Within the four-tier structure of Vision 2020, which type of center is equipped to offer facilities for glaucoma surgeries?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Service centres", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Training centres", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vision centres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Centre of excellence", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Training centres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-110654.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/whatsapp-image-2024-08-27-at-110629-am.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Training centres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Level of care under Vision 2020:</li><li>• Level of care under Vision 2020:</li><li>• Centres of Excellence - Professional leadership, Strategy development, continued medical education (CME), Laying of standards and quality assurance and Research</li><li>• Centres of Excellence</li><li>• Training centres - Tertiary eye care including retinal surgery, corneal transplantation, glaucoma surgery etc, Training and CME</li><li>• Training centres</li><li>• Service centres - Cataract surgery, Other common eye surgeries, Facilities for refraction and Referral services</li><li>• Service centres</li><li>• Vision centres - Refraction and prescription of glasses, Primary eye care, School eye screening programme and Screening and referral services</li><li>• Vision centres</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• Vision 2020– The Right To Sight : A global initiative by WHO and International NGOs to reduce avoidable (preventable and curable) blindness by 2020</li><li>• Vision 2020– The Right To Sight : A global initiative by WHO and International NGOs to reduce avoidable (preventable and curable) blindness by 2020</li><li>• The Right To Sight</li><li>• global initiative by WHO</li><li>• International NGOs</li><li>• reduce avoidable</li><li>• blindness by 2020</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020: To reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people by the year 2020 to a target of 25 million Vision 2020 will be implemented as ‘4 five-year plans’ , starting in 2000, 2005, 2010 and 2015 respectively Basic Strategies Under Vision 2020 : Disease prevention and control Training of personnel Strengthening the existing eye care infrastructure Use of appropriate and affordable technology Mobilization of resources</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020: To reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people by the year 2020 to a target of 25 million</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020:</li><li>• reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people</li><li>• Vision 2020 will be implemented as ‘4 five-year plans’ , starting in 2000, 2005, 2010 and 2015 respectively</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• implemented</li><li>• ‘4 five-year plans’</li><li>• Basic Strategies Under Vision 2020 : Disease prevention and control Training of personnel Strengthening the existing eye care infrastructure Use of appropriate and affordable technology Mobilization of resources</li><li>• Basic Strategies Under Vision 2020</li><li>• Disease prevention and control Training of personnel Strengthening the existing eye care infrastructure Use of appropriate and affordable technology Mobilization of resources</li><li>• Disease prevention and control</li><li>• Training of personnel</li><li>• Strengthening the existing eye care infrastructure</li><li>• Use of appropriate and affordable technology</li><li>• Mobilization of resources</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Four tier structure of Vision 2020 -</li><li>➤ Four tier structure of Vision 2020</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An intern is discussing the nature of chronic diseases with her supervisor. She is reviewing the characteristics that typically define these conditions. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of chronic diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Permanent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Leave residual disability", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Reversible pathological alteration", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Reversible pathological alteration", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Reversible pathological alteration</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Permanent . Correct</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Permanent</li><li>• Option B. Leave residual disability . Correct</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Leave residual disability</li><li>• Option D. Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation . Correct</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation</li><li>• The Commission on Chronic Illness in USA has defined “chronic diseases ” as “comprising all impairments or deviations from normal , which have one or more of the following characteristics -</li><li>• Commission on Chronic Illness</li><li>• USA</li><li>• “chronic diseases</li><li>• “comprising all impairments</li><li>• deviations from normal</li><li>• Are Permanent Leave residual disability Are caused by non-reversible pathological alteration Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation May be expected to require a long period of supervision, observation, or care.”</li><li>• Are Permanent</li><li>• Leave residual disability</li><li>• Are caused by non-reversible pathological alteration</li><li>• Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation</li><li>• May be expected to require a long period of supervision, observation, or care.”</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Chronic diseases are - typically permanent , often leave residual disability , and may require rehabilitation training , but they are not characterized by reversible pathological alterations.</li><li>➤ Chronic diseases</li><li>➤ permanent</li><li>➤ leave residual disability</li><li>➤ require rehabilitation training</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 407</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 407</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying public health trends and comes across the term \"epidemiological transition.\" Which of the following statements best describes this concept?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Transition from high mortality to low mortality", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Transition from high birth rate to high death rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Transition from communicable diseases to non-communicable diseases", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Transition from under nutrition to obesity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Transition from communicable diseases to non-communicable diseases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Transition from communicable diseases to non-communicable diseases.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Epidemiological transition is a gradual process by which disease profile of a community in a nation passes from one of predominantly communicable to one which is predominated by NCDs . Epidemiological transition: A change in the pattern of disease in a country away from infectious diseases towards degenerative diseases</li><li>• Epidemiological transition</li><li>• gradual process</li><li>• disease profile</li><li>• community</li><li>• nation passes</li><li>• predominantly communicable</li><li>• predominated by NCDs</li><li>• change in the pattern of disease</li><li>• country</li><li>• Other important terminologies -</li><li>• Other important terminologies -</li><li>• Demographic trap: Applies to a country whose population is growing rapidly due to a high BR and low DRQ</li><li>• Demographic trap:</li><li>• country</li><li>• population is growing rapidly</li><li>• Demographic gift: The initially favorable effect of falling fertility rates on the ratio of the working population to the dependent population</li><li>• Demographic gift:</li><li>• initially favorable effect</li><li>• falling fertility rates</li><li>• ratio of the working population</li><li>• Demographic dividend: A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population . It usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth DR declines. In this demographic window opportunity, output per capita rises</li><li>• Demographic dividend:</li><li>• rise in the rate of economic growth</li><li>• rising share</li><li>• working age people</li><li>• population</li><li>• Demographic transition: is a model used to explain the process of transition from high BR and high DR to low BR and low DR as part of the economic development of a country from a preindustrial to an industrialized economy</li><li>• Demographic transition:</li><li>• model</li><li>• process of transition</li><li>• high BR</li><li>• high DR</li><li>• low BR</li><li>• low DR</li><li>• Demographic Window: Period of time in a when ‘proportion of population of working age group is particularly prominent’. Typically, the demographic window of opportunity lasts 30–40 years</li><li>• Demographic Window:</li><li>• Period of time</li><li>• when</li><li>• ‘proportion of population of working age group is particularly prominent’.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Epidemiological transition - A change in the pattern of disease in a country away from infectious diseases (communicable diseases) towards degenerative diseases (NCDs)</li><li>➤ Epidemiological transition</li><li>➤ change in the pattern</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ country away from infectious diseases</li><li>➤ degenerative diseases</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 902</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 902</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health policy student is studying international health targets and comes across the WHO's Global Action Plan for NCDs. According to this plan, by 2025, what is the targeted reduction in premature mortality due to non-communicable diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "15%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "25%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "50%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 25%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 25%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• GLOBAL ACTION PLAN FOR THE PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF NONCOMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013–2020</li><li>• GLOBAL ACTION PLAN FOR THE PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF NONCOMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013–2020</li><li>• The Global Action Plan provides road map and menu of policy options which, when implemented collectively between 2013 and 2020 , will contribute to progress on 9 global NCD targets including that of 25 percent relative reduction in premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, and chronic respiratory diseases by 2025.</li><li>• Global Action Plan</li><li>• road map</li><li>• menu of policy options</li><li>• implemented collectively</li><li>• 2013 and 2020</li><li>• 9 global NCD targets</li><li>• 25 percent relative reduction in premature mortality</li><li>• by 2025.</li><li>• Vision : A world free of the avoidable burden of noncommunicable diseases .</li><li>• Vision</li><li>• world free of the avoidable burden</li><li>• noncommunicable diseases</li><li>• Goal : To reduce the preventable and avoidable burden of morbidity , mortality and disability due to NCDs</li><li>• Goal</li><li>• reduce the preventable</li><li>• avoidable burden</li><li>• morbidity</li><li>• mortality</li><li>• disability</li><li>• The voluntary global targets are:</li><li>• The voluntary global targets are:</li><li>• 1. A 25 percent relative reduction in risk of premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases , cancer, diabetes and chronic respiratory disease</li><li>• 25 percent</li><li>• reduction in risk of premature mortality</li><li>• cardiovascular diseases</li><li>• 2. At least 10 percent relative reduction in the harmful use of alcohol as appropriate within national context</li><li>• 10 percent relative reduction</li><li>• harmful use of alcohol</li><li>• 3. A 10 percent relative reduction in prevalence of insufficient physical activity</li><li>• 10 percent relative reduction</li><li>• insufficient physical activity</li><li>• 4. A 10 percent relative reduction in mean population intake of salt/sodium</li><li>• 10 percent relative reduction</li><li>• mean population intake</li><li>• salt/sodium</li><li>• 5. A 30 percent relative reduction in prevalence of current tobacco use in persons aged 15+ years</li><li>• 30 percent relative reduction</li><li>• prevalence of current tobacco use</li><li>• 6. A 25 percent relative reduction in prevalence of raised blood pressure</li><li>• 25 percent relative reduction</li><li>• raised blood pressure</li><li>• 7. Halt the rise of diabetes and obesity</li><li>• Halt</li><li>• rise of diabetes</li><li>• obesity</li><li>• 8. At least 50 percent of eligible people receive drug therapy and counselling (including glycemic control) to prevent heart attacks and strokes; and</li><li>• 50 percent of eligible people</li><li>• drug therapy</li><li>• counselling</li><li>• 9. 80 percent availability of the affordable basic technology and essential medicines including generics, required to treat major NCDs in both public and private facilities.</li><li>• 80 percent availability</li><li>• affordable basic technology</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to global action plan for prevention and control of NCDs , by 2025, premature mortality due to NCDs should be reduced by 25%</li><li>➤ global action plan</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ control of NCDs</li><li>➤ According to WHO Global Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases 2013-2020, targeted reduction in prevalence of raised blood pressure is - 25%</li><li>➤ WHO Global Action Plan for Prevention</li><li>➤ Control of Non-Communicable</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a lecture on global health, a medical instructor discusses the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) related to non-communicable diseases. What is the target number of the SDGs for the reduction of premature mortality from NCDs by 2030?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "3.3", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3.4", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "3.8", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3.9", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 3.4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 3.4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The Sustainable Development Goals include a specific target for NCDs and several NCD - related targets . Target 3.4 calls for a one third reduction in premature mortality from NCDs by the year 2030 and is an extension of the global NCD mortality target .</li><li>• Sustainable Development Goals</li><li>• specific target for NCDs</li><li>• several NCD</li><li>• related targets</li><li>• Target 3.4</li><li>• one third reduction</li><li>• premature mortality</li><li>• year 2030</li><li>• extension of the global NCD mortality target</li><li>• GOAL 3: TARGETS</li><li>• GOAL 3: TARGETS</li><li>• 3.1 By 2030, Global MMR &lt; 70 per 100,000 live births</li><li>• 3.1 By 2030, Global MMR &lt; 70 per 100,000 live births</li><li>• 3.2 By 2030, End Preventable deaths of Newborns and Under-five children</li><li>• NNMR 12 per 1,000 live births U5MR 25 per 1,000 live births</li><li>• NNMR 12 per 1,000 live births</li><li>• NNMR 12 per 1,000 live births</li><li>• U5MR 25 per 1,000 live births</li><li>• U5MR 25 per 1,000 live births</li><li>• 3.3 By 2030, End Epidemics of AIDS, Tuberculosis, Malaria and Neglected tropical diseases and Combat Hepatitis, Water-borne diseases and other CDs</li><li>• 3.4 By 2030, Reduce by 33% Premature mortality from NCDs</li><li>• 3.4 By 2030, Reduce by 33% Premature mortality from NCDs</li><li>• 3.5 Strengthen Prevention and Treatment of Substance abuse</li><li>• 3.6 By 2020, 50% reduction in Global deaths and injuries from Road traffic accidents</li><li>• 3.6 By 2020, 50% reduction in Global deaths and injuries from Road traffic accidents</li><li>• 3.7 By 2030, Universal access to Sexual and Reproductive health-care services</li><li>• 3.8 Achieve Universal Health Coverage</li><li>• 3.8 Achieve Universal Health Coverage</li><li>• 3.9 By 2030, Reduce Deaths and illnesses from hazardous chemicals, air/water/soil pollution</li><li>• 3.a Implementation of the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control</li><li>• 3.b Research and Development of Vaccines and Medicines for CDs &amp; NCDs</li><li>• 3.c Financing, recruitment, development, training and retention of Health workforce</li><li>• 3.d Strengthen capacity for early warning, risk reduction, management of Health risks</li><li>• The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)</li><li>• The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)</li><li>• 17 aspiration Goals with 169 targets Directly Health related goal : One (Goal 3) Directly Health disparities addressing goals : Six (Goals 1-6)</li><li>• 17 aspiration Goals with 169 targets</li><li>• 17 aspiration Goals with 169 targets</li><li>• Directly Health related goal : One (Goal 3)</li><li>• Directly Health related goal</li><li>• One</li><li>• Directly Health disparities addressing goals : Six (Goals 1-6)</li><li>• Directly Health disparities addressing goals</li><li>• SDGs 17 Goals</li><li>• SDGs 17 Goals</li><li>• End Poverty in all its forms everywhere End Hunger , achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture Ensure Healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages Ensure inclusive and equitable quality Education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all Achieve Gender equality and empower all women and girls Ensure availability and sustainable management of Water and Sanitation for all Ensure access to affordable , reliable, sustainable and modern Energy for all Sustained , inclusive &amp; and sustainable Economic growth , full and productive employment and decent work for all Build resilient infrastructure , promote inclusive and sustainable Industrialization and foster innovation Reduce Inequality within and among countries Make cities and Human Settlements inclusive , safe, resilient and sustainable Ensure sustainable Consumption and Production patterns Take urgent action to combat Climate change and its impacts Conserve and sustainably use the Oceans , Seas and Marine resources for sustainable development Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of Terrestrial ecosystems , sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, and halt and reverse land degradation and halt biodiversity loss Promote peaceful and inclusive Societies for sustainable development , provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the Global partnership for sustainable development</li><li>• End Poverty in all its forms everywhere</li><li>• End Poverty</li><li>• End Hunger , achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture</li><li>• End Hunger</li><li>• Ensure Healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages</li><li>• Ensure Healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages</li><li>• Ensure inclusive and equitable quality Education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all</li><li>• Ensure inclusive</li><li>• equitable quality Education</li><li>• Achieve Gender equality and empower all women and girls</li><li>• Achieve Gender equality</li><li>• Ensure availability and sustainable management of Water and Sanitation for all</li><li>• Ensure availability</li><li>• sustainable management of Water</li><li>• Ensure access to affordable , reliable, sustainable and modern Energy for all</li><li>• Ensure access to affordable</li><li>• Sustained , inclusive &amp; and sustainable Economic growth , full and productive employment and decent work for all</li><li>• Sustained</li><li>• inclusive</li><li>• sustainable Economic growth</li><li>• Build resilient infrastructure , promote inclusive and sustainable Industrialization and foster innovation</li><li>• Build resilient infrastructure</li><li>• Reduce Inequality within and among countries</li><li>• Reduce Inequality</li><li>• Make cities and Human Settlements inclusive , safe, resilient and sustainable</li><li>• Make cities</li><li>• Human Settlements inclusive</li><li>• Ensure sustainable Consumption and Production patterns</li><li>• sustainable Consumption</li><li>• Take urgent action to combat Climate change and its impacts</li><li>• urgent action to combat Climate change</li><li>• Conserve and sustainably use the Oceans , Seas and Marine resources for sustainable development</li><li>• Conserve</li><li>• sustainably use the Oceans</li><li>• Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of Terrestrial ecosystems , sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, and halt and reverse land degradation and halt biodiversity loss</li><li>• Protect, restore</li><li>• promote sustainable use of Terrestrial ecosystems</li><li>• Promote peaceful and inclusive Societies for sustainable development , provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels</li><li>• Promote peaceful</li><li>• inclusive Societies for sustainable development</li><li>• Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the Global partnership for sustainable development</li><li>• Strengthen</li><li>• means of implementation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ SDGs Goal 3 - Target 3.4 - By 2030 , Reduce by 33% Premature mortality from NCDs</li><li>➤ SDGs Goal 3</li><li>➤ Target 3.4</li><li>➤ 2030</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is studying the influence of behavioral risk factors on health outcomes. Understanding that certain lifestyle choices and behaviors significantly increase the risk of developing various diseases is crucial for preventative medicine. The student is reviewing a list of diseases, trying to identify which one is NOT typically associated with behavioral risk factors. Which of the following diseases is generally not linked to behavioral risk factors?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diabetes mellitus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ovarian cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ovarian cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ovarian cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Hypertension: Behavioral risk factors such as a high-sodium diet , lack of physical activity, alcohol consumption, and smoking are well-known contributors to the development of hypertension.</li><li>• Option A. Hypertension:</li><li>• Behavioral risk factors</li><li>• high-sodium diet</li><li>• Option B. Diabetes Mellitus (DM): Type 2 DM is strongly linked to behavioral factors including diet, physical inactivity, and obesity.</li><li>• Option B. Diabetes Mellitus (DM):</li><li>• Type 2 DM</li><li>• linked to behavioral factors</li><li>• Option D. Oral Cancer: Oral cancer has several behavioral risk factors , including tobacco use (smoking and chewing), alcohol consumption, and potentially diet.</li><li>• Option D. Oral Cancer:</li><li>• several behavioral risk factors</li><li>• tobacco use</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ While hypertension, diabetes mellitus , and oral cancer are diseases commonly associated with behavioral risk factors , ovarian cancer is generally not linked to such factors and is more influenced by genetic, reproductive, and age-related factors.</li><li>➤ hypertension, diabetes mellitus</li><li>➤ oral cancer</li><li>➤ diseases</li><li>➤ behavioral risk factors</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 901</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 901</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 45-year-old male, presented to your outpatient department (OPD) for a preventive health checkup. He is concerned about his risk for cardiovascular diseases. Which of the following risk factors in Mr. X's profile are considered non-modifiable?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Elevated serum cholesterol", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Personality", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Obesity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Personality", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-094528.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Personality</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Non-Modifiable Risk factor of CHD - Age, sex, family history, genetic factor, personality</li><li>• Other 3 options are modifiable risk factors</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• Risk Factors for CHD</li><li>• Risk Factors for CHD</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-Modifiable Risk factor of CHD - Age, sex, family history, genetic factor, personality</li><li>➤ Non-Modifiable Risk</li><li>➤ CHD</li><li>➤ Modifiable Risk factor of CHD - High BP, cigarette smoking, elevated serum cholesterol, DM, Obesity, sedentary habits, stress</li><li>➤ Modifiable Risk factor of CHD</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is conducting a community workshop on lifestyle factors that contribute to cardiovascular diseases. The workshop includes a segment on the risks associated with smoking. The specialist aims to clarify misconceptions about smoking and its impact on heart health. She presents a series of statements to the attendees and asks them to identify which statement about the relationship between smoking and Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is NOT accurate. Which of the following statements is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smoking has synergistic effect with other risk factors", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Filter cigarettes are protective", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mortality from CHD decreases with cessation of smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Risk of developing CHD is directly related to number of cigarette packs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Filter cigarettes are protective", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Filter cigarettes are protective</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Smoking has a synergistic effect with other risk factors: True . Smoking can exacerbate the effects of other risk factors for CHD, such as hypertension or hyperlipidemia, leading to a synergistic increase in the risk of CHD.</li><li>• Option A. Smoking has a synergistic effect with other risk factors:</li><li>• True</li><li>• Option C. Mortality from CHD decreases with cessation of smoking: True . Stopping smoking is associated with a decreased risk of CHD and a reduction in CHD-related mortality. The risk declines quite substantially within one year of stopping smoking and more gradually thereafter until, after 10-20 years, it is the same as that of nonsmokers</li><li>• Option C. Mortality from CHD decreases with cessation of smoking:</li><li>• True</li><li>• Option D. Risk of developing CHD is directly related to the number of cigarette packs smoked: True . The risk of CHD increases with the intensity of smoking, often measured in pack-years.</li><li>• Option D. Risk of developing CHD is directly related to the number of cigarette packs smoked:</li><li>• True</li><li>• Smoking as a Risk Factor for CHD</li><li>• Smoking as a Risk Factor for CHD</li><li>• Modifiable major risk factor 25% of CHD deaths under 65 years age Causes Sudden death from CHD, especially in men &lt; 50 years age Degree of risk of developing CHD is directly related to no. of cigarettes smoked per day Filter cigarettes are probably not protective Synergistic with other risk factors like hypertension and hypercholesterolemia Risk of death from CHD decreases on cessation of smoking - Risk declines substantially within 1 year of cessation After 10–20 years, it is same as that of non-smokers Those with history of myocardial infarction risk of fatal occurrence reduced by 50%</li><li>• Modifiable major risk factor</li><li>• 25% of CHD deaths under 65 years age</li><li>• Causes Sudden death from CHD, especially in men &lt; 50 years age</li><li>• Degree of risk of developing CHD is directly related to no. of cigarettes smoked per day</li><li>• Filter cigarettes are probably not protective</li><li>• Synergistic with other risk factors like hypertension and hypercholesterolemia</li><li>• Risk of death from CHD decreases on cessation of smoking - Risk declines substantially within 1 year of cessation After 10–20 years, it is same as that of non-smokers Those with history of myocardial infarction risk of fatal occurrence reduced by 50%</li><li>• Risk declines substantially within 1 year of cessation After 10–20 years, it is same as that of non-smokers Those with history of myocardial infarction risk of fatal occurrence reduced by 50%</li><li>• Risk declines substantially within 1 year of cessation</li><li>• After 10–20 years, it is same as that of non-smokers</li><li>• Those with history of myocardial infarction</li><li>• risk of fatal occurrence reduced by 50%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Smoking is the modifiable risk factor</li><li>➤ Smoking</li><li>➤ modifiable risk factor</li><li>➤ Degree of risk of developing CHD is directly related to no. of cigarettes smoked per day and Filter cigarettes are not protective against CHD.</li><li>➤ Degree of risk of developing CHD</li><li>➤ no. of cigarettes smoked per day</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male with a family history of coronary heart disease (CHD) presents for a routine health evaluation. The patient is concerned about his risk of developing CHD and seeks advice on which clinical measurement would be most indicative of his immediate risk. As a physician, you assess various risk factors to determine which single factor might most significantly indicate his immediate risk for developing CHD. Which of the following clinical measurements would be most indicative of his IMMEDIATE risk for developing CHD?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Smoking", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Raised Blood pressure", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Raised serum cholesterol", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Raised Blood Glucose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Raised Blood pressure", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Raised Blood pressure</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Smoking: Smoking is a significant risk factor for CHD , but as a single measurement, it may not be as immediately indicative of CHD risk as some other clinical measurements, especially if the patient is not currently a smoker.</li><li>• Option A. Smoking:</li><li>• significant risk factor for CHD</li><li>• Option C. Raised serum cholesterol: High cholesterol , particularly LDL cholesterol , is a critical risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and CHD . However, its impact on immediate risk might be cumulative over time rather than immediate.</li><li>• Option C. Raised serum cholesterol:</li><li>• High cholesterol</li><li>• LDL cholesterol</li><li>• risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis</li><li>• CHD</li><li>• Option D. Raised blood glucose: Diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance is a risk factor for CHD . Like cholesterol, its impact is significant but might be more cumulative in nature.</li><li>• Option D. Raised blood glucose:</li><li>• Diabetes</li><li>• risk factor for CHD</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to CHD</li><li>• Some Important Pointers related to CHD</li><li>• Single most useful test for identifying individuals at high risk of CHD: Blood pressure (Systolic BP better predictor of CHD than Diastolic BP) Most direct association with CHD: LDL cholesterol; Cholesterol/HDL ratio &lt; 3.5; HDL cholesterol &gt; 30 mg/dL Better predictors of CHD: Apolipoprotein A–I and Apolipoprotein B Alcohol intake as an independent risk factor for CHD: &gt; 75 grams per day Mean serum cholesterol level associated with high risk of CHD: &gt;200 mg/dL ( Threshold level: 220 mg/dl is protective) Protective for CHD: HDL cholesterol (&gt;30 mg/dl) Clinical goal of CHD prevention: Cholesterol/HDL ratio &lt;3.5</li><li>• Single most useful test for identifying individuals at high risk of CHD: Blood pressure (Systolic BP better predictor of CHD than Diastolic BP)</li><li>• Most direct association with CHD: LDL cholesterol; Cholesterol/HDL ratio &lt; 3.5; HDL cholesterol &gt; 30 mg/dL</li><li>• LDL cholesterol;</li><li>• Better predictors of CHD: Apolipoprotein A–I and Apolipoprotein B</li><li>• Better predictors of CHD: Apolipoprotein A–I and Apolipoprotein B</li><li>• Alcohol intake as an independent risk factor for CHD: &gt; 75 grams per day</li><li>• Mean serum cholesterol level associated with high risk of CHD: &gt;200 mg/dL ( Threshold level: 220 mg/dl is protective)</li><li>• Mean serum cholesterol level associated with high risk of CHD: &gt;200 mg/dL (</li><li>• Protective for CHD: HDL cholesterol (&gt;30 mg/dl)</li><li>• Protective for CHD: HDL cholesterol (&gt;30 mg/dl)</li><li>• Clinical goal of CHD prevention: Cholesterol/HDL ratio &lt;3.5</li><li>• Clinical goal of CHD prevention: Cholesterol/HDL ratio &lt;3.5</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blood pressure is the single most useful test for identifying individuals at a high risk of developing CHD .</li><li>➤ Blood pressure</li><li>➤ single most useful test</li><li>➤ identifying individuals</li><li>➤ high risk</li><li>➤ developing CHD</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 414.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health survey focusing on cardiovascular health, researchers evaluated various risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) in a diverse urban population. Considering the biochemical parameters, which of the following is most directly associated with a high risk of CHD in this population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "VLDL", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "HDL", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chylomicron", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "LDL", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. LDL", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. LDL</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. VLDL: Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) has also been shown to be associated with premature atherosclerosis , it is more strongly associated with peripheral vascular disease than with CHD.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• VLDL:</li><li>• Very low-density lipoprotein</li><li>• premature atherosclerosis</li><li>• strongly associated</li><li>• peripheral vascular disease</li><li>• Option B. HDL . High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is protective against the development of CHD</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• HDL</li><li>• protective against</li><li>• development of CHD</li><li>• Option C. Chylomicron . Large triglyceride-rich particles made by the intestine , which are involved in the transport of dietary triglycerides and cholesterol to peripheral tissues and the liver . Abnormal chylomicron metabolism is associated with an atherogenic LDL profile. So, indirectly associated with CHD.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Chylomicron</li><li>• Large triglyceride-rich particles</li><li>• intestine</li><li>• transport of dietary triglycerides</li><li>• cholesterol to peripheral tissues</li><li>• liver</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most direct association with CHD - LDL cholesterol Ischemic heart disease is associated with mostly - LDL cholesterol Cholesterol with high-risk of CHD - LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ Most direct association with CHD - LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ direct association with CHD</li><li>➤ LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ Ischemic heart disease is associated with mostly - LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ Ischemic heart disease</li><li>➤ LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ Cholesterol with high-risk of CHD - LDL cholesterol</li><li>➤ Cholesterol</li><li>➤ high-risk of CHD</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 415.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 415.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical researchers are discussing landmark studies in cardiovascular disease. They focus on a pivotal long-term study that has significantly contributed to understanding the epidemiology and risk factors of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD). Which study are they most likely discussing?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stanford study", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Framingham study", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oslo", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "North Kerelia project", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Framingham study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Framingham study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Stanford study (Stanford-three-community study) - The aim was to determine if community health education can reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases . The Results showed the reduction of CVD by 23 – 28%</li><li>• Option A. Stanford study</li><li>• aim was to determine</li><li>• community health education</li><li>• reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases</li><li>• Option C. Oslo (Oslow diet/smoking intervention study) -</li><li>• Option C. Oslo</li><li>• Aim: To determine if serum lipids lowering and smoking-cessation would reduce incidence of first attack of CHD in 40-50 yrs males</li><li>• determine</li><li>• serum lipids lowering</li><li>• smoking-cessation</li><li>• reduce incidence</li><li>• first attack of CHD</li><li>• 40-50 yrs males</li><li>• Results: Reduction of MI by 47%</li><li>• Importance: With this study, primary prevention of CHD entered practical field of preventive medicine in an impressive manner.</li><li>• Option D. North kerelia study/ Project -</li><li>• Option D. North kerelia study/ Project</li><li>• Aims: To reduce cardiovascular risk factor levels and to promote early diagnosis , treatment and rehabilitation of patients Results: Reduction seen in CHD deaths in 10 years</li><li>• reduce cardiovascular risk factor levels</li><li>• promote early diagnosis</li><li>• treatment</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Best known large risk factor study for CHD is - Framingham Heart Study</li><li>➤ Best known large risk factor</li><li>➤ CHD</li><li>➤ Framingham Heart Study</li><li>➤ Framingham Heart Study Is a classic example of cohort study</li><li>➤ Framingham Heart Study</li><li>➤ example</li><li>➤ cohort study</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 416</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 416</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a clinical seminar on Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD), you discuss its epidemiology, pathogenesis, and clinical presentation. A 10-year-old patient with a recent history of streptococcal pharyngitis is presented as a case study. Given your knowledge of RHD, which of the following statements about Rheumatic Heart Disease is LEAST likely to be true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevalence of RHD among 5-15 years is 5-7 per 1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence of RF among streptococcal infected patients is 1-3%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RHD constitutes 20-30% of admission due to CVD", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Juvenile Mitral regurgitation is commonly associated with Rheumatic fever", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Juvenile Mitral regurgitation is commonly associated with Rheumatic fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-095627.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Juvenile Mitral regurgitation is commonly associated with Rheumatic fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Prevalence of RHD among 5-15 years is 5-7 per 1000 : True . RF is a disease of childhood &amp; adolescence (5–15 yrs) affecting both sexes equally. There are about 1 million RHD cases in India.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Prevalence of RHD</li><li>• among 5-15 years is 5-7 per 1000</li><li>• True</li><li>• Option B. Incidence of RF among streptococcal infected patients is 1-3%. True</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Incidence of RF among streptococcal infected patients is 1-3%. True</li><li>• Option C. RHD constitutes 20-30% of admission due to CVD. True.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• RHD constitutes 20-30% of admission due to CVD. True.</li><li>• MC cardiac lesion seen in RF : – In children : Mitral regurgitation and In adults : Mitral stenosis MC ECG finding in RF: First degree AV block MC cause of Heart disease in 5-30 yrs age group (globally): RF</li><li>• MC cardiac lesion seen in RF : – In children : Mitral regurgitation and In adults : Mitral stenosis</li><li>• MC cardiac lesion seen in RF</li><li>• children</li><li>• Mitral regurgitation</li><li>• adults</li><li>• Mitral stenosis</li><li>• MC ECG finding in RF: First degree AV block</li><li>• MC cause of Heart disease in 5-30 yrs age group (globally): RF</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• RF is not a communicable disease : but it results from a communicable disease (streptococcal pharyngitis) Streptococcal infections are very common especially in children living in underprivileged conditions , and RF is reported to occur in 1-3% of those infections Prevention of RF - Benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>• RF is not a communicable disease : but it results from a communicable disease (streptococcal pharyngitis)</li><li>• RF is not a communicable disease</li><li>• communicable disease</li><li>• Streptococcal infections are very common especially in children living in underprivileged conditions , and RF is reported to occur in 1-3% of those infections</li><li>• Streptococcal infections</li><li>• common</li><li>• children</li><li>• underprivileged conditions</li><li>• RF</li><li>• occur in 1-3%</li><li>• infections</li><li>• Prevention of RF - Benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>• Diagnosis of RF is by employing Revised Jones criteria</li><li>• Revised Jones criteria</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rheumatic heart disease can be prevented by Screening of school going children Prophylactic treatment of Rheumatic heart disease Benzathaine penicillin</li><li>➤ Rheumatic heart disease can be prevented by Screening of school going children</li><li>➤ Rheumatic heart disease</li><li>➤ Screening of school going children</li><li>➤ Prophylactic treatment of Rheumatic heart disease Benzathaine penicillin</li><li>➤ Prophylactic treatment</li><li>➤ Rheumatic heart disease Benzathaine penicillin</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a global health rotation, you are working on a project focused on controlling Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD) in India. You learn about a specific initiative that has been instrumental in addressing this issue at the community level. Which of the following is the name of this notable project launched in India to control the community spread of RHD?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Jai Vigyan Mission Mode", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rheumatic fever control project", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MRFIT", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niramay project", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Jai Vigyan Mission Mode", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Jai Vigyan Mission Mode</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option C. MRFIT: The Multiple Risk Factor Intervention Trial . This was conducted in 22 clinical centers in the United States (1971). MRFIT was conducted by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and National Heart , Lung , and Blood Institute and was massive in scope , screening 356 , 222 men for the desired study population . MRFIT was a randomized, primary prevention trial, conducted from 1973 to 1982 to test whether lowering elevated serum cholesterol and diastolic blood pressure and ceasing cigarette smoking would reduce coronary heart disease mortality.</li><li>• Option C. MRFIT:</li><li>• Multiple Risk Factor Intervention Trial</li><li>• conducted in 22 clinical centers</li><li>• United States</li><li>• MRFIT</li><li>• National Institutes of Health</li><li>• National Heart</li><li>• Lung</li><li>• Blood Institute</li><li>• massive in scope</li><li>• screening 356</li><li>• 222 men</li><li>• desired study population</li><li>• Option D: Project Niramay : It is an initiative of the Government of Assam . It aims to use modern technology (integrating digital health technology) solutions to improve public healthcare delivery . Currently, the scheme is made specifically for the people of Assam . It aims to strengthen the health system at the grassroots level and improve the quality of healthcare as well as the experience of healthcare delivery by establishing a continuum of care. Niramaya caters to both safe motherhood and child survival components of Reproductive Child Health (RCH).</li><li>• Option D: Project Niramay</li><li>• initiative of the Government of Assam</li><li>• aims to use modern technology</li><li>• solutions</li><li>• improve public healthcare delivery</li><li>• people of Assam</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The project launched in India to achieve community control of Rheumatic Heart disease is Jai Vigyan Mission Mode Project</li><li>➤ project launched in India</li><li>➤ community control of Rheumatic Heart disease</li><li>➤ Jai Vigyan Mission Mode Project</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 425.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-year-old child from a tribal area presents to a primary health center (PHC) with complaints of a sore throat and is suspected to have a streptococcal infection. Unfortunately, facilities for a throat swab culture are not available at the PHC. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this child?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Refer the child to higher centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Administer single dose of benzathine benzyl penicillin", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "No intervention, just counsel the attender and send", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Wait till the throat swab results are received.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Administer single dose of benzathine benzyl penicillin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-100549.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Administer single dose of benzathine benzyl penicillin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• If streptococci are present , the child should be put on penicillin . Since facilities for throat swab culture are not easily available , it is justified to treat a sore throat with penicillin even without having the culture . For this purpose, a single intramuscular injection of 1.2 million units of benzathine benzyl penicillin for adults and 600,000 units for children is adequate, or oral penicillin (Penicillin V or Penicillin G) should be given for 10 days . This is the least expensive method of giving penicillin for eradication of streptococci from the throat.</li><li>• streptococci are present</li><li>• child</li><li>• penicillin</li><li>• facilities</li><li>• throat swab culture</li><li>• not easily available</li><li>• treat a sore throat</li><li>• penicillin</li><li>• without having the culture</li><li>• single intramuscular injection</li><li>• 1.2 million units</li><li>• benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>• adults</li><li>• 600,000 units</li><li>• children</li><li>• given for 10 days</li><li>• least expensive</li><li>• giving penicillin</li><li>• Prevention of RF with Benzathine benzyl penicillin :</li><li>• Prevention of RF</li><li>• Benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>• Oral penicillin (Penicillin V or G) X 10 days is the ‘ least expensive method’ of giving penicillin to eradicate Streptococci from throat</li><li>• Oral penicillin</li><li>• 10 days</li><li>• least expensive method’</li><li>• penicillin</li><li>• eradicate Streptococci from throat</li><li>• Secondary prevention for patients with carditis : Continue for 10 yrs after the last attack or at least until 25 yrs age (whichever is longer)</li><li>• Secondary prevention</li><li>• patients with carditis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Case of suspected streptococcal throat infection , especially in settings where diagnostic facilities are limited - single intramuscular injection of 1.2 million units of benzathine benzyl penicillin for adults and 600,000 units for children is adequate, or oral penicillin (Penicillin V or Penicillin G) should be given.</li><li>➤ Case</li><li>➤ suspected streptococcal throat infection</li><li>➤ diagnostic facilities are limited</li><li>➤ single intramuscular injection</li><li>➤ 1.2 million units</li><li>➤ benzathine benzyl penicillin</li><li>➤ adults</li><li>➤ 600,000 units</li><li>➤ children</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 426.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 426.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health lecture on cardiovascular diseases, the speaker introduces the topic of 'Tracking of Blood Pressure'. The concept is discussed in the context of its importance for long-term cardiovascular health. Based on this discussion, which of the following statements about blood pressure tracking is LEAST likely to be true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Persistence of rank order of blood pressure", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Useful for identification of high-risk individuals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Blood pressure of Hypotensive remain hypotensive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood pressure of Hypotensive becomes hypertensive", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blood pressure of Hypotensive becomes hypertensive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/09/04/whatsapp-image-2024-08-27-at-110629-am-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Blood pressure of Hypotensive becomes hypertensive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Persistence of rank order of blood pressure . Correct . This phenomenon can be applied in identifying children and adolescents “at risk” of developing hypertension at a future date.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Persistence of rank order of blood pressure</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option B. Useful for identification of high-risk individuals . Correct</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Useful for identification of high-risk individuals</li><li>• Correct</li><li>• Option C. Blood pressure of Hypotensive remain hypotensive . Correct . Low BP tends to remain low and high BP tends to become higher as individuals grow older.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Blood pressure of Hypotensive remain hypotensive</li><li>• Correct</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A person who has lower blood pressure during childhood tends to have low blood pressure during adulthood too. This is known as - Tracking Phenomenon</li><li>➤ person</li><li>➤ lower blood pressure</li><li>➤ childhood</li><li>➤ low blood pressure</li><li>➤ adulthood</li><li>➤ Tracking Phenomenon</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 420.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 420.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar on dietary interventions for hypertension, a discussion is held regarding the DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet. By approximately how much can the adoption of the DASH diet reduce systolic blood pressure in individuals with high blood pressure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5-10 mm Hg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8-14 mm Hg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "4-9 mmHg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10-15 mm Hg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8-14 mm Hg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-101631.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 8-14 mm Hg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lifestyle Modifications to Manage Hypertension</li><li>• Lifestyle Modifications to Manage Hypertension</li><li>• DASH DIET (DIETARY APPROACHES TO STOP HYPERTENSION)</li><li>• DASH DIET (DIETARY APPROACHES TO STOP HYPERTENSION)</li><li>• Dietary pattern promoted to prevent and control hypertension DASH diet is rich in fruits , vegetables , and low-fat dairy foods with whole grains ; includes meat, fish, poultry, nuts, and beans; and is limited in sugar-sweetened foods and beverages, red meat, and added fats DASH reduces SBP by 6 mm Hg , DBP by 3 mm Hg in high normal BP DASH leads to No changes in body weight DASH is adjusted based on daily intake of 1,600-3,100 calories</li><li>• Dietary pattern promoted to prevent and control hypertension</li><li>• Dietary pattern</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• control hypertension</li><li>• DASH diet is rich in fruits , vegetables , and low-fat dairy foods with whole grains ; includes meat, fish, poultry, nuts, and beans; and is limited in sugar-sweetened foods and beverages, red meat, and added fats</li><li>• DASH diet</li><li>• rich in fruits</li><li>• vegetables</li><li>• low-fat dairy foods</li><li>• whole grains</li><li>• DASH reduces SBP by 6 mm Hg , DBP by 3 mm Hg in high normal BP</li><li>• DASH</li><li>• reduces SBP</li><li>• 6 mm Hg</li><li>• DBP</li><li>• 3 mm Hg</li><li>• DASH leads to No changes in body weight</li><li>• DASH</li><li>• No changes</li><li>• body weight</li><li>• DASH is adjusted based on daily intake of 1,600-3,100 calories</li><li>• DASH</li><li>• adjusted</li><li>• daily intake</li><li>• 1,600-3,100 calories</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adoption of DASH diet reduces systolic BP by 8-14 mm Hg approximately.</li><li>➤ Adoption</li><li>➤ DASH diet</li><li>➤ reduces</li><li>➤ systolic BP</li><li>➤ 8-14 mm Hg</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 422.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 422.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community health program aimed at preventing hypertension, the strategy of tracking blood pressure among individuals over time was implemented. This practice of monitoring and following up blood pressure readings as a preventive measure against hypertension is an example of which public health principle?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Individual approach", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Population strategy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High risk strategy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Secondary prevention", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High risk strategy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. High risk strategy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Since hypertension tends to cluster in families , the family history of hypertension and “tracking” of blood pressure from childhood may be used to identify individuals at risk</li><li>• hypertension</li><li>• cluster in families</li><li>• family history</li><li>• hypertension</li><li>• “tracking” of blood pressure</li><li>• childhood</li><li>• identify individuals at risk</li><li>• High risk strategy:</li><li>• High risk strategy:</li><li>• Identifying risk : By using simple tests for blood pressure , serum cholesterol measurement Specific advice : To those identified at high risk Management of hypertension and diabetes is High risk strategy – Primary level of prevention for CHD</li><li>• Identifying risk : By using simple tests for blood pressure , serum cholesterol measurement</li><li>• Identifying risk</li><li>• simple tests</li><li>• blood pressure</li><li>• serum cholesterol measurement</li><li>• Specific advice : To those identified at high risk</li><li>• Specific advice</li><li>• identified at high risk</li><li>• Management of hypertension and diabetes is High risk strategy – Primary level of prevention for CHD</li><li>• Management</li><li>• hypertension</li><li>• diabetes is High risk strategy</li><li>• TRACKING OF BLOOD PRESSURE</li><li>• TRACKING OF BLOOD PRESSURE</li><li>• If BP of individuals were followed up over a period of years from early childhood into adult life , then those having high BP would continue into same ‘track’ as adults Low BP tends to remain low and high BP tends to become higher as individuals grow older</li><li>• If BP of individuals were followed up over a period of years from early childhood into adult life , then those having high BP would continue into same ‘track’ as adults</li><li>• BP of individuals</li><li>• followed</li><li>• period of years</li><li>• early childhood</li><li>• adult life</li><li>• high BP</li><li>• same ‘track’ as adults</li><li>• Low BP tends to remain low and high BP tends to become higher as individuals grow older</li><li>• Low BP</li><li>• remain low</li><li>• high BP</li><li>• higher</li><li>• individuals grow</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 423.</li><li>• Ref</li><li>• : Park 26 th ed pg 423.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health lecture discussing cancer screening programs, the topic shifts to the availability of widespread screening methods for various cancers in the general population. Screening programs aim to detect cancer early in asymptomatic individuals, thereby improving outcomes. Which of the following cancers currently does not have a widely available screening program in the general population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stomach", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Stomach", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-101602.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/26/screenshot-2024-08-26-101635.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Stomach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Screening tests are -</li><li>• Option A. Breast - BSE and Mammography</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Breast</li><li>• BSE</li><li>• Mammography</li><li>• Option C. Cervix - Pap's smear</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Cervix</li><li>• Pap's smear</li><li>• Option D. Oral - Bimanual Oral Examination D</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Oral</li><li>• Bimanual Oral Examination</li><li>• Risk factor Associations of few cancers -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screening in general population is available for following cancers except - Stomach cancer</li><li>➤ Screening</li><li>➤ general population</li><li>➤ cancers</li><li>➤ Stomach cancer</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used -</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a physician participating in a public health initiative aimed at addressing cardiovascular health in India. As part of this initiative, you're reviewing recent data to understand the current landscape of common cardiovascular risk factors among the population. A key focus is on hypertension, a major contributor to cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. You recall the findings from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) 5, which provided crucial insights into the prevalence of hypertension in the Indian population. According to the NFHS 5, what is the estimated prevalence of hypertension among Indian men and women aged above 15 years?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "29.2% and 31.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20.4% and 23.6%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "24% and 21.3%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "28.7% and 26.4%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 24% and 21.3%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-103408.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-103950.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 24% and 21.3%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Prevalence of hypertension - Women 21.3% and Men 24% (For detail - check below mentioned table)</li><li>• Prevalence of hypertension</li><li>• Women 21.3%</li><li>• Men 24%</li><li>• FEW KEY FINDINGS OF NFHS-5, INDIA (2019–21)</li><li>• FEW KEY FINDINGS OF NFHS-5, INDIA (2019–21)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prevalence of hypertension in India as per NFHS 5 data - Women 21.3% and Men 24%</li><li>➤ Prevalence of hypertension</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ NFHS 5 data</li><li>➤ Women 21.3%</li><li>➤ Men 24%</li><li>➤ Ref : NFHS 5 India fact sheet</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : NFHS 5 India fact sheet</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old male patient with a family history of hypertension visits your clinic for a routine check-up. He expresses concern about his risk of developing hypertension and seeks advice on dietary modifications to reduce this risk. In counseling the patient, you discuss various diets and their potential impact on blood pressure. Which of the following diets is LEAST likely to contribute to the risk of developing hypertension?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diet rich in Sodium", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Diet rich in saturated fats", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diet low in dietary fibres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diet rich in potassium", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diet rich in potassium", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-104149.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Diet rich in potassium</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diet rich in fruits , vegetables &amp; fibers are associated with a lower risk of developing hypertension , contrasting with diets high in sodium , saturated fats , and processed foods , which increase hypertension risk .</li><li>• Diet rich in fruits</li><li>• vegetables</li><li>• fibers</li><li>• lower risk</li><li>• developing hypertension</li><li>• diets high in sodium</li><li>• saturated fats</li><li>• processed foods</li><li>• increase hypertension risk</li><li>• Recommended Intake for Minerals/Trace Elements:</li><li>• Recommended Intake for Minerals/Trace Elements:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Diet rich in fruits , vegetables &amp; fibers are associated with a lower risk of developing hypertension , contrasting with diets high in sodium , saturated fats , and processed foods , which increase hypertension risk .</li><li>➤ Diet rich</li><li>➤ fruits</li><li>➤ vegetables</li><li>➤ fibers</li><li>➤ lower risk</li><li>➤ developing hypertension</li><li>➤ contrasting</li><li>➤ diets high in sodium</li><li>➤ saturated fats</li><li>➤ processed foods</li><li>➤ increase hypertension risk</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 422.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 422.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 50-year-old male, visits your outpatient department for a preventive health checkup. He does not report any significant medical history and is not on any medication. You record his blood pressure as 134/82 mm Hg. According to the latest hypertension guidelines, how would this blood pressure reading be categorized?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Normal", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Optimal", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "High Normal", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Grade 1 hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. High Normal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-104308.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. High Normal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Categorization of Blood Pressure -</li><li>• Categorization</li><li>• Blood Pressure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High Normal BP - 130-139 mm Hg SBP and/or 85-89 mm Hg Diastolic BP</li><li>➤ High Normal BP</li><li>➤ 130-139 mm Hg SBP</li><li>➤ 85-89 mm Hg Diastolic BP</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 419.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 419.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs X came to your OPD; her Blood pressure was 160/90 mm Hg. The Medical officer prescribed her Tab Atenolol, along with that she advised her to adopt lifestyle modifications. What is the WHO recommended salt restriction for hypertension:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "less than 7 g/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "less than 10 g/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Less than 5 g/day", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Less than 4 g/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Less than 5 g/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Less than 5 g/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prudent Diet (Dietary Goals)</li><li>• Prudent Diet (Dietary Goals)</li><li>• Dietary modification is the principal preventive strategy for prevention of CHD WHO recommended changes: [GOAL: Cholesterol/HDL Ratio &lt;3.5] Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li><li>• Dietary modification is the principal preventive strategy for prevention of CHD</li><li>• Dietary modification</li><li>• principal preventive strategy</li><li>• prevention of CHD</li><li>• WHO recommended changes: [GOAL: Cholesterol/HDL Ratio &lt;3.5] Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li><li>• Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li><li>• Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake</li><li>• Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake</li><li>• Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake</li><li>• Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake</li><li>• Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day</li><li>• Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption</li><li>• Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day</li><li>• Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day</li><li>• Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO recommended salt restriction for hypertension , CHD - &lt;5 gms per day</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ salt restriction</li><li>➤ hypertension</li><li>➤ CHD</li><li>➤ &lt;5 gms per day</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook of community medicine, 1 st ed, pg 583.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : IAPSM textbook of community medicine, 1 st ed, pg 583.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a seminar on cancer epidemiology in India, a discussion arises about the most prevalent types of cancer among different demographics. With a focus on male population, participants are asked to identify the most common type of carcinoma affecting men in India as of the recent data from 2020. This cancer type is notably linked to lifestyle and environmental factors prevalent in the country. Which type of carcinoma is considered the most common among men in India, reflecting these epidemiological trends?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cancer lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Carcinoma- Lip and oral cavity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cancer Stomach", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cancer esophagus", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Carcinoma- Lip and oral cavity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110742.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110505_bCCsPCk.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110829.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Carcinoma- Lip and oral cavity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NEW WHO Cancer Data—Globocan 2020 (Top 5 causes)</li><li>• NEW WHO Cancer Data—Globocan 2020 (Top 5 causes)</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer WORLD</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer WORLD</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76 National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008 World Cancer Day - 4th February MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F) MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme</li><li>➤ 1975–76</li><li>➤ National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008</li><li>➤ National Program</li><li>➤ Prevention</li><li>➤ Control of Cancer</li><li>➤ Diabetes</li><li>➤ Cardiovascular Diseases</li><li>➤ Stroke</li><li>➤ 2008</li><li>➤ World Cancer Day - 4th February</li><li>➤ World Cancer Day</li><li>➤ 4th February</li><li>➤ MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F)</li><li>➤ MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer</li><li>➤ Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum</li><li>➤ Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain</li><li>➤ Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers</li><li>➤ Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer</li><li>➤ Beer consumption</li><li>➤ rectal cancer</li><li>➤ Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>➤ Alcohol</li><li>➤ 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>➤ Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers</li><li>➤ Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer</li><li>➤ Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers</li><li>➤ Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 429.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 429.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 45-year-old male, presents to your outpatient department with symptoms of increased urination and a burning sensation in his foot. Considering these clinical manifestations, which of the following investigations is considered the cornerstone for the diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Random blood glucose", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Urine examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral glucose test", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fasting blood glucose", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral glucose test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-105324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Oral glucose test</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Random Blood Glucose : It can indicate diabetes if levels are consistently high , but it's less specific than OGTT or fasting glucose tests.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Random Blood Glucose</li><li>• indicate diabetes</li><li>• consistently high</li><li>• Option B. Urine Examination : While it can show glucose excretion in urine , which is a sign of diabetes , it is not a definitive test for diagnosing Diabetes Mellitus.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Urine Examination</li><li>• show glucose excretion</li><li>• urine</li><li>• sign of diabetes</li><li>• Option D. Fasting Blood Glucose : This test measures blood sugar after an overnight fast . It's a common and important test for diabetes but may not be as definitive as OGTT in some cases.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Fasting Blood Glucose</li><li>• measures blood sugar</li><li>• overnight fast</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO GUIDELINES FOR DIAGNOSIS OF DIABETES MELLITUS</li><li>➤ WHO GUIDELINES FOR DIAGNOSIS OF DIABETES MELLITUS</li><li>➤ Fasting plasma glucose level: &gt;126 mg/dL (&gt;7 mmol/L) 2-hour venous plasma glucose in Glucose tolerance test: &gt;200 mg/dL (&gt;11.1 mmol/L) Casual plasma glucose: &gt;200 mg/dL (&gt;11.1 mmol/L) Glycated haemoglobin: &gt;6.5%</li><li>➤ Fasting plasma glucose level: &gt;126 mg/dL (&gt;7 mmol/L)</li><li>➤ 2-hour venous plasma glucose in Glucose tolerance test: &gt;200 mg/dL (&gt;11.1 mmol/L)</li><li>➤ Casual plasma glucose: &gt;200 mg/dL (&gt;11.1 mmol/L)</li><li>➤ Glycated haemoglobin: &gt;6.5%</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 441.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 441.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture focusing on the prevention of diabetes mellitus, the discussion turns to behavioral factors that may increase the risk of this condition. Which of the following behavioral factors is considered to have probable evidence for increasing the risk of developing diabetes mellitus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physical inactivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Over weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Increased intake of saturated fat", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Excess alcohol intake", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Increased intake of saturated fat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-105447.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Increased intake of saturated fat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Physical Inactivity : Physical inactivity is a convincing risk factor for diabetes mellitus , but the question specifically asks for probable evidence for increasing diabetes risk. Physical inactivity is more generally linked to overall metabolic syndrome.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Physical Inactivity</li><li>• convincing risk factor</li><li>• diabetes mellitus</li><li>• Option B. Overweight : Being overweight is a convincing risk factor for diabetes , but not probable.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Overweight</li><li>• convincing risk factor</li><li>• diabetes</li><li>• Option D. Excess Alcohol Intake : Excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to the development of chronic diseases , including diabetes, but there is no sufficient evidence available for this.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Excess Alcohol Intake</li><li>• contribute</li><li>• development of chronic diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Strength of evidence on lifestyle factors and risk of Type2 Diabetes Mellitus -</li><li>➤ Strength of evidence</li><li>➤ lifestyle factors</li><li>➤ Type2 Diabetes Mellitus</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 441.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 441.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health seminar on the global challenge of diabetes mellitus, the discussion highlights various awareness campaigns. One such significant campaign is the celebration of World Diabetes Day. On which date is World Diabetes Day celebrated annually to raise awareness about diabetes and its escalating rates globally?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "December 14", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "November 14", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "September 14", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "July 14", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. November 14", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. November 14</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• “ World Diabetes Day ” was introduced in 1991 by the International Diabetes Federation and the World Health Organization with a goal in mind of creating awareness regarding startling statistics of rising Diabetes observed on global scale. This day is observed on November 14 of each year.</li><li>• World Diabetes Day</li><li>• 1991</li><li>• International Diabetes Federation</li><li>• World Health Organization</li><li>• goal</li><li>• creating awareness</li><li>• startling statistics of rising Diabetes</li><li>• November 14</li><li>• It is marked every year on 14 November , the birthday of Sir Frederick Banting , who co-discovered insulin along with Charles Best in 1922</li><li>• every year</li><li>• 14 November</li><li>• Sir Frederick Banting</li><li>• insulin</li><li>• Charles Best in 1922</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ World Diabetes Day - 14 November</li><li>➤ 14 November</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 925.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 925.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global oncology conference, the topic of cancer prevalence is addressed. As of 2020, which type of cancer is identified as the most common among both men and women worldwide?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Oral cancer and cancer breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cancer lung and Cancer cervix", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cancer lung and cancer breast", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral cancer and cancer cervix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cancer lung and cancer breast", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110132.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/30/fdgdfg.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110232.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cancer lung and cancer breast</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Among Indian women , cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers MC cancer among females in India: Breast cancer Gall bladder cancer has the highest age-adjusted incidence rate among females in Delhi</li><li>• Among Indian women , cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers</li><li>• Indian women</li><li>• cancers of breast</li><li>• cervix</li><li>• 60% of all cancers</li><li>• Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer</li><li>• Beer consumption</li><li>• rectal cancer</li><li>• Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>• Alcohol</li><li>• 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>• Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers</li><li>• Environmental</li><li>• 80-90%</li><li>• Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers</li><li>• Occupational exposures</li><li>• 1 – 5% of all cancers</li><li>• MC cancer among females in India: Breast cancer</li><li>• Gall bladder cancer has the highest age-adjusted incidence rate among females in Delhi</li><li>• Associations of few cancers -</li><li>• Associations of few cancers -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MC Cancer in India is Lung Cancer (M); (F)</li><li>➤ MC Cancer</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Lung Cancer</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 428.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 428.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session focusing on the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases, and Stroke (NPCDCS) in India, the topic of opportunistic screening for hypertension and diabetes mellitus is discussed. According to the NPCDCS guidelines, starting from what age should individuals be opportunistically screened for hypertension and diabetes mellitus?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "18 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "30 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "45 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All age group", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 30 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 30 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Opportunistic screening of the population above 30 years will be carried out using BP measurement and blood glucose by strip method .</li><li>• Opportunistic screening</li><li>• population</li><li>• above 30 years</li><li>• carried out</li><li>• BP measurement</li><li>• blood glucose</li><li>• strip method</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF CANCER, DIABETES, CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES AND STROKE (NPCDCS)</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF CANCER, DIABETES, CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES AND STROKE (NPCDCS)</li><li>• Single centre for Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular disease, Stroke 100 districts in 21 states being covered in 11th Five year plan 20,000 Subcentres and 700 Community health centres (CHCs) covered Activities at Sub-centres -</li><li>• Single centre for Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular disease, Stroke</li><li>• Single centre</li><li>• 100 districts in 21 states being covered in 11th Five year plan</li><li>• 100 districts</li><li>• 20,000 Subcentres and 700 Community health centres (CHCs) covered</li><li>• 20,000 Subcentres</li><li>• Activities at Sub-centres -</li><li>• Sub-centres -</li><li>• Health promotion for behaviour and lifestyle change Opportunistic screening of BP, Blood glucose (Strip method) in age &gt;30 years Referral to CHC of cases of DM, HT</li><li>• Health promotion for behaviour and lifestyle change</li><li>• Opportunistic screening of BP, Blood glucose (Strip method) in age &gt;30 years</li><li>• Opportunistic screening of BP, Blood glucose (Strip method) in age &gt;30 years</li><li>• Referral to CHC of cases of DM, HT</li><li>• Activities at CHCs : Diagnosis and management at NCD clinic Home visits by nurse for bedridden cases Referral to District hospital for complicated cases</li><li>• Activities at CHCs : Diagnosis and management at NCD clinic Home visits by nurse for bedridden cases Referral to District hospital for complicated cases</li><li>• Activities at CHCs</li><li>• Diagnosis and management at NCD clinic Home visits by nurse for bedridden cases Referral to District hospital for complicated cases</li><li>• Diagnosis and management at NCD clinic</li><li>• Home visits by nurse for bedridden cases</li><li>• Referral to District hospital for complicated cases</li><li>• Activities at District hospital : Health promotion Screening of population &gt;30 years Diagnosis and management of cardiovascular diseases Home-based palliative care for chronic, debilitating, progressive patients</li><li>• Activities at District hospital : Health promotion Screening of population &gt;30 years Diagnosis and management of cardiovascular diseases Home-based palliative care for chronic, debilitating, progressive patients</li><li>• Activities at District hospital</li><li>• Health promotion Screening of population &gt;30 years Diagnosis and management of cardiovascular diseases Home-based palliative care for chronic, debilitating, progressive patients</li><li>• Health promotion</li><li>• Screening of population &gt;30 years</li><li>• Screening of population &gt;30 years</li><li>• Diagnosis and management of cardiovascular diseases</li><li>• Home-based palliative care for chronic, debilitating, progressive patients</li><li>• Urban health check-up scheme for Diabetes and High BP – Screen urban slum population &gt;30 years and pregnant females Cancer control in NPCDCS : Regional cancer control scheme: Regional cancer centres to act as Referrral centres for complicated cases Oncology wing development scheme Decentralized NGO scheme: IEC activities and early cancer detection IEC at Central level Research and training</li><li>• Urban health check-up scheme for Diabetes and High BP – Screen urban slum population &gt;30 years and pregnant females</li><li>• Cancer control in NPCDCS : Regional cancer control scheme: Regional cancer centres to act as Referrral centres for complicated cases Oncology wing development scheme Decentralized NGO scheme: IEC activities and early cancer detection IEC at Central level Research and training</li><li>• Cancer control in NPCDCS</li><li>• Regional cancer control scheme: Regional cancer centres to act as Referrral centres for complicated cases Oncology wing development scheme Decentralized NGO scheme: IEC activities and early cancer detection IEC at Central level Research and training</li><li>• Regional cancer control scheme: Regional cancer centres to act as Referrral centres for complicated cases</li><li>• Oncology wing development scheme</li><li>• Decentralized NGO scheme: IEC activities and early cancer detection</li><li>• IEC at Central level</li><li>• Research and training</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NPCDCS recommends opportunistic screening for Hypertension and Diabetes mellitus above the age of 30 years</li><li>➤ NPCDCS</li><li>➤ opportunistic screening</li><li>➤ Hypertension</li><li>➤ Diabetes mellitus</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 528.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 528.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a global initiative to raise awareness about cancer and promote its prevention, detection, and treatment, World Cancer Day is observed annually. This day serves as a platform to educate the public and advocate for strategies to reduce the global impact of cancer. On which date is World Cancer Day celebrated every year to enhance global awareness and encourage proactive measures in cancer care?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "March 4 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "July 4 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "February 4 th", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "August 4 th", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. February 4 th", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/18/picture1_xD1QM4g.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/18/screenshot-2024-01-18-180220.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. February 4th</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• World Cancer Day held every 4 February is the global uniting initiative led by the Union for International Cancer Control (UICC). By raising worldwide awareness , improving education and catalysing personal , collective and government action , we are all working together to reimagine a world where millions of preventable cancer deaths are saved and access to life-saving cancer treatment and care is equitable for all - no matter who you are or where you live.</li><li>• 4 February</li><li>• global uniting initiative</li><li>• Union for International Cancer Control</li><li>• awareness</li><li>• education</li><li>• catalysing personal</li><li>• collective</li><li>• government</li><li>• action</li><li>• reimagine a world</li><li>• millions of preventable cancer deaths</li><li>• saved</li><li>• access to life-saving cancer</li><li>• Slogan - 2023 - Close the care gap</li><li>• Slogan - 2023 - Close the care gap</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Important Days of Public Health Importance –</li><li>➤ Important Days of Public Health Importance –</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 944.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 944.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a review of the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases, and Stroke (NPCDCS) in India, a discussion arises regarding the infrastructure for cancer screening, specifically for breast cancer. Under the NPCDCS program, at what level of healthcare facility is the mammography service for the diagnosis of breast cancer primarily made available?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary health centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sub centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Community Health centre", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "District hospital", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. District hospital", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-122302.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. District hospital</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under NPCDCS programme , as a part of cancer screening , mammography facility to diagnose breast cancer was found at - District Hospitals</li><li>• NPCDCS programme</li><li>• cancer screening</li><li>• mammography facility</li><li>• breast cancer</li><li>• District Hospitals</li><li>• Screening of Breast Cancer</li><li>• Screening of Breast Cancer</li><li>• Tests : Mammography, USG, Thermography, Breast self-examination (BSE), Palpation by Physician/Surgeon, MRI Level of prevention : Secondary (Early diagnosis) For breast cancer if mammography is done at 40 years age females , as it’s prevalence increases after 40 (Below 40 years it’s not useful due to breast tissue density)</li><li>• Tests : Mammography, USG, Thermography, Breast self-examination (BSE), Palpation by Physician/Surgeon, MRI</li><li>• Tests</li><li>• Level of prevention : Secondary (Early diagnosis) For breast cancer if mammography is done at 40 years age females , as it’s prevalence increases after 40 (Below 40 years it’s not useful due to breast tissue density)</li><li>• Level of prevention</li><li>• For breast cancer if mammography is done at 40 years age females , as it’s prevalence increases after 40 (Below 40 years it’s not useful due to breast tissue density)</li><li>• For breast cancer if mammography is done at 40 years age females , as it’s prevalence increases after 40 (Below 40 years it’s not useful due to breast tissue density)</li><li>• breast cancer</li><li>• mammography</li><li>• 40 years age females</li><li>• increases after 40</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Package of Services at different levels of Health Facilities –</li><li>➤ Package of Services</li><li>➤ different levels of Health Facilities</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 992.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 992.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an in-depth discussion about the Cancer control component of the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases, and Stroke (NPCDCS) in India, the establishment of specialized oncology wings is a key topic. Under this initiative, oncology wings were sanctioned to be established in which type of healthcare facilities to enhance cancer care and management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Regional Cancer institutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "District Hospitals", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical college Hospitals", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Voluntary Agencies treating cancer patients", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Medical college Hospitals", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-122526.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Medical College Hospitals</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Development of oncology wings in medical colleges and installation of cobalt therapy units to government and government charitable organizations.</li><li>• Development of oncology wings</li><li>• medical colleges</li><li>• installation of cobalt therapy units</li><li>• government</li><li>• government charitable organizations.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Package of Services at different levels of Health Facilities –</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 993.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 993.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar on ocular health, a discussion on the World Health Organization's (WHO) definition of blindness takes place. Understanding this definition is crucial for public health initiatives and clinical management of eye diseases. According to WHO, blindness is defined based on the visual acuity in the better eye. What is the threshold of visual acuity in the better eye, below which an individual is considered blind according to WHO standards?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6/60", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5/6", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3/60", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1/60", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3/60", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-122731.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-123023.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3/60</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• WHO defines Blindness as ‘visual acuity of &lt;3/60 in better eye with best possible correction’</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• Blindness as ‘visual acuity</li><li>• &lt;3/60</li><li>• National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB), India defines Blindness as ‘visual acuity of &lt;6/60 in better eye with best possible correction’</li><li>• National Programme</li><li>• Control of Blindness</li><li>• India</li><li>• &lt;6/60</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to NPCB</li><li>• Some important Pointers related to NPCB</li><li>• National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) was started in 1976 as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme MC cause of blindness in India : Cataract Vision 2020 - Eliminate avoidable blindness Cataract is included among target diseases in Vision 2020 (both Global and Indian) In School eye-screening program , initial vision screening done by - School teachers In SAFE strategy - S stands for Surgery In Vision 2020, target for Secondary service centres is - one per 500,000 population In vision 2020, recommended ophthalmic personnel per population ratio - 1 per 500,000 population</li><li>• National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) was started in 1976 as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme</li><li>• National Programme</li><li>• Control of Blindness</li><li>• 1976 as a 100% centrally sponsored</li><li>• MC cause of blindness in India : Cataract</li><li>• MC</li><li>• blindness in India</li><li>• Cataract</li><li>• Vision 2020 - Eliminate avoidable blindness</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• Cataract is included among target diseases in Vision 2020 (both Global and Indian)</li><li>• Cataract</li><li>• target diseases</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• In School eye-screening program , initial vision screening done by - School teachers</li><li>• School eye-screening program</li><li>• initial vision screening</li><li>• School teachers</li><li>• In SAFE strategy - S stands for Surgery</li><li>• In Vision 2020, target for Secondary service centres is - one per 500,000 population</li><li>• In vision 2020, recommended ophthalmic personnel per population ratio - 1 per 500,000 population</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Comparison of WHO and NPCB definitions:</li><li>➤ Comparison of WHO and NPCB definitions:</li><li>➤ (PL+: Perception of light; PL-: No perception of light)</li><li>➤ Vision Impairment [ICD-11, WHO]</li><li>➤ Vision Impairment [ICD-11, WHO]</li><li>➤ Distance Vision impairment:</li><li>➤ Distance Vision impairment:</li><li>➤ Near Vision impairment: Presenting near vision acuity &lt;N6 or N8 at 40 cms with existing correction</li><li>➤ Near Vision impairment: Presenting near vision acuity &lt;N6 or N8 at 40 cms with existing correction</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 447.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 447.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 52-year-old male, presents to the ophthalmic ward's outpatient department, complaining of significant vision impairment in his left eye. After thorough examination and the best possible corrective measures, his vision in the left eye is recorded as 1/60. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most appropriate diagnosis for his left eye condition according to the NPCB classifications?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Socially blind", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Complete blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Economic blindness", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Manifest blindness", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Manifest blindness", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-123211.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Manifest blindness</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Social blindness - Vision of &lt;3/60 in better eye</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Social blindness</li><li>• &lt;3/60 in better eye</li><li>• Option B. Complete blindness - No light perception</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Complete blindness</li><li>• Option C. Economic blindness - Inability to count fingers at distance of 6 meters</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Economic blindness</li><li>• Inability</li><li>• count fingers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Comparison of WHO and NPCB definitions -</li><li>➤ Comparison of WHO and NPCB definitions -</li><li>➤ (PL+: Perception of Light; PL -: No perception of light)</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 969.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 969.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session on road safety and public health, the topic of discussion shifts to the conceptual frameworks used to understand and address road traffic accidents. One such framework involves the interaction of the epidemiological triad with the vehicle environment. This model provides a comprehensive approach to analyzing and mitigating road accidents. What is this concept that integrates the epidemiological triad with the vehicle environment known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Injury matrix", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haddon’s matrix", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Advanced epidemiological model", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevention matrix", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Haddon’s matrix", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-111346.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Haddon’s matrix</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The epidemiological model of agent-host-vector and vehicle environment was given by Haddon’s matrix . It combines phases of injuries with epidemiological model to study both causation and prevention aspect . The Haddon Matrix divides the timing of the injury event into three phases : preinjury , injury , and post-injury .</li><li>• epidemiological model</li><li>• agent-host-vector</li><li>• vehicle environment</li><li>• Haddon’s matrix</li><li>• combines phases of injuries</li><li>• epidemiological model</li><li>• causation</li><li>• prevention aspect</li><li>• Haddon Matrix</li><li>• divides</li><li>• timing of the injury event</li><li>• three phases</li><li>• preinjury</li><li>• injury</li><li>• post-injury</li><li>• THE HADDON MATRIX</li><li>• THE HADDON MATRIX</li><li>• One of the most successful theoretical approaches to injury prevention , developed by Dr William Haddon in the 1970s Principles of injury prevention based on the Haddon’s Matrix: To reduce exposure to risk To prevent road traffic crashes from occurring To reduce the severity of injury in the event of crash To reduce the consequences of injury through improved post-collision care Haddon Matrix divides the timing of the injury event into three phases Pre-injury phase : Goal is to eliminate any energy transfer to the host (Primary prevention) Injury phase : Goal is to eliminate/reduce the amount of energy absorbed by the host once an energy transfer has occurred (Secondary prevention) Post-injury phase : Introduces value criteria to consider when choosing an intervention strategy</li><li>• One of the most successful theoretical approaches to injury prevention , developed by Dr William Haddon in the 1970s</li><li>• most successful theoretical approaches</li><li>• injury prevention</li><li>• Dr William Haddon</li><li>• 1970s</li><li>• Principles of injury prevention based on the Haddon’s Matrix: To reduce exposure to risk To prevent road traffic crashes from occurring To reduce the severity of injury in the event of crash To reduce the consequences of injury through improved post-collision care</li><li>• Principles of injury prevention</li><li>• To reduce exposure to risk To prevent road traffic crashes from occurring To reduce the severity of injury in the event of crash To reduce the consequences of injury through improved post-collision care</li><li>• To reduce exposure to risk</li><li>• To prevent road traffic crashes from occurring</li><li>• To reduce the severity of injury in the event of crash</li><li>• To reduce the consequences of injury through improved post-collision care</li><li>• Haddon Matrix divides the timing of the injury event into three phases Pre-injury phase : Goal is to eliminate any energy transfer to the host (Primary prevention) Injury phase : Goal is to eliminate/reduce the amount of energy absorbed by the host once an energy transfer has occurred (Secondary prevention) Post-injury phase : Introduces value criteria to consider when choosing an intervention strategy</li><li>• Haddon Matrix divides</li><li>• timing of the injury event</li><li>• three phases</li><li>• Pre-injury phase : Goal is to eliminate any energy transfer to the host (Primary prevention) Injury phase : Goal is to eliminate/reduce the amount of energy absorbed by the host once an energy transfer has occurred (Secondary prevention) Post-injury phase : Introduces value criteria to consider when choosing an intervention strategy</li><li>• Pre-injury phase : Goal is to eliminate any energy transfer to the host (Primary prevention)</li><li>• Pre-injury phase</li><li>• Injury phase : Goal is to eliminate/reduce the amount of energy absorbed by the host once an energy transfer has occurred (Secondary prevention)</li><li>• Injury phase</li><li>• Post-injury phase : Introduces value criteria to consider when choosing an intervention strategy</li><li>• Post-injury phase</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The interaction of epidemiological triad with vehicle environment was given by Haddon’s Matrix</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 980.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 980.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session focused on cancer epidemiology in India's urban centers, particularly in major cities like Delhi, Mumbai, and Chennai, there's a discussion about the most prevalent types of cancer among women in these areas. The prevalence of different cancers can vary based on factors like lifestyle, genetics, and environmental exposure. As per recent data, which type of cancer is the most common among urban women in Delhi, Mumbai, and Chennai?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cervical Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ovarian Cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Breast Cancer", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Uterine Cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Breast Cancer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Breast cancer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Most common cancer among females in India is Breast Cancer in both urban and rural areas [NEW DATA RELEASED]</li><li>• common cancer</li><li>• females</li><li>• India is Breast Cancer</li><li>• urban</li><li>• rural areas</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Some important Pointers</li><li>• MC cancer among females in India : Breast cancer Gall bladder cancer has the highest age-adjusted incidence rate among females in Delhi National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76 National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008 World Cancer Day - 4th February MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F) MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li><li>• MC cancer among females in India : Breast cancer</li><li>• MC cancer</li><li>• females in India</li><li>• Breast cancer</li><li>• Gall bladder cancer has the highest age-adjusted incidence rate among females in Delhi</li><li>• Gall bladder cancer</li><li>• highest age-adjusted incidence rate</li><li>• females</li><li>• Delhi</li><li>• National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76</li><li>• National Cancer Control Programme</li><li>• 1975–76</li><li>• National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008</li><li>• National Program</li><li>• Prevention</li><li>• Control of Cancer</li><li>• Diabetes</li><li>• Cardiovascular Diseases</li><li>• Stroke</li><li>• World Cancer Day - 4th February</li><li>• World Cancer Day</li><li>• 4th February</li><li>• MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F)</li><li>• MC Cancer in India</li><li>• Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>• Breast cancer</li><li>• MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>• MCC cancer death</li><li>• males in India</li><li>• Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>• MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>• MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer</li><li>• Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum</li><li>• Chimney Sweep's Cancer</li><li>• Carcinoma scrotum</li><li>• Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain</li><li>• Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers</li><li>• Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer</li><li>• Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>• Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers</li><li>• Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer</li><li>• Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers</li><li>• Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Most common cancer among females in India is Breast Cancer in both urban and rural areas</li><li>➤ Most common cancer</li><li>➤ females</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Breast Cancer</li><li>➤ Ref - Cancer Registration in India – 50 Years of Cancer Control Programme in India, MoHFW</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ - Cancer Registration in India – 50 Years of Cancer Control Programme in India, MoHFW</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a comprehensive review of the National Program for Prevention and Control of Deafness, a key component discussed is the provision of free hearing aids to support children with hearing impairments. This initiative plays a crucial role in enhancing the quality of life and educational opportunities for these children. Up to what age does the program provide free hearing aids to children as part of its efforts to combat hearing loss and its impacts?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "15 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "18 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 15 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 15 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Major activities under National Program for prevention and control of Deafness</li><li>• Major activities</li><li>• National Program</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• control of Deafness</li><li>• 1. Training of workers</li><li>• 2. Screening camps with help of NGOs</li><li>• 3. Procurement of equipment for various ear diagnostic and surgical procedures</li><li>• 4. Recruitment of manpower for the program</li><li>• 5. Hearing aids- Free hearing aids are provided to children up to 15 years of age with free servicing for 1 year</li><li>• children up to 15 years of age with free servicing for 1 year</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF DEAFNESS (NPPCD)</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF DEAFNESS (NPPCD)</li><li>• Long term objective : To reduce disease burden by 25% by end of XI Five Year Plan Immediate objectives: To prevent avoidable hearing loss due to disease or injury Early identification, diagnosis and treatment of ear problems responsible for hearing loss and deafness To medically rehabilitate deaf persons of all age groups To strengthen the existing inter-sectoral linkages for continuity of the rehabilitation programme, for deaf To develop institutional capacity for ear care services by providing equipment, material and training personnel Pilot project : In first phase of implementation in 25 districts .</li><li>• Long term objective : To reduce disease burden by 25% by end of XI Five Year Plan</li><li>• Long term objective</li><li>• reduce disease burden</li><li>• 25%</li><li>• end of XI Five Year Plan</li><li>• Immediate objectives: To prevent avoidable hearing loss due to disease or injury Early identification, diagnosis and treatment of ear problems responsible for hearing loss and deafness To medically rehabilitate deaf persons of all age groups To strengthen the existing inter-sectoral linkages for continuity of the rehabilitation programme, for deaf To develop institutional capacity for ear care services by providing equipment, material and training personnel</li><li>• To prevent avoidable hearing loss due to disease or injury Early identification, diagnosis and treatment of ear problems responsible for hearing loss and deafness To medically rehabilitate deaf persons of all age groups To strengthen the existing inter-sectoral linkages for continuity of the rehabilitation programme, for deaf To develop institutional capacity for ear care services by providing equipment, material and training personnel</li><li>• To prevent avoidable hearing loss due to disease or injury</li><li>• Early identification, diagnosis and treatment of ear problems responsible for hearing loss and deafness</li><li>• To medically rehabilitate deaf persons of all age groups</li><li>• To strengthen the existing inter-sectoral linkages for continuity of the rehabilitation programme, for deaf</li><li>• To develop institutional capacity for ear care services by providing equipment, material and training personnel</li><li>• Pilot project : In first phase of implementation in 25 districts .</li><li>• Pilot project</li><li>• first phase of implementation</li><li>• 25 districts</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the programme, fitting of free hearing aids on identified children up to the age of 15 years with free service for a period of one year was undertaken at the level of the district hospital.</li><li>➤ fitting of free hearing aids</li><li>➤ identified children</li><li>➤ 15 years</li><li>➤ free service</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 995.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 995.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an advanced training on emergency response and management, particularly in the context of road traffic accidents, the concept of the \"golden hour\" and \"platinum ten\" is a key focus. This concept underscores the critical importance of timely medical intervention following an accident. According to the \"golden hour\" and \"platinum ten\" concept, within how many minutes should expert first aid be provided to maximize the chances of survival and minimize the complications in road traffic accident victims?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 minutes", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 miles of the event", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 meters of event", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "10 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 10 minutes", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 10 minutes</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• If victims of RTA are provided with early management within the first 1 hour (Golden hour) and if expert first aid can be provided with first 10 minutes (Platinum ten) following the accident , a large proportion of mortality and morbidity can be avoided.</li><li>• victims of RTA</li><li>• early management</li><li>• first 1 hour</li><li>• expert first aid</li><li>• provided with first 10 minutes</li><li>• accident</li><li>• large proportion of mortality</li><li>• morbidity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ According to “golden hour” and “platinum ten” concept in management of road traffic accident , the expert first aid should be provided within 10 minutes</li><li>➤ “golden hour”</li><li>➤ “platinum ten”</li><li>➤ management of road traffic accident</li><li>➤ expert first aid</li><li>➤ within 10 minutes</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 982.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine by Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 982.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health educator is delivering a lecture on non-communicable diseases (NCDs) and their risk factors. She emphasizes that while many behavioral factors contribute to the development and progression of NCDs, not all common behaviors are risk factors. Which of the following is NOT considered a significant behavioral risk factor for non-communicable diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physical inactivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tobacco consumption", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Raised cholesterol", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unhealthy diet", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Raised cholesterol", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Raised cholesterol</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Raised cholesterol level is a metabolic risk factor .</li><li>• Raised cholesterol level</li><li>• metabolic risk factor</li><li>• Other 3 options are behavioral risk factors.</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• Four behavioral risk factors - tobacco use, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and harmful use of alcohol.</li><li>• Four behavioral risk factors</li><li>• Major metabolic risk factors - obesity, raised blood pressure, raised blood glucose, and raised total cholesterol levels.</li><li>• Major metabolic risk factors</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Behavioral risk factors - tobacco use, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and harmful use of alcohol.</li><li>➤ Behavioral risk factors</li><li>➤ Metabolic risk factors - obesity, raised blood pressure, raised blood glucose, and raised total cholesterol levels.</li><li>➤ Metabolic risk factors</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 408</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 408</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical students is discussing the etiology of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) during a public health class. They are learning about the various factors that contribute to the development of these diseases. Which theory best describes the basis for non-communicable diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Germ theory", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BEINGs Model", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Multifactorial causation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Supernatural theory", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Multifactorial causation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Multifactorial causation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Germ theory : Germ theory states that specific microscopic organisms are the cause of specific diseases . Devised by Louis Pasteur .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Germ theory</li><li>• specific microscopic organisms are the cause of specific diseases</li><li>• Louis Pasteur</li><li>• Option B. BEINGs Model : BEINGS model of causes disease.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• BEINGs Model</li><li>• B: Biological factors and behavioral factors.</li><li>• Biological factors</li><li>• E: Environmental factors .</li><li>• Environmental factors</li><li>• I: Immunological factors .</li><li>• Immunological factors</li><li>• N: Nutritional factors .</li><li>• Nutritional factors</li><li>• G: Genetic factors .</li><li>• Genetic factors</li><li>• S: Services , social, spiritual factors.</li><li>• Services</li><li>• Option D. Supernatural Theory : In the early past , the disease was thought mainly due to either the curse of god or due to the evil force of the demons .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Supernatural Theory</li><li>• early past</li><li>• disease</li><li>• curse of god</li><li>• evil force of the demons</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Non-communicable diseases are best explained by the theory of multifactorial causation , acknowledging the complex interplay of genetic , environmental , and lifestyle factors .</li><li>➤ Non-communicable diseases</li><li>➤ theory of multifactorial causation</li><li>➤ acknowledging</li><li>➤ complex interplay of genetic</li><li>➤ environmental</li><li>➤ lifestyle factors</li><li>➤ Ref : Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 409</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 409</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is learning about various global health initiatives and comes across the STEP wise approach to Surveillance (STEPS), a survey methodology designed by the World Health Organization (WHO). What is the primary focus of the STEPS survey method in assessing risk factors?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Non communicable diseases", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Communicable diseases", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mental health", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Degenerative disorders", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Non communicable diseases", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-093908.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Non communicable diseases</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• WHO STEP wise Approach</li><li>• WHO STEP wise Approach</li><li>• STEP wise approach to Surveillance (STEPS): Is a simple , standardized method by WHO for surveillance It is of two types - STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance STEP wise approach to Stroke surveillance Comprises of 3 steps -</li><li>• STEP wise approach to Surveillance (STEPS): Is a simple , standardized method by WHO for surveillance</li><li>• STEP wise approach</li><li>• Surveillance</li><li>• simple</li><li>• standardized method</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• It is of two types - STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance STEP wise approach to Stroke surveillance</li><li>• STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance STEP wise approach to Stroke surveillance</li><li>• STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance</li><li>• STEP wise approach</li><li>• chronic disease risk</li><li>• STEP wise approach to Stroke surveillance</li><li>• STEP wise approach</li><li>• Stroke surveillance</li><li>• Comprises of 3 steps -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ STEPS done for - Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable diseases STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance</li><li>➤ STEPS done for - Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable diseases</li><li>➤ STEPS done</li><li>➤ Surveillance</li><li>➤ risk factors</li><li>➤ non-communicable diseases</li><li>➤ STEP wise approach to chronic disease risk factor surveillance</li><li>➤ STEP wise</li><li>➤ chronic disease</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 410</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical team arrives at an industrial site to conduct a health camp. Upon arrival, they discover that their height measuring stand was damaged during transportation. Given the unavailability of this equipment, which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for the team to use in assessing obesity among the workers at the camp?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Broca’s index", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ponderal index", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corpulence index", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quetelet’s index", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Corpulence index", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Corpulence index</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Broca index = Height (cm) minus 100</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Broca index</li><li>• Height</li><li>• minus 100</li><li>• Option B. Ponderal index = Height (cm)/ Cube root of body weight (kg)</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Ponderal index</li><li>• Height</li><li>• Cube root of body weight</li><li>• Option D. Body mass index (Quetelet’s index) = Weight (kg)/ Height (m) 2</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Body mass index</li><li>• Weight</li><li>• Height</li><li>• BMI (Body Mass Index) or Quetelet’s Index although not an accurate measurement of fat accumulation, but is a widely used index of obesity (also is Broca’s Index)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Corpulence index is the indicator of Obesity . It is calculated as \" Actual weight/ Desirable weight \"</li><li>➤ Corpulence index</li><li>➤ Obesity</li><li>➤ \" Actual weight/ Desirable weight</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 446.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 446.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 45-year-old male, presents to the outpatient department (OPD) complaining of giddiness. Initially, a staff nurse measures his blood pressure in a calm environment, obtaining a reading of 130/90 mm Hg. Ten minutes later, under the same environmental conditions, a medical officer re-measures his blood pressure using the same instrument and records a reading of 140/94 mm Hg. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for the difference in blood pressure readings?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subject variation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Instrumental error", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Observer variation", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "White coat hypertension", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Observer variation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Observer variation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Subject variation OR Biological variation: occur due to</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Subject variation</li><li>• occur due to</li><li>• Changes in parameters observed Variation in perceptions and answers of patients Regression to the mean</li><li>• Changes in parameters observed</li><li>• Variation in perceptions and answers of patients</li><li>• Regression to the mean</li><li>• Option B. Instrumental errors : e.g., leaking valve , cuffs that do not encircle the arm . If the cuff is too small and fails to encircle the arm properly then too high a reading will be obtained</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Instrumental errors</li><li>• leaking valve</li><li>• cuffs that do not encircle the arm</li><li>• Option D. White coat hypertension : This typically refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety , but it wouldn't account for a difference in readings taken in the same setting by different observers.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• White coat hypertension</li><li>• elevated blood pressure readings</li><li>• clinical setting</li><li>• anxiety</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reliability of a test depends on - Observer variation</li><li>➤ Reliability</li><li>➤ test</li><li>➤ Observer variation</li><li>➤ Intra-observer variation : Same observer taking 2 or more readings give varied results Inter-observer variation : Variation between different observers on same subject/material</li><li>➤ Intra-observer variation : Same observer taking 2 or more readings give varied results</li><li>➤ Intra-observer variation</li><li>➤ Same observer</li><li>➤ 2 or more readings</li><li>➤ varied results</li><li>➤ Inter-observer variation : Variation between different observers on same subject/material</li><li>➤ Inter-observer variation</li><li>➤ Variation</li><li>➤ different observers</li><li>➤ same subject/material</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 419</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 419</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are volunteering at a community health fair where you're conducting initial health screenings. A 35-year-old software engineer, Mr. Y, approaches your booth. He's curious about his general health as he's been working from home and hasn't been as active as usual. Mr. Y is 168 cm tall and weighs 58 kg. After calculating his Body Mass Index (BMI), you start to discuss his results with him. Based on his height and weight, into which World Health Organization (WHO) BMI category does Mr. Y fall?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Under weight", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Normal", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Obese", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pre obese", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Normal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/10/image_nzAknW7.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-104639.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-104742.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-104751.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Normal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• BMI= Weight (kg)/ Height (m) 2</li><li>• = 58/1.68*1.68</li><li>• =20.57</li><li>• Body Mass Index (BMI): A simple index of weight-for-height that is commonly used to classify under-weight , over-weight and obesity in adults . BMI is also known as ‘Quetelet’s Index’</li><li>• Body Mass Index (BMI):</li><li>• weight-for-height</li><li>• classify under-weight</li><li>• over-weight</li><li>• obesity in adults</li><li>• ‘Quetelet’s Index’</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• BMI for reference Indian Man and Woman - 18.5 - 22.9 Classification of adults according to BMI</li><li>• BMI for reference Indian Man and Woman - 18.5 - 22.9</li><li>• BMI</li><li>• Indian Man</li><li>• Woman</li><li>• 18.5 - 22.9</li><li>• Classification of adults according to BMI</li><li>• Classification of obesity based on BMI</li><li>• Classification of obesity based on BMI</li><li>• Classification of underweight based on BMI:</li><li>• Classification of underweight based on BMI:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ BMI for reference Indian Man and Woman - 18.5 - 22.9</li><li>➤ BMI</li><li>➤ Indian Man</li><li>➤ Woman</li><li>➤ Normal BMI for Indians - 18.5 - 22.9</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 445.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 445.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are conducting a workshop on cardiovascular risk assessment for a group of primary care physicians. To illustrate the practical application of different assessment tools, you present a case study. A 52-year-old woman with a family history of heart disease is concerned about her cardiovascular risk. She has a waist circumference of 88 cm and a hip circumference of 104 cm. You calculate her waist-hip ratio (WHR) and discuss its implications with the workshop attendees. According to standard health guidelines, how would you categorize her WHR, and what does it indicate about her risk for cardiovascular diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "&lt;1.2 and &lt;0.80", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "&lt;1.0 and &lt;0.8", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "&lt;1.02 and &lt;0.88", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&lt; 1.1 and &lt; 0.82", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. <1.0 and <0.8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. &lt;1.0 and &lt;0.85</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• High WHR indicates abdominal fat accumulation</li><li>• High WHR indicates abdominal fat accumulation</li><li>• WHR &gt; 1.0 in men indicate obesity WHR &gt; 0.85 in women indicate obesity</li><li>• WHR &gt; 1.0 in men indicate obesity</li><li>• WHR &gt; 1.0 in men indicate obesity</li><li>• WHR &gt; 0.85 in women indicate obesity</li><li>• WHR &gt; 0.85 in women indicate obesity</li><li>• WHR &gt; 0.85 in women indicate obesity</li><li>• Waist circumference (WC) &amp; waist : hip ratio (WHR) are the Good predictor of risk of cardiovascular diseases</li><li>• Waist circumference</li><li>• waist</li><li>• hip ratio</li><li>• Good predictor</li><li>• cardiovascular diseases</li><li>• Waist Circumference for Indians : Men &lt; 90 cm , Women &lt; 80 cm .</li><li>• Waist Circumference</li><li>• Indians</li><li>• Men &lt; 90 cm</li><li>• Women &lt; 80 cm</li><li>• Waist Circumference (Global): Men &lt; 102 cm , Women &lt; 88 cm .</li><li>• Waist Circumference</li><li>• Men &lt; 102 cm</li><li>• Women &lt; 88 cm</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Waist Hip Ratio indicates Obesity in Women when it is &gt; 0.85</li><li>➤ Waist Hip Ratio</li><li>➤ Obesity in Women</li><li>➤ &gt; 0.85</li><li>➤ Waist Hip Ratio indicates Obesity in Men when it is &gt; 1.0</li><li>➤ Waist Hip Ratio</li><li>➤ Obesity in Men</li><li>➤ &gt; 1.0</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 446.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 446.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a global health conference, a discussion arises about the prevalence of diabetes mellitus worldwide. Which country is often referred to as the \"diabetic capital of the world\" due to its high prevalence of diabetes?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "China", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "USA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "India", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Russia", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. India", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. India</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• India is often referred to as the \"diabetic capital of the world\" due to its large and rapidly growing number of people with diabetes .</li><li>• India</li><li>• \"diabetic capital of the world\"</li><li>• large</li><li>• rapidly growing number</li><li>• people with diabetes</li><li>• As per Indian Council of Medical Research – India Diabetes (ICMR INDIAB) study published in 2023 , the prevalence of diabetes is 10.1 crores (11.4%)</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research</li><li>• India Diabetes</li><li>• 2023</li><li>• 10.1 crores (11.4%)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diabetic capital of the world - India</li><li>➤ Diabetic capital</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Ref : ICMR - INDIAB - 17. Available at https://www.thelancet.com/journals/landia/article/PIIS2213-8587(23)00119-5/fulltext</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : ICMR - INDIAB - 17. Available at https://www.thelancet.com/journals/landia/article/PIIS2213-8587(23)00119-5/fulltext</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a comprehensive review session on oncology, the focus shifts to global cancer mortality statistics. The participants are asked to discuss the major causes of cancer-related deaths worldwide, taking into account the latest epidemiological data. Given the diverse etiology and varying prevalence of different cancers, which type of cancer is currently recognized as the leading cause of cancer-related mortality on a global scale, reflecting its high incidence and often late diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cancer breast", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cancer Lung", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cancer Stomach", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Cancer Lung", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-110505_Aq3h9ge.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-111018.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-111059.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-111124.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Cancer Lung</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NEW WHO Cancer Data—Globocan 2020 (Top 5 causes)</li><li>• NEW WHO Cancer Data—Globocan 2020 (Top 5 causes)</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer WORLD</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer WORLD</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer WORLD</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer WORLD</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Incidence of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer INDIA</li><li>• Prevalence and Mortality of Cancer INDIA</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76 National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008 World Cancer Day - 4th February MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F) MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme : 1975–76</li><li>➤ National Cancer Control Programme</li><li>➤ 1975–76</li><li>➤ National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer , Diabetes , Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): 2008</li><li>➤ National Program for Prevention</li><li>➤ Control of Cancer</li><li>➤ Diabetes</li><li>➤ Cardiovascular Diseases</li><li>➤ Stroke</li><li>➤ World Cancer Day - 4th February</li><li>➤ World Cancer Day</li><li>➤ 4th February</li><li>➤ MC Cancer in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer (M); Breast cancer (F)</li><li>➤ MC Cancer</li><li>➤ India is Lip</li><li>➤ Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ Breast cancer</li><li>➤ MCC cancer death among males in India - Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MCC cancer death</li><li>➤ males in India</li><li>➤ Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MC cancer of Head and Neck region in India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MC cancer</li><li>➤ Head and Neck region</li><li>➤ India is Lip &amp; Oral cavity Cancer</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma</li><li>➤ Breast cancer</li><li>➤ Chimney Sweep's Cancer is also known as Carcinoma scrotum</li><li>➤ Chimney Sweep's Cancer</li><li>➤ Carcinoma scrotum</li><li>➤ Early warning signs of Cancer that public should be aware does not include - Unexplained weight gain</li><li>➤ Early warning signs</li><li>➤ Cancer</li><li>➤ not include</li><li>➤ Unexplained weight gain</li><li>➤ Among Indian women, cancers of breast and cervix account for nearly 60% of all cancers</li><li>➤ Beer consumption is associated with: rectal cancer</li><li>➤ Beer consumption</li><li>➤ rectal cancer</li><li>➤ Alcohol contributes to: 3% of all cancer deaths</li><li>➤ Environmental factors are responsible for: 80-90% of all human cancers</li><li>➤ Nearly 3/4th of occupational cancers are Skin cancer</li><li>➤ Occupational exposures (MC – Skin cancer) account for 1 – 5% of all cancers</li><li>➤ Aims of Population-Based Cancer Registry - Provide incidence rates of cancers; Epidemiological insight into the etiology of cancer; Surveillance of time trends; Planning and evaluation of cancer control activities</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 428.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 428.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health seminar focusing on the burden of tobacco use in India, the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) 5 data is discussed to understand the prevalence of tobacco consumption. What was the reported prevalence of any kind of tobacco use among men and women aged 15 years and above in India, according to the findings of NFHS 5?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "32.2% and 9.2% respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "38.0% and 8.9% respectively", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "35% and 10% respectively", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "36.3% and 9.6% respectively", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 38.0% and 8.9% respectively", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-111337.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 38.0% and 8.9% respectively</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NFHS -5 (2019-21)</li><li>• NFHS -5</li><li>• Tobacco Use and Alcohol Consumption among Adults (age 15 years and above)</li><li>• Tobacco Use</li><li>• Alcohol Consumption</li><li>• Adults</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ NFHS 5 - Age 15 years and above who use any kind of tobacco (%) - Men (38%) and Women (8.9%)</li><li>➤ NFHS 5</li><li>➤ Age 15 years</li><li>➤ above</li><li>➤ NFHS 5 - Age 15 years and above who consume alcohol (%) - Men (18.8%) and Women (1.3%)</li><li>➤ NFHS 5</li><li>➤ Age 15 years</li><li>➤ above</li><li>➤ Ref : NFHS 5 India factsheet.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : NFHS 5 India factsheet.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. X, a 50-year-old woman, presents to a tertiary cancer care facility with a concern about a noticeable change in the shape of her breast, which she has observed over the past few months. She reports no pain or discharge but is worried about the possibility of breast cancer due to a family history of the disease. Given her symptoms and family history, which diagnostic tool is considered the most sensitive for detecting breast cancer, especially in cases where physical changes in the breast are evident?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Self-breast examination", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mammography", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thermography", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Clinical examination of Breast", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mammography", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-111624.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mammography</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screening of Breast Cancer - is a Secondary Level of prevention (Early diagnosis)</li><li>➤ Screening of Breast Cancer</li><li>➤ Secondary Level</li><li>➤ prevention</li><li>➤ Mammography is most sensitive and specific in detecting Breast cancer</li><li>➤ Mammography</li><li>➤ sensitive</li><li>➤ detecting Breast cancer</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used:</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used:</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer MC cancer among females in India : Breast cancer in both urban and rural areas CA 125 as marker of carcinomas – Ovarian cancer (Most common use); Endometrial cancer ; Fallopian tube cancer; Breast cancer; Lung cancer; GIT cancer; Pancreatic cancer SPIKES Technique - Used for communication of Cancer prognosis (or other adverse outcomes) Pink ribbon for Breast cancer awareness</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma in World - Breast cancer</li><li>➤ MC carcinoma</li><li>➤ Breast cancer</li><li>➤ MC cancer among females in India : Breast cancer in both urban and rural areas</li><li>➤ MC cancer</li><li>➤ females in India</li><li>➤ Breast cancer</li><li>➤ urban</li><li>➤ rural areas</li><li>➤ CA 125 as marker of carcinomas – Ovarian cancer (Most common use); Endometrial cancer ; Fallopian tube cancer; Breast cancer; Lung cancer; GIT cancer; Pancreatic cancer</li><li>➤ CA 125</li><li>➤ marker of carcinomas</li><li>➤ Ovarian cancer</li><li>➤ Endometrial cancer</li><li>➤ Breast cancer;</li><li>➤ SPIKES Technique - Used for communication of Cancer prognosis (or other adverse outcomes)</li><li>➤ SPIKES Technique</li><li>➤ communication of Cancer prognosis</li><li>➤ Pink ribbon for Breast cancer awareness</li><li>➤ Pink ribbon</li><li>➤ Breast cancer awareness</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 433.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 433.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 38-year-old married woman visits your outpatient department, presenting with complaints of white discharge. A Pap smear is conducted, and the results are negative for cervical cancer. Considering this scenario and focusing on the guidelines for cervical cancer screening, after how many years should the Pap smear be repeated for her as part of ongoing cervical cancer screening?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Every 3 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Every 2 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Every 5 years", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Every 3 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-131324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Every 3 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Current policy suggests that all women should have a Pap test (cervical smear) at the beginning of sexual activity , and then every 3 years thereafter.</li><li>• Current policy</li><li>• all women</li><li>• Pap test</li><li>• beginning</li><li>• sexual activity</li><li>• Screening Test for Cervical Cancer</li><li>• Screening Test for Cervical Cancer</li><li>• Screening tests for Cervical cancer include: Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid (VIA) Visual inspection with Lugol‘s iodine (VILI) Papanicolaou test (Pap test or Pap smear) and HPV DNA testing VIA/VILI is recommended for cervical cancer screening in low - and middle-income countries with high incidence of cervical cancer and lack of medical resources HPV testing and VIA are more cost-effective screening methods than cytology . Pap Smear - A type of Prescriptive screening (People screened for own’s benefit)</li><li>• Screening tests for Cervical cancer include: Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid (VIA) Visual inspection with Lugol‘s iodine (VILI) Papanicolaou test (Pap test or Pap smear) and HPV DNA testing</li><li>• Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid (VIA) Visual inspection with Lugol‘s iodine (VILI) Papanicolaou test (Pap test or Pap smear) and HPV DNA testing</li><li>• Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid (VIA)</li><li>• Visual inspection</li><li>• 5% acetic acid</li><li>• Visual inspection with Lugol‘s iodine (VILI)</li><li>• Visual inspection</li><li>• Lugol‘s iodine</li><li>• Papanicolaou test (Pap test or Pap smear) and</li><li>• Papanicolaou test</li><li>• HPV DNA testing</li><li>• VIA/VILI is recommended for cervical cancer screening in low - and middle-income countries with high incidence of cervical cancer and lack of medical resources</li><li>• VIA/VILI</li><li>• cervical cancer screening</li><li>• low</li><li>• middle-income countries</li><li>• high incidence</li><li>• cervical cancer</li><li>• lack of medical resources</li><li>• HPV testing and VIA are more cost-effective screening methods than cytology .</li><li>• HPV testing</li><li>• VIA</li><li>• more cost-effective screening</li><li>• cytology</li><li>• Pap Smear - A type of Prescriptive screening (People screened for own’s benefit)</li><li>• Pap Smear</li><li>• Prescriptive screening</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pap Smear should be done Beginning of sexual activity , then every 3 years</li><li>➤ Pap Smear</li><li>➤ Beginning of sexual activity</li><li>➤ every 3 years</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used -</li><li>➤ Examples of important screening tests used -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical discussion on cervical cancer, the focus turns to risk factors associated with the development of this disease. A comprehensive understanding of these factors is essential for effective prevention and early detection strategies. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for cervical cancer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Human Papillomavirus infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Early marriage", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Late child bearing", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Oral contraceptive pills", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Late child bearing", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Late child bearing</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Infection : This is the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer . Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types is necessary for the development of the majority of cervical cancers.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Human Papillomavirus</li><li>• Infection</li><li>• significant risk factor</li><li>• cervical cancer</li><li>• Option B. Early Marriage : Early marriage is associated with the early commencement of sexual activity , leading to a higher risk of HPV infection.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Early Marriage</li><li>• early commencement</li><li>• sexual activity</li><li>• Option D. Oral Contraceptive Pills : Long-term use of oral contraceptive pills has been associated with a slightly increased risk of cervical cancer .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Oral Contraceptive Pills</li><li>• Long-term use</li><li>• oral contraceptive pills</li><li>• increased risk of cervical cancer</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Updated Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines (ACOG) -</li><li>➤ Updated Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines (ACOG) -</li><li>➤ Age less than 21 years : No Screening required Age 21-29 years : Cytology alone once every 3 years Age 30-65 years : Cytology alone once every 3 years OR Primary hrHPV testing alone once every 5 years OR Co-testing (hrHPV testing + Cytology) once every 5 years Age more than 65 years : No Screening required (after prior negative results) Hysterectomy with removal of cervix: No Screening required (if no history of high grade precancerous lesions or cervical cancer)</li><li>➤ Age less than 21 years : No Screening required</li><li>➤ less than 21 years</li><li>➤ No Screening</li><li>➤ Age 21-29 years : Cytology alone once every 3 years</li><li>➤ 21-29 years</li><li>➤ Cytology</li><li>➤ once every 3 years</li><li>➤ Age 30-65 years : Cytology alone once every 3 years OR Primary hrHPV testing alone once every 5 years OR Co-testing (hrHPV testing + Cytology) once every 5 years</li><li>➤ 30-65 years</li><li>➤ Cytology</li><li>➤ once every 3 years</li><li>➤ Age more than 65 years : No Screening required (after prior negative results)</li><li>➤ more than 65 years</li><li>➤ No Screening required</li><li>➤ Hysterectomy with removal of cervix: No Screening required (if no history of high grade precancerous lesions or cervical cancer)</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done by Visual inspection of cervix 5% acetic acid (VIA test) For Cervical cancer screening - Pap smear is used (VIA is better and more cost-effective though) MC in cervical cancer in World - HPV 16, 18, 45, 31 MC cervical cancer in India - HPV 16, 18 (76% of all cases) Single MCC in India: HPV 16 (59% of total cases) CERVAVAC (by Serum Institute of India) - India’s first indigenously developed vaccine to prevent cervical cancer. Effective against at least 4 variants of HPV (HPV 16,18,6,11). Doses 2-dose regimen: 6 months apart (9-14 years age group) 3-dose regimen: 0, 1-2, 6 months (15-26 years age group)</li><li>➤ Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done by Visual inspection of cervix 5% acetic acid (VIA test)</li><li>➤ Screening</li><li>➤ cervical cancer</li><li>➤ PHC level</li><li>➤ Visual inspection</li><li>➤ 5% acetic acid</li><li>➤ For Cervical cancer screening - Pap smear is used (VIA is better and more cost-effective though)</li><li>➤ Cervical cancer screening</li><li>➤ Pap smear</li><li>➤ MC in cervical cancer in World - HPV 16, 18, 45, 31</li><li>➤ MC</li><li>➤ cervical cancer</li><li>➤ HPV 16, 18, 45, 31</li><li>➤ MC cervical cancer in India - HPV 16, 18 (76% of all cases)</li><li>➤ Single MCC in India: HPV 16 (59% of total cases)</li><li>➤ HPV 16</li><li>➤ CERVAVAC (by Serum Institute of India) - India’s first indigenously developed vaccine to prevent cervical cancer. Effective against at least 4 variants of HPV (HPV 16,18,6,11). Doses 2-dose regimen: 6 months apart (9-14 years age group) 3-dose regimen: 0, 1-2, 6 months (15-26 years age group)</li><li>➤ CERVAVAC</li><li>➤ Doses 2-dose regimen: 6 months apart (9-14 years age group) 3-dose regimen: 0, 1-2, 6 months (15-26 years age group)</li><li>➤ Doses</li><li>➤ 2-dose regimen: 6 months apart (9-14 years age group)</li><li>➤ 3-dose regimen: 0, 1-2, 6 months (15-26 years age group)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 432.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a comprehensive review session focusing on Vision 2020: The Right to Sight initiative, the discussion centers on the target diseases that this global effort aims to address. Vision 2020 is a joint program by WHO and the International Agency for the Prevention of Blindness (IAPB) to eliminate avoidable blindness. Which of the following diseases is NOT a target condition under the Vision 2020 initiative?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Refractive error", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corneal dystrophy", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diabetic retinopathy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Corneal dystrophy", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/10/screenshot-2024-08-10-110118.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Corneal dystrophy</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• Vision 2020</li><li>• The Right to Sight : A global initiative by WHO and International NGOs to reduce avoidable (preventable and curable) blindness by 2020</li><li>• The Right to Sight : A global initiative by WHO and International NGOs to reduce avoidable (preventable and curable) blindness by 2020</li><li>• Right to Sight</li><li>• global initiative</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• International NGOs</li><li>• reduce avoidable</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020 : To reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people by the year 2020 to a target of 25 million The plan of action for the country has been developed with the following main features -</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020 : To reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people by the year 2020 to a target of 25 million</li><li>• Aim of Vision 2020</li><li>• reduce the current projection of 75 million blind people</li><li>• The plan of action for the country has been developed with the following main features -</li><li>• plan of action</li><li>• country</li><li>• 1. Target diseases are cataract , refractive errors , childhood blindness , corneal blindness, glaucoma, diabetic retinopathy</li><li>• Target diseases</li><li>• cataract</li><li>• refractive errors</li><li>• childhood blindness</li><li>• 2. Human resource development as well as infrastructure and technology development at various levels of health system.</li><li>• Human resource</li><li>• infrastructure</li><li>• technology</li><li>• The proposed four-tier structure includes</li><li>• The proposed four-tier structure includes</li><li>• proposed four-tier structure</li><li>• Apex - 1 per 500 million population</li><li>• Apex</li><li>• Centres of Excellence (20) - 1 per 50 million population</li><li>• Centres of Excellence</li><li>• Tertiary - Training Centres (200) - 1 per 5 million population</li><li>• Tertiary</li><li>• Training Centres</li><li>• Secondary - Service Centres (2000) - 1 per 5 Lac population</li><li>• Secondary</li><li>• Service Centres</li><li>• Primary - Vision Centres (20,000) - 1 per 50,000 population</li><li>• Primary</li><li>• Vision Centres</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health organization which is not a part of Vision 2020 - UNICEF</li><li>➤ Health organization</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ Vision 2020 - UNICEF</li><li>➤ The target diseases under Vision 2020 (India) are - Cataract , Refractive errors and low vision , Childhood blindness , Trachoma (Focal) Glaucoma, Diabetic retinopathy, Corneal blindness.</li><li>➤ target diseases</li><li>➤ Vision 2020</li><li>➤ Cataract</li><li>➤ Refractive errors</li><li>➤ low vision</li><li>➤ Childhood blindness</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a global health discussion focusing on vision impairment, the topic of the most prevalent causes of reduced vision across different populations is brought to the forefront. Understanding these causes is crucial for developing effective prevention and treatment strategies. As of the latest data, which condition is recognized as the most common cause of vision impairment worldwide?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Unoperated cataract", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Uncorrected Refractive error", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Age related macular degeneration", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Uncorrected Refractive error", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-123316.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-123323.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-123329.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Uncorrected Refractive error</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Un-operated cataracts - account for 25%</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Un-operated cataracts</li><li>• 25%</li><li>• Option C . Age-related macular degeneration - 4%</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Age-related macular degeneration</li><li>• 4%</li><li>• Option D. Glaucoma - 2%</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Glaucoma - 2%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Major causes of Vision impairment &amp; Blindness:</li><li>➤ Revised Categories of Visual Impairment:</li><li>➤ Revised Categories of Visual Impairment:</li><li>➤ Vision Impairment [ICD-11, WHO]</li><li>➤ Vision Impairment [ICD-11, WHO]</li><li>➤ Distance Vision impairment:</li><li>➤ Distance Vision impairment:</li><li>➤ Near Vision impairment: Presenting near vision acuity &lt;N6 or N8 at 40 cms with existing correction</li><li>➤ Near Vision impairment: Presenting near vision acuity &lt;N6 or N8 at 40 cms with existing correction</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 448.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 448.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar focusing on ocular health in India, the discussion turns to the leading causes of blindness within the country. Understanding these causes is crucial for developing targeted public health interventions and treatment strategies. As of the most recent data, what is identified as the most common cause of blindness in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cataract", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Glaucoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Refractive errors", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin A deficiency", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Cataract", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Cataract</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The principal cause of blindness in India today is cataract , responsible for about 66.2 percent of all cases</li><li>• principal cause</li><li>• blindness</li><li>• India today is cataract</li><li>• 66.2 percent of all cases</li><li>• Prevalence and Causes of Blindness &amp; VI in India -</li><li>• Prevalence and Causes of Blindness &amp; VI in India -</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness in population aged ≥ 50 years : Cataract 66.2% , Corneal opacity including trachomatous 8.2%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 7.2%, Posterior segment disease excluding DR &amp; ARMD 5.9%, Glaucoma 5.5% Major Causes of Blindness in population aged 0-49 years : Corneal opacity 37.5%, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Phthisis, Other/undetermined Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged ≥ 50 years : Cataract 71.2%, Refractive error 13.4%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 5.9% Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged 0-49 years : Refractive error 29.6%, Cataract, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Corneal opacity</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness in population aged ≥ 50 years : Cataract 66.2% , Corneal opacity including trachomatous 8.2%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 7.2%, Posterior segment disease excluding DR &amp; ARMD 5.9%, Glaucoma 5.5%</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness</li><li>• aged ≥ 50 years</li><li>• Cataract 66.2%</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness in population aged 0-49 years : Corneal opacity 37.5%, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Phthisis, Other/undetermined</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness</li><li>• 0-49 years</li><li>• Corneal opacity 37.5%,</li><li>• Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged ≥ 50 years : Cataract 71.2%, Refractive error 13.4%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 5.9%</li><li>• Major Causes</li><li>• Visual Impairment</li><li>• aged ≥ 50 years</li><li>• Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged 0-49 years : Refractive error 29.6%, Cataract, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Corneal opacity</li><li>• Major Causes</li><li>• Visual Impairment</li><li>• 0-49 years</li><li>• Refractive error 29.6%,</li><li>• Definition of Blindness</li><li>• Definition of Blindness</li><li>• WHO defines Blindness as ‘visual acuity of &lt;3/60 in better eye with best possible correction</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• Blindness as ‘visual acuity</li><li>• &lt;3/60</li><li>• better eye</li><li>• National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB), India defines Blindness as ‘visual acuity of &lt;3/60 in better eye with best possible correction [New Guideline 2017-2018]</li><li>• National Programme</li><li>• Control of Blindness</li><li>• Blindness as ‘visual acuity</li><li>• &lt;3/60</li><li>• better eye</li><li>• American Medical Association definition of blindness : Central visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with corrective glasses (or central visual acuity of more than 20/200 if there is a visual field defect in which the peripheral field is contracted to such an extent that the widest diameter of the visual field subtends an angular distance less than 20 degrees in the better eye)</li><li>• American Medical Association</li><li>• blindness</li><li>• Central visual acuity</li><li>• 20/200</li><li>• less</li><li>• better eye</li><li>• corrective glasses</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The most common cause of blindness in India - Cataract</li><li>➤ most common</li><li>➤ blindness in India</li><li>➤ Cataract</li><li>➤ MCC / Major causes of Low Vision in India – Cataract (77%)</li><li>➤ MCC</li><li>➤ Major</li><li>➤ Low Vision in India</li><li>➤ Cataract</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 448.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 448.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a comprehensive review of ocular health in India, the prevalence of blindness is a critical topic of discussion. Based on the survey data from 2015-2019, what is the reported prevalence of blindness in India? This information is essential for understanding the scope of the problem and for guiding public health interventions in eye care.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1.3%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.54%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.36%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 0.36%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-130813.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-131157.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 0.36%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey Report 2015-2019 -</li><li>• National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey Report 2015-2019 -</li><li>• Functional low vision : A person with impairment of visual functioning even after treatment and/or standard refractive correction , and a visual acuity of less than 6/18 to light perception , or a visual field of less than 10 degrees from the point of fixation, but who uses, or is potentially able to use, vision for planning and/or execution of a task.</li><li>• Functional low vision</li><li>• impairment of visual functioning</li><li>• after treatment</li><li>• standard refractive correction</li><li>• visual acuity</li><li>• less than 6/18</li><li>• light perception</li><li>• visual field</li><li>• less than 10 degrees</li><li>• Prevalence and Causes of Blindness &amp; Visual Impairment in India</li><li>• Prevalence and Causes of Blindness &amp; Visual Impairment in India</li><li>• Prevalence of blindness in all age groups: 0.36% Prevalence of visual impairment (VI-Blindness+MSVI) in all age groups: 2.55% Major Causes of Blindness in population aged ≥ 50 years: Cataract 66.2%, Corneal opacity including trachomatous 8.2%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 7.2%, Posterior segment disease excluding DR &amp; ARMD 5.9%, Glaucoma 5.5% Major Causes of Blindness in population aged 0-49 years: Corneal opacity 37.5%, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Phthisis, Other/undetermined Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged ≥ 50 years: Cataract 71.2%, Refractive error 13.4%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 5.9% Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged 0-49 years: Refractive error 29.6%, Cataract, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Corneal opacity</li><li>• Prevalence of blindness in all age groups: 0.36%</li><li>• Prevalence of blindness in all age groups: 0.36%</li><li>• Prevalence of visual impairment (VI-Blindness+MSVI) in all age groups: 2.55%</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness in population aged ≥ 50 years: Cataract 66.2%, Corneal opacity including trachomatous 8.2%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 7.2%, Posterior segment disease excluding DR &amp; ARMD 5.9%, Glaucoma 5.5%</li><li>• Major Causes of Blindness in population aged 0-49 years: Corneal opacity 37.5%, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Phthisis, Other/undetermined</li><li>• Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged ≥ 50 years: Cataract 71.2%, Refractive error 13.4%, Cataract surgical complications including PCO 5.9%</li><li>• Major Causes of Visual Impairment in population aged 0-49 years: Refractive error 29.6%, Cataract, All globe/CNS abnormality Amblyopia, Corneal opacity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey Report 2015-2019 -</li><li>➤ National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey Report 2015-2019 -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 492</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 492</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health lecture discussing strategies for blindness prevention, the topic of immunization as a specific protective measure is highlighted. Vaccinations play a crucial role in preventing certain diseases that can lead to blindness. Which of the following diseases, for which immunization is available, is included as part of specific protection against blindness?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mumps", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trachoma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rubella", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Measles", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Measles</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Mumps : While mumps can cause complications , it is less commonly associated with blindness .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Mumps</li><li>• cause complications</li><li>• less commonly</li><li>• blindness</li><li>• Option B. Trachoma : This is a major cause of blindness , especially in developing countries , but it is not prevented through vaccination. Instead, it is addressed with antibiotics and improved hygiene and the environment.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Trachoma</li><li>• major cause</li><li>• blindness</li><li>• developing countries</li><li>• Option D. Rubella : Though rubella can lead to congenital rubella syndrome , which may include ocular complications , it is less directly associated with blindness than measles in unvaccinated children.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Rubella</li><li>• congenital rubella syndrome</li><li>• ocular complications</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Immunization against which of the following diseases is a part of specific protection against blindness prevention - Measles</li><li>➤ Immunization</li><li>➤ specific protection</li><li>➤ blindness prevention</li><li>➤ Measles</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 970.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, 4 th ed, pg 970.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a policy discussion on the National Programme for Control of Blindness in India, the main goal of this public health initiative is examined. This program aims to significantly reduce the burden of blindness across the country. What is the specific goal of the National Programme for Control of Blindness in terms of reducing the prevalence of blindness?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.3%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.15%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.3%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/11/image-20231111170132-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 0.3%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Programme for Control of Blindness was launched with the goal of reducing the prevalence of blindness from 1.4 to 0.3 per cent.</li><li>• National Programme</li><li>• Control of Blindness</li><li>• goal of reducing</li><li>• prevalence of blindness</li><li>• 1.4 to</li><li>• 0.3 per cent.</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR CONTROL OF BLINDNESS AND VISUAL IMPAIRMENT (NPCBVI) NPCB UPDATES 2017-2018</li><li>• NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR CONTROL OF BLINDNESS AND VISUAL IMPAIRMENT (NPCBVI) NPCB UPDATES 2017-2018</li><li>• NPCB was launched in 1976 as a 100% Centrally sponsored programme . India was the first country to launch a national level programme for blindness Apex institute : National Institute of Ophthalmology (Dr. Rajendra Prasad Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences [2007] AIIMS, New Delhi) Definition of Blindness (NPCB) in line with WHO definition : Presenting distance visually acuity &lt; 3/60 (20/400) in the better eye Limitation of field of vision to be &lt; 10 degrees from center of fixation Expected outcome: Population of blind people in India reduce from 12 million to 8 million Ultimate Goal (WHO Goal): Reduce Blindness prevalence (India) to 0.3% by 2020 Nomenclature of the scheme is also changed from ‘National Program for Control of Blindness (NPCB)’ to ‘National Program for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment’ (NPCBVI)</li><li>• NPCB was launched in 1976 as a 100% Centrally sponsored programme . India was the first country to launch a national level programme for blindness</li><li>• 1976 as a 100% Centrally sponsored programme</li><li>• India</li><li>• first country</li><li>• launch a national level programme</li><li>• blindness</li><li>• Apex institute : National Institute of Ophthalmology (Dr. Rajendra Prasad Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences [2007] AIIMS, New Delhi)</li><li>• Apex institute</li><li>• National Institute</li><li>• Ophthalmology</li><li>• Definition of Blindness (NPCB) in line with WHO definition : Presenting distance visually acuity &lt; 3/60 (20/400) in the better eye Limitation of field of vision to be &lt; 10 degrees from center of fixation Expected outcome: Population of blind people in India reduce from 12 million to 8 million Ultimate Goal (WHO Goal): Reduce Blindness prevalence (India) to 0.3% by 2020</li><li>• Definition</li><li>• Blindness</li><li>• WHO definition</li><li>• Presenting distance visually acuity &lt; 3/60 (20/400) in the better eye Limitation of field of vision to be &lt; 10 degrees from center of fixation Expected outcome: Population of blind people in India reduce from 12 million to 8 million Ultimate Goal (WHO Goal): Reduce Blindness prevalence (India) to 0.3% by 2020</li><li>• Presenting distance visually acuity &lt; 3/60 (20/400) in the better eye</li><li>• Presenting distance visually acuity &lt; 3/60</li><li>• better eye</li><li>• Limitation of field of vision to be &lt; 10 degrees from center of fixation</li><li>• Limitation of field</li><li>• &lt; 10 degrees</li><li>• center of fixation</li><li>• Expected outcome: Population of blind people in India reduce from 12 million to 8 million</li><li>• Ultimate Goal (WHO Goal): Reduce Blindness prevalence (India) to 0.3% by 2020</li><li>• Ultimate Goal (WHO Goal): Reduce Blindness prevalence (India) to 0.3% by 2020</li><li>• Nomenclature of the scheme is also changed from ‘National Program for Control of Blindness (NPCB)’ to ‘National Program for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment’ (NPCBVI)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Blindness in India</li><li>➤ Blindness in India</li><li>➤ India is single largest contributor to global blind pool - Measured according to: NPCB criterion (&lt; 3/60 in BEBPC) [New Guidelines 2017-18] Total estimated no. of blind persons: 15 million India is ‘overestimating the no. of blinds as per WHO definition’ – Since now WHO cutoff (&lt;3/60 in BEBPC) is employed in India, estimated prevalence of blindness would be: 0.7% (Estimate only) Blindness in India includes: Economic Blindness , Social Blindness , Manifest Blindness and Absolute Blindness (WHO blindness includes Social Blindness, Manifest Blindness and Absolute Blindness) – MCC of Blindness (India) is Cataract</li><li>➤ India is single largest contributor to global blind pool -</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ single largest contributor</li><li>➤ global blind pool</li><li>➤ Measured according to: NPCB criterion (&lt; 3/60 in BEBPC) [New Guidelines 2017-18]</li><li>➤ Total estimated no. of blind persons: 15 million</li><li>➤ India is ‘overestimating the no. of blinds as per WHO definition’ – Since now WHO cutoff (&lt;3/60 in BEBPC) is employed in India, estimated prevalence of blindness would be: 0.7% (Estimate only)</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ ‘overestimating the no. of blinds</li><li>➤ WHO definition’</li><li>➤ Blindness in India includes: Economic Blindness , Social Blindness , Manifest Blindness and Absolute Blindness (WHO blindness includes Social Blindness, Manifest Blindness and Absolute Blindness) – MCC of Blindness (India) is Cataract</li><li>➤ Blindness in India</li><li>➤ Economic Blindness</li><li>➤ Social Blindness</li><li>➤ Manifest Blindness</li><li>➤ Absolute Blindness</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers -</li><li>➤ About 80% of blindness is avoidable Legal Blindness: Visual acuity &lt;3/60 OR Visual field &lt;10° in better eye with best possible correction Work Vision: &lt;6/60 (Economic Blindness) Walk Vision: &lt;3/60 (Social Blindness)</li><li>➤ About 80% of blindness is avoidable</li><li>➤ About 80%</li><li>➤ blindness</li><li>➤ avoidable</li><li>➤ Legal Blindness: Visual acuity &lt;3/60 OR Visual field &lt;10° in better eye with best possible correction</li><li>➤ Work Vision: &lt;6/60 (Economic Blindness)</li><li>➤ Walk Vision: &lt;3/60 (Social Blindness)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 492.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 492.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion about the school eye screening program, which is an integral part of public health initiatives for child ocular health, the process of screening children for visual impairment worldwide. Considering the baseline data from 2010, the plan set forth a specific problem. Within the framework of this program, who is typically the first person to screen children for refractive errors?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "medical officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Trained school teachers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ophthalmic assistants", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health visitor", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Trained school teachers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Trained school teachers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• School eye screening programme: 6-7 % of children aged 10-14 years have a problem with their eyesight affecting their learning at school . Children are being first screened by trained teachers.</li><li>• School eye screening programme:</li><li>• 6-7 % of children</li><li>• 10-14 years</li><li>• problem</li><li>• eyesight</li><li>• learning at</li><li>• school</li><li>• Children suspected of having refractive error are seen by ophthalmic assistants and corrective spectacles are prescribed or given free for persons below poverty line.</li><li>• Children suspected</li><li>• refractive error</li><li>• ophthalmic assistants</li><li>• corrective spectacles</li><li>• School Eye Screening Programme:</li><li>• School Eye Screening Programme:</li><li>• Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group) Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group)</li><li>• Focus on middle schools</li><li>• Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students</li><li>• 1 teacher per 150 students</li><li>• Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• In 1961 , ‘Rennuka Roy School Health Committee’ laid the foundations for a comprehensive school health programme in India</li><li>• 1961</li><li>• ‘Rennuka Roy School Health Committee’</li><li>• foundations for a comprehensive school health programme</li><li>• India</li><li>• School health committee (1961) in India recommended medical examination of children at the time of entry and thereafter every 4 years [New NRHM guideline: Once every 6 months]</li><li>• School health committee</li><li>• medical examination</li><li>• children</li><li>• time of entry</li><li>• thereafter every 4 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In School eye-screening program , initial vision screening done by School teachers</li><li>➤ School eye-screening program</li><li>➤ vision screening</li><li>➤ School teachers</li><li>➤ Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>➤ Visual acuity cutoff</li><li>➤ PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 493.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 493.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an evaluation session of the 'Universal Eye Health: Global Action Plan 2014-2019', participants are tasked with assessing the progress made against the plan's objectives. A key focus of this WHO initiative was to substantially reduce the burden of visual impairment worldwide. Considering the baseline data from 2010, the plan set forth a specific target for the reduction in the prevalence of visual impairment due to avoidable causes by the end of 2019. What percentage reduction in the prevalence of avoidable visual impairment did the plan aim to achieve by 2019?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "25%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "80%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "75%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 25%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 25%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Global Eye Health Action Plan 2014-2019</li><li>• Global Eye Health Action Plan 2014-2019</li><li>• Main Aim : To reduce avoidable Visual Impairment (VI) as a Global Public Health problem , and to secure access to rehabilitation services for the VI 5 Principles and Approaches: Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI Global Target : Reduction in prevalence of Avoidable VI by 25% by 2019 (from baseline 2010) 3 Indicators :</li><li>• Main Aim : To reduce avoidable Visual Impairment (VI) as a Global Public Health problem , and to secure access to rehabilitation services for the VI</li><li>• Main Aim</li><li>• reduce avoidable Visual Impairment</li><li>• Global Public Health problem</li><li>• secure access</li><li>• rehabilitation services</li><li>• VI</li><li>• 5 Principles and Approaches: Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• 5 Principles and Approaches:</li><li>• Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• Universal access and equity</li><li>• Human rights</li><li>• Evidence based practice</li><li>• Life course approach</li><li>• Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• Global Target : Reduction in prevalence of Avoidable VI by 25% by 2019 (from baseline 2010)</li><li>• Global Target</li><li>• Reduction</li><li>• prevalence of Avoidable VI</li><li>• 25%</li><li>• 3 Indicators :</li><li>• 3 Indicators</li><li>• The prevalence and causes of visual impairment The number of eye care personnel ; and Cataract surgical service delivery . The cataract surgical rate (number of surgeries performed per year, per million population) and cataract surgical coverage (number of individuals with bilateral cataract causing visual impairment, who have received cataract surgery on one or both eyes).</li><li>• The prevalence and causes of visual impairment</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• causes of visual impairment</li><li>• The number of eye care personnel ; and</li><li>• number of eye care personnel</li><li>• Cataract surgical service delivery . The cataract surgical rate (number of surgeries performed per year, per million population) and cataract surgical coverage (number of individuals with bilateral cataract causing visual impairment, who have received cataract surgery on one or both eyes).</li><li>• Cataract surgical service delivery</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ' Universal Eye Health : Global Action Plan 2014-2019' set a goal to achieve a 25% reduction in the prevalence of visual impairment due to avoidable blindness by the year 2019 , using 2010 as the baseline for comparison</li><li>➤ Universal Eye Health</li><li>➤ Global Action Plan 2014-2019'</li><li>➤ goal</li><li>➤ 25% reduction</li><li>➤ prevalence of visual impairment</li><li>➤ avoidable blindness</li><li>➤ 2019</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 494.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a workshop dedicated to assessing the progress of universal eye health initiatives, a key segment is devoted to understanding the indicators used to gauge success at the national level. These indicators are vital for monitoring the effectiveness of strategies implemented to improve eye health. Among the listed options, which is NOT an appropriate indicator for measuring progress towards universal eye health at the national level?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Number of Eye care personnel", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cataract surgery", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Number of children taken complete dose of Vitamin A prophylaxis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevalence of Visual impairment", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Number of children taken complete dose of Vitamin A prophylaxis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Number of children taken complete dose of Vitamin A prophylaxis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Global Eye Health Action Plan 2014-2019</li><li>• Global Eye Health Action Plan 2014-2019</li><li>• Main Aim : To reduce avoidable Visual Impairment (VI) as a Global Public Health problem , and to secure access to rehabilitation services for the VI 5 Principles and Approaches : Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI Global Target : Reduction in prevalence of Avoidable VI by 25% by 2019 (from baseline 2010) 3 Indicators :</li><li>• Main Aim : To reduce avoidable Visual Impairment (VI) as a Global Public Health problem , and to secure access to rehabilitation services for the VI</li><li>• Main Aim</li><li>• reduce avoidable Visual Impairment</li><li>• Global Public Health problem</li><li>• 5 Principles and Approaches : Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• 5 Principles</li><li>• Approaches</li><li>• Universal access and equity Human rights Evidence based practice Life course approach Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• Universal access and equity</li><li>• Human rights</li><li>• Evidence based practice</li><li>• Life course approach</li><li>• Empowerment of people with VI</li><li>• Global Target : Reduction in prevalence of Avoidable VI by 25% by 2019 (from baseline 2010)</li><li>• Global Target</li><li>• Reduction</li><li>• prevalence of Avoidable VI</li><li>• 25%</li><li>• 3 Indicators :</li><li>• 3 Indicators</li><li>• The prevalence and causes of visual impairment The number of eye care personnel; and Cataract surgical service delivery. The cataract surgical rate (number of surgeries performed per year, per million population) and cataract surgical coverage (number of individuals with bilateral cataract causing visual impairment, who have received cataract surgery on one or both eyes).</li><li>• The prevalence and causes of visual impairment</li><li>• The number of eye care personnel; and</li><li>• Cataract surgical service delivery. The cataract surgical rate (number of surgeries performed per year, per million population) and cataract surgical coverage (number of individuals with bilateral cataract causing visual impairment, who have received cataract surgery on one or both eyes).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Universal Eye Health : Global Action Plan 2014-2019 - 3 indicators are - Prevalence and causes of visual impairment ; The number of eye care personnel; and Cataract surgical service delivery</li><li>➤ Universal Eye Health</li><li>➤ Global Action Plan 2014-2019</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li><li>➤ visual impairment</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 451.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 451.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a comprehensive review on the clinical aspects of HIV infection, the topic of oral manifestations is addressed. Oral manifestations can be among the early clinical signs in individuals with HIV and vary widely in their prevalence. Given the importance of these manifestations in the clinical management and diagnosis of HIV, what percentage of HIV-infected individuals are estimated to experience oral manifestations during the course of their disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "40-60%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Over 70%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "40-70%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50-70%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Over 70%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Over 70%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Oral Diseases</li><li>• Oral Diseases</li><li>• Oral Diseases (WHO): A state of being free from chronic mouth and facial pain , oral and throat cancer , oral infection and sores , periodontal (gum) diseases, tooth decay , tooth loss, and other diseases and disorders that limit an individual’s capacity in biting, chewing, smiling, speaking and psychological well being Oral disease burden in India : Common disorders : Periodontal diseases (&gt;90%), Dental caries (40-45%), Malocclusion (30% of children) Other disorders : Oral cancers, Oral manifestations of HIV (72% of HIV patients) , Oro-dental trauma, Cleft lip and palate, and noma (Oro-facial gangrene) Risk factors : Modifiable risk factors (Tobacco use, Alcohol consumption, Unhealthy diets high in free sugars) common to major NCDs (CVDs, Diabetes, Cancer, Chronic respiratory diseases) Prevention of Oral Diseases Promoting a well-balanced diet : Low in free sugars, With adequate fruit and vegetable intake Reducing smoking , use of smokeless tobacco, alcohol consumption Reduce risk of facial injuries : Encouraging use of protective equipment in sports and when travelling in motor vehicles</li><li>• Oral Diseases (WHO): A state of being free from chronic mouth and facial pain , oral and throat cancer , oral infection and sores , periodontal (gum) diseases, tooth decay , tooth loss, and other diseases and disorders that limit an individual’s capacity in biting, chewing, smiling, speaking and psychological well being</li><li>• Oral Diseases</li><li>• state of being free</li><li>• chronic mouth</li><li>• facial pain</li><li>• oral</li><li>• throat cancer</li><li>• oral infection</li><li>• sores</li><li>• periodontal</li><li>• tooth decay</li><li>• Oral disease burden in India : Common disorders : Periodontal diseases (&gt;90%), Dental caries (40-45%), Malocclusion (30% of children) Other disorders : Oral cancers, Oral manifestations of HIV (72% of HIV patients) , Oro-dental trauma, Cleft lip and palate, and noma (Oro-facial gangrene)</li><li>• Oral disease burden in India</li><li>• Common disorders : Periodontal diseases (&gt;90%), Dental caries (40-45%), Malocclusion (30% of children) Other disorders : Oral cancers, Oral manifestations of HIV (72% of HIV patients) , Oro-dental trauma, Cleft lip and palate, and noma (Oro-facial gangrene)</li><li>• Common disorders : Periodontal diseases (&gt;90%), Dental caries (40-45%), Malocclusion (30% of children)</li><li>• Common disorders</li><li>• Other disorders : Oral cancers, Oral manifestations of HIV (72% of HIV patients) , Oro-dental trauma, Cleft lip and palate, and noma (Oro-facial gangrene)</li><li>• Other disorders</li><li>• Oral manifestations of HIV (72% of HIV patients)</li><li>• Risk factors : Modifiable risk factors (Tobacco use, Alcohol consumption, Unhealthy diets high in free sugars) common to major NCDs (CVDs, Diabetes, Cancer, Chronic respiratory diseases)</li><li>• Risk factors</li><li>• Modifiable risk factors</li><li>• major NCDs</li><li>• Prevention of Oral Diseases Promoting a well-balanced diet : Low in free sugars, With adequate fruit and vegetable intake Reducing smoking , use of smokeless tobacco, alcohol consumption Reduce risk of facial injuries : Encouraging use of protective equipment in sports and when travelling in motor vehicles</li><li>• Prevention of Oral Diseases</li><li>• Promoting a well-balanced diet : Low in free sugars, With adequate fruit and vegetable intake Reducing smoking , use of smokeless tobacco, alcohol consumption Reduce risk of facial injuries : Encouraging use of protective equipment in sports and when travelling in motor vehicles</li><li>• Promoting a well-balanced diet : Low in free sugars, With adequate fruit and vegetable intake</li><li>• Promoting a well-balanced diet</li><li>• Reducing smoking , use of smokeless tobacco, alcohol consumption</li><li>• Reducing smoking</li><li>• Reduce risk of facial injuries : Encouraging use of protective equipment in sports and when travelling in motor vehicles</li><li>• Reduce risk of facial injuries</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Oral manifestations occur in 72% HIV patients</li><li>➤ Oral manifestations</li><li>➤ 72% HIV patients</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 452.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 452.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar focused on public health and injury prevention, a critical discussion emerges about the leading causes of death resulting from injuries. Understanding the predominant causes of injury-related deaths is essential for formulating effective prevention and response strategies. As of the latest data, which type of injury is recognized as the leading cause of death due to injuries?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Suicide", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fall", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Road traffic accidents", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Drowning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Road traffic accidents", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Road traffic accidents</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The leading cause of injury deaths is road traffic injury , followed by suicide , falls and interpersonal violence .</li><li>• leading cause of injury deaths</li><li>• road traffic injury</li><li>• suicide</li><li>• falls</li><li>• interpersonal violence</li><li>• Accidents and Injuries in India (in Order of Decreasing Numbers) -</li><li>• Accidents and Injuries in India</li><li>• Road traffic accidents Work related injuries Burns Violence, Suicide Poisoning Drowning</li><li>• Road traffic accidents</li><li>• Work related injuries</li><li>• Burns</li><li>• Violence, Suicide</li><li>• Poisoning</li><li>• Drowning</li><li>• Road traffic accidents –</li><li>• Road traffic accidents</li><li>• (a) Most common cause of accidental deaths in India (b) More in USA in motor-car users than pedestrians (c) More in number than self-inflicted injuries in India (d) More in number than railway accidents in India (e) Contribute 50% of all injury related deaths in India</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The leading cause of injury deaths is road traffic injury , followed by suicide, falls and interpersonal violence.</li><li>➤ leading cause</li><li>➤ injury deaths</li><li>➤ road traffic injury</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 454.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 454.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 13-year-old girl presents to your clinic with joint pain, a recent history of sore throat, and unusual involuntary movements. Based on her presentation, you suspect rheumatic fever and review the major criteria for its diagnosis according to the Jones criteria. Which of the following is NOT considered a major criterion in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chorea", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Pan carditis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Polyarthralgia", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Subcutaneous nodules", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Polyarthralgia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/09/screenshot-2024-08-09-100814.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Polyarthralgia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Polyarthalgia is a minor criterion , rest all 3 other options are Major criteria</li><li>• Polyarthalgia</li><li>• minor criterion</li><li>• 3 other options</li><li>• Major criteria</li><li>• Revised Jones Criteria</li><li>• Revised Jones Criteria</li><li>• Major criteria – carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodule</li><li>• Major criteria</li><li>• Minor Criteria - clinical; fever, polyarthralgia, laboratory; elevated acute phase reactants (erythrocyte sedimentation rate or leukocyte count)</li><li>• Minor Criteria</li><li>• Supporting evidence of a preceding streptococcal infection within 45 days - electrocardiogram ; prolonged PR interval , elevated or rising antistreptolysin-0 or other streptococcal antibody , or a positive throat culture , or rapid antigen test for group A streptococcus, or recent scarlet fever.</li><li>• Supporting evidence</li><li>• preceding streptococcal infection</li><li>• 45 days</li><li>• electrocardiogram</li><li>• prolonged PR interval</li><li>• elevated</li><li>• rising antistreptolysin-0</li><li>• streptococcal antibody</li><li>• positive throat culture</li><li>• NEW Revised Jones Criteria</li><li>• NEW Revised Jones Criteria</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Polyarthralgia is considered a minor criterion in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever according to the Jones criteria , whereas chorea, pancarditis (as part of carditis), and subcutaneous nodules are major criteria.</li><li>➤ Polyarthralgia</li><li>➤ minor criterion</li><li>➤ diagnosis of rheumatic fever</li><li>➤ Jones criteria</li><li>➤ chorea, pancarditis</li><li>➤ subcutaneous nodules</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 427.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 427.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 74 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Nutrition And Health - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 42</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 42 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 30-year-old woman visits a nutritionist to seek advice on her daily energy intake. She has a moderate level of physical activity in her daily routine. Based on the 2020 guidelines provided by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), what is the recommended daily energy requirement (in kcal/day) for this woman?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1660", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2130", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2710", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3470", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2130", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-095529.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2130</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• RDA Energy Requirements -</li><li>• RDA Energy Requirements -</li><li>• Pregnancy Additional Energy Requirements : +350 kcal/day Lactation Additional Energy Requirements : 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day; 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day Infant Energy Requirements : 0-6 m: 550 kcal/day 6-12 m: 670 kcal/day Children Energy Requirements : 1-3 y: 1000 kcal/day 4-6 y: 1400 kcal/day 7-9 y: 1700 kcal day</li><li>• Pregnancy Additional Energy Requirements : +350 kcal/day</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• Energy Requirements</li><li>• +350 kcal/day</li><li>• Lactation Additional Energy Requirements : 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day; 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>• Lactation Additional Energy Requirements</li><li>• 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day; 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>• 0-6 m: +600 kcal/day;</li><li>• 6-12 m: +520 kcal/day</li><li>• Infant Energy Requirements : 0-6 m: 550 kcal/day 6-12 m: 670 kcal/day</li><li>• Infant Energy Requirements</li><li>• 0-6 m: 550 kcal/day 6-12 m: 670 kcal/day</li><li>• 0-6 m: 550 kcal/day</li><li>• 6-12 m: 670 kcal/day</li><li>• Children Energy Requirements : 1-3 y: 1000 kcal/day 4-6 y: 1400 kcal/day 7-9 y: 1700 kcal day</li><li>• Children Energy Requirements</li><li>• 1-3 y: 1000 kcal/day 4-6 y: 1400 kcal/day 7-9 y: 1700 kcal day</li><li>• 1-3 y: 1000 kcal/day</li><li>• 4-6 y: 1400 kcal/day</li><li>• 7-9 y: 1700 kcal day</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The daily energy requirement for adult women with moderate physical activity as recommended is 2130 kcal/day.</li><li>➤ daily energy requirement</li><li>➤ adult women</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 723)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 723)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man with a sedentary lifestyle is trying to adjust his diet to meet his nutritional needs. According to the 2020 guidelines from the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), what is the recommended protein intake (g/kg/day) for this man?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.83", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.86", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.91", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "0.95", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.83", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 0.83</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• RDA Safe Protein Requirement of High Quality Protein :</li><li>• RDA Safe Protein Requirement</li><li>• High Quality Protein</li><li>• 1-5 years age: 0.94 g/kg/d 6-10 years old children: 0.91 g/kg/d Adolescent boys: 0.88 g/kg/d Adolescents girls: 0.86 g/kg/d Adult man/woman (Sedentary/Moderate): 0.83 g/kg/d</li><li>• 1-5 years age: 0.94 g/kg/d</li><li>• 6-10 years old children: 0.91 g/kg/d</li><li>• Adolescent boys: 0.88 g/kg/d</li><li>• Adolescents girls: 0.86 g/kg/d</li><li>• Adult man/woman (Sedentary/Moderate): 0.83 g/kg/d</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RDA Safe Protein Requirement of High Quality Protein for Adult man/woman (Sedentary/Moderate) is 0.83 g/kg/d</li><li>➤ RDA Safe Protein</li><li>➤ High Quality Protein</li><li>➤ Adult man/woman</li><li>➤ 0.83 g/kg/d</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 724)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 724)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dietitian is providing nutritional counseling to a patient diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. The dietitian emphasizes the importance of reducing saturated fat intake to manage cholesterol levels and improve cardiovascular health. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for a the prudent diet, what is the recommended maximum percentage of total daily caloric intake that should come from saturated fats?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Less than 5%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Less than 7%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Less than 10%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Less than 15%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Less than 7%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Less than 7%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Saturated fat should contribute no more than 7% of total energy intake .</li><li>• Saturated fat</li><li>• contribute no more than 7%</li><li>• total energy intake</li><li>• Prudent Diet (Dietary Goals) is a Diet for dietary goal achievement</li><li>• Prudent Diet (Dietary Goals)</li><li>• Diet</li><li>• dietary goal achievement</li><li>• A prudent diet may be associated with enhanced insulin sensitivity and a lower risk of type 2 diabetes —It is a dietary modification is the principal preventive strategy for prevention of CHD and other chronic diseases</li><li>• prudent diet</li><li>• enhanced insulin sensitivity</li><li>• lower risk</li><li>• type 2 diabetes</li><li>• dietary modification</li><li>• principal preventive strategy</li><li>• prevention of CHD</li><li>• chronic diseases</li><li>• WHO recommended changes: [ GOAL: Cholesterol/HDL Ratio &lt;3.5 ]</li><li>• GOAL: Cholesterol/HDL Ratio &lt;3.5</li><li>• Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li><li>• Reduction of fat intake to &lt;20–30% of total energy intake</li><li>• Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake</li><li>• Consumption of saturated fats &lt;7% of total energy intake</li><li>• Reduction in dietary cholesterol to &lt;200 mg per day</li><li>• Increase in complex carbohydrate consumption</li><li>• Reduction of salt intake to &lt;5 gms per day</li><li>• Avoidance of alcohol consumption</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that saturated fats should constitute less than 7% of the total daily caloric intake to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.</li><li>➤ World Health Organization</li><li>➤ saturated fats</li><li>➤ constitute less than 7%</li><li>➤ total daily caloric intake</li><li>➤ reduce</li><li>➤ cardiovascular diseases.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 728)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 728)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue and bone pain. His lifestyle includes limited exposure to sunlight due to his indoor job and living in a high-latitude location. The physician suspects a vitamin D deficiency and decides to review the patient's dietary intake and supplement needs. What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for this adult male to maintain bone health and normal calcium metabolism?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "400", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "500", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "600", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "800", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 600", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-100206.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 600</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• RDA of Vitamin D</li><li>• RDA of Vitamin D</li><li>• Infant: 400 IU/day Children more than 1 year of age: 600 IU/day Adult male: 600 IU/day Adult (Non-pregnant, Pregnant and Lactating) Females: 600 IU/day</li><li>• Infant: 400 IU/day</li><li>• Children more than 1 year of age: 600 IU/day</li><li>• Adult male: 600 IU/day</li><li>• Adult (Non-pregnant, Pregnant and Lactating) Females: 600 IU/day</li><li>• RDA of Important Nutrients</li><li>• RDA of Important Nutrients</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The daily requirement of Vitamin D in adult males and females is 600 IU/ day .</li><li>➤ daily requirement of Vitamin D</li><li>➤ adult males</li><li>➤ females is 600 IU/ day</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 2-year-old child presents to the clinic with a history of frequent infections and delayed milestones. On physical examination, the child appears underweight with visible wasting of the biceps and shoulder muscles. To further assess the nutritional status, the mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) is measured. Which of the following MUAC measurements would indicate that this child has severe acute malnutrition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10.5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "11.5 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12.5 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "13.5 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 11.5 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/image.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/27/screenshot-2024-02-27-131533.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 11.5 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to WHO definition ,</li><li>• WHO definition</li><li>• No Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is MUAC &gt; 11.5 cm ; or WFH &gt; -3SD; and no bilateral pedal oedema: Nutrition counselling to mother/caregiver</li><li>• No Severe Acute</li><li>• MUAC &gt; 11.5 cm</li><li>• Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is WFH &lt;–3SD / and/or severe visible wasting and/or bilateral pedal oedema and/or MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm</li><li>• Severe Acute</li><li>• Malnutrition</li><li>• WFH &lt;–3SD</li><li>• severe visible wasting</li><li>• bilateral pedal oedema</li><li>• MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm</li><li>• No medical complications : Refer to VHND or subcenter to be further assessment and counseling by ANM Any one medical complication : Immediate referral to NRC</li><li>• No medical complications : Refer to VHND or subcenter to be further assessment and counseling by ANM</li><li>• No medical complications</li><li>• VHND</li><li>• Any one medical complication : Immediate referral to NRC</li><li>• Any one medical complication</li><li>• referral to NRC</li><li>• [Medical complications include poor appetite, visible severe wasting, edema of both feet, severe palmar pallor, any sick young infant (&lt;2 months old), lethargy, drowsiness, unconsciousness, continually irritable and restless, any respiratory distress, signs suggesting severe dehydration in a child with diarrhoea]</li><li>• Mid-arm Circumference (MAC)</li><li>• Mid-arm Circumference (MAC)</li><li>• MAC is measured for age group 6 months-5 years (as it remains practically constant during this age) Shakir’s Tape : A useful field instrument for measurement of nourishment status of a child , through measurement of MAC</li><li>• MAC is measured for age group 6 months-5 years (as it remains practically constant during this age)</li><li>• MAC</li><li>• age group 6 months-5 years</li><li>• Shakir’s Tape : A useful field instrument for measurement of nourishment status of a child , through measurement of MAC</li><li>• Shakir’s Tape</li><li>• field instrument</li><li>• measurement</li><li>• nourishment status</li><li>• child</li><li>• measurement of MAC</li><li>• • Interpretation of Shakir’s tape findings:</li><li>• Shakir’s tape</li><li>• Note :</li><li>• Note</li><li>• ‘Bangle Test’ (4 cm diameter) is also used for quick assessment of MAC ‘ Quac Stic’ measures malnourishment by comparing MAC with height.</li><li>• ‘Bangle Test’ (4 cm diameter) is also used for quick assessment of MAC</li><li>• ‘Bangle Test’</li><li>• quick assessment of MAC</li><li>• ‘ Quac Stic’ measures malnourishment by comparing MAC with height.</li><li>• Quac Stic’</li><li>• malnourishment</li><li>• comparing MAC</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO use MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm as a marker of severe acute malnutrition .</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm</li><li>➤ marker of severe acute malnutrition</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 730)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 730)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a community health officer, you are tasked with implementing a defluoridation program in a rural area where the groundwater contains high levels of fluoride, leading to dental and skeletal fluorosis among the inhabitants. You decide to employ the Nalgonda technique. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the steps you would advise your team to follow for defluoridation of water using the Nalgonda technique?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Addition of lime/alum, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Addition of chlorine, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Filtration, sedimentation, Addition of lime/alum, flocculation.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sedimentation, filtration Addition of lime/alum, flocculation.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Addition of lime/alum, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Addition of lime/alum, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique has been developed by the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur for defluoridation of water It involves the addition of (in sequence): ( Mnemonic: LAB) L ime A lum (major role) B leaching powder Flocculation, Sedimentation Filtration Household-level de-fluoridation can be done by : Nalgonda Technique Alumina Phosphates</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique has been developed by the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur for defluoridation of water</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique</li><li>• National Environmental Engineering Research Institute</li><li>• Nagpur</li><li>• defluoridation of water</li><li>• It involves the addition of (in sequence): ( Mnemonic: LAB)</li><li>• Mnemonic: LAB)</li><li>• L ime</li><li>• L</li><li>• A lum (major role)</li><li>• A</li><li>• B leaching powder Flocculation, Sedimentation Filtration</li><li>• B</li><li>• Flocculation, Sedimentation Filtration</li><li>• Flocculation,</li><li>• Sedimentation</li><li>• Filtration</li><li>• Household-level de-fluoridation can be done by : Nalgonda Technique Alumina Phosphates</li><li>• Household-level de-fluoridation can be done by</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique Alumina Phosphates</li><li>• Nalgonda Technique</li><li>• Alumina</li><li>• Phosphates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute , Nagpur developed a technique for removing fluoride by chemical treatment . It is called Nalgonda technique for defluoridation of water . It involves the addition of two chemicals (viz. lime and alum) in sequence followed by flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration .</li><li>➤ National Environmental Engineering Research Institute</li><li>➤ Nagpur</li><li>➤ technique</li><li>➤ removing fluoride by chemical treatment</li><li>➤ Nalgonda technique</li><li>➤ defluoridation of water</li><li>➤ addition of two chemicals</li><li>➤ flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 734)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 734)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dietitian is educating a group of medical students on the nutritional assessment and monitoring of patients. She explains that a complete dietary cycle includes a specific sequence of steps that must be taken to ensure a comprehensive evaluation of a patient's dietary habits. Which of the following best describes a complete dietary cycle?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 to 7 days", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 to 21 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 to 30 days", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 to 7 days", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 to 7 days</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Assessment of dietary intake (Diet Survey): Dietary Cycle (weighment of raw foods done over a period of 7 days) Assessment of nutritional status: [ Mnemonic: CABFAVE ] C linical examination A nthropometry L aboratory and Biochemical evaluation Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine Biochemical tests F unctional assessment A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method V ital and health statistics E cological studies Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>• Assessment of dietary intake (Diet Survey): Dietary Cycle (weighment of raw foods done over a period of 7 days)</li><li>• Assessment of dietary intake</li><li>• Dietary Cycle</li><li>• Assessment of nutritional status: [ Mnemonic: CABFAVE ]</li><li>• Mnemonic: CABFAVE</li><li>• C linical examination</li><li>• C</li><li>• A nthropometry</li><li>• A</li><li>• L aboratory and Biochemical evaluation</li><li>• L</li><li>• Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine</li><li>• Biochemical tests</li><li>• F unctional assessment</li><li>• F</li><li>• A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method</li><li>• A</li><li>• Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method</li><li>• Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days)</li><li>• Weighment of cooked foods</li><li>• Oral questionnaire method</li><li>• V ital and health statistics</li><li>• V</li><li>• E cological studies Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>• E</li><li>• Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>• Food balance sheet</li><li>• Socio-economic factors</li><li>• Health and educational services</li><li>• Conditioning influences</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Assessment of dietary intake (Diet Survey) can be carried out by ‘Dietary Cycle’, where ‘weighment of raw foods is done over a period of 7 days’ .</li><li>➤ Assessment</li><li>➤ dietary intake</li><li>➤ ‘Dietary Cycle’,</li><li>➤ ‘weighment of raw foods</li><li>➤ period of 7 days’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 739)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 739)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "One of the villages in India depends mainly on maize as their staple food. This is the finding in the residents of the village. What is the deficiency involved?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Niacin", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/29/14.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/image_pttlCbM.png", "https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/605C4PRtfv9RPillt34aWfxHcS634aItbWOSyJ96fCTzkbR9tUAuo5mMeyH87Pf2j_XH2MueVwI68d-rmuAdqj-c4YcvSkfI5yKXaecY7NW_2WWcgn3enaXlClhNihi_YDI2V3Afp82XRoJkl-5X4Cw"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Niacin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dermatitis is seen around the neck of the person k/a Casal’s Collar or Necklace . It is a clinical sign in which there is an erythematous pigmented skin rash in the distribution of a broad collar (dermatomes C3 and C4). It is seen in patients with pellagra , as a result of niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency . (Pellagra is characterized by 4Ds: Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and deah)</li><li>• Dermatitis</li><li>• around the neck</li><li>• person k/a</li><li>• Casal’s Collar or Necklace</li><li>• clinical sign</li><li>• erythematous pigmented skin rash</li><li>• distribution of a broad collar</li><li>• pellagra</li><li>• niacin</li><li>• deficiency</li><li>• 4Ds:</li><li>• Casal’s Collar or Necklace</li><li>• Casal’s Collar or Necklace</li><li>• Consumption of untreated maize as a primary dietary staple is a recognized risk factor for pellagra because maize contains niacin in a form that is not bioavailable unless treated with lime or alkali (a process known as nixtamalization) – Limiting amino acid in maize is Tryptophan . (60 mg Tryptophan is converted to 1 mg Niacin in the body); excess of leucine in such populations appears to interfere in conversion of tryptophan to niacin</li><li>• Consumption</li><li>• untreated maize</li><li>• primary dietary staple</li><li>• risk factor</li><li>• pellagra</li><li>• maize contains niacin</li><li>• form</li><li>• not bioavailable unless treated with lime or alkali</li><li>• Limiting amino acid</li><li>• maize</li><li>• Tryptophan</li><li>• excess of leucine</li><li>• populations</li><li>• interfere in conversion</li><li>• tryptophan to niacin</li><li>• The recommended daily requirement of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) - 6.6 mg per 1000 kcal of energy intake</li><li>• Vitamin B3</li><li>• 6.6 mg per 1000 kcal</li><li>• energy intake</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The classic triad of symptoms (dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia) is associated with pellagra , which is caused by niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency , particularly in populations with maize-based diets . Dermatitis is seen around the neck k/a Casal’s Collar or Necklace</li><li>➤ classic triad</li><li>➤ symptoms</li><li>➤ pellagra</li><li>➤ niacin</li><li>➤ deficiency</li><li>➤ populations</li><li>➤ maize-based diets</li><li>➤ Dermatitis</li><li>➤ around the neck k/a Casal’s Collar</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following in incorrect about Indian Reference Male?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age between 19-39 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physical activity level is Moderate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight of 75 kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "BMI of 18.5-22.9", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Weight of 75 kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-100924.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Weight of 75 kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• These guidelines are devised by :</li><li>• These guidelines are devised by</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research , (ICMR), New Delhi National Institute of Nutrition (NIN), Hyderabad Department of Health Research , New Delhi Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare , New Delhi</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research , (ICMR), New Delhi</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition (NIN), Hyderabad</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition</li><li>• Department of Health Research , New Delhi</li><li>• Department of Health Research</li><li>• Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare , New Delhi</li><li>• Ministry of Health &amp; Family Welfare</li><li>• Updated Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) (2020), as given below</li><li>• REFERENCE INDIAN MAN</li><li>• REFERENCE INDIAN MAN</li><li>• Age 19-39 years, Weight 65 kg Free from disease, Fit for active work Engaged in 8 hours of occupation (usually moderate activity), 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting &amp; moving about, 2 hours in walking and in active recreation or household duties</li><li>• Age 19-39 years, Weight 65 kg</li><li>• Free from disease, Fit for active work</li><li>• Engaged in 8 hours of occupation (usually moderate activity), 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting &amp; moving about, 2 hours in walking and in active recreation or household duties</li><li>• REFERENCE INDIAN WOMAN</li><li>• REFERENCE INDIAN WOMAN</li><li>• Age 19-39 years, Weight 55 kg Non-pregnant, Non-lactating, Free from disease, Fit for active work Engaged in 8 hours of occupation (usually moderate activity), 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting &amp; moving about, 2 hours in walking and in active recreation or household duties</li><li>• Age 19-39 years, Weight 55 kg</li><li>• Non-pregnant, Non-lactating, Free from disease, Fit for active work</li><li>• Engaged in 8 hours of occupation (usually moderate activity), 8 hours in bed, 4-6 hours in sitting &amp; moving about, 2 hours in walking and in active recreation or household duties</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Indian reference man is age 19-39 years , weight 65 kg and Indian reference woman is age 19-39 years , weight 55 kg .</li><li>➤ Indian reference man</li><li>➤ 19-39 years</li><li>➤ weight 65 kg</li><li>➤ Indian reference woman</li><li>➤ age 19-39 years</li><li>➤ weight 55 kg</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 722)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 722)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 26-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy is receiving counseling about her nutritional needs throughout the pregnancy. The healthcare provider is discussing the importance of adequate iron intake for the prevention of anemia and to support the increased blood volume and fetal development. What is the total daily iron requirement recommended for this woman throughout her pregnancy period?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "65 mg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "35 mg/day", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "25 mg/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "70 mg/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 35 mg/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 35 mg/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Iron requirement per day in Non-pregnant woman : 1.6 mg/day Iron intake (suggested) per day in Non-pregnant woman : 21 mg per day Iron requirement per day in Pregnant woman : 2.8 mg/day Iron intake (suggested) per day in Pregnant woman: 35 mg per day Iron content of IFA tablets in Pregnancy: 100 mg per day Total iron requirement in Pregnancy: 1000 mg</li><li>• Iron requirement per day in Non-pregnant woman : 1.6 mg/day</li><li>• Iron</li><li>• day in Non-pregnant woman</li><li>• 1.6 mg/day</li><li>• Iron intake (suggested) per day in Non-pregnant woman : 21 mg per day</li><li>• Iron intake</li><li>• Non-pregnant woman</li><li>• 21 mg per day</li><li>• Iron requirement per day in Pregnant woman : 2.8 mg/day</li><li>• Iron requirement</li><li>• Pregnant woman</li><li>• 2.8 mg/day</li><li>• Iron intake (suggested) per day in Pregnant woman: 35 mg per day</li><li>• Iron intake (suggested) per day in Pregnant woman: 35 mg per day</li><li>• Iron content of IFA tablets in Pregnancy: 100 mg per day</li><li>• Total iron requirement in Pregnancy: 1000 mg</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Iron absorption from habitual Indian diets is less than 5%. Iron absorption is low in Indian diets due to presence of inhibitors (phytates, tannates, oxalates, calcium). Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is a facilitator of iron absorption</li><li>• Iron absorption</li><li>• habitual Indian diets</li><li>• less than 5%.</li><li>• Iron absorption</li><li>• low in Indian diets</li><li>• presence of inhibitors</li><li>• Vitamin C</li><li>• facilitator</li><li>• iron absorption</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The total daily iron requirement for a pregnant woman is increased , with an average additional requirement of about 35 mg/day , to support the expansion of maternal red cell mass , fetal development , and to compensate for losses at delivery .</li><li>➤ total daily iron requirement</li><li>➤ pregnant woman</li><li>➤ increased</li><li>➤ average</li><li>➤ requirement</li><li>➤ 35 mg/day</li><li>➤ expansion of maternal red cell mass</li><li>➤ fetal development</li><li>➤ compensate</li><li>➤ losses at delivery</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician evaluating growth parameters in children at a community health center explains to a group of parents the differences between chronic and acute malnutrition. She describes one condition as a result of inadequate nutrition over a prolonged period, leading to poor linear growth, and another due to recent insufficient dietary intake causing rapid weight loss. Which of the following terms does the pediatrician use to describe a recent failure to receive adequate nutrition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Wasting", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stunting", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Underweight", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Overweight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Wasting", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-101210.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Wasting</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Wasting represents recent failure to receive adequate nutrition and may be affected by recent episodes of diarrhoea and other acute illnesses . Wasted child has weight for height score at least 2 standard deviations below median for WHO child growth standards.</li><li>• Wasting represents</li><li>• failure</li><li>• receive adequate nutrition</li><li>• affected by recent episodes</li><li>• diarrhoea</li><li>• other acute illnesses</li><li>• Wasted child</li><li>• weight for height score</li><li>• Child Wasting - indicates Acute undernutrition - Low weight for height - Is known as Nutritional wasting or Emaciation</li><li>• Child Wasting</li><li>• Acute</li><li>• undernutrition</li><li>• Low weight</li><li>• height</li><li>• Nutritional wasting</li><li>• Child Stunting - indicates Chronic undernutrition - Low height for age - Is known as Nutritional stunting or Dwarfing</li><li>• Child Stunting</li><li>• Chronic undernutrition</li><li>• Low height for age</li><li>• Nutritional stunting</li><li>• WHO CLASSIFICATION OF MALNUTRITION</li><li>• WHO CLASSIFICATION OF MALNUTRITION</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Wasting is acute malnutrition and stunting is chronic malnutrition</li><li>➤ Wasting</li><li>➤ acute malnutrition</li><li>➤ stunting</li><li>➤ chronic malnutrition</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 730)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 730)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health department is tasked with conducting a rapid assessment of dietary intake among residents of a densely populated urban neighborhood to inform an upcoming nutritional intervention program. Given the need to collect data from a large number of individuals in a short period, which method should the department utilize for the dietary survey?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weighment of raw food", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weighment of cooked food", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral questionnaire method", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Growth monitoring", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Oral questionnaire method", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Oral questionnaire method</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The oral questionnaire method is the most practical approach for conducting a diet survey of a large number of people in a short amount of time . Inquiries are made retrospectively about the nature and quantity of foods eaten during the previous 24 or 48 hours . This method can be standardized , is cost-effective , and allows for a broad collection of data on dietary habits without the need for extensive individual assessments that are time-consuming.</li><li>• most practical approach</li><li>• conducting a diet survey</li><li>• large number of people</li><li>• short amount of time</li><li>• Inquiries</li><li>• retrospectively</li><li>• nature</li><li>• quantity of foods eaten</li><li>• 24 or 48 hours</li><li>• standardized</li><li>• cost-effective</li><li>• allows for a broad collection of data</li><li>• dietary habits</li><li>• Assessment of dietary intake (Diet Survey) can be carried out by ‘Dietary Cycle ’, where ‘ weighment of raw foods is done over a period of 7 days’ .</li><li>• Assessment of dietary intake</li><li>• ‘Dietary Cycle</li><li>• weighment of raw foods is done</li><li>• period of 7 days’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Assessment of nutritional status: [ Mnemonic: CABFAVE ]</li><li>➤ Mnemonic: CABFAVE</li><li>➤ C linical examination A nthropometry L aboratory and Biochemical evaluation Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine Biochemical tests F unctional assessment A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method V ital and health statistics E cological studies Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ C linical examination</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ A nthropometry</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ L aboratory and Biochemical evaluation Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine Biochemical tests</li><li>➤ L</li><li>➤ Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine Biochemical tests</li><li>➤ Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine</li><li>➤ Biochemical tests</li><li>➤ F unctional assessment</li><li>➤ F</li><li>➤ A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method</li><li>➤ Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days)</li><li>➤ Weighment of cooked foods</li><li>➤ Oral questionnaire method</li><li>➤ V ital and health statistics</li><li>➤ V</li><li>➤ E cological studies Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ E</li><li>➤ Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Food balance sheet</li><li>➤ Socio-economic factors</li><li>➤ Health and educational services</li><li>➤ Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 739)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 739)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Among the following conditions, which one does NOT fall under the classification of 'xerophthalmia'?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Conjunctival xerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Corneal xerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Retinal xerosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lachrymal xerosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lachrymal xerosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-101458.png", "https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/l39Llz7PNL38-HlRNEoBuMCMgPQM-nVbJfDKhSO0Id-pUjNGtdJqoGpE72BKXh5Z_jyy-zZ5cu_8at77uor4wO2No3M8OlM4w1CxJiHfbEa50iJd82pqf-0xlKCx1I7fHPUVW7M4mE_gy8fUELEjA2s", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-101801.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lachrymal xerosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to dryness of eyes or Xerophthalmia.</li><li>• Deficiency</li><li>• Vitamin A</li><li>• dryness of eyes</li><li>• WHO Grading of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li><li>• WHO Grading of Vitamin A Deficiency:</li><li>• Xerophthalmia is most common in children aged 1 - 3 years ‘ First clinical sign’ of Vitamin-A deficiency : Conjunctival xerosis ‘ First clinical symptom’ of Vitamin-A deficiency: Night blindness Conjunctival xerosis in Xerophthalmia has a characteristic appearance of ‘emerging like sand banks at receding tide Bitot’s Spots’ are triangular, pearly-white or yellowish , foamy spots on bulbar conjunctiva , on either side of cornea ; In young children they indicate Vitamin-A deficiency, whereas in adults they are often inactive sequelae of earlier disease</li><li>• Xerophthalmia is most common in children aged 1 - 3 years</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• common</li><li>• children aged 1 - 3 years</li><li>• ‘ First clinical sign’ of Vitamin-A deficiency : Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>• First clinical sign’</li><li>• Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>• Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>• ‘ First clinical symptom’ of Vitamin-A deficiency: Night blindness</li><li>• First clinical symptom’</li><li>• Night blindness</li><li>• Conjunctival xerosis in Xerophthalmia has a characteristic appearance of ‘emerging like sand banks at receding tide</li><li>• Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Bitot’s Spots’ are triangular, pearly-white or yellowish , foamy spots on bulbar conjunctiva , on either side of cornea ; In young children they indicate Vitamin-A deficiency, whereas in adults they are often inactive sequelae of earlier disease</li><li>• Bitot’s Spots’</li><li>• triangular, pearly-white or yellowish</li><li>• foamy spots</li><li>• bulbar conjunctiva</li><li>• either side of cornea</li><li>• Image showing Bitot’s Spot</li><li>• Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li><li>• Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to dryness of eyes or Xerophthalmia. First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency is Conjunctival xerosis . First clinical symptom of Vitamin-A deficiency is Night blindness.</li><li>➤ Deficiency</li><li>➤ Vitamin A</li><li>➤ dryness of eyes</li><li>➤ First clinical sign</li><li>➤ Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>➤ Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a nutritional counseling session, a registered dietitian is discussing protein quality with a patient who follows a vegetarian diet. The patient is considering soybean as a primary source of protein. The dietitian emphasizes the importance of complementing plant-based proteins with other sources to achieve a balanced amino acid profile. Which of the following essential amino acids is the most likely to be in the smallest amount relative to the body's needs in soybean?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lysine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Threonine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tryptophan", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methionine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Methionine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Methionine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Soyabean</li><li>• Soyabean</li><li>• Soyabean is richest among pulses – It contains 43.2% proteins (Proteins of soya bean are of high nutritive value), 20% fats and 4% of minerals Soya bean is also relatively richer in Calcium, Iron and Vitamin B as compared to other pulses</li><li>• Soyabean is richest among pulses – It contains 43.2% proteins (Proteins of soya bean are of high nutritive value), 20% fats and 4% of minerals</li><li>• Soyabean</li><li>• richest</li><li>• pulses</li><li>• 43.2% proteins</li><li>• 20% fats</li><li>• 4% of minerals</li><li>• Soya bean is also relatively richer in Calcium, Iron and Vitamin B as compared to other pulses</li><li>• richer in Calcium, Iron and Vitamin B</li><li>• NPU of Soyabean is 55</li><li>• NPU of Soyabean is 55</li><li>• Limiting amino acid in soyabean is Methionine (Note that Pulses are deficient in Methionine and Cysteine while Cereals are deficient in Lysine and Threonine)</li><li>• Limiting amino acid in soyabean is Methionine</li><li>• Pulses</li><li>• Cereals</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Limiting amino acid in soyabean is methionine</li><li>➤ Limiting amino acid</li><li>➤ soyabean</li><li>➤ methionine</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 718)</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th edition (page 718)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old nursing mother visits the clinic for a routine check-up six weeks postpartum. The healthcare provider reviews her nutritional needs to ensure optimal health for both her and the baby. The provider emphasizes the importance of iodine in her diet for proper thyroid function and for supporting the baby's growth and brain development through breast milk. What is the recommended daily intake of iodine for this lactating mother?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "150", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "180", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "250", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "280", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 280", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-101955.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-102034.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 280</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• India had adopted WHO guideline of Iodine requirement 150 mcg per day in Adults , 250 mcg per day in Pregnancy and 280 mcg per day in Lactation</li><li>• India</li><li>• adopted WHO guideline</li><li>• Iodine</li><li>• 150 mcg per day</li><li>• Adults</li><li>• 250 mcg per day</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• 280 mcg per day in Lactation</li><li>• Note: US recommended daily allowances (RDA) for iodine intake are 150 mcg in adults, 220-250 mcg in pregnant women, and 250-290 mcg in lactating women.</li><li>• Some noteworthy daily requirements:</li><li>• daily requirements:</li><li>• Indicators for epidemiological assessment of iodine deficiency :</li><li>• Indicators</li><li>• epidemiological assessment</li><li>• iodine deficiency</li><li>• Prevalence of goitre Prevalence of cretinism Urinary iodine excretion Measurement of thyroid function (T4, TSH) Prevalence of neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• Prevalence of goitre</li><li>• Prevalence of cretinism</li><li>• Urinary iodine excretion</li><li>• Measurement of thyroid function (T4, TSH)</li><li>• Prevalence of neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• Criteria for tracking progress toward IDD elimination :</li><li>• Criteria for tracking progress toward IDD elimination</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Iodine requirement 150 mcg per day in Adults , 250 mcg per day in Pregnancy and 280 mcg per day in Lactation</li><li>➤ Iodine</li><li>➤ 150 mcg per day in Adults</li><li>➤ 250 mcg per day</li><li>➤ Pregnancy</li><li>➤ 280 mcg per day</li><li>➤ Lactation</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with concerns about night blindness and xerosis cutis. As part of his evaluation, the physician considers potential nutritional deficiencies that could contribute to his symptoms. Based on these clinical features, a deficiency in which vitamin is suspected, and what is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for this vitamin for an adult male of his age?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "1500", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2500", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-102206.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A.1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Daily requirement of Vitamin A in adult males and females in 1000 microgram/day .</li><li>• Daily requirement</li><li>• Vitamin A</li><li>• adult males</li><li>• females</li><li>• 1000 microgram/day</li><li>• RDA of Vitamin A</li><li>• RDA of Vitamin A</li><li>• Adult Male: 1000 mcg/day Adult Female: 840 mcg/day Pregnancy: 900 mcg/day Lactation: 950 mcg/day</li><li>• Adult Male: 1000 mcg/day</li><li>• Adult Female: 840 mcg/day</li><li>• Pregnancy: 900 mcg/day</li><li>• Lactation: 950 mcg/day</li><li>• RDA of some important nutrients</li><li>• RDA of some important nutrients</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The RDA for vitamin A for an adult male is 1000 µg of retinol equivalents per day.</li><li>➤ RDA for vitamin A</li><li>➤ adult male</li><li>➤ 1000 µg</li><li>➤ retinol equivalents</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 726)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A postgraduate student of public health nutrition is planning to visit the premier nutrition research institute in India as a part of their field training. They aim to learn about the latest research in nutritional science and dietary guidelines. Where should the student plan their visit to find the National Institute of Nutrition, which serves as the apex body for nutrition research in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Chennai", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bangalore", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hyderabad", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chandigarh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Hyderabad", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/01/27/screenshot-2024-01-27-130334.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Hyderabad</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Institute of Nutrition is located at Hyderabad .</li><li>• National Institute of Nutrition</li><li>• Hyderabad</li><li>• NIN, Hyderabad important efforts</li><li>• Devised Two-in-one salt / Twin Fortified Salt / Double Fortified Salt’ (DFS) -It contains salt , potassium iodate , ferrous sulphate and sodium hexa meta phosphate . DFS provides 40 mcg Iodine and 1 mg Iron per gram of salt.</li><li>• Devised Two-in-one salt</li><li>• Twin Fortified Salt</li><li>• Double Fortified Salt’</li><li>• salt</li><li>• potassium iodate</li><li>• ferrous sulphate</li><li>• sodium hexa meta phosphate</li><li>• Developed New Nutrition guideline (RDA Energy requirement, Reference Indian Man and Women)</li><li>• Community-based intervention against nutritional blindness is evolved by NIN</li><li>• Mid-day meal program (MDMP): NIN is of the view that the minimum number of feeding days in the year be 250 to have the desired impact on children</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Institutes of Public Health Importance in India</li><li>➤ Institutes of Public Health Importance in India</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man from a rural community presents with complaints of severe joint stiffness and deformities in his lower limbs. On examination, you note multiple dental discolorations and bony outgrowths. You suspect chronic fluoride toxicity leading to skeletal fluorosis. Based on the water supply analysis, at what concentration of fluoride in the drinking water is there a significant risk of crippling fluorosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 mg/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "20 mg/L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 10 mg/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/_RR-Xaz3JjBeBzTrg_EZg5v23rF4SNqlXRo__wNqxaL7C6qtSnXLxX8A_5TOgJvXoRXzXgVSu4Z5RPz63B6yJ9R3nbu2nxJNtMMip0rJSah-KT3pv77zDlrL0QwoA3xm7yQJgbKQ8q7MIgq9oJbpq8s", "https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/RanNiAQuQxNgt7JSGb2x4keYrye0OG4GbNPM1ojS9q38gRLfoeXa584i_5Hrsm5_TGlordYIjIYDKLjN0cHPd8L549o5JesrHlBRMPLf7OlieiVZ37i7yq8slsOv8YK9CL0lCrXckZJGfS8h5fAORH0", "https://d3i71xaburhd42.cloudfront.net/afc5d20f6706e7792b417d73365842718690c244/5-Figure5-1.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/03/image_beeYZfO.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-102533.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 10 mg/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Crippling fluorosis is a severe form of skeletal fluorosis that occurs due to long-term ingestion of water with high levels of fluoride . Typically, this condition becomes manifest at concentrations of fluoride in the drinking water that exceed 10 mg/L . At this level , the fluoride can cause significant calcification of ligaments , severe bone deformities , and even immobility .</li><li>• Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• severe form</li><li>• skeletal fluorosis</li><li>• long-term ingestion</li><li>• water</li><li>• high levels of fluoride</li><li>• manifest</li><li>• concentrations of fluoride</li><li>• drinking water</li><li>• exceed 10 mg/L</li><li>• level</li><li>• fluoride</li><li>• calcification of ligaments</li><li>• severe bone deformities</li><li>• immobility</li><li>• Fluorine</li><li>• Fluorine</li><li>• Recommended level in drinking water in India : 0.5–0.8 mg/litre (ppm). In temperate countries where water intake is low, the optimum level of fluorides in drinking water is accepted as 1–2 mg/litre Major source of fluorine to man: Drinking water Fluorine is a double edged sword - Inadequate intake is associated with dental caries , whereas, excess intake with dental and skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 1.5 ppm : Dental fluorosis (mottling - best seen on incisors of upper jaw) Level 3.0–6.0 ppm : Skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 10.0 ppm : Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• Recommended level in drinking water in India : 0.5–0.8 mg/litre (ppm). In temperate countries where water intake is low, the optimum level of fluorides in drinking water is accepted as 1–2 mg/litre</li><li>• level in drinking water in India</li><li>• 0.5–0.8 mg/litre</li><li>• Major source of fluorine to man: Drinking water</li><li>• Major source</li><li>• fluorine</li><li>• Drinking water</li><li>• Fluorine is a double edged sword - Inadequate intake is associated with dental caries , whereas, excess intake with dental and skeletal fluorosis</li><li>• Fluorine</li><li>• double edged sword</li><li>• Inadequate intake</li><li>• dental caries</li><li>• excess intake</li><li>• dental</li><li>• Level &gt; 1.5 ppm : Dental fluorosis (mottling - best seen on incisors of upper jaw)</li><li>• Level &gt; 1.5 ppm</li><li>• Dental fluorosis</li><li>• Level 3.0–6.0 ppm : Skeletal fluorosis</li><li>• Level 3.0–6.0 ppm</li><li>• Skeletal fluorosis</li><li>• Level &gt; 10.0 ppm : Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• Level &gt; 10.0 ppm</li><li>• Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• Dental Fluorosis</li><li>• Skeletal Fluorosis</li><li>• Crippling Fluorosis</li><li>• Fluorosis</li><li>• Fluorosis</li><li>• Dental fluorosis occurs when excess fluoride is ingested during first 7 years of life (years of tooth calcification). Fluorosis endemic area : Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt;1.5 ppm in drinking water Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content</li><li>• Dental fluorosis occurs when excess fluoride is ingested during first 7 years of life (years of tooth calcification).</li><li>• Dental fluorosis</li><li>• excess fluoride</li><li>• ingested</li><li>• first 7 years of life</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area : Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt;1.5 ppm in drinking water</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area</li><li>• Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluorine is a double-edged sword - Inadequate intake is associated with dental caries , whereas, excess intake with dental and skeletal fluorosis . When a concentration of fluorine in drinking water exceeds 10 mg/L (ppm), it leads to crippling fluorosis.</li><li>➤ Fluorine</li><li>➤ double-edged sword</li><li>➤ Inadequate intake</li><li>➤ dental caries</li><li>➤ excess intake</li><li>➤ dental</li><li>➤ skeletal fluorosis</li><li>➤ Recommended level in drinking water in India : 0.5–0.8 mg/litre (ppm).</li><li>➤ drinking water in India</li><li>➤ 0.5–0.8 mg/litre</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health student is assigned a project on environmental health challenges and their mitigation strategies in India. Part of the project requires an analysis of research conducted by the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI). To begin their project, the student plans to visit NEERI to review the groundbreaking work done in environmental engineering and related sciences. Which of the following locations should the student plan to visit to find NEERI?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hyderabad", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "New Delhi", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bangalore", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Nagpur", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Nagpur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/18/abcd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Nagpur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is a research institute created and funded by the Government of India . It was established in Nagpur in 1958 with a focus on water supply , sewage disposal , communicable diseases , to some extent on industrial pollution , and occupational diseases found common in post-independent India . NEERI is a pioneer laboratory in the field of environmental science and engineering and part of India's Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).</li><li>• National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI)</li><li>• research institute</li><li>• created</li><li>• funded by the Government of India</li><li>• Nagpur</li><li>• 1958</li><li>• focus on water supply</li><li>• sewage disposal</li><li>• communicable diseases</li><li>• industrial pollution</li><li>• occupational diseases</li><li>• post-independent India</li><li>• Note - Nalgonda Technique has been developed by NEERI, Nagpur for defluoridation of water</li><li>• Note</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Institutes of Public Health Importance in India</li><li>➤ Institutes of Public Health Importance in India</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 734)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 734)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a population-level study aiming to estimate food consumption patterns, researchers opt for an indirect approach that correlates available food supply data with demographic information to ascertain average food consumption per person. What is this method of assessment known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Weighment of raw food", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weighment of cooked food", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oral questionnaire method", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Food balance sheet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Food balance sheet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Food balance sheet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Food balance sheet: This is an indirect method of assessing food consumption , in which supplies are related to census population to derive levels of food consumption in terms of per capita supply availability . The great advantage of this method is that it is cheaper and probably simpler than any method of direct assessment . Used intelligently, this method does give an indication of the general pattern of food consumption in the country.</li><li>• Food balance sheet:</li><li>• indirect method</li><li>• assessing food consumption</li><li>• supplies</li><li>• census population</li><li>• derive levels of food consumption</li><li>• per capita supply availability</li><li>• great advantage</li><li>• cheaper</li><li>• simpler</li><li>• method of direct assessment</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Assessment of nutritional status: [ Mnemonic: CABFAVE ]</li><li>➤ Mnemonic: CABFAVE</li><li>➤ C linical examination</li><li>➤ C</li><li>➤ A nthropometry</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ L aboratory and Biochemical evaluation</li><li>➤ L</li><li>➤ Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine Biochemical tests F unctional assessment A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method V ital and health statistics E cological studies Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Laboratory tests - 1. Hemoglobin; 2. Stools and urine</li><li>➤ Biochemical tests</li><li>➤ F unctional assessment</li><li>➤ F</li><li>➤ A ssessment of dietary intake Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method V ital and health statistics</li><li>➤ A</li><li>➤ Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days) Weighment of cooked foods Oral questionnaire method V ital and health statistics</li><li>➤ Weighment of raw foods (Dietary cycle - 7 days)</li><li>➤ Weighment of cooked foods</li><li>➤ Oral questionnaire method</li><li>➤ V ital and health statistics</li><li>➤ V</li><li>➤ E cological studies</li><li>➤ E</li><li>➤ Food balance sheet Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Food balance sheet</li><li>➤ Socio-economic factors Health and educational services Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Socio-economic factors</li><li>➤ Health and educational services</li><li>➤ Conditioning influences</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 740)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 740)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old female with a history of a strict fat-free diet presents with a dry, scaly rash, alopecia, and thrombocytopenia. These findings suggest a deficiency in which of the following component?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linoleic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Palmitic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stearic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Linoleic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• EFA deficiency (Linoleic acid) lead to ‘Phrynoderma’ (Toad Skin): It is characterized by rough rash like eruptions on the back and sides of arms and legs , the back , and the buttocks . It can be cured by giving ‘linseed of safflower oil’ which are rich in EFAs</li><li>• EFA deficiency (Linoleic acid)</li><li>• ‘Phrynoderma’</li><li>• rough rash</li><li>• eruptions</li><li>• back and sides of arms and legs</li><li>• back</li><li>• buttocks</li><li>• cured</li><li>• ‘linseed of safflower oil’</li><li>• Essential Fatty Acids (EFA):</li><li>• Essential Fatty Acids (EFA):</li><li>• EFAs are those that cannot be synthesized completely in human body ; they can only be supplemented from the food Most important EFA is Linoleic Acid , which serves as a basis for production of other EFA EFA were earlier known as ‘ Vitamin F’ Omega-3s are more associated with reducing the risk of coronary heart disease and supporting cognitive function. Omega-6: Omega-3 Fatty Acids ratio in diet is ideally recommended to be 1:1 to 4:1 (IDEAL FAT)</li><li>• EFAs are those that cannot be synthesized completely in human body ; they can only be supplemented from the food</li><li>• EFAs</li><li>• synthesized completely in human body</li><li>• supplemented</li><li>• food</li><li>• Most important EFA is Linoleic Acid , which serves as a basis for production of other EFA</li><li>• Linoleic Acid</li><li>• basis for production</li><li>• EFA</li><li>• EFA were earlier known as ‘ Vitamin F’</li><li>• Vitamin F’</li><li>• Omega-3s are more associated with reducing the risk of coronary heart disease and supporting cognitive function.</li><li>• Omega-6: Omega-3 Fatty Acids ratio in diet is ideally recommended to be 1:1 to 4:1 (IDEAL FAT)</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Option B. Palmitic acid and C. Stearic acid are non-essential saturated fatty acids, and their deficiency is not typically associated with these symptoms.</li><li>• Option B. Palmitic acid</li><li>• C. Stearic acid</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ EFA deficiency (Linoleic acid) leads to Phrynoderma (Toad Skin): Rough rash-like eruptions on the back and sides of arms and legs, back, and buttocks</li><li>➤ EFA deficiency (Linoleic acid)</li><li>➤ Phrynoderma</li><li>➤ Rough rash-like eruptions</li><li>➤ back</li><li>➤ sides of arms</li><li>➤ legs, back, and buttocks</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 702)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 702)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following is caused due to the deficiency of?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Iodine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin A", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/29/16.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-103820.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/27/screenshot-2024-02-27-170625_YFnrgxJ.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-103912.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bitot’s spots are triangular, pearly-white , or yellowish, foamy spots on the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the cornea . They are frequently bilateral . Bitot’s spots in young children usually indicate vitamin A deficiency .</li><li>• Bitot’s spots</li><li>• triangular, pearly-white</li><li>• yellowish,</li><li>• foamy spots</li><li>• bulbar conjunctiva</li><li>• side of the cornea</li><li>• bilateral</li><li>• Bitot’s spots</li><li>• young children</li><li>• vitamin A deficiency</li><li>• WHO Grading of Vitamin a Deficiency:</li><li>• WHO Grading of Vitamin a Deficiency:</li><li>• Xerophthalmia is most common in children aged 1 - 3 years</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• children aged 1 - 3 years</li><li>• Vitamin A Deficiency: Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Vitamin A Deficiency: Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li><li>• Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community: (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years).</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency - Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>➤ First clinical sign</li><li>➤ Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>➤ Conjunctival xerosis</li><li>➤ First clinical symptom of Vitamin-A deficiency - Night blindness</li><li>➤ First clinical symptom</li><li>➤ Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>➤ Night blindness</li><li>➤ Bitot's spot is the indication of Vit. A deficiency (Prevalence Criteria - Bitot's spot &gt;0.5%)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 702)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 702)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument :", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Harpenden’s skin calliper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shakir’s tape", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inch tape", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salter’s scale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Shakir’s tape", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture61.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/02/27/screenshot-2024-02-27-153044.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Shakir’s tape</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• It is used to measure mid-upper arm circumference . This parameter is age-independent and is used to assess nutritional status .</li><li>• measure mid-upper arm circumference</li><li>• parameter</li><li>• age-independent</li><li>• assess nutritional status</li><li>• MAC is measured for the age group 6 months - 5 years (as it remains practically constant during this age)</li><li>• MAC</li><li>• age group 6 months</li><li>• 5 years</li><li>• Interpretation of Shakir’s tape findings:</li><li>• Interpretation of Shakir’s tape findings:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO classification of MUAC:</li><li>➤ WHO classification of MUAC:</li><li>➤ No Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is MUAC &gt; 11.5 cm ; or WFH &gt; -3SD ; and no bilateral pedal oedema : Nutrition counselling to mother/caregiver Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is WFH &lt;–3SD / and/or severe visible wasting and/or bilateral pedal oedema and/or MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm No medical complications*: Refer to VHND or subcenter to be further assessment and counseling by ANM Any one medical complication*: Immediate referral to NRC</li><li>➤ No Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is MUAC &gt; 11.5 cm ; or WFH &gt; -3SD ; and no bilateral pedal oedema : Nutrition counselling to mother/caregiver</li><li>➤ No Severe Acute Malnutrition</li><li>➤ MUAC &gt; 11.5 cm</li><li>➤ WFH &gt; -3SD</li><li>➤ no bilateral pedal oedema</li><li>➤ Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) is WFH &lt;–3SD / and/or severe visible wasting and/or bilateral pedal oedema and/or MUAC &lt; 11.5 cm</li><li>➤ Severe Acute Malnutrition</li><li>➤ WFH &lt;–3SD</li><li>➤ No medical complications*: Refer to VHND or subcenter to be further assessment and counseling by ANM</li><li>➤ Any one medical complication*: Immediate referral to NRC</li><li>➤ Medical complications include poor appetite , visible severe wasting , edema of both feet , severe palmar pallor , any sick young infant (&lt;2 months old), lethargy , drowsiness , unconsciousness , continually irritable and restless, any respiratory distress, signs suggesting severe dehydration in a child with diarrhoea</li><li>➤ Medical complications</li><li>➤ poor appetite</li><li>➤ visible severe wasting</li><li>➤ edema of both feet</li><li>➤ severe palmar pallor</li><li>➤ sick young infant</li><li>➤ lethargy</li><li>➤ drowsiness</li><li>➤ unconsciousness</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.unicef.org/supply/media/4001/file/%20MUAC-tape-child-specification-May2020.pdf</li><li>➤ Ref:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Harpenden calliper", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shakir’s tape", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inch tape", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salter’s scale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Harpenden calliper", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture62.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Harpenden calliper</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A large proportion of total body fat is located just under the skin . Since it is most accessible , the method most used is the measurement of skinfold thickness . It is a rapid “non-invasive” method for assessing body fat . Several varieties of callipers (e.g., Harpenden skin callipers) are available for the purpose.</li><li>• large proportion</li><li>• total body fat</li><li>• under the skin</li><li>• accessible</li><li>• measurement of skinfold thickness</li><li>• rapid “non-invasive”</li><li>• assessing body fat</li><li>• Skin fold thickness (SFT)</li><li>• Skin fold thickness (SFT)</li><li>• Rapid &amp; non-invasive method of fat assessment Herpenden skin callipers’ are good for estimation of SFT Main drawback : Poor repeatability (Poor precision) Measurement at 4 sites : Mid-triceps, biceps, sub-scapular, supra-iliac regions Sum &gt; 50 mm in girls indicate obesity Sum &gt; 40 mm in boys indicate obesity Single best measurement site of skin fold thickness : Mid triceps 18 mm in boys indicate obesity 32 mm in girls indicate obesity</li><li>• Rapid &amp; non-invasive method of fat assessment</li><li>• Rapid</li><li>• non-invasive method</li><li>• fat assessment</li><li>• Herpenden skin callipers’ are good for estimation of SFT</li><li>• Herpenden skin callipers’</li><li>• Main drawback : Poor repeatability (Poor precision)</li><li>• Main drawback</li><li>• Measurement at 4 sites : Mid-triceps, biceps, sub-scapular, supra-iliac regions Sum &gt; 50 mm in girls indicate obesity Sum &gt; 40 mm in boys indicate obesity</li><li>• Measurement at 4 sites</li><li>• Sum &gt; 50 mm in girls indicate obesity Sum &gt; 40 mm in boys indicate obesity</li><li>• Sum &gt; 50 mm in girls indicate obesity</li><li>• Sum &gt; 40 mm in boys indicate obesity</li><li>• Single best measurement site of skin fold thickness : Mid triceps 18 mm in boys indicate obesity 32 mm in girls indicate obesity</li><li>• Single best measurement site</li><li>• skin fold thickness</li><li>• 18 mm in boys indicate obesity 32 mm in girls indicate obesity</li><li>• 18 mm in boys indicate obesity</li><li>• 32 mm in girls indicate obesity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herpenden skin callipers’ are good for estimation of Skin Fold Thickness (SFT) and Single best measurement site of skin fold thickness is Mid triceps</li><li>➤ Herpenden skin callipers’</li><li>➤ Skin Fold Thickness</li><li>➤ Single best measurement site</li><li>➤ skin fold</li><li>➤ Mid triceps</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 446)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 446)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following condition is caused by:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Caries by microorganisms", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iodine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Fluorine", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/29/22.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-104311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Fluorine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Fluorosis of dental enamel occurs when excess fluoride is ingested during the years of tooth calcification - essentially during the first 7 years of life . It is characterized by “mottling ” of dental enamel , which has been reported at levels above 1.5 mg/L intake</li><li>• Fluorosis</li><li>• dental enamel</li><li>• excess fluoride</li><li>• ingested</li><li>• years</li><li>• tooth calcification</li><li>• first 7 years of life</li><li>• “mottling</li><li>• dental enamel</li><li>• levels above 1.5 mg/L intake</li><li>• Recommended level in drinking water in India : 0.5–0.8 mg/litre (ppm). In temperate countries where water intake is low , the optimum level of fluorides in drinking water is accepted as 1–2 mg/litre</li><li>• level in drinking water in India</li><li>• 0.5–0.8 mg/litre</li><li>• temperate countries</li><li>• water intake is low</li><li>• optimum level of fluorides</li><li>• drinking water</li><li>• 1–2 mg/litre</li><li>• Major source of fluorine to man is Drinking water</li><li>• Major source</li><li>• fluorine</li><li>• man</li><li>• Drinking water</li><li>• Fluorine is a double edged sword : Inadequate intake is associated with ‘dental caries’ whereas excess intake with ‘ dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>• Fluorine</li><li>• double edged sword</li><li>• ‘dental caries’</li><li>• excess intake</li><li>• dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>• Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling) Level 3.0–6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• Level &gt; 1.5 ppm: Dental fluorosis (mottling)</li><li>• Level 3.0–6.0 ppm: Skeletal fluorosis</li><li>• Level &gt; 10.0 ppm: Crippling fluorosis</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area : Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt;1.5 ppm in drinking water</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area</li><li>• Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Fluorine is a double edged sword : Inadequate intake is associated with ‘ dental caries’ whereas excess intake with ‘ dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>➤ Fluorine</li><li>➤ double edged sword</li><li>➤ Inadequate intake</li><li>➤ dental caries’</li><li>➤ excess intake</li><li>➤ dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 733)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old bodybuilder is aiming to increase his protein intake to enhance muscle growth and recovery. He is considering various food options and is specifically interested in understanding which food source provides the highest amount of protein per 100 grams. Which of the following food items offers the most grams of protein per 100 grams?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Milk", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Meat", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Egg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fish", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Meat", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Meat</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Milk - 3.2-4.3 gm protein / 100 g of food</li><li>• Option A. Milk</li><li>• Option C. Egg - 13.0 gm protein / 100 g of food</li><li>• Option C. Egg</li><li>• Option D. Fish - 15.0-23.0 gm protein / 100 g of food</li><li>• Option D. Fish</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some important Pointers -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Pulse with highest protein content - Soybean (43%)</li><li>↳ Pulse</li><li>↳ highest protein content</li><li>↳ Soybean</li><li>↳ Highest protein content is in food item - Soyabean</li><li>↳ Highest protein content</li><li>↳ food item</li><li>↳ Soyabean</li><li>↳ Best among food proteins - Egg</li><li>↳ food proteins</li><li>↳ Egg</li><li>↳ Reference protein Egg (NPU 96)</li><li>↳ Pulse proteins are poor in - Methionine</li><li>↳ Pulse proteins</li><li>↳ poor</li><li>↳ Protein requirement of an adult – 0.7 gm/kg/day in terms of Egg protein or 1.0 gm/kg/day in terms of mixed vegetable protein (NEW GUIDELINE: 0.83 g/kg/d)</li><li>↳ Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recommended 1.0 gm protein per kg of body weight for an Indian adult, assuming a NPU of 65 for dietary proteins.</li><li>↳ Methods of Assessing Protein Quality: [NEW GUIDELINES 2014] – Digestible indispensable Amino Acid Score (DIAAS) is the BEST indicator</li><li>↳ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 700)</li><li>↳ Ref</li><li>↳ : Park 26 th edition (page 700)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old woman with a history of chronic inflammation is advised to increase her intake of essential fatty acids to improve her health condition. She seeks your guidance to understand which essential fatty acid is considered the most important for human health. Which of the following is the most important essential fatty acid?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Linoleic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Linolenic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Arachidonic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Eicosapentaenoic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Linoleic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-105311.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Linoleic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The most important essential fatty acid (EFA) is linoleic acid which serves as a basis for production of other essential fatty acids . It is essential because it cannot be produced inside the human body on its own.</li><li>• essential fatty acid</li><li>• linoleic acid</li><li>• serves as a basis</li><li>• production</li><li>• essential fatty acids</li><li>• Dietary source of Linoleic acid - Safflower oil (73% - reachest), Corn oil (57%), Sunflower oil (56%), Soyabean oil (51%)</li><li>• Dietary source</li><li>• Linoleic acid</li><li>• Safflower oil (73% - reachest),</li><li>• It can be used to produce other EFA like Linolenic and Arachidonic acid in the body.</li><li>• produce other EFA like Linolenic</li><li>• Arachidonic acid</li><li>• EFA deficiency lead to ‘ Phrenoderma’ (Toad Skin): Rough rash like eruptions on back and sides of arms and legs, back, and buttocks</li><li>• EFA deficiency</li><li>• Phrenoderma’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Essential fatty acids</li><li>➤ Essential fatty acids</li><li>➤ Safflower oil is the richest source of Linoleic acid , most important Essential Fatty Acid Flaxseed Oil is the richest source of Linolenic Acid Fish is the richest source of Eicosapentaenoic acid .</li><li>➤ Safflower oil is the richest source of Linoleic acid , most important Essential Fatty Acid</li><li>➤ Safflower oil</li><li>➤ richest source</li><li>➤ Linoleic acid</li><li>➤ Essential Fatty Acid</li><li>➤ Flaxseed Oil is the richest source of Linolenic Acid</li><li>➤ Flaxseed Oil</li><li>➤ richest source</li><li>➤ Linolenic Acid</li><li>➤ Fish is the richest source of Eicosapentaenoic acid .</li><li>➤ Fish</li><li>➤ richest source</li><li>➤ Eicosapentaenoic acid</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 700)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 700)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old male office worker with a sedentary lifestyle is looking to improve his overall health and seeks advice on daily dietary fat intake. Based on the Indian dietary guidelines, what is the recommended minimum intake of visible fat for this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 g/ day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "25 g/ day", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "35 g/ day", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 g/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 25 g/ day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/21/fat-intake.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 25 g/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The minimum fat intake in men and women is dependent on the activity levels which is as follows</li><li>• minimum fat intake</li><li>• men and women</li><li>• dependent</li><li>• activity levels</li><li>• </li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ The recommended minimum intake of visible fat for an Indian adult male with sedentary activity is 25 grams per day (&amp; for Female is 20 gm/day). This ensures adequate intake of essential fatty acids and fat-soluble vitamins while minimizing the risk of health complications associated with high fat intake.</li><li>➤ </li><li>➤ minimum intake</li><li>➤ visible fat for an Indian adult male</li><li>➤ sedentary activity</li><li>➤ 25 grams per day</li><li>➤ ensures adequate intake</li><li>➤ fatty acids</li><li>➤ fat-soluble vitamins</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 703)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 703)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old diabetic patient is working on improving her diet to better manage her blood sugar levels. She is particularly interested in understanding the glycemic index of different foods and how they can impact her glucose control. Which of the following food options has a low glycemic index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Potato", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Watermelon", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Corn flakes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lentils", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Lentils", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Lentils</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Glycemic Index of</li><li>• Option A . Potato - 65</li><li>• Option A</li><li>• 65</li><li>• Option B . Watermelon - 73</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• 73</li><li>• Option C . Corn flakes - 83</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• 83</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ GLYCEMIC INDEX OF FOOD ITEMS</li><li>➤ GLYCEMIC INDEX OF FOOD ITEMS</li><li>➤ Low GI (GI ≤ 55): Most fruits and vegetables (EXCEPT potato/watermelon/sweet potato), Whole grains, Beans, Pasta, Lentils Medium GI (GI 56 – 69): Sucrose , Basmati rice , Brown rice High GI (GI ≥ 70): Corn flakes , Baked potato , White bread , Candy bar, Syrupy food, Jasmine rice.</li><li>➤ Low GI (GI ≤ 55): Most fruits and vegetables (EXCEPT potato/watermelon/sweet potato), Whole grains, Beans, Pasta, Lentils</li><li>➤ Low GI</li><li>➤ fruits and vegetables</li><li>➤ Medium GI (GI 56 – 69): Sucrose , Basmati rice , Brown rice</li><li>➤ Medium GI</li><li>➤ Sucrose</li><li>➤ Basmati rice</li><li>➤ Brown rice</li><li>➤ High GI (GI ≥ 70): Corn flakes , Baked potato , White bread , Candy bar, Syrupy food, Jasmine rice.</li><li>➤ High GI</li><li>➤ Corn flakes</li><li>➤ Baked potato</li><li>➤ White bread</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old male patient is looking to improve his digestive health and prevent future episodes of constipation. He is discussing his daily dietary habits with his physician. Based on current dietary guidelines, what is the recommended daily intake of dietary fiber for an adult male?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "20 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "30 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "40 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 30 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 30 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal/day</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A daily intake of about 30 grams of dietary fibre per 2000 kcal is desirable .</li><li>• daily intake</li><li>• 30 grams of dietary fibre</li><li>• 2000 kcal</li><li>• desirable</li><li>• Dietary fibre is a non-starch polysaccharide and a physiologically important component of diet ; there are two types of dietary fibres:</li><li>• Dietary fibre</li><li>• non-starch polysaccharide</li><li>• physiologically</li><li>• component of diet</li><li>• Insoluble fibres : Cellulose, hemi-cellulose and lignin Soluble fibres : Pectins, gums and mucilages</li><li>• Insoluble fibres : Cellulose, hemi-cellulose and lignin</li><li>• Insoluble fibres</li><li>• Soluble fibres : Pectins, gums and mucilages</li><li>• Soluble fibres</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Traditional Indian diets provide about 50-100 grams of fibre per day</li><li>➤ Traditional Indian diets</li><li>➤ 50-100 grams</li><li>➤ fibre per day</li><li>➤ Cereals and pulses are good sources of fibre (&gt;10 gm fibre per 100 gm)</li><li>➤ Cereals and pulses</li><li>➤ sources of fibre</li><li>➤ Dietary fibre content : Ragi &gt; Cluster beans &gt; Maize &gt; Jowar &gt; Bajra/ Chick pea</li><li>➤ Dietary fibre content</li><li>➤ Richest source of Dietary fibre : Miller’s bran</li><li>➤ Richest source</li><li>➤ Dietary fibre</li><li>➤ Miller’s bran</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 704)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, weakness, and pallor. Her blood tests reveal a low hemoglobin level, and the physician suspects iron deficiency anemia. In order to confirm the diagnosis and evaluate her iron status more accurately, the physician decides to order additional tests. Which of the following is considered the single most sensitive tool for evaluating iron status in the body?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemoglobin concentration", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum iron", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum ferritin", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum transferrin saturation", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Serum ferritin", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Serum ferritin</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The single most sensitive tool for evaluating iron status in the body is by measurement of serum ferritin levels . Ferritin is a protein which stores iron in the body . When iron levels are low, the body use up its iron stores.</li><li>• single most</li><li>• sensitive tool</li><li>• evaluating iron status</li><li>• body</li><li>• measurement</li><li>• serum ferritin levels</li><li>• Ferritin</li><li>• protein</li><li>• stores iron in the body</li><li>• While the other tests like Haemoglobin concentration , Serum Iron and Serum transferrin saturation can also provide information about the iron status , Serum ferritin is considered to be the most sensitive tool.</li><li>• tests like Haemoglobin concentration</li><li>• Serum Iron</li><li>• Serum transferrin saturation</li><li>• information</li><li>• iron status</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Serum ferritin is the ‘ Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status’ , especially in populations with low prevalence of anemia</li><li>➤ Serum ferritin</li><li>➤ Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 713)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 713)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old female presents to the clinic with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On physical examination, she has a noticeably enlarged thyroid gland. You suspect iodine deficiency might be a contributing factor to her condition. In reviewing community health data to assess the potential for environmental iodine deficiency, which of the following would be considered the most sensitive indicator?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neonatal hypothyroidism", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Serum T4 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Serum T3 levels", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serum TSH levels", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Neonatal hypothyroidism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Neonatal hypothyroidism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Neonatal hypothyroidism has been found to be a sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency . Serum T4 level is a more sensitive indicator of thyroid insufficiency than T3 .</li><li>• Neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• sensitive indicator</li><li>• environmental iodine deficiency</li><li>• Serum T4 level</li><li>• sensitive indicator</li><li>• thyroid insufficiency</li><li>• T3</li><li>• Neonatal hypothyroidism (NNH):</li><li>• Neonatal hypothyroidism (NNH):</li><li>• Most common neonatal disorder to be screened is Neonatal hypothyroidism (NNH) Blood sample of choice: Umbilical cord blood Detection of: TSH, T4</li><li>• Most common neonatal disorder to be screened is Neonatal hypothyroidism (NNH)</li><li>• Blood sample of choice: Umbilical cord blood</li><li>• Umbilical cord blood</li><li>• Detection of: TSH, T4</li><li>• Criteria and Indicators in IDD Control &amp; Elimination</li><li>• Criteria and Indicators in IDD Control &amp; Elimination</li><li>• Indicators for epidemiological assessment of Iodine Deficiency :</li><li>• Indicators</li><li>• epidemiological assessment</li><li>• Iodine Deficiency</li><li>• Prevalence of Goitre Prevalence of Cretinism Urinary Iodine Excretion Measurement of Thyroid function Prevalence of Neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• Prevalence of Goitre</li><li>• Prevalence of Cretinism</li><li>• Urinary Iodine Excretion</li><li>• Measurement of Thyroid function</li><li>• Prevalence of Neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• Neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>• Epidemiological Criteria for Assessing severity of Iodine deficiency disorders :</li><li>• Epidemiological Criteria</li><li>• Assessing severity</li><li>• Iodine deficiency disorders</li><li>• Total Goitre Rate Median Urinary Iodine Excretion USG Thyroid Salt Iodine Content</li><li>• Total Goitre Rate</li><li>• Median Urinary Iodine Excretion</li><li>• Median Urinary Iodine Excretion</li><li>• USG Thyroid</li><li>• Salt Iodine Content</li><li>• Criteria for Sustainable Elimination of Iodine Deficiency Disorders :</li><li>• Sustainable Elimination</li><li>• Iodine Deficiency Disorders</li><li>• Median Urinary Iodine Excretion Level of Iodization</li><li>• Median Urinary Iodine Excretion</li><li>• Level of Iodization</li><li>• Level of Iodization</li><li>• At production level: 30 ppm At consumer level: 15 ppm</li><li>• At production level: 30 ppm</li><li>• production</li><li>• 30</li><li>• At consumer level: 15 ppm</li><li>• consumer</li><li>• 15</li><li>• Total Goiter Rate &lt; 5%</li><li>• Total Goiter Rate &lt; 5%</li><li>• Indicators to monitor success of IDD control programme:</li><li>• Indicators to monitor success of IDD control programme:</li><li>• Process Indicators: Salt iodine content at different levels Impact Indicators : Urinary Iodine levels , Neonatal TSH levels, Goitre assessment.</li><li>• Process Indicators: Salt iodine content at different levels</li><li>• Impact Indicators : Urinary Iodine levels , Neonatal TSH levels, Goitre assessment.</li><li>• Impact Indicators</li><li>• Urinary Iodine levels</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Neonatal hypothyroidism has been found to be a sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency . Serum T4 level is a more sensitive indicator of thyroid insufficiency than T3 .</li><li>➤ Neonatal hypothyroidism</li><li>➤ sensitive indicator</li><li>➤ environmental iodine deficiency</li><li>➤ Serum T4 level</li><li>➤ sensitive indicator</li><li>➤ thyroid insufficiency</li><li>➤ T3</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 714)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 714)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A food processing company is looking to implement a new technique for parboiling rice to improve the nutritional value and cooking quality of the rice. The company's research team has been exploring various methods, and they are particularly interested in a technique recommended by a prestigious Indian research institute. Which of the following techniques, recommended by the Central Food Technological Research Institute, Mysore, is considered an effective method for parboiling rice?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hot soaking process", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Nalgonda technique", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Permutit Process", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Aerobic fermentation method", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Hot soaking process", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Hot soaking process</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Nalgonda technique has been developed by National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur for defluoridation of water . It involves addition of (in sequence) Lime → Alum (major role) → Bleaching powder ( Mnemonic: LAB )</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Nalgonda technique</li><li>• National Environmental Engineering Research Institute</li><li>• Nagpur</li><li>• defluoridation of water</li><li>• Mnemonic: LAB</li><li>• Option C. Permutit process is used in treatment of Hard water (remove temporary hardness of water)</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Permutit process</li><li>• treatment of Hard water</li><li>• Option D. Aerobic Fermentation method - The aerobic fermentation pre-treatment destroyed the physical structure of rice straw and depolymerized the cellulose and hemicellulose constituents of the fibers , which facilitated the fiber separation and fibrillation in the subsequent mechanical refining process.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Aerobic Fermentation method</li><li>• pre-treatment destroyed</li><li>• physical structure</li><li>• rice straw</li><li>• depolymerized the cellulose</li><li>• hemicellulose constituents</li><li>• fibers</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Hot Soaking Process is the technique recommended by the Central Food Technological Research Institute , Mysore , for parboiling rice . This process involves soaking, steaming, and drying the paddy rice to improve its nutritional value, cooking quality, and shelf life.</li><li>➤ Hot Soaking Process</li><li>➤ technique</li><li>➤ Central Food Technological Research Institute</li><li>➤ Mysore</li><li>➤ parboiling rice</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 717)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 717)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dietitian is explaining to a patient the concept of protein quality in different food items, focusing on the Net Protein Utilization (NPU), which measures how efficiently the body can use the ingested protein. The patient is particularly interested in understanding the protein quality of milk. Based on this, how would you classify the Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of milk?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "60", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "81", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "75", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "90", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 81", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-110035.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/02/image_UZllW7m.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 81</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• NPU of selected food items :</li><li>• NPU</li><li>• selected food items</li><li>• NPU of EGG is 96 . Since egg is a ‘reference protein’, its NPU is taken as 100 for comparison. (Highest NPU; Highest Quality)</li><li>• NPU</li><li>• EGG is 96</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Net Protein Utilization (NPU)</li><li>• Net Protein Utilization (NPU)</li><li>• NPU is a measure used to assess the quality of a protein source and its ability to support the body’s protein needs. It is calculated by comparing the amount of protein retained by the body after digestion and absorption to the amount of protein ingested.</li><li>• quality of a protein source and its ability to support the body’s protein needs.</li><li>• </li><li>• NPU is a good indicator of protein quality . In calculating protein quality, 1 gram of nitrogen is assumed to be equivalent to 6.25 grams of proteins. NPU of Indian diets: 50-80</li><li>• NPU</li><li>• good indicator</li><li>• protein quality</li><li>• 1 gram of nitrogen is assumed to be equivalent to 6.25 grams of proteins.</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recommended 1.0 gm protein per kg of body weight for an Indian adult , assuming a NPU of 65 for dietary proteins.</li><li>• Indian Council of Medical Research</li><li>• 1.0 gm protein per kg</li><li>• body weight</li><li>• Indian adult</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 720)</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 720)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A local health department is working to ensure the safety and quality of drinking water in a community. The team is particularly concerned about the levels of fluoride in the water, as both deficiency and excess of fluoride can have health implications. In this context, they are reviewing the recommended levels of fluoride in drinking water. What is the recommended level of fluoride in drinking water for optimal health?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.5 to 0.8 mg/L", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.5 to 0.8 g/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 to 6 mg/L", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "3 to 6 g/L", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-110234.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-110313.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in India is accepted as 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L (0.5-0.8 ppm).</li><li>• fluorides in drinking water</li><li>• 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L</li><li>• In temperate countries where water intake is low , the optimum level of fluorides in drinking water is accepted as 1 - 2 mg/litre</li><li>• temperate countries</li><li>• water intake is low</li><li>• optimum level</li><li>• fluorides</li><li>• drinking water</li><li>• 1 - 2 mg/litre</li><li>• Fluorine is a double-edged sword - Inadequate intake is associated with ‘ dental caries’ whereas excess intake with ‘ dental and skeletal fluorosis’ . The major source of fluorine - Drinking water</li><li>• Fluorine</li><li>• double-edged sword</li><li>• Inadequate intake</li><li>• dental caries’</li><li>• excess intake</li><li>• dental and skeletal fluorosis’</li><li>• Fluorosis</li><li>• Fluorosis</li><li>• Dental fluorosis occurs when excess fluoride is ingested during first 7 years of life (years of tooth calcification) – It occurs at levels above 1.5 mg/litre intake . It is characterized by ’ Mottling’ , which is best seen on incisors of upper jaw. Fluorosis endemic area : Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt;1.5 ppm in drinking water Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content:</li><li>• Dental fluorosis occurs when excess fluoride is ingested during first 7 years of life (years of tooth calcification) – It occurs at levels above 1.5 mg/litre intake . It is characterized by ’ Mottling’ , which is best seen on incisors of upper jaw.</li><li>• Dental fluorosis</li><li>• excess fluoride</li><li>• ingested</li><li>• first 7 years of life</li><li>• levels above 1.5 mg/litre intake</li><li>• Mottling’</li><li>• incisors of upper jaw.</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area : Habitation/village/town having fluoride level &gt;1.5 ppm in drinking water</li><li>• Fluorosis endemic area</li><li>• Villages classification based on the level of fluoride content:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in India is accepted as 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L (0.5-0.8 ppm).</li><li>➤ level of fluorides in drinking water</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L</li><li>➤ Fluorine is a double-edged sword .</li><li>➤ Fluorine</li><li>➤ double-edged sword</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 714)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 714)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A dietitian is educating a group of clients about various sources of nutrients and their roles in a balanced diet. She emphasizes the nutritional value of eggs, highlighting their rich content in various essential nutrients. However, she also points out that eggs lack a particular nutrient. Which of the following nutrients is NOT found in eggs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin C", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Calcium", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Iron", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vitamin C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Egg contains all the nutrients except Carbohydrates and Vitamin C .</li><li>• Egg</li><li>• nutrients</li><li>• Carbohydrates and Vitamin C</li><li>• Egg</li><li>• Egg</li><li>• An egg (60 grams) contain : 6 gm proteins 6 gm fat 30 mg calcium 1.5 mg iron 250 mg cholesterol 70 kcal energy</li><li>• egg (60 grams) contain</li><li>• 6 gm proteins 6 gm fat 30 mg calcium 1.5 mg iron 250 mg cholesterol 70 kcal energy</li><li>• 6 gm proteins</li><li>• 6 gm fat</li><li>• 30 mg calcium</li><li>• 1.5 mg iron</li><li>• 250 mg cholesterol</li><li>• 70 kcal energy</li><li>• Egg protein is best among proteins (NPU = 96), thereby making it ‘ Reference Protein’</li><li>• Egg protein</li><li>• best among proteins</li><li>• Reference Protein’</li><li>• Food Items as Poor Sources of Nutrients:</li><li>• Food Items as Poor Sources of Nutrients:</li><li>• Milk is a poor source of Vitamin C and Iron Meat is a poor source of Calcium Fish is a poor source of Carbohydrates Egg is a poor source of Vitamin C and Carbohydrates</li><li>• Milk is a poor source of Vitamin C and Iron</li><li>• Meat is a poor source of Calcium</li><li>• Fish is a poor source of Carbohydrates</li><li>• Egg is a poor source of Vitamin C and Carbohydrates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Egg contains all the nutrients except Carbohydrates and Vitamin C . Egg protein is best among proteins (NPU = 96), thereby making it ‘Reference Protein’</li><li>↳ Egg</li><li>↳ all the nutrients</li><li>↳ Carbohydrates</li><li>↳ Vitamin C</li><li>↳ Egg protein</li><li>↳ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 720)</li><li>↳ Ref</li><li>↳ Park 26 th edition (page 720)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nutritionist is discussing the standards and reference values used to guide dietary intake recommendations with a group of medical students. She explains that there is a specific term used to describe the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirements of nearly all (97-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. What is this term known as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adequate intake", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Recommended Dietary Allowance", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tolerable Upper Intake level", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Estimated average requirement.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Recommended Dietary Allowance", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Recommended Dietary Allowance</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Average daily dietary nutrient level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of 97-98% of health individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is called as Recommended Dietary Allowance .</li><li>• Average daily dietary nutrient level</li><li>• meet the nutrient requirement</li><li>• 97-98%</li><li>• health individuals</li><li>• life stage</li><li>• gender group</li><li>• Recommended Dietary Allowance</li><li>• Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):</li><li>• Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):</li><li>• Is a level of intake corresponding to Mean + 2 Standard Deviation , which covers the requirement of 97.5 % of population i.e. RDA is safe level of intake that is likely to be inadequate in not more than 2.5% population RDA ‘safe level approach’ is NOT USED FOR ENERGY since excess energy intake is undesirable; For energy only mean or average requirement is defined as RDA.</li><li>• Is a level of intake corresponding to Mean + 2 Standard Deviation , which covers the requirement of 97.5 % of population i.e. RDA is safe level of intake that is likely to be inadequate in not more than 2.5% population</li><li>• level of intake</li><li>• Mean + 2 Standard Deviation</li><li>• 97.5 % of population</li><li>• RDA ‘safe level approach’ is NOT USED FOR ENERGY since excess energy intake is undesirable; For energy only mean or average requirement is defined as RDA.</li><li>• RDA ‘safe level approach’</li><li>• NOT USED FOR ENERGY</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) as the average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of 97.5% healthy individuals in a specific life stage and gender group .</li><li>➤ Dietary Allowance</li><li>➤ average daily nutrient intake</li><li>➤ level sufficient</li><li>➤ requirements of 97.5% healthy individuals</li><li>➤ life stage</li><li>➤ gender group</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 721)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 721)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health study is underway assessing eye health problems in children aged 6 months to 6 years. The study focuses on determining the prevalence of xerophthalmia. Which of the following prevalence rates would NOT be considered indicative of a public health problem with xerophthalmia in this age group?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prevalence of night blindness more than 1 percent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence of bitot’s spots more than 0.5 percent", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence of corneal ulceration more than 0.01 percent", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevalence of corneal scar more than 0.5 percent", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prevalence of corneal scar more than 0.5 percent", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-112201.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Prevalence of corneal scar more than 0.5 percent</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community : (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years )</li><li>• Prevalence criteria</li><li>• Xerophthalmia problem</li><li>• community</li><li>• 6 months- 6 years</li><li>• Ocular manifestations of Vitamin-A deficiency: Xerophthalmia (Dry Eye)</li><li>• Ocular manifestations of Vitamin-A deficiency : Xerophthalmia (Dry Eye)</li><li>• Ocular manifestations</li><li>• Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• Xerophthalmia is most common in children aged 1-3 years</li><li>• Xerophthalmia</li><li>• children aged 1-3 years</li><li>• First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency : Conjunctival xerosis ( Conjunctival xerosis in Xerophthalmia has a characteristic appearance of emerging like sand banks at receding tide) First clinical symptom of Vitamin-A deficiency: Night blindness</li><li>• First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency : Conjunctival xerosis ( Conjunctival xerosis in Xerophthalmia has a characteristic appearance of emerging like sand banks at receding tide)</li><li>• First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency</li><li>• Conjunctival xerosis (</li><li>• First clinical symptom of Vitamin-A deficiency: Night blindness</li><li>• First clinical symptom of Vitamin-A deficiency: Night blindness</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prevalence criteria for determining the Xerophthalmia problem in a community (Preschool children 6 months- 6 years) are - Night blindness &gt; 1.0%; Bitot's spots &gt; 0.5%; Corneal xerosis/ corneal ulceration/keratomalacia &gt; 0.01%; Corneal ulcer &gt; 0.05%; and Serum retinol (&lt; 10 mcg/dl) &gt; 5.0%</li><li>➤ Prevalence criteria</li><li>➤ determining the Xerophthalmia</li><li>➤ problem in a community</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 706)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "The following is due to deficiency of:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vitamin D", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fluorine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Vitamin D", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/03/29/17.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/21/image-20230721181705-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Vitamin D</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, which is usually observed in young children between the age of six months and two years . In adults, Vitamin D deficiency leads to Osteomalacia.</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency</li><li>• rickets,</li><li>• young children</li><li>• age of six months</li><li>• two years</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency</li><li>• Osteomalacia.</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency causes defective or reduced mineralisation causing weakening of bone.</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency</li><li>• defective</li><li>• reduced mineralisation</li><li>• weakening of bone.</li><li>• Clinical Features of Rickets:</li><li>• Clinical Features of Rickets:</li><li>• Craniotabes (soft ping-pong skull), round and non-tender callus on ribs, Bowed legs, Genu valgus (Windswept deformity)</li><li>• Biochemical : low serum Calcium, low serum phosphate levels, raised Alkaline phosphate</li><li>• Biochemical</li><li>• X-ray : Cupping, Fraying, Splaying. Healed rickets show White Line</li><li>• X-ray</li><li>• Vitamin D -</li><li>• Vitamin D -</li><li>• Vit D can be synthesized in the body in adequate amounts by simple exposure to sunlight even for 5 minutes per day Vitamin D is synthesized in sunlight when ‘7-dehydrocholesterol (present in abundance in skin) is converted to cholecalciferol’ ‘ UV-B rays’ (wavelength 270 - 300 nm) play an important role in Vitamin D synthesis Vitamin D is ‘ Kidney Hormone’ Two major forms of Vitamin D are D2 (Ergocalciferol/calciferol) and D3 (Cholecalciferol) There is no plant source for Vitamin D (and Vitamin B12) Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and colon cancer.</li><li>• Vit D can be synthesized in the body in adequate amounts by simple exposure to sunlight even for 5 minutes per day</li><li>• Vit D</li><li>• synthesized in the body</li><li>• adequate amounts</li><li>• Vitamin D is synthesized in sunlight when ‘7-dehydrocholesterol (present in abundance in skin) is converted to cholecalciferol’</li><li>• Vitamin D</li><li>• sunlight when ‘7-dehydrocholesterol</li><li>• converted to cholecalciferol’</li><li>• ‘ UV-B rays’ (wavelength 270 - 300 nm) play an important role in Vitamin D synthesis</li><li>• UV-B rays’</li><li>• Vitamin D synthesis</li><li>• Vitamin D is ‘ Kidney Hormone’</li><li>• Vitamin D</li><li>• Kidney Hormone’</li><li>• Two major forms of Vitamin D are D2 (Ergocalciferol/calciferol) and D3 (Cholecalciferol)</li><li>• There is no plant source for Vitamin D (and Vitamin B12)</li><li>• Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and colon cancer.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets , which is usually observed in young children between the age of six months and two years . In adults, Vitamin D deficiency leads to Osteomalacia.</li><li>➤ Vitamin D deficiency</li><li>➤ rickets</li><li>➤ young children</li><li>➤ age of six months</li><li>➤ two years</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 707)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 707)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of persistent vomiting for the past 24 hours due to suspected food poisoning. He is at risk for developing a specific deficiency due to his condition. Prophylactic supplementation of which of the following is most appropriate in this patient to prevent potential complications?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Thiamine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Thiamine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Thiamine should also be given prophylactically to people with persistent vomiting or prolonged gastric aspiration and those who go on long fasts.</li><li>• Thiamine</li><li>• prophylactically</li><li>• people with persistent vomiting</li><li>• prolonged gastric aspiration</li><li>• Note: that thiamine should be administered before giving Dextrose infusion to such patients.</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Thiamine deficiency - Beri-beri; Wernickes Korasoff Psychosis (Clinical triad of Ophthalmoplegia, Altered mental status, and Ataxia)</li><li>• Thiamine deficiency</li><li>• Thiamine recommended daily requirement - 0.5 mg per 1000 kcal of energy intake</li><li>• Thiamine</li><li>• daily requirement</li><li>• 0.5 mg per 1000 kcal</li><li>• energy intake</li><li>• Thiamine content of food items: Gingelly seeds (Highest) &gt; Ground nut &gt; Bengal gram &gt; Whole wheat &gt; Sheep liver &gt; Raw rice</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The need for thiamine supplementation in patients with persistent vomiting , prolonged gastric aspiration , or those with a history of malnutrition or alcoholism , to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy.</li><li>➤ thiamine supplementation</li><li>➤ persistent vomiting</li><li>➤ prolonged gastric aspiration</li><li>➤ history of malnutrition or alcoholism</li><li>➤ Wernicke's encephalopathy.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 708)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 708)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of tuberculosis has been initiated on antituberculous therapy (ATT). He reports a new onset of tingling sensation and numbness in both upper and lower limbs. Which vitamin supplements should be administered to this patient to address his symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thiamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Riboflavin", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Niacin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pyridoxine", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pyridoxine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pyridoxine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• INH, an antituberculosis drug , is a recognized antagonist, and patients receiving INH are provided with a supplement of pyridoxine (10 mg/day).</li><li>• INH,</li><li>• antituberculosis drug</li><li>• antagonist,</li><li>• Pyridoxine deficiency is seen in people only on maize diet , TB patients on Isoniazid, females on OCP etc.</li><li>• Pyridoxine deficiency</li><li>• people only on maize diet</li><li>• Vitamin B6 deficiency leads to Peripheral neuropathy and protracted seizures.</li><li>• Vitamin B6 deficiency</li><li>• Peripheral neuropathy</li><li>• Vitamin B6 recommended daily requirement - 2 mg</li><li>• Vitamin B6</li><li>• daily requirement</li><li>• 2 mg</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) supplementation in patients treated with isoniazid for tuberculosis to prevent or treat isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy .</li><li>➤ Pyridoxine</li><li>➤ supplementation</li><li>➤ patients treated with isoniazid</li><li>➤ tuberculosis</li><li>➤ prevent or treat isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 709)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 709)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Identify the following instrument:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Harpenden calliper", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Shakirs tape", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Inch tape", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Salter scale", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Salter scale", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/16/picture63.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Salter scale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Field instrument for weight measurement . It can weigh children upto 25 kg .</li><li>• Field instrument</li><li>• weight measurement</li><li>• children upto 25 kg</li><li>• Birth Weight</li><li>• Birth Weight</li><li>• Some important points -</li><li>• Single best measure to assess physical growth: Weight Birth weight preferably be measured within: 1st hour of life Birth weight of an infant is the single most important determinant of its chances of survival, healthy growth and development Average birth weight in India: 2.8 kg (2.7 – 2.9 kg) Birth weight doubles at 5 months age, triples at 1 year and quadruples at 2 years age Majority of LBW in India is due to Maternal malnutrition associated with fetal growth retardation Relationship between maternal nutrition and birth weight of babies is Linear Smoking during pregnancy reduces birth weight by an average by 170 grams LBW is not a contraindication for any vaccination EXCEPT Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated in preterm children with birth weight &lt;2.0 kg Growth chart is plotted between Weight and Age</li><li>• Single best measure to assess physical growth: Weight</li><li>• Single best measure</li><li>• physical growth: Weight</li><li>• Birth weight preferably be measured within: 1st hour of life</li><li>• Birth weight</li><li>• measured within: 1st hour of life</li><li>• Birth weight of an infant is the single most important determinant of its chances of survival, healthy growth and development</li><li>• Birth weight</li><li>• infant</li><li>• single most important determinant</li><li>• chances of survival, healthy growth and development</li><li>• Average birth weight in India: 2.8 kg (2.7 – 2.9 kg)</li><li>• Average birth weight</li><li>• India: 2.8 kg</li><li>• Birth weight doubles at 5 months age, triples at 1 year and quadruples at 2 years age</li><li>• Majority of LBW in India is due to Maternal malnutrition associated with fetal growth retardation</li><li>• Relationship between maternal nutrition and birth weight of babies is Linear</li><li>• Smoking during pregnancy reduces birth weight by an average by 170 grams</li><li>• LBW is not a contraindication for any vaccination EXCEPT Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated in preterm children with birth weight &lt;2.0 kg</li><li>• Growth chart is plotted between Weight and Age</li><li>• Growth chart is plotted between Weight and Age</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Field instrument for weight measurement is Salter Scale</li><li>➤ Field instrument</li><li>➤ weight measurement</li><li>➤ Salter Scale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th edition (page 616)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 52 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Occupational Health - 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During a case study session, the team discusses the Bhopal Gas Tragedy that occurred in India in 1984, resulting in thousands of deaths and long-lasting health issues for the survivors. The lead physician emphasizes the importance of understanding different types of industrial chemicals and their potential impact on health to better prepare and respond to such emergencies. Based on the case scenario provided, which of the following gases was responsible for the devastating effects of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Carbon monoxide gas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Methyl isocyanate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ammonia gas", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Methane and Carbon monoxide.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Methyl isocyanate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Methyl isocyanate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chemical hazards in industries due to accidental leakage of chemical substances .</li><li>• Chemical hazards</li><li>• industries</li><li>• accidental leakage</li><li>• chemical substances</li><li>• Bhopal gas tragedy is a Single exposure Point source type of Epidemic occured on 3 december 1984 from union carbide plant.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The gas responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy was: Methyl isocyanate</li><li>➤ gas</li><li>➤ Bhopal gas tragedy</li><li>➤ Methyl isocyanate</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 734; Park 27/e p928-929</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 734; Park 27/e p928-929</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 52-year-old man with a long history of working in the construction industry presents to your clinic with chronic shortness of breath and a productive cough. His chest X-ray reveals nodular opacities in the upper lobes of his lungs. You suspect he might have developed an occupational lung disease. Which of the following statements regarding pneumoconiosis is FALSE?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The higher the concentration of the dust, greater the health hazard.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The greater the size of the dust particles, the greater the tissue reaction.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "The longer the duration of exposure to the dust, greater the health hazard.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Better the health and nutritional status, lesser the chance of development of pneumoconiosis.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. The greater the size of the dust particles, the greater the tissue reaction.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-23%20194201.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-23%20194201_113nnCf.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. The greater the size of the dust particles, the greater the tissue reaction.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The hazardous effects of dust on the lungs depend upon several factors such as</li><li>• hazardous effects</li><li>• dust</li><li>• lungs</li><li>• several factors</li><li>• Chemical Composition Fineness- Finer/smaller the dust size, it reaches the lung and more the damage. Concentration of dust in the air- more the concentration, more the hazard Period of exposure – Longer the duration, more the hazard Health status of the person exposed.</li><li>• Chemical Composition</li><li>• Fineness- Finer/smaller the dust size, it reaches the lung and more the damage.</li><li>• Concentration of dust in the air- more the concentration, more the hazard</li><li>• Period of exposure – Longer the duration, more the hazard</li><li>• Health status of the person exposed.</li><li>• Dust within the size range of 0.5 to 3 microns , is a health hazard producing, after a variable period of exposure , may gradually cripple man by reducing the working capacity due to lung fibrosis and other complications.</li><li>• Dust</li><li>• range of 0.5 to 3 microns</li><li>• health hazard</li><li>• variable period</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• cripple man</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• working capacity</li><li>• lung fibrosis</li><li>• Particle size and behavior :</li><li>• Particle size and behavior</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ List of pneumoconiosis:</li><li>➤ List of pneumoconiosis:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, p 901.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, p 901.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a public health officer, when assessing occupational environments for potential respiratory hazards, you should be most concerned about dusts of which particle size?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "20-50 microns", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10-20 microns", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5-10 microns", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Less than 5 microns", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Less than 5 microns", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-21%20163306.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Less than 5 microns</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Dust particles &gt;10 microns settle down from the air rapidly , while the smaller ones remain suspended indefinitely .</li><li>• Dust particles &gt;10 microns</li><li>• settle down</li><li>• air rapidly</li><li>• smaller ones</li><li>• suspended indefinitely</li><li>• Particles &lt;5 microns are directly inhaled into the lungs and are retained there - This fraction of the dust is called “respirable dust ”, and is mainly responsible for pneumoconiosis .</li><li>• Particles &lt;5 microns</li><li>• directly inhaled</li><li>• lungs</li><li>• retained there</li><li>• fraction</li><li>• dust</li><li>• “respirable dust</li><li>• pneumoconiosis</li><li>• Particle size and behavior -</li><li>• Particle size and behavior -</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 900</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 900</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man has been working for the past 10 years in an industry where he is primarily involved in fishing, hunting, and other related activities. Recently, he has been experiencing some health issues, and he is concerned about the potential occupational hazards associated with his job. Based on his occupation, how would his job category be classified?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blue collar workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Red collar workers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "White collar workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Green Collar Worker", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Red collar workers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Red collar workers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Blue collar worker refers to individuals involved in manual labor or industrial work (construction, manufacturing, maintenance)</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Blue collar worker</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• manual labor</li><li>• industrial work (construction, manufacturing, maintenance)</li><li>• Option C. White collar worker generally refers to professionals who work in office settings (administrative, managerial).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• White collar worker</li><li>• professionals</li><li>• work in office</li><li>• Option D . Green collar worker refers to jobs that contribute to environmental sustainability (renewal energy and conservation) .</li><li>• Option D</li><li>• Green collar worker</li><li>• jobs</li><li>• environmental sustainability (renewal energy and conservation)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Workers involved in fishing , farming , hunting , and related activities are classified as red-collar workers .</li><li>➤ Workers</li><li>➤ fishing</li><li>➤ farming</li><li>➤ hunting</li><li>➤ related activities</li><li>➤ red-collar workers</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg 774</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg 774</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old male, employed in the ceramic industry for over a decade, reports to the clinic complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing, especially when he exerts himself. His occupational history reveals prolonged exposure to dust particles. A subsequent chest X-ray reveals a \"snow storm\" appearance in the lung fields. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Silicosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/22/image-20230722162139-1.jpeg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Silicosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pathologically , silicosis is characterized by a dense “nodular” fibrosis , the nodules ranging from 3 to 4 mm in diameter . (Chest X ray - show snow storm appearance)</li><li>• Pathologically</li><li>• dense “nodular” fibrosis</li><li>• nodules</li><li>• 3 to 4 mm in diameter</li><li>• Clinically the onset of the disease is insidious . Early manifestations are irritant cough , dyspnea on exertion and pain in the chest .</li><li>• Clinically</li><li>• onset of the disease</li><li>• insidious</li><li>• Early manifestations</li><li>• irritant cough</li><li>• dyspnea</li><li>• on exertion</li><li>• pain in the chest</li><li>• With more advanced diseases , impairment of total lung capacity (TLC) is commonly present .</li><li>• advanced diseases</li><li>• impairment</li><li>• total lung capacity</li><li>• present</li><li>• Its occurrence has been uncovered in various industries such as mining industry , coal , mica, gold , silver , lead , zinc , manganese and other metals , pottery and ceramic industry , sand blasting , metal grinding , building and construction work , rock mining, iron and steel industry and several others.</li><li>• occurrence</li><li>• uncovered</li><li>• industries</li><li>• mining industry</li><li>• coal</li><li>• mica,</li><li>• gold</li><li>• silver</li><li>• lead</li><li>• zinc</li><li>• manganese</li><li>• other metals</li><li>• pottery</li><li>• ceramic industry</li><li>• sand blasting</li><li>• metal grinding</li><li>• building</li><li>• construction work</li><li>• Chest X ray - Snow Storm Appearance in Silicosis</li><li>• Chest X ray - Snow Storm Appearance in Silicosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Silicosis - some important points</li><li>➤ Silicosis - some important points</li><li>➤ Among the occupational diseases , silicosis is the major cause of permanent disability and mortality Particles of the size 0.5 – 3 microns are most dangerous for causation of silicosis IP: Few months to 6 years Chest X-ray shows ‘ snow storm appearance’ No effective treatment is available Under Factories Act 1948, there are 29 diseases which are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>➤ Among the occupational diseases , silicosis is the major cause of permanent disability and mortality</li><li>➤ occupational diseases</li><li>➤ silicosis</li><li>➤ major cause</li><li>➤ permanent disability</li><li>➤ mortality</li><li>➤ Particles of the size 0.5 – 3 microns are most dangerous for causation of silicosis</li><li>➤ Particles</li><li>➤ size 0.5 – 3 microns</li><li>➤ IP: Few months to 6 years</li><li>➤ Few months</li><li>➤ 6 years</li><li>➤ Chest X-ray shows ‘ snow storm appearance’</li><li>➤ Chest X-ray</li><li>➤ snow storm appearance’</li><li>➤ No effective treatment is available</li><li>➤ Under Factories Act 1948, there are 29 diseases which are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 901.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 901.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old man with a 40-year history of working in shipbuilding presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath, chest pain, and a dry cough for the past 6 months. He reports significant weight loss and general fatigue. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion at the base of the right lung. A chest X-ray shows pleural thickening and calcified pleural plaques. A biopsy of the affected tissue is obtained, and histopathological examination reveals malignant mesothelial cells. Which of the following type of Asbestos is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Amosite", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Crocidolite", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthophyllite", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Serpentine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Crocidolite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Crocidolite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• This patient’s clinical presentation and occupational history are highly suggestive of mesothelioma , a rare malignancy associated with asbestos exposure . Although all forms of asbestos have been linked to mesothelioma , crocidolite asbestos (Option B) is considered to be the most potent inducer of mesothelioma . Crocidolite fibers (BLUE ASBESTOS) are thin and sharp , allowing them to penetrate deep into the lung tissue and reach the pleura , where they can induce malignant transformation of mesothelial cells.</li><li>• mesothelioma</li><li>• rare malignancy</li><li>• asbestos exposure</li><li>• all forms</li><li>• asbestos</li><li>• linked to mesothelioma</li><li>• crocidolite asbestos</li><li>• most potent inducer</li><li>• mesothelioma</li><li>• Crocidolite fibers (BLUE ASBESTOS)</li><li>• thin and sharp</li><li>• penetrate deep</li><li>• lung tissue</li><li>• reach the pleura</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestos is of two types - serpentine or chrysolite variety and the amphibole type.</li><li>➤ Asbestos</li><li>➤ serpentine or chrysolite</li><li>➤ amphibole</li><li>➤ 99% of world’s production of asbestos is of the serpentine variety , which is hydrated magnesium silicate , the amphibole type contains little magnesium .</li><li>➤ 99% of world’s production</li><li>➤ asbestos</li><li>➤ serpentine variety</li><li>➤ hydrated magnesium silicate</li><li>➤ amphibole</li><li>➤ little magnesium</li><li>➤ The amphibole type occurs in different varieties , e.g., crocidolite (blue), amosite (brown), and anthophyllite (white).</li><li>➤ amphibole</li><li>➤ different varieties</li><li>➤ crocidolite</li><li>➤ amosite</li><li>➤ anthophyllite</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 902</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 902</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 48-year-old male with a long history of working in the mining industry, presents to the outpatient department complaining of difficulty breathing. His symptoms have been progressively worsening over time. He has no significant past medical history and is a non-smoker. On physical examination, you notice that he has a barrel chest, and his breathing sounds are diminished. A chest X-ray is performed, revealing evidence of progressive massive fibrosis. Based on the patient's occupational history and radiographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Asbestosis.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Anthracosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-133727.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Anthracosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Two general phases in coal miners’ pneumoconiosis –</li><li>• Two general phases in coal miners’ pneumoconiosis –</li><li>• Two general phases</li><li>• coal miners’ pneumoconiosis</li><li>• The first phase - simple pneumoconiosis which is associated with little ventilatory impairment . This phase may require about 12 years of work exposure for its development. The second phase is characterized by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)- this causes severe respiratory disability and frequently results in premature death . x-ray shows barrel-chest. Air tapping and lung scarring may lead to diminished breath sounds.</li><li>• The first phase - simple pneumoconiosis which is associated with little ventilatory impairment . This phase may require about 12 years of work exposure for its development.</li><li>• first phase</li><li>• simple pneumoconiosis</li><li>• little ventilatory impairment</li><li>• The second phase is characterized by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)- this causes severe respiratory disability and frequently results in premature death . x-ray shows barrel-chest. Air tapping and lung scarring may lead to diminished breath sounds.</li><li>• second phase</li><li>• progressive massive fibrosis</li><li>• respiratory disability</li><li>• premature death</li><li>• Massive Pulmonary Fibrosis in a patient with Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis</li><li>• Caplan syndrome (Rheumatoid pneumoconiosis) is the combination of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis and a characteristic pattern of fibrosis . It was first described in coal miners (coal workers’ pneumoconiosis) Under Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3): Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis</li><li>• Caplan syndrome (Rheumatoid pneumoconiosis) is the combination of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis and a characteristic pattern of fibrosis . It was first described in coal miners (coal workers’ pneumoconiosis)</li><li>• Caplan syndrome</li><li>• combination of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis</li><li>• pattern of fibrosis</li><li>• Under Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3): Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis</li><li>• Under Factories Act 1948</li><li>• 29 notifiable diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Massive Pulmonary Fibrosis in a patient with Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis</li><li>➤ Massive Pulmonary Fibrosis</li><li>➤ Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 902</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 902</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a Primary Health Care (PHC) medical officer serving a rural community. Recently, you have noticed an influx of patients, predominantly farmers involved in paddy harvesting and grain dust exposure, presenting with symptoms of respiratory distress and signs suggestive of pulmonary fibrosis. Given the occupational history and clinical presentations, exposure to which of the following micro-organisms is most likely associated with the respiratory damage observed in these patients?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Micropolyspora faeni", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Thermoactinomyces sacchari", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Micropolyspora faeni", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-133855.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Micropolyspora faeni</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Farmer’s lung is due to the inhalation of moldy hay or grain dust. The moisture content of over 30% promotes the growth of bacteria and fungi grow rapidly, causing a rise in temperature to 40 to 50 deg. C . This heat encourages the growth of thermophilic actinomycetes , of which Micropolyspora faeni is the main cause of farmer’s lung . The acute illness is characterized by general and respiratory symptoms and physical signs . Repeated attacks cause pulmonary fibrosis and inevitable pulmonary damage and cor pulmonale.</li><li>• Farmer’s lung</li><li>• inhalation</li><li>• moldy hay or grain dust.</li><li>• moisture content</li><li>• over 30% promotes</li><li>• growth of bacteria</li><li>• fungi grow</li><li>• rise in temperature</li><li>• 40 to 50 deg. C</li><li>• growth of thermophilic actinomycetes</li><li>• Micropolyspora faeni</li><li>• farmer’s lung</li><li>• acute illness</li><li>• general</li><li>• respiratory symptoms</li><li>• physical signs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses:</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 902</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 902</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An industrial medical officer has noticed a recurring pattern among the employees in a specific workplace. After the weekend holidays, there seems to be a significant drop of more than 10% in Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) in most of the employees. This phenomenon, often referred to as “Monday Fever,” is commonly associated with exposure to which of the following conditions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Farmer’s lung.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Byssinosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Byssinosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bronchopulmonary diseases caused by exposure to airborne dust of cotton , flax &amp; soft hemp leads to Byssinosis . It is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by tightness of the chest &amp; breathlessness at work after the weekend or other absence. It is also called ‘ Monday Fever’ or 'Monday chest-tightness' . In groups of workers , a drop of more than 10% in FEV1 during the work shift on the day after the weekend holiday may provide advance warning that workers are liable to develop Byssinosis .</li><li>• Bronchopulmonary diseases</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• to airborne dust</li><li>• cotton</li><li>• flax &amp; soft hemp</li><li>• Byssinosis</li><li>• chronic respiratory disease</li><li>• tightness</li><li>• chest &amp; breathlessness</li><li>• work</li><li>• weekend</li><li>• Monday Fever’ or 'Monday chest-tightness'</li><li>• groups of workers</li><li>• drop</li><li>• more than 10%</li><li>• FEV1</li><li>• work shift</li><li>• day after the weekend holiday</li><li>• Byssinosis</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Monday Fever or Monday Chest Tightness – Byssinosis (Cotton exposure)</li><li>• Monday Fever</li><li>• Byssinosis</li><li>• Monday Morning Chills – Zinc toxicity (Metal fume fever, Malarial chills)</li><li>• Monday Morning Chills</li><li>• Zinc toxicity</li><li>• Monday Headache (Monday disease) - Nitrates</li><li>• Monday Headache (Monday disease)</li><li>• Nitrates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Monday fever / Monday sickness is associated with Byssinosis</li><li>➤ Monday fever</li><li>➤ Byssinosis</li><li>➤ Exposure to cotton dust causes Byssinosis</li><li>➤ Exposure</li><li>➤ cotton dust</li><li>➤ Byssinosis</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 1230.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 1230.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Match the following diseases with their associated causes or descriptions:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "i- b), ii- d), iii- a), iv- c)", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "i- c), ii- d), iii- b), iv- a)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "i- a), ii- c), iii- d), iv- b)", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "i- d), ii- a), iii- b), iv- c)", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. i- b), ii- d), iii- a), iv- c)", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-21%20171830.png"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-134130.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-134212.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. i- b), ii- d), iii- a), iv- c)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mesothelioma of pleura - Occurs due to long term exposure to Asbestosis . Thermoactinomyces sacchari is associated with farmer’s lung . Micropolyspora faeni Causes Bagassosis Phthisis melanotica - Otherwise called Anthracosis or coal workers pneumoconiosis .</li><li>• Mesothelioma of pleura - Occurs due to long term exposure to Asbestosis .</li><li>• Mesothelioma of pleura</li><li>• exposure to Asbestosis</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari is associated with farmer’s lung .</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari</li><li>• farmer’s lung</li><li>• Micropolyspora faeni Causes Bagassosis</li><li>• Micropolyspora faeni</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• Phthisis melanotica - Otherwise called Anthracosis or coal workers pneumoconiosis .</li><li>• Phthisis melanotica</li><li>• Anthracosis</li><li>• coal workers pneumoconiosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconioses :</li><li>➤ List of Pneumoconioses</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses :</li><li>➤ Antigens involved in Pneumoconioses</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed, Pg 902.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, who has been working as a Jackhammer operator, recently visited the Primary Health Center with complaints of his fingers turning white. What could be the most likely reason behind this symptom?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat induced vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cold Induced vasoconstriction", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Vibration induced vasoconstriction", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radiation induced vasoconstriction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Vibration induced vasoconstriction", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Vibration induced</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• After some months or years of exposure to vibrations (10 – 500 Hz), the fine blood vessels of fingers may become extremely sensitive to spasm , known as ‘White fingers’ .</li><li>• After some months</li><li>• years of exposure</li><li>• vibrations</li><li>• fine blood vessels</li><li>• fingers</li><li>• extremely sensitive to spasm</li><li>• ‘White fingers’</li><li>• White fingers are a form of Raynaud’s Disease . Vibration white finger is the vascular component of ‘hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS)’.</li><li>• White fingers</li><li>• form of Raynaud’s Disease</li><li>• Vibration white finger</li><li>• vascular component</li><li>• ‘hand-arm vibration syndrome</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adverse effects of vibrations include - Vibration-induced vasoconstriction leading to White fingers due to the Raynaud phenomenon , Osteoarthritis of wrists , shoulders and elbow.</li><li>➤ Adverse effects</li><li>➤ vibrations</li><li>➤ Vibration-induced vasoconstriction</li><li>➤ White fingers</li><li>➤ Raynaud phenomenon</li><li>➤ Osteoarthritis of wrists</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 734</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 734</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 62-year-old male patient presents to your clinic with a history of working in construction and demolition for over 30 years. He reports progressive shortness of breath, chronic cough, and occasional chest pain. You suspect asbestosis and decide to order several tests to aid in the diagnosis. In which of the following investigations would you expect to find \"asbestos bodies\"?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sputum", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "X-ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ultrasound", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "CT scan", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Sputum", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/abc.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/abcd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Sputum</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In asbestosis , the sputum shows “ asbestos bodies ” which are asbestos fibers coated with fibrin .</li><li>• asbestosis</li><li>• sputum</li><li>• asbestos bodies</li><li>• asbestos fibers coated</li><li>• fibrin</li><li>• An X-ray of the chest shows a ground-glass appearance in the lower two thirds of the lung fields .</li><li>• X-ray of the chest</li><li>• ground-glass appearance</li><li>• lower two thirds</li><li>• lung fields</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Asbestosis -</li><li>➤ Asbestosis -</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is a pneumoconiosis which occurs due to exposure to asbestos Asbestosis does not usually appear until after 5–10 years of exposure . Once established, the disease is progressive even after removal of worker from contact Sputum shows ‘asbestos bodies’ , which are asbestos fibres coated with fibrin Asbestos may lead to pulmonary fibrosis , carcinoma of bronchus , mesothelioma of peritoneum / pleura and cancer of GIT Malignant pleural mesothelioma is an aggressive malignancy of the pleural surface , predominantly caused by prior asbestos exposure</li><li>➤ Asbestosis is a pneumoconiosis which occurs due to exposure to asbestos</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li><li>➤ pneumoconiosis</li><li>➤ exposure to asbestos</li><li>➤ Asbestosis does not usually appear until after 5–10 years of exposure . Once established, the disease is progressive even after removal of worker from contact</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ 5–10 years of exposure</li><li>➤ disease is progressive</li><li>➤ removal of worker</li><li>➤ contact</li><li>➤ Sputum shows ‘asbestos bodies’ , which are asbestos fibres coated with fibrin</li><li>➤ Sputum</li><li>➤ ‘asbestos bodies’</li><li>➤ asbestos fibres coated</li><li>➤ fibrin</li><li>➤ Asbestos may lead to pulmonary fibrosis , carcinoma of bronchus , mesothelioma of peritoneum / pleura and cancer of GIT</li><li>➤ Asbestos</li><li>➤ pulmonary fibrosis</li><li>➤ carcinoma of bronchus</li><li>➤ mesothelioma</li><li>➤ peritoneum</li><li>➤ Malignant pleural mesothelioma is an aggressive malignancy of the pleural surface , predominantly caused by prior asbestos exposure</li><li>➤ Malignant pleural mesothelioma</li><li>➤ aggressive malignancy</li><li>➤ pleural surface</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 902</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 902</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man who works as a farmer presents to the clinic with complaints of respiratory distress, skin irritation, and occasional dizziness. He reports that these symptoms have been persistent over the past few months. The patient provides a thorough occupational history, mentioning that he is regularly exposed to various agricultural hazards. The healthcare provider decides to educate the patient on these hazards and discuss preventive measures. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an agricultural hazard in the context of this patient’s occupational exposure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Farmer’s lung", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Silicosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-151448.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Silicosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Silicosis is due to exposure to silica dust in stone mine workers . Silicosis is known as grinder’s disease . It is fairly common among stone crushers, quartz miners, bauxite miners, sand blasters, ceramic/glands/cement industry workers.</li><li>• Silicosis</li><li>• exposure to silica dust</li><li>• stone mine workers</li><li>• Silicosis</li><li>• grinder’s disease</li><li>• Bagassosis - Due to exposure to sugarcane dust</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• sugarcane dust</li><li>• Byssinosis - Due to exposure to cotton fibre</li><li>• Byssinosis</li><li>• cotton fibre</li><li>• Farmer’s lung - Due to exposure to Mouldy hay or grain dust.</li><li>• Farmer’s lung</li><li>• exposure to Mouldy hay</li><li>• List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>• List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>• Ref : AFMC pg 1303</li><li>• Ref : AFMC pg 1303</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A physician is discussing various types of occupational lung diseases with medical residents. They are reviewing examples of inorganic dusts that can lead to pneumoconiosis. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic dust?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Silica", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mica", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Coal", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Jute", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Jute", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-151600.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-151610.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Jute</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Inorganic dusts - silica, mica, coal, asbestos dust, etc.;</li><li>• Inorganic dusts</li><li>• Organic dusts - cotton, jute, or dust from hay, grain, silage or animal confinement.</li><li>• Organic dusts</li><li>• The soluble dust dissolve slowly , enter the systemic circulation , and are eventually eliminated by body metabolism . The insoluble dust remains, more or less, permanently in the lungs.</li><li>• soluble dust dissolve slowly</li><li>• systemic circulation</li><li>• eliminated</li><li>• body metabolism</li><li>• Pneumoconioses - occur due to occupational exposure to dust. 0.5 to 3.0 microns are the most dangerous particle size , as they reach the interior of the lungs with ease.</li><li>• Pneumoconioses</li><li>• occupational exposure</li><li>• 0.5 to 3.0 microns</li><li>• dangerous particle size</li><li>• interior of the lungs</li><li>• Particle size and behavior:</li><li>• List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>• List of Pneumoconioses:</li><li>• Ref : Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 900</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a rural community, a new sugarcane manufacturing unit has been established, and as the industrial medical officer, you are responsible for ensuring the safety and health of the workers. One of the potential risks in this industry is the exposure to bagasse, the fibrous residue left after sugarcane stalks are crushed to extract their juice. To minimize the risk of fungal infections from bagasse, which fungicide would you recommend for disinfecting this material?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2% Acetic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2% propionic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "2% Ammonia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2% Ethanol", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2% propionic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2% propionic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Prevention and Bagasse control measures :</li><li>• Prevention</li><li>• Bagasse control measures</li><li>• Keeping moisture content &gt; 20% Spraying bagasse with 2% propionic acid (fungicide). Personal protection Dust control</li><li>• Keeping moisture content &gt; 20%</li><li>• Spraying bagasse with 2% propionic acid (fungicide).</li><li>• Personal protection</li><li>• Dust control</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• Bagassosis occurs due to occupational exposure to fibrous residue of sugarcane (bagasse); Bagassosis is due to Thermoactinomyces sacchari .</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• occupational exposure</li><li>• fibrous residue</li><li>• sugarcane</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari</li><li>• Bagasse contains a percentage of silica , innumerable fungal spores and micro-organisms ; Bagasse dust blocks bronchioles thus leading to bronchitis and bronchopneumonia . Bagassosis is a form of extrinsic allergic alveolitis</li><li>• Bagasse</li><li>• percentage of silica</li><li>• innumerable fungal spores</li><li>• micro-organisms</li><li>• Bagasse dust blocks bronchioles</li><li>• bronchitis</li><li>• bronchopneumonia</li><li>• Organisms involved in the causation of bagassosis:</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari (most common) Thermoactinomyces vulgaris Micropolyspora faeni</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari (most common)</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces vulgaris</li><li>• Micropolyspora faeni</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Bagassosis occurs due to occupational exposure to fibrous residue of sugarcane (bagasse); Bagassosis is due to Thermoactinomyces sacchari . It can be controlled by spraying bagasse with 2% propionic acid (fungicide).</li><li>➤ Bagassosis</li><li>➤ occupational exposure</li><li>➤ fibrous residue</li><li>➤ sugarcane</li><li>➤ Bagassosis</li><li>➤ Thermoactinomyces sacchari</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg. 934</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg. 934</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 42-year-old man working in a fireproof textile manufacturing unit presented for his annual medical evaluation. He mentioned a gradual onset of breathlessness over the past 6 months, particularly while climbing stairs or lifting heavy objects. On physical examination, the physician noted the presence of clubbing in his fingers, and he appeared to be in mild respiratory distress. He was sent for a chest X-ray, which revealed a ground-glass opacification dominating the lower two-thirds of his lung fields. His occupational history spans over 15 years in the same industry. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Asbestosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-152000.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Asbestosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Asbestosis is most commonly associated with lung malignancy . The occupations most at risk for developing malignant mesothelioma disease after asbestos exposure include firefighters , construction workers , industrial and power plant workers and shipyard workers.</li><li>• Asbestosis</li><li>• lung malignancy</li><li>• occupations</li><li>• developing malignant mesothelioma</li><li>• asbestos exposure</li><li>• firefighters</li><li>• construction workers</li><li>• Asbestosis</li><li>• Asbestosis</li><li>• Asbestosis is a pneumoconiosis that occurs due to: Exposure to asbestos dust . Asbestosis does not usually appear until after 5-10 years of exposure Sputum shows ‘ asbestos bodies’ , which are asbestos fibres coated with fibrin . Lung show “Ground glass appearance” on chest X-ray due to increased density in lung tissue where air spaces are partially filled. Asbestos may lead to pulmonary fibrosis , carcinoma of bronchus, mesothelioma of peritoneum/pleura and cancer of GIT. Asbestos type most dangerous is ‘amphibole’ .</li><li>• Asbestosis is a pneumoconiosis that occurs due to: Exposure to asbestos dust . Asbestosis does not usually appear until after 5-10 years of exposure</li><li>• Asbestosis</li><li>• pneumoconiosis</li><li>• Exposure to asbestos dust</li><li>• Sputum shows ‘ asbestos bodies’ , which are asbestos fibres coated with fibrin . Lung show “Ground glass appearance” on chest X-ray due to increased density in lung tissue where air spaces are partially filled.</li><li>• Sputum</li><li>• asbestos bodies’</li><li>• asbestos fibres coated with fibrin</li><li>• Asbestos may lead to pulmonary fibrosis , carcinoma of bronchus, mesothelioma of peritoneum/pleura and cancer of GIT.</li><li>• Asbestos</li><li>• pulmonary fibrosis</li><li>• Asbestos type most dangerous is ‘amphibole’ .</li><li>• Asbestos</li><li>• dangerous is ‘amphibole’</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Other Options</li><li>• Option D. Bagassosis : An allergic response to the inhalation of moldy bagasse , which is sugarcane fiber residue . Bagasse dust blocks bronchioles thus leading to bronchitis and bronchopneumonia . It is due to Thermoactinomyces sacchari . Prevention and Bagasse control measures include Keeping the moisture content &gt; 20% and Spraying bagasse with 2% propionic acid (fungicide).</li><li>• Option D. Bagassosis</li><li>• allergic response</li><li>• inhalation of moldy bagasse</li><li>• sugarcane fiber residue</li><li>• Bagasse dust blocks</li><li>• bronchioles</li><li>• bronchitis</li><li>• bronchopneumonia</li><li>• Thermoactinomyces sacchari</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis. G round glass appearance on chest X-ray is seen in Asbestosis</li><li>➤ Under the Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>➤ Factories Act 1948</li><li>➤ 29 notifiable diseases</li><li>➤ G round glass appearance on chest X-ray is seen in Asbestosis</li><li>➤ G</li><li>➤ round glass appearance</li><li>➤ chest X-ray</li><li>➤ Asbestosis</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 902.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 902.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 58-year-old man with a history of working in a mine for 30 years presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and difficulty breathing. A chest X-ray reveals multiple small round nodules throughout both lungs. Based on his occupational history and clinical presentation, you suspect Caplan's syndrome. Caplan's syndrome is typically seen in which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Silicosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthracosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Berylliosis", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Anthracosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Anthracosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Caplan’s syndrome - First observed by Dr. A Caplan in 1953 in New South Wales Coal mines . This is characterized by breathlessness , clubbing , bronchitis , emphysema , and right heart failure . This is known as Coal workers’ Pneumoconioses</li><li>• Caplan’s syndrome</li><li>• Dr. A Caplan in 1953</li><li>• New South Wales</li><li>• Coal mines</li><li>• breathlessness</li><li>• clubbing</li><li>• bronchitis</li><li>• emphysema</li><li>• right heart failure</li><li>• Coal workers’ Pneumoconioses</li><li>• This condition may be due to quartz , coal mine dust plus rheumatoid arthritis .</li><li>• quartz</li><li>• coal mine</li><li>• dust</li><li>• rheumatoid arthritis</li><li>• The exposure period required for Anthracosis is 12 years</li><li>• exposure period</li><li>• Anthracosis is 12 years</li><li>• Under the Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>• Factories Act 1948</li><li>• 29 notifiable diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Caplan’s syndrome is a condition associated with exposure to coal dust in individuals with pre-existing rheumatoid arthritis , and distinguishes it from other occupational lung diseases associated with different exposures.</li><li>➤ Caplan’s syndrome</li><li>➤ exposure to coal dust</li><li>➤ pre-existing rheumatoid arthritis</li><li>➤ occupational lung diseases</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 1279; Park 27/e pg. 933-934</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 1279; Park 27/e pg. 933-934</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 45-year-old man, presented to your CHC with complaints of persistent constipation and abdominal colic. Upon physical examination, you noticed distinct blue lines along his gums. Considering Mr. X’s clinical presentation, what is the most common mode of absorption for the substance likely responsible for his symptoms?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ingestion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inhalation", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Skin", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Conjunctival route", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inhalation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Inhalation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lead poisoning may occur in three ways:</li><li>• Lead poisoning may occur in three ways:</li><li>• INHALATION : Most cases of lead poisoning are due to inhalation of fumes and dust from lead or its compounds through vehicular exhaust. (most common) INGESTION : Poisoning by ingestion is a less common occurrence . Lead may also be ingested in food or drink through contaminated hands. SKIN : Absorption through skin occurs only in respect of the organic compounds of lead . Inorganic compounds are not absorbed through the skin.</li><li>• INHALATION : Most cases of lead poisoning are due to inhalation of fumes and dust from lead or its compounds through vehicular exhaust. (most common)</li><li>• INHALATION</li><li>• lead poisoning</li><li>• inhalation of fumes</li><li>• dust</li><li>• lead</li><li>• INGESTION : Poisoning by ingestion is a less common occurrence . Lead may also be ingested in food or drink through contaminated hands.</li><li>• INGESTION</li><li>• Poisoning</li><li>• ingestion</li><li>• less common occurrence</li><li>• SKIN : Absorption through skin occurs only in respect of the organic compounds of lead . Inorganic compounds are not absorbed through the skin.</li><li>• SKIN</li><li>• Absorption through skin</li><li>• respect of the organic compounds</li><li>• lead</li><li>• Clinical picture of lead poisoning: (Clinical symptoms of plumbism occur when lead level in blood &gt;70 mcg/100 mL)</li><li>• Clinical picture of lead poisoning:</li><li>• Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea) Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop Lead encephalopathy ( CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds)</li><li>• Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign</li><li>• Facial pallor</li><li>• Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic</li><li>• Anemia</li><li>• Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>• Punctate basophilia</li><li>• Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>• Burtonian Line</li><li>• Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea)</li><li>• Lead colic</li><li>• Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop</li><li>• Lead Palsy</li><li>• Lead encephalopathy ( CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds)</li><li>• Lead encephalopathy (</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning - Inhalation is the most common mode of lead absorption in adults , particularly in occupational settings . A useful screening test is Coproporphyrin in Urine (CPU); a sensitive parameter of hematological response is Basophilic stippling of RBCs ; Plumbism can cause Burtonian’s line (Blue Line on gums).</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning -</li><li>➤ Inhalation</li><li>➤ common mode</li><li>➤ lead absorption</li><li>➤ adults</li><li>➤ occupational settings</li><li>➤ useful screening test</li><li>➤ Coproporphyrin</li><li>➤ Urine</li><li>➤ sensitive parameter</li><li>➤ hematological</li><li>➤ Basophilic stippling</li><li>➤ RBCs</li><li>➤ Plumbism</li><li>➤ Burtonian’s line</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed 934.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed 934.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man who has been working in the gasoline industry for the past 20 years presents to the industrial medical officer during a routine monthly health check-up. The officer notes that the patient appears pale, and on further inquiry, the patient mentions weakness and difficulty extending his wrist. The patient’s blood work shows anemia. Given the patient’s occupational exposure and clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate initial screening test to order in this scenario?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Coproporphyrin in urine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Basophilic stippling of RBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "AminoLevulinic acid in urine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead in blood and urine.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Coproporphyrin in urine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-152337.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Coproporphyrin in urine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Diagnosis of lead poisoning:</li><li>• Diagnosis of lead poisoning:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning is known as ‘ Plumbism’ , Saturnism or Painter’s Colic .</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning</li><li>➤ Plumbism’</li><li>➤ Saturnism</li><li>➤ Painter’s Colic</li><li>➤ Mode of absorption - Lead can be absorbed by inhalation (most common mode), ingestion , or through the skin</li><li>➤ Mode of absorption</li><li>➤ Lead</li><li>➤ absorbed by inhalation</li><li>➤ ingestion</li><li>➤ through the skin</li><li>➤ Clinical picture -</li><li>➤ Clinical picture</li><li>➤ Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) (Blue line on gums) Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea) Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop Lead encephalopathy (CNS effects : mostly due to organic lead compounds)</li><li>➤ Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign</li><li>➤ Facial pallor</li><li>➤ Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic</li><li>➤ Anemia</li><li>➤ Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>➤ Punctate basophilia</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) (Blue line on gums)</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line</li><li>➤ Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea)</li><li>➤ Lead colic</li><li>➤ Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop</li><li>➤ Lead Palsy</li><li>➤ Lead encephalopathy (CNS effects : mostly due to organic lead compounds)</li><li>➤ Lead encephalopathy (CNS effects</li><li>➤ BOLD - EDTA + Dimercaprol</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 934-935</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 934-935</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old man, who works as a painter, presented with symptoms of fatigue, abdominal pain, and a tingling sensation in his extremities. A peripheral smear examination revealed the presence of basophilic stippling in red blood cells. Based on the patient’s occupation and the findings from the peripheral smear, what is the chelating agent of choice to treat this patient’s probable poisoning?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Alpha lipoic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Calcium-EDTA", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deferoxamine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Dimercapto propane sulfonate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Calcium-EDTA", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/picture88.jpg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Calcium-EDTA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The peripheral smear shows Basophilic stippling of the RBCs which occur due to inhibition of pyrimidine 5’-nucleotidase leading to aggregations of Ribosomes . It is commonly seen in Lead poisoning, Sideroblastic Anemia, Thalassemia etc.</li><li>• peripheral smear</li><li>• Basophilic stippling</li><li>• RBCs</li><li>• inhibition of pyrimidine 5’-nucleotidase</li><li>• aggregations of Ribosomes</li><li>• For treatment of Lead poisoning, chelating agents are used like:</li><li>• For treatment of Lead poisoning, chelating agents are used like:</li><li>• DMSA or Succimer Dimercaprol or BAL Calcium disodium EDTA</li><li>• DMSA or Succimer</li><li>• Dimercaprol or BAL</li><li>• Calcium disodium EDTA</li><li>• Clinical picture of lead poisoning: (Clinical symptoms of plumbism occur when lead level in blood &gt;70 mcg/100 mL)</li><li>• Clinical picture of lead poisoning:</li><li>• Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea) Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop Lead encephalopathy [CNS effects : mostly due to organic lead compounds]</li><li>• Facial pallor : Earliest and most consistent sign</li><li>• Facial pallor</li><li>• Anemia : Microcytic hypochromic</li><li>• Anemia</li><li>• Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>• Punctate basophilia</li><li>• Burtonian Line : Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>• Burtonian Line</li><li>• Lead colic : Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea)</li><li>• Lead colic</li><li>• Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop</li><li>• Lead Palsy</li><li>• Lead encephalopathy [CNS effects : mostly due to organic lead compounds]</li><li>• Lead encephalopathy [CNS effects</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning - Inhalation is the most common mode of lead absorption in adults , particularly in occupational settings . A useful screening test is Coproporphyrin in Urine (CPU); a sensitive parameter of hematological response is Basophilic stippling of RBCs; Plumbism can cause Burtonian’s line (Blue Line on gums).</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning -</li><li>➤ Inhalation</li><li>➤ mode of lead absorption</li><li>➤ adults</li><li>➤ occupational settings</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Coproporphyrin</li><li>➤ Urine</li><li>➤ sensitive parameter</li><li>➤ hematological response</li><li>➤ Basophilic stippling</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 934.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 934.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old man who has worked in a battery manufacturing plant for the past 20 years presents to the clinic with abdominal pain, constipation, and joint pain. His blood work shows a basophilic stippling of red blood cells, and he has a blood lead level of 50 µg/dL. Considering his prolonged exposure to inorganic lead, which of the following is least likely to be a toxic effect of inorganic lead in this patient?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Blue line on gums", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Wrist drops.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Stippling of RBC", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Insomnia", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Insomnia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-152726.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Insomnia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Toxic effects of inorganic lead exposure: Abdominal colic, obstinate constipation, loss of appetite, blue line on the gums, stippling of red cells, anaemia, wrist drop and foot drop.</li><li>• inorganic</li><li>• Toxic effects of organic lead compounds: Mostly on the central nervous system — insomnia, headache, mental confusion, delirium, etc.</li><li>• organic</li><li>• central nervous system</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning/ Plumbism/ Saturnism/ Painters colic - (MC heavy metal poisoning in the world)</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning/ Plumbism/ Saturnism/ Painters colic -</li><li>➤ Greatest source of lead in Lead Poisoning is Gasoline /petrol/vehicular exhaust/automobile exhaust</li><li>➤ Greatest source</li><li>➤ lead</li><li>➤ Lead Poisoning</li><li>➤ Gasoline</li><li>➤ Mode of absorption : Lead can be absorbed by inhalation (most common mode) , ingestion or through skin</li><li>➤ Mode of absorption</li><li>➤ inhalation (most common mode)</li><li>➤ Clinical picture of lead poisoning:</li><li>➤ Facial pallor: Earliest and most consistent sign Anemia: Microcytic hypochromic Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw) Lead colic: Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea) Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop Lead encephalopathy [CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds]</li><li>➤ Facial pallor: Earliest and most consistent sign</li><li>➤ Anemia: Microcytic hypochromic</li><li>➤ Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>➤ Punctate basophilia or basophilic stippling of RBCs</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>➤ Burtonian Line: Lead sulphide line on gums (upper jaw)</li><li>➤ Lead colic: Constipation (but sometimes diarrhea)</li><li>➤ Lead Palsy (Peripheral neuropathy): Wrist drop or Foot drop</li><li>➤ Lead encephalopathy [CNS effects: mostly due to organic lead compounds]</li><li>➤ Diagnosis of lead poisoning -</li><li>➤ Diagnosis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Reference: Park 26 th ed pg. 903.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old man who has worked in the asbestos industry for 30 years is being evaluated for respiratory symptoms and weight loss. His medical history is significant for smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years, although he quit 10 years ago. A chest X-ray shows pleural plaques and a mass in the lower lobe of the right lung. A biopsy of the mass reveals malignant mesothelioma. Based on this case and your knowledge of occupational cancers, which of the following statements is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "History of exposure to carcinogen is present.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Danger of getting cancer even after exposure has ceased.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Location and histological pattern are quite common in most occupations.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Short latent period", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Short latent period", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/image_B4GVCOe.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Short latent period</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Characteristics of occupational cancer :</li><li>• Characteristics</li><li>• occupational cancer</li><li>• They appear after prolonged exposure . The period between exposure and development of the disease may be as long as 10 to 25 years . The disease may develop even after the cessation of exposure. The average age incidence is earlier than that for cancer in general. The localization of the tumors is remarkably constant in any one occupation.</li><li>• They appear after prolonged exposure .</li><li>• prolonged exposure</li><li>• The period between exposure and development of the disease may be as long as 10 to 25 years .</li><li>• period</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• development</li><li>• disease</li><li>• 10 to 25 years</li><li>• The disease may develop even after the cessation of exposure.</li><li>• The average age incidence is earlier than that for cancer in general.</li><li>• The localization of the tumors is remarkably constant in any one occupation.</li><li>• Most common: Nearly 75% of occupational cancers are skin cancers and the m/c type is squamous cell carcinomas . The major characteristic feature is occurrence on exposed parts of the body (head, neck, hands, arms) that have remained in direct contact with a carcinogenic source .</li><li>• Most common:</li><li>• 75% of occupational cancers</li><li>• skin cancers</li><li>• m/c type is squamous cell carcinomas</li><li>• occurrence on exposed parts</li><li>• body</li><li>• direct contact</li><li>• carcinogenic source</li><li>• Carcinogens implicated : UV light, ionizing radiation, coal products, petroleum products, lubricating oils, fuel oils, etc</li><li>• Carcinogens implicated</li><li>• Occupational cancers affect Skin, lungs, bladder, and blood-forming organs</li><li>• Skin, lungs, bladder, and blood-forming organs</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg 935-936</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg 935-936</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A factory’s health and safety officer is tasked with evaluating the general well-being of the workers. To best assess the impact of health on productivity and attendance, which of the following should the officer primarily focus on?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Environmental sanitation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sickness absenteeism", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Nutritional status of the workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Occupational cancer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sickness absenteeism", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sickness absenteeism</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sickness Absenteeism</li><li>• Sickness Absenteeism</li><li>• Absenteeism is a useful index in industry to assess the state of health of workers and their physical, mental, and social well-being . The rate of absenteeism was reported to be 8 to 10 days per head per year. A recent study found it to be 16.4 days per head per year.</li><li>• Absenteeism</li><li>• useful index</li><li>• industry to assess the state</li><li>• health of workers</li><li>• physical, mental,</li><li>• social well-being</li><li>• rate of absenteeism</li><li>• 8 to 10 days</li><li>• The causes of sickness-absenteeism may not be entirely due to sickness :</li><li>• causes</li><li>• sickness-absenteeism</li><li>• not</li><li>• entirely due to sickness</li><li>• Economic causes: if the worker is entitled to sick leave with pay, he tends to avail himself of this privilege by reporting sick. Social causes: Social and family obligations such as weddings, festivals, repair and maintenance of ancestral houses and similar other causes. Medical causes: About 10 per cent of the days lost were found to be due to occupational accidents.</li><li>• Economic causes: if the worker is entitled to sick leave with pay, he tends to avail himself of this privilege by reporting sick.</li><li>• Economic causes:</li><li>• Social causes: Social and family obligations such as weddings, festivals, repair and maintenance of ancestral houses and similar other causes.</li><li>• Social causes:</li><li>• Medical causes: About 10 per cent of the days lost were found to be due to occupational accidents.</li><li>• Medical causes:</li><li>• Non-occupational causes : nutritional disorders, alcoholism, and drug addiction</li><li>• Non-occupational causes</li><li>• The prevention / reduction of sickness absenteeism would result in better utilization of resources and maximizing production -</li><li>• prevention</li><li>• reduction of sickness absenteeism</li><li>• better utilization</li><li>• resources</li><li>• maximizing production</li><li>• Good factory management and practices Adequate preplacement examination Good human relations Application of ergonomics.</li><li>• Good factory management and practices</li><li>• Adequate preplacement examination</li><li>• Good human relations</li><li>• Application of ergonomics.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Sickness absenteeism is a useful index in industry to assess the state of health of workers and their physical, mental , and social well-being . The rate of absenteeism was reported to be 8 to 10 days per head per year . A recent study found it to be 16.4 days per head per year.</li><li>➤ Sickness absenteeism</li><li>➤ useful index</li><li>➤ industry</li><li>➤ assess the state of health</li><li>➤ workers</li><li>➤ physical, mental</li><li>➤ social well-being</li><li>➤ absenteeism</li><li>➤ 8 to 10 days per head per year</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg.906.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In maintaining safety standards within an industrial setting, the management has decided to implement regular safety audits. Regarding the Level I safety audit, how often should it be conducted to ensure ongoing safety compliance?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Once in a month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Once in two months", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Once in three months", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Fortnightly", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Once in three months", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Once in three months</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The safety audit shall be carried out at three levels .</li><li>• safety audit</li><li>• carried out at three levels</li><li>• Level - 1 : Internal Audit inspection by Safety Officers from within the factory once every three months. Level - II : Audit inspection by a group comprising of 3 officers of the factories in the concerned group, once in a period of six months. Level - III : Annual Audit inspection by the Regional Controller of Safety.</li><li>• Level - 1 : Internal Audit inspection by Safety Officers from within the factory once every three months.</li><li>• Level - 1</li><li>• once every three months.</li><li>• Level - II : Audit inspection by a group comprising of 3 officers of the factories in the concerned group, once in a period of six months.</li><li>• Level - II</li><li>• six months.</li><li>• Level - III : Annual Audit inspection by the Regional Controller of Safety.</li><li>• Level - III</li><li>• Annual</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Level I safety audit , focusing on visible safety conditions and practices , is typically conducted once every three months to ensure ongoing safety compliance and timely identification of potential hazards .</li><li>➤ Level I safety audit</li><li>➤ focusing</li><li>➤ visible safety conditions</li><li>➤ practices</li><li>➤ once every three months</li><li>➤ ongoing safety compliance</li><li>➤ timely identification</li><li>➤ potential hazards</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: AFMC textbook, Pg 1283</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In evaluating the potential health risks associated with working in a high-temperature industrial environment, which of the following is NOT a direct effect of prolonged heat exposure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Heat exhaustion", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Heat stroke", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Erythrocyanosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Burns", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Erythrocyanosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://zdravlje.eu/wp-content/uploads/2011/11/Erythrocyanosis-Crurum-Puellarum.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Erythrocyanosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Erythrocyanosis is a cutaneous condition characterized by the reddish-blue discoloration of the skin due to cold exposure . The mottled discoloration is seen on the lower legs .</li><li>• Erythrocyanosis</li><li>• cutaneous</li><li>• reddish-blue discoloration</li><li>• skin</li><li>• cold exposure</li><li>• mottled discoloration</li><li>• lower legs</li><li>• High Temperature</li><li>• High Temperature</li><li>• Heat cramps Heat hyperpyrexia (body temperature &lt;102°F) Heat exhaustion (body temperature &gt;106°F) Heat stroke (body temperature up to 110°F)</li><li>• Heat cramps</li><li>• Heat hyperpyrexia (body temperature &lt;102°F)</li><li>• Heat exhaustion (body temperature &gt;106°F)</li><li>• Heat stroke (body temperature up to 110°F)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Diseases due to physical agents -</li><li>➤ Diseases due to physical agents -</li><li>➤ Heat : Heat hyperpyrexia, heat exhaustion, heat syncope, heat cramps, burns, and local effects such as prickly heat. Cold : Trench foot, frost bite, chilblains Light : Occupational cataract, miner’s nystagmus Pressure : Caisson disease, air embolism, blast (explosion) Noise : Occupational deafness Vibration: Vibration sickness, Neurogenic damage Radiation : Non-ionizing radiation, Cancer, leukemia, aplastic anemia, pancytopenia Mechanical factors : Injuries, accidents Electricity: Burns Microwave injuries Laser injuries</li><li>➤ Heat : Heat hyperpyrexia, heat exhaustion, heat syncope, heat cramps, burns, and local effects such as prickly heat.</li><li>➤ Heat</li><li>➤ Cold : Trench foot, frost bite, chilblains</li><li>➤ Cold</li><li>➤ Light : Occupational cataract, miner’s nystagmus</li><li>➤ Light</li><li>➤ Pressure : Caisson disease, air embolism, blast (explosion)</li><li>➤ Pressure</li><li>➤ Noise : Occupational deafness</li><li>➤ Noise</li><li>➤ Vibration: Vibration sickness, Neurogenic damage</li><li>➤ Vibration:</li><li>➤ Radiation : Non-ionizing radiation, Cancer, leukemia, aplastic anemia, pancytopenia</li><li>➤ Radiation</li><li>➤ Mechanical factors : Injuries, accidents</li><li>➤ Mechanical factors</li><li>➤ Electricity: Burns</li><li>➤ Electricity: Burns</li><li>➤ Microwave injuries</li><li>➤ Microwave injuries</li><li>➤ Laser injuries</li><li>➤ Laser injuries</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 900</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 900</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic with complaints of difficulty breathing, cough, and wheezing. He reports that these symptoms have been persisting for several months. He has a 20-year history of working in construction, and he is often exposed to dust and fumes. Upon further inquiry, he mentions that he has been using appropriate protective equipment at work. His chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. Considering the patient's occupational exposure, which of the following diseases is least likely to be associated with his work?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Asbestosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mesothelioma", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asthma", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Malaria", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Malaria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-153758.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Malaria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Asbestosis is a lung disease caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers , which can be encountered in construction work , especially in older buildings . This makes it a potential occupational hazard for this patient.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Asbestosis</li><li>• lung disease</li><li>• inhalation of asbestos fibers</li><li>• encountered</li><li>• construction work</li><li>• older buildings</li><li>• Option B. Mesothelioma is a rare form of cancer that is strongly associated with asbestos exposure . Workers in the asbestos industry are at an increased risk, making this a possible occupational hazard.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Mesothelioma</li><li>• rare form of cancer</li><li>• asbestos exposure</li><li>• Option C . Asthma can be exacerbated by occupational exposures , including dust and fumes encountered in construction work. Occupational asthma is a well-recognized entity.</li><li>• Option C</li><li>• Asthma</li><li>• exacerbated</li><li>• occupational exposures</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Occupational Exposure and diseases -</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg. 900.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg. 900.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man is undergoing a preplacement examination before starting a new job in a manufacturing plant. The human resources department has emphasized the importance of this examination to ensure that all employees are fit for their specific job roles and to identify any potential health risks associated with the job. Which of the following statements regarding preplacement examinations is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It helps in the placement of workers in the right job.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "It helps in providing compensation for rejecting unfit individuals.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "It provides baseline parameters for future comparisons.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "It increases maximum productivity.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. It helps in providing compensation for rejecting unfit individuals.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-153937.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. It helps in providing compensation for rejecting unfit individuals.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Pre-placement Examination : Is the foundation of an efficient occupational health service . It is done at the time of employment and includes worker’s history (medical, family, occupational, and social), physical examination , and biological and radiological examinations (PRIMARY LEVEL of prevention) .</li><li>• Pre-placement Examination</li><li>• foundation</li><li>• efficient occupational health service</li><li>• done at the time</li><li>• employment</li><li>• worker’s history</li><li>• physical examination</li><li>• biological</li><li>• radiological examinations (PRIMARY LEVEL of prevention)</li><li>• Main purpose of the Pre-Placement Examination is to place ‘the right man in the right job ’; so that the worker can perform his duties efficiently without detriment to his health (Ergonomics).</li><li>• Main purpose</li><li>• Pre-Placement Examination</li><li>• ‘the right man in the right job</li><li>• worker can perform</li><li>• duties efficiently</li><li>• Pre-placement Examination also serves as a useful benchmark for future comparison (examination and epidemiology).</li><li>• Pre-placement Examination</li><li>• serves</li><li>• useful benchmark</li><li>• future comparison</li><li>• The following is a list of some occupations in which it is risky to employ men suffering from certain diseases:</li><li>• It does not provide any compensation for rejecting the applicant .</li><li>• not</li><li>• provide</li><li>• compensation</li><li>• rejecting the applicant</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Main purpose of the Pre-placement Examination is to place ‘ the right man in the right job’</li><li>➤ Main purpose</li><li>➤ Pre-placement Examination</li><li>➤ the right man in the right job’</li><li>➤ Ergonomics:</li><li>➤ Ergonomics:</li><li>➤ Ergonomics (human factors): Is the application of scientific information concerning objects , systems and environment for human use.</li><li>➤ Ergonomics</li><li>➤ application of scientific information</li><li>➤ objects</li><li>➤ systems</li><li>➤ environment</li><li>➤ Physical Ergonomics : deals with the human body’s responses to physical and physiological stress .</li><li>➤ Physical Ergonomics</li><li>➤ human body’s responses</li><li>➤ physical</li><li>➤ physiological stress</li><li>➤ Cognitive Ergonomics (engineering psychology): concerns mental processes as they affect interactions among humans and other elements of a system ; includes workload, training, interaction, decision-making, errors, etc.</li><li>➤ Cognitive Ergonomics</li><li>➤ mental processes</li><li>➤ affect interactions</li><li>➤ humans</li><li>➤ elements of a system</li><li>➤ Organizational Ergonomics (macro ergonomics): is concerned with the optimization of systems , including their organizational structures , policies, and processes; includes job-satisfaction, motivation, supervision, team work, ethics, etc.</li><li>➤ Organizational Ergonomics</li><li>➤ optimization of systems</li><li>➤ organizational structures</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 908</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 908</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an occupational health physician, you are responsible for ensuring the well-being of employees in a manufacturing plant. Many workers are exposed to different chemicals and hazardous substances. To proactively manage their health and identify any work-related diseases at an early stage, you are planning to implement a routine medical examination program. How should the periodical medical examinations be scheduled to effectively identify diseases at early stages?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "6 months once", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yearly once", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Depends on the exposure.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quarterly.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Depends on the exposure.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Depends on the exposure.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The frequency and content of periodical medical examinations will depend upon the type of occupational exposure .</li><li>• frequency</li><li>• content of periodical medical examinations</li><li>• type of occupational exposure</li><li>• Ordinarily workers are examined once a year . But in certain occupational exposures lead , toxic dyes , radium - monthly examinations are indicated. Sometimes, irritant chemicals like dichromates - daily examinations may be needed.</li><li>• Ordinarily workers</li><li>• once a year</li><li>• occupational exposures lead</li><li>• toxic dyes</li><li>• radium</li><li>• irritant chemicals</li><li>• dichromates</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand that the frequency of periodical medical examinations in an occupational setting should be determined based on the level of exposure and risk associated with specific jobs , to ensure early detection and management of work-related diseases .</li><li>➤ frequency of periodical medical examinations</li><li>➤ occupational setting</li><li>➤ determined</li><li>➤ level of exposure</li><li>➤ risk</li><li>➤ specific jobs</li><li>➤ early detection</li><li>➤ management</li><li>➤ work-related diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 27 th ed pg. 934.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A human resources manager is planning the occupational health program for a company and is deciding on the schedule for periodic medical examinations for workers in different industries. Which of the following industries does NOT typically require workers to undergo periodic medical examinations on monthly basis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Dichromates", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dye industries", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead industry", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Radium industry", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Dichromates", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Dichromates</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Occupational Health Examination -</li><li>• Occupational Health Examination -</li><li>• Periodic Post-placement Medical Examination : (for industrial workers) is held at appropriate intervals to test their physical and mental efficiency and to detect any departure from health at the earliest; the objective being early diagnosis and prompt treatment (Secondary level of prevention).</li><li>• Periodic</li><li>• Post-placement Medical Examination</li><li>• appropriate intervals</li><li>• test</li><li>• physical</li><li>• mental efficiency</li><li>• detect</li><li>• departure from health</li><li>• Frequency of periodic examinations : Frequency and content depend upon the type of occupational exposure:</li><li>• Frequency of periodic examinations</li><li>• Annual: for most of occupational exposures Every 2 months: Radiation Industry Monthly: for lead, dye-stuffs exposure Daily: for dichromates exposure.</li><li>• Annual: for most of occupational exposures</li><li>• Every 2 months: Radiation Industry</li><li>• Monthly: for lead, dye-stuffs exposure</li><li>• Daily: for dichromates exposure.</li><li>• Daily: for dichromates exposure.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Periodic monthly medical examinations are for dye , lead, and radium industry workers.</li><li>➤ Periodic</li><li>➤ monthly medical examinations</li><li>➤ dye</li><li>➤ lead,</li><li>➤ radium industry workers.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 908.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A manager at a manufacturing plant is reviewing the guidelines and regulations under the Factories Act to ensure compliance and maintain a safe working environment for his employees. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the Factories Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "It includes only permanent labor.", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "People between 15- 18 years are allowed to work in factories.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The timing for women employees is between 6.00 am and 7.00 pm.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "The state governments are empowered to prescribe maximum weights which may be lifted by employees.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. It includes only permanent labor.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. It includes only permanent labor.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The 1976 amendment modifies the definition of the term worker - It also includes contract labor employed in the manufacturing process .</li><li>• 1976 amendment modifies</li><li>• term worker</li><li>• contract labor employed</li><li>• manufacturing process</li><li>• The Factory Act 1948</li><li>• The Factory Act 1948</li><li>• A Factory is an establishment with more than 10 persons working together with power or more than 20 persons working together without power. This act is not applicable to Defense, Mines, Railways and Eateries.</li><li>• Factory</li><li>• establishment with more than 10 persons</li><li>• power</li><li>• more than 20 persons</li><li>• working together</li><li>• Child is considered from the age 0-14 years for which employment is prohibited and adolescents are considered from the age 15-18 years .</li><li>• Child</li><li>• age 0-14 years</li><li>• employment is prohibited</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• age 15-18 years</li><li>• Work Hour Duration : 9 hours/day or 48 hours/week maximum it can go upto 60 hours/week including overtime</li><li>• Work Hour Duration</li><li>• Per Capita Space : More than 500 cubic feet.</li><li>• Per Capita Space</li><li>• More</li><li>• 500 cubic feet.</li><li>• Norms:</li><li>• Norms:</li><li>• 1 safety officer per 1000 workers 1 welfare officer per 500 workers 1 canteen per 250 workers 1 creche per 30 female workers 29 notifiable diseases</li><li>• 1 safety officer per 1000 workers</li><li>• 1 welfare officer per 500 workers</li><li>• 1 canteen per 250 workers</li><li>• 1 creche per 30 female workers</li><li>• 29 notifiable diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Factory Act is not only applicable to permanent workers , but also to the contractual workers (1976 amendment)</li><li>➤ Factory Act</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ applicable to permanent workers</li><li>➤ contractual workers</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 910</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 910</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a physician tasked with advising a newly established cotton industry on occupational health and safety regulations. The factory management is keen on complying with the Factories Act to ensure a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. They have approached you to provide guidance on the recommended space allocation per worker to meet legal and safety standards. What is the recommended space allocation for each worker (excluding the floor space) in the cotton industry, according to the Factories Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "250 Cubic ft", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "350 Cubic ft", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "500 Cubic ft", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "750 Cubic ft", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 500 Cubic ft", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 500 Cubic ft</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Chapter III, IV, IVA and V of the Factories Act deals with Health safety and welfare . According to this, a minimum of 500 Cu . ft of space for each worker has been prescribed (not considering space more than 14 feet above ground level). For factories installed before the 1948 Act , a minimum of 350 Cu. ft of space has been prescribed.</li><li>• Chapter III, IV, IVA</li><li>• V of the Factories Act</li><li>• Health safety</li><li>• welfare</li><li>• minimum of 500 Cu</li><li>• ft</li><li>• space</li><li>• each worker</li><li>• factories installed</li><li>• 1948 Act</li><li>• minimum of 350 Cu. ft</li><li>• The Factories Act, 1948 - The Act defines a factory as an establishment employing 10 or more persons where power is used and 20 or more persons where power is not used.</li><li>• The Factories Act, 1948 -</li><li>• Act</li><li>• factory</li><li>• employing 10</li><li>• more persons</li><li>• power</li><li>• 20</li><li>• more persons</li><li>• Work related norms :</li><li>• Work related norms</li><li>• Employment of young persons: Employment prohibited for age less than 14 years 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘certifying surgeons’; will work only between 6 AM to 7 PM Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations Hours of work: A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) 60 hours per week (including overtime) Leave with wages: 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days Health, Safety and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• Employment of young persons:</li><li>• Employment prohibited for age less than 14 years</li><li>• 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘certifying surgeons’; will work only between 6 AM to 7 PM Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations Hours of work: A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations Hours of work: A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations</li><li>• Hours of work:</li><li>• A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents</li><li>• 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day)</li><li>• 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• Leave with wages: 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days Health, Safety and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days Health, Safety and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents</li><li>• Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days</li><li>• Health, Safety and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• Under the Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 notifiable diseases (Schedule 3): Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis</li><li>• Factories Act 1948</li><li>• 29 notifiable diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Health, Safety and Welfare recommendations :</li><li>➤ Health, Safety</li><li>➤ Welfare recommendations</li><li>➤ A minimum of 500 cubic feet space per worker 1 Safety Officer per 1000 workers 1 Welfare Officer per 500 workers 1 Canteen for greater than 250 workers 1 Crèche for greater than 30 women workers</li><li>➤ A minimum of 500 cubic feet space per worker</li><li>➤ 1 Safety Officer per 1000 workers</li><li>➤ 1 Welfare Officer per 500 workers</li><li>➤ 1 Canteen for greater than 250 workers</li><li>➤ 1 Crèche for greater than 30 women workers</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 910</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 910</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an industrial setting focused on prioritizing worker safety, a company adheres to regulations regarding the appointment of safety officers. How many workers should be employed at the company to necessitate the appointment of one safety officer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1000", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1500", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The 1976 amendment (Section 40 B) provides for the appointment of 'Safety Officers' in every factory wherein 1,000 or more workers are ordinarily employed .</li><li>• 1976 amendment</li><li>• appointment of 'Safety Officers'</li><li>• factory</li><li>• 1,000 or more workers</li><li>• ordinarily employed</li><li>• The Factories Act 1948 - A Factory is an establishment with more than 10 persons working together with power or more than 20 persons working together without power . This act does not apply to Defense, Mines, Railways, and Eateries . Child is considered from the age 0-14 years for which employment is prohibited . Adolescents are considered from the age 15-18 years.</li><li>• The Factories Act 1948 -</li><li>• Factory</li><li>• establishment with more than 10 persons</li><li>• working</li><li>• power or more than 20 persons working</li><li>• without power</li><li>• act</li><li>• not apply to Defense, Mines, Railways, and Eateries</li><li>• Child</li><li>• age 0-14 years</li><li>• employment is prohibited</li><li>• Work Hour Duration : 9 hours/day or 48 hours/week maximum or 60 hours/week (with overtime)</li><li>• Work Hour Duration</li><li>• Per Capita Space : More than 500 cubic feet.</li><li>• Per Capita Space</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Factory Act Norms:</li><li>➤ The Factory Act Norms:</li><li>➤ 1 safety officer per 1000 workers</li><li>➤ 1 welfare officer per 500 workers</li><li>➤ 1 canteen per 250 workers</li><li>➤ 1 creche per 30 female workers</li><li>➤ 29 notifiable diseases</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed p 910.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed p 910.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A manufacturing company is expanding its workforce, and the human resources department is ensuring all legal requirements for worker welfare are being met. According to the Factories Act, at what point is the company required to appoint a welfare officer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 per 250 workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 per 500 workers", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 per 1000 workers", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 per 750 workers", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 per 500 workers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 per 500 workers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Norms under The Factory Act 1948 -</li><li>• Norms under The Factory Act 1948 -</li><li>• Health, Safety, and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• Health, Safety, and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• A minimum of 500 cubic feet of space per worker 1 safety officer per 1000 workers 1 welfare officer per 500 workers 1 canteen per 250 workers 1 creche per 30 female workers 29 notifiable diseases</li><li>• A minimum of 500 cubic feet of space per worker</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• 500 cubic feet</li><li>• space per worker</li><li>• 1 safety officer per 1000 workers</li><li>• safety officer</li><li>• 1000 workers</li><li>• 1 welfare officer per 500 workers</li><li>• welfare officer</li><li>• 500 workers</li><li>• 1 canteen per 250 workers</li><li>• 1 creche per 30 female workers</li><li>• 29 notifiable diseases</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1 welfare office per 500 workers under 1948 , Factory act</li><li>➤ 1 welfare office</li><li>➤ 500 workers</li><li>➤ 1948</li><li>➤ Factory act</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed Pg 910.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed Pg 910.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 25-year-old man is employed as a machine operator in a manufacturing plant. He has been working extended hours for the past few weeks to meet production deadlines. Concerned about labor laws and employee rights, he decided to inquire about the maximum permitted working hours including overtime for adults according to the Factories Act. What is the maximum number of hours an adult worker can work per week, including overtime, under the Factories Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "42 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "48 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "52 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 hours", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 60 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 60 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Work-related norms -</li><li>• Work-related norms -</li><li>• Employment of young persons : Employment is prohibited for age less than 14 years 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘ certifying surgeons’ ; will work only between 6AM to 7PM Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations</li><li>• Employment of young persons : Employment is prohibited for age less than 14 years 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘ certifying surgeons’ ; will work only between 6AM to 7PM Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations</li><li>• Employment of young persons</li><li>• Employment is prohibited for age less than 14 years 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘ certifying surgeons’ ; will work only between 6AM to 7PM Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations</li><li>• Employment is prohibited for age less than 14 years</li><li>• Employment</li><li>• prohibited</li><li>• age less than 14 years</li><li>• 15-18 years old adolescents to be declared fit by ‘ certifying surgeons’ ; will work only between 6AM to 7PM</li><li>• 15-18 years</li><li>• certifying surgeons’</li><li>• Employment prohibited in certain dangerous occupations</li><li>• Employment</li><li>• dangerous occupations</li><li>• Hours of work: A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) MAXIMUM It can go upto 60 hours per week (including overtime) Leave with wages : 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents 1 day per 20 days of work for adults Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days</li><li>• Hours of work: A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) MAXIMUM It can go upto 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• Hours of work:</li><li>• A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) MAXIMUM It can go upto 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• A maximum of 4½ hours of work per day for adolescents</li><li>• maximum</li><li>• 4½ hours</li><li>• 48 hours per week (9 hrs per day) MAXIMUM</li><li>• It can go upto 60 hours per week (including overtime)</li><li>• Leave with wages : 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents 1 day per 20 days of work for adults Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days</li><li>• Leave with wages</li><li>• 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents 1 day per 20 days of work for adults Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days</li><li>• 1 day per 15 days of work for adolescents</li><li>• 1 day per 20 days of work for adults</li><li>• Leaves can be accumulated up to 40 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ “ Factory Act, 1948 ” maximum permissible working hours/ week - 48 hours (60 hours with overtime)</li><li>➤ Factory Act, 1948</li><li>➤ maximum</li><li>➤ working hours/ week</li><li>➤ 48 hours</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 910</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 910</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 32-year-old man, has recently completed his first year working in the steel manufacturing industry. According to the Factories Act, he is now eligible to take a certain amount of leave in addition to his regular weekly off days. How many days of leave is Mr. X entitled to per month under this act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 day for every 15 days of work", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 day for every 20 days of work", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 day for every 28 days of work", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 day for every 30 days of work", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1 day for every 20 days of work", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1 day for every 20 days of work</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Factories Act, 1948 :</li><li>• Factories Act, 1948</li><li>• Scope : The Act defines a factory as an establishment employing 10 or more persons where power is used and 20 or more persons where power is not used. Health, Safety, and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• Scope : The Act defines a factory as an establishment employing 10 or more persons where power is used and 20 or more persons where power is not used.</li><li>• Scope</li><li>• Act</li><li>• employing 10</li><li>• more persons</li><li>• power</li><li>• 20 or more persons</li><li>• Health, Safety, and Welfare recommendations:</li><li>• A minimum of 500 cubic feet of space per worker 1 Safety Officer per 1000 workers 1 Welfare Officer per 500 workers 1 Canteen for greater than 250 workers 1 Crèche for greater than 30 women workers</li><li>• A minimum of 500 cubic feet of space per worker</li><li>• 1 Safety Officer per 1000 workers</li><li>• 1 Welfare Officer per 500 workers</li><li>• 1 Canteen for greater than 250 workers</li><li>• 1 Crèche for greater than 30 women workers</li><li>• The Factories Act lays down that besides weekly holidays , every worker will be entitled to leave with wages after 12 months of continuous service at the following rate: adult - one day for every 20 days of work, children - one day for every 15 days of work.</li><li>• The Factories Act lays down that besides weekly holidays , every worker will be entitled to leave with wages after 12 months of continuous service at the following rate: adult - one day for every 20 days of work, children - one day for every 15 days of work.</li><li>• Factories Act lays down</li><li>• weekly holidays</li><li>• adult - one day for every 20 days of work, children - one day for every 15 days of work.</li><li>• adult - one day for every 20 days of work,</li><li>• adult</li><li>• children - one day for every 15 days of work.</li><li>• children</li><li>• The leave can be accumulated up to 30 days in the case of adults and 40 days in the case of children .</li><li>• leave</li><li>• accumulated up to 30 days</li><li>• adults and 40 days</li><li>• children</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The leave entitlements of employees in the industrial sector as per the factories act , which is 1 day for every 20 days of work performed. Under the Factories Act 1948 , 29 diseases are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>➤ The leave entitlements of employees in the industrial sector as per the factories act , which is 1 day for every 20 days of work performed.</li><li>➤ leave entitlements</li><li>➤ employees</li><li>➤ industrial sector</li><li>➤ factories act</li><li>➤ 1 day for every 20 days</li><li>➤ Under the Factories Act 1948 , 29 diseases are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis, Asbestosis.</li><li>➤ Factories Act 1948</li><li>➤ 29 diseases</li><li>➤ notifiable</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26th ed pg. 910</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old human resource manager at a manufacturing plant is tasked with updating the company's employee benefits program. She is particularly focusing on the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Scheme, a self-financing social security and health insurance scheme for Indian workers. To ensure accuracy in her report, she needs to identify the committee on whose recommendations the ESI Scheme was established. Which of the following committees was responsible for this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Adarkar committee", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bajaj Committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mudaliar committee", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bhore committee", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Adarkar committee", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/Screenshot%202025-05-23%20164927_Xpvx0Lm.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Adarkar committee</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Employee State Insurance (ESI) Scheme was based on the recommendations of the B. P. Adarkar Committee , constituted by the Government of India in 1946. The scheme was later enacted as the Employee State Insurance Act in 1948 . The B. P. Adarkar Committee played a pivotal role in formulating this comprehensive social security scheme aimed at protecting employees against sickness , disability , and death due to employment injury .</li><li>• Employee State Insurance</li><li>• Scheme</li><li>• B. P. Adarkar Committee</li><li>• Government of India in 1946.</li><li>• scheme</li><li>• Employee State Insurance Act in 1948</li><li>• B. P. Adarkar Committee</li><li>• pivotal role</li><li>• formulating</li><li>• comprehensive social security scheme</li><li>• protecting employees against sickness</li><li>• disability</li><li>• death</li><li>• employment injury</li><li>• ESI Corporation was framed with tripartite participation - Government, employer, and employee to provide medical care and compensation to an employee.</li><li>• ESI Corporation</li><li>• framed with tripartite participation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Employee State Insurance (ESI) Scheme was based on the recommendations of the B. P. Adarkar Committee</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sharma is a medical officer in a large manufacturing company. He has been tasked with educating new employees about the various health and welfare schemes available to them. Dr. Sharma is explaining the nature of participation in the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act to the new employees. How would he best describe the participation under ESI Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Single party", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Bi Partite", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tripartite", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Quadripartite", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tripartite", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tripartite</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• ESI Corporation was framed with tripartite participation - Government , employer , and employee to provide medical care and compensation to an employee . This operates under The Union Minister of Labour as the Chairman of ESI Corporation</li><li>• ESI Corporation</li><li>• framed</li><li>• tripartite participation</li><li>• Government</li><li>• employer</li><li>• employee</li><li>• medical care</li><li>• compensation to an employee</li><li>• operates</li><li>• Union Minister of Labour</li><li>• Chairman of ESI Corporation</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Finance (revised - w.e.f. 01.07.2019):</li><li>➤ Finance</li><li>➤ Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176 Rs / per day exempted) State and Central Government share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>➤ Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill</li><li>➤ Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176 Rs / per day exempted)</li><li>➤ State and Central Government share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old human resource specialist is preparing a presentation about the history of social security programs in India for a conference. While discussing the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Scheme, she wants to highlight when and where the scheme was first implemented. What was the first location where the ESI Scheme was put into action?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Calcutta", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Chennai", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kanpur", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mumbai", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kanpur", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Kanpur</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Employee State Insurance Scheme , a self-financing social security and health insurance scheme for Indian workers , was first implemented in Kanpur and Delhi on 24th February 1952 . The scheme was launched as a pilot project in these two locations before being extended to other parts of the country.</li><li>• Employee State Insurance Scheme</li><li>• self-financing social security</li><li>• health insurance scheme</li><li>• Indian workers</li><li>• Kanpur and Delhi</li><li>• 24th February 1952</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ To enhance knowledge about the history of the Employee State Insurance Scheme in India , specifically its initial implementation in Kanpur and Delhi .</li><li>➤ enhance knowledge</li><li>➤ history</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance Scheme in India</li><li>➤ initial implementation</li><li>➤ Kanpur and Delhi</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, Pg 738.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A hospital administrator is ensuring compliance with the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act in their newly established healthcare facility. To comply, they need to provide ESI benefits to eligible employees. Up to what wage limit does the ESI Act mandate coverage for employees in factories and establishments?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "12,000 per month", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "15,000 per month", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "21,000 per month", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "25,000 per month", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 21,000 per month", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-155434.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 21,000 per month</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• With effect from 1.5.2010 the Act covers all employees - manual , clerical , supervisory and technical - getting up to Rs. 15,000 per month . This has been further revised to Rs. 21,000 per month as per notification of ES1C on 6.9.2016.</li><li>• effect</li><li>• 1.5.2010</li><li>• Act</li><li>• covers all employees</li><li>• manual</li><li>• clerical</li><li>• supervisory</li><li>• technical</li><li>• Rs. 15,000 per month</li><li>• revised to Rs. 21,000 per month</li><li>• The ESI Act, 1948</li><li>• The ESI Act, 1948</li><li>• Ministry : Union Ministry of Labor</li><li>• Ministry</li><li>• Chairperson : Union Ministry of Labor</li><li>• Chairperson</li><li>• Contribution :</li><li>• Contribution</li><li>• Employer – 3.25% of wages</li><li>• Employer</li><li>• Employee – 0.75% of wages</li><li>• Employee</li><li>• Center: State – 7:1</li><li>• Center: State</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ESI Coverage :</li><li>➤ ESI Coverage</li><li>➤ All non-seasonal factories where &gt; 10 persons</li><li>➤ All seasonal factories where &gt; 20 persons.</li><li>➤ Income &lt; 21000 per month</li><li>➤ Income &lt; 21000 per month</li><li>➤ Benefits:</li><li>➤ Benefits:</li><li>➤ Medical benefit – Full medical care</li><li>➤ Medical benefit –</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit – 70% wages x 91 days</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit –</li><li>➤ Extended Sickness benefit : 80% wages x 2 years</li><li>➤ Extended Sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Enhanced Sickness benefit : 100% wages x 7 days (Vasectomy) or 14 days (Tubectomy)</li><li>➤ Enhanced Sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Temporary Disablement benefit: 90% wages till recovery</li><li>➤ Temporary Disablement benefit:</li><li>➤ Permanent Disablement benefit: 90% wages (worked by medical board)</li><li>➤ Permanent Disablement benefit:</li><li>➤ Maternity Benefits: 100% wages x 26 weeks</li><li>➤ Maternity Benefits:</li><li>➤ Dependance Benefits: 90% wages as pension</li><li>➤ Dependance Benefits:</li><li>➤ Funeral Expenses: Up to Rs. 10000</li><li>➤ Funeral Expenses:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27th ed pg. 943</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27th ed pg. 943</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old factory worker has recently availed medical benefits under the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act due to a workplace injury. He is curious about the distribution of financial responsibilities for his medical bills under this scheme. What percentage of his medical bill is covered by the state government according to the ESI Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "7/8 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4/9 th", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1/8 th", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1/8 th", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1/8th</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Finance under ESI -</li><li>• Finance under ESI -</li><li>• Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted) State and Central Government share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>• Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill</li><li>• Employer</li><li>• 3.25%</li><li>• total wage bill</li><li>• Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted)</li><li>• Employee</li><li>• 0.75% of wages</li><li>• State and Central Government share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>• State</li><li>• Central Government</li><li>• medical expenditure</li><li>• ratio of 1:7</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The state government typically contributes 1/8th towards the expenditure on medical benefits and provision of medical services to insured persons and their families under the ESI Act.</li><li>➤ state government</li><li>➤ contributes 1/8th</li><li>➤ expenditure</li><li>➤ medical benefits</li><li>➤ provision of medical services</li><li>➤ insured persons</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 911.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 911.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, a 48-year-old employee working in an industry for more than four years, has recently been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Given his condition and the coverage under the ESI Act, which of the following benefits is he eligible to receive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sickness benefit for 91 days", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sickness benefit for 1 year", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Extended sickness benefit for 2 years", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sickness benefit for 26 weeks.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Extended sickness benefit for 2 years", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-160704.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Extended sickness benefit for 2 years</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sickness Benefits to employees under ESI:</li><li>• Sickness Benefits to employees under ESI:</li><li>• Sickness benefit : 70% of the average daily wages and is payable for 91 days (in any continuous period of 365 days). Extended sickness benefit : Payable for 2 years for a set of 34 diseases (80% wages) Enhanced sickness benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 7 days in the case of Vasectomy and upto 14 days in the case of the Tubectomy.</li><li>• Sickness benefit : 70% of the average daily wages and is payable for 91 days (in any continuous period of 365 days).</li><li>• Sickness benefit</li><li>• 70%</li><li>• average daily wages</li><li>• payable for 91 days</li><li>• Extended sickness benefit : Payable for 2 years for a set of 34 diseases (80% wages)</li><li>• Extended</li><li>• sickness benefit</li><li>• Payable</li><li>• 2 years</li><li>• Enhanced sickness benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 7 days in the case of Vasectomy and upto 14 days in the case of the Tubectomy.</li><li>• Enhanced</li><li>• sickness benefit</li><li>• Full average daily wage</li><li>• 7 days</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Extended sickness benefit: Payable for 2 years for a set of 34 diseases</li><li>➤ Extended sickness</li><li>➤ Payable</li><li>➤ 2 years</li><li>➤ set of 34 diseases</li><li>➤ Ref : Park textbook, 26 th ed, pg 912.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park textbook, 26 th ed, pg 912.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. X, a 28-year-old woman, has been working in the garment industry for the past 3 years. Her current monthly salary is 9,000 Rs. Recently, she experienced a miscarriage and required hospitalization for necessary medical care. The Human Resources manager is now reviewing her case to determine her entitlements in terms of leave with full wages, as per employment policies and legal provisions. Given Mrs. X’s situation, for how long is she entitled to receive leave with full wages?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "10 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8 weeks.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 6 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• According to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 in India , women are entitled to various maternity benefits , including leave with full wages (26 weeks for full confinement) . In the case of miscarriage, a woman is entitled to 6 weeks (42 days) of leave with average pay from the date of miscarriage.</li><li>• Maternity Benefit Act, 1961</li><li>• India</li><li>• women</li><li>• entitled</li><li>• maternity benefits</li><li>• leave with full wages (26 weeks for full confinement)</li><li>• Eligibility - As per the act a woman should have worked with her employer for at least 80 days in the 12 months preceding the date of her expected delivery.</li><li>• Eligibility</li><li>• act a woman</li><li>• worked with her employer</li><li>• least 80 days</li><li>• 12 months</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Maternity Benefit Act specifically provides 6 weeks of paid leave for women who experience a miscarriage.</li><li>➤ Maternity Benefit Act</li><li>➤ 6 weeks of paid leave</li><li>➤ women</li><li>➤ miscarriage.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 913</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 913</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A worker is reviewing the monetary benefits available under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act. Which of the following is NOT considered a direct monetary benefit to employees under this act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Funeral expenses", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disablement benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternity benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical benefit", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Medical benefit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Medical benefit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Funeral expenses : In case of death due to occupational injury , Rs 15,000 is provided to the family members towards funeral expenses.</li><li>• Option A. Funeral</li><li>• expenses</li><li>• :</li><li>• death</li><li>• occupational injury</li><li>• Rs 15,000</li><li>• family members</li><li>• Option B. Disablement benefit: The rate of temporary disablement benefit is about 90 per cent of the wages if the temporary disablement lasts.</li><li>• Option B. Disablement benefit:</li><li>• rate of temporary disablement</li><li>• benefit</li><li>• 90 per cent of the wages</li><li>• In case of total permanent disablement , the insured person is given a life pension worked out based on loss of earning capacity determined by a medical board, while in cases of partial permanent disablement a portion of it is granted as life pension.</li><li>• total permanent disablement</li><li>• insured person</li><li>• life pension</li><li>• loss of earning capacity</li><li>• Option D. Maternity benefit: Full wages - For confinement , the duration of benefit - 26 weeks, miscarriage - 6 weeks ; sickness arising out of confinement - 30 days. The rate of confinement expenses is Rs. 7,500 per confinement.</li><li>• Option D. Maternity benefit:</li><li>• Full wages</li><li>• confinement</li><li>• duration of benefit</li><li>• 26 weeks, miscarriage</li><li>• 6 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the ESI Act , the medical benefit provides healthcare services rather than direct financial assistance .</li><li>➤ ESI Act</li><li>➤ medical benefit</li><li>➤ healthcare services</li><li>➤ direct financial assistance</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 913</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 913</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An employer is assessing the advantages of contributing to the Employee State Insurance (ESI) scheme. Which of the following is NOT a recognized benefit for employers under this scheme?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exemption from Workmen’s compensation act", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Exemption from maternity benefit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rebate from income tax act", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "GST payment exemption", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. GST payment exemption", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. GST payment exemption</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Benefits to Employers</li><li>• Benefits to Employers</li><li>• Exemption from the applicability of Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923 Exemption from Maternity Benefit Act 1961 Exemption from payment of medical allowance to employees and their dependents or arranging for their medical care. Rebate under the Income Tax Act on contributions deposited in the ESI Account Healthy workforce .</li><li>• Exemption from the applicability of Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923</li><li>• Exemption</li><li>• applicability of Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923</li><li>• Exemption from Maternity Benefit Act 1961</li><li>• Exemption</li><li>• Maternity Benefit Act 1961</li><li>• Exemption from payment of medical allowance to employees and their dependents or arranging for their medical care.</li><li>• Exemption</li><li>• payment of medical allowance</li><li>• employees</li><li>• Rebate under the Income Tax Act on contributions deposited in the ESI Account</li><li>• Rebate</li><li>• Income Tax Act</li><li>• Healthy workforce .</li><li>• Healthy workforce</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand the benefits to employers of contributing to the Employee State Insurance (ESI) scheme , and recognize that these contributions do not provide an exemption from the Goods and Services Tax (GST).</li><li>➤ benefits to employers</li><li>➤ contributing</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance</li><li>➤ scheme</li><li>➤ contributions do not provide</li><li>➤ exemption</li><li>➤ Goods and Services Tax</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 913.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 913.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a human resources manager in a manufacturing company, you are tasked with ensuring that all employees are aware of their rights and benefits under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act. Which of the following statements about the ESI Act is NOT correct?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ESI act provides for specialized treatment only within the state, outside the state is not covered", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Part time ESI dispensaries are established where employees are less than 750.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical benefits are also extended to the family members of the employee.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Artificial limbs are provided at free of cost to the insured person if he had lost his limb during employment.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. ESI act provides for specialized treatment only within the state, outside the state is not covered", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/30/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. ESI act provides for specialized treatment only within the state, outside the state is not</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• In complicated cases where specialized treatment is necessary , patients are sent for institutional treatment even outside their State at the expense of the ESI Corporation .</li><li>• complicated cases</li><li>• specialized treatment</li><li>• necessary</li><li>• patients</li><li>• sent</li><li>• institutional treatment</li><li>• outside their State</li><li>• expense of the ESI Corporation</li><li>• The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948</li><li>• The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948</li><li>• ESI Act Is an important measure of social security and health insurance in India . The act covers all the factories in India excluding mines, defence, and railways. Coverage : Non-seasonal factories employing 10 or more persons. Shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings and newspaper establishments employing 20 or more persons Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20 or more persons in certain States/UTs It covers all states except Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and UTs of Delhi and Chandigarh It covers all employees getting income up to 21,000/- per month</li><li>• ESI Act Is an important measure of social security and health insurance in India . The act covers all the factories in India excluding mines, defence, and railways.</li><li>• ESI Act</li><li>• important measure</li><li>• social security</li><li>• health insurance</li><li>• India</li><li>• act covers</li><li>• factories in India</li><li>• Coverage : Non-seasonal factories employing 10 or more persons. Shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings and newspaper establishments employing 20 or more persons Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20 or more persons in certain States/UTs It covers all states except Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and UTs of Delhi and Chandigarh It covers all employees getting income up to 21,000/- per month</li><li>• Coverage</li><li>• Non-seasonal factories</li><li>• 10 or more persons.</li><li>• Shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings and newspaper establishments employing 20 or more persons Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20 or more persons in certain States/UTs It covers all states except Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and UTs of Delhi and Chandigarh It covers all employees getting income up to 21,000/- per month</li><li>• Shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings and newspaper establishments employing 20 or more persons</li><li>• Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20 or more persons in certain States/UTs</li><li>• It covers all states except Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and UTs of Delhi and Chandigarh</li><li>• It covers all employees getting income up to 21,000/- per month</li><li>• 21,000/- per month</li><li>• Administration : The Union Minister of Labour is the Chairman of ESI Corporation Finance: Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted) State and Central Governments share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>• Administration : The Union Minister of Labour is the Chairman of ESI Corporation</li><li>• Administration</li><li>• Union Minister of Labour</li><li>• Chairman of ESI Corporation</li><li>• Finance: Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted) State and Central Governments share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>• Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted) State and Central Governments share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li><li>• Employer contributes 3.25% of total wage bill</li><li>• Employee contributes 0.75% of wages (those earning &lt; 176/- per day exempted)</li><li>• State and Central Governments share medical expenditure in ratio of 1:7</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Benefits to employees under ESI :</li><li>➤ Benefits to employees under ESI</li><li>➤ Medical benefit : Full medical care Sickness benefit : 70% of the average daily wages and is payable for 91 days (in any continuous period of 365 days) Extended sickness benefit : Payable for 2 years for a set of 34 diseases (80% wages) Enhanced sickness benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 7 days in the case of Vasectomy and up to 14 days in the case of the Tubectomy Maternity benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 26 weeks (6 months) (NEW GUIDELINE - Employees’ State Insurance (Central) Amendment Rules, 2017) for full confinement (7500/- per confinement) Temporary disablement benefit : 90% of the average daily wages till recovery Permanent disablement benefit : 90% of wages for loss of earning as worked out by a medical board Dependents’ benefit : Pension at a rate of 90% of wages Funeral expenses : Cash not exceeding 15,000/- Rehabilitation benefit</li><li>➤ Medical benefit : Full medical care</li><li>➤ Medical benefit</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit : 70% of the average daily wages and is payable for 91 days (in any continuous period of 365 days)</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Extended sickness benefit : Payable for 2 years for a set of 34 diseases (80% wages)</li><li>➤ Extended sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Enhanced sickness benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 7 days in the case of Vasectomy and up to 14 days in the case of the Tubectomy</li><li>➤ Enhanced sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Maternity benefit : Full average daily wage for duration upto 26 weeks (6 months) (NEW GUIDELINE - Employees’ State Insurance (Central) Amendment Rules, 2017) for full confinement (7500/- per confinement)</li><li>➤ Maternity benefit</li><li>➤ Temporary disablement benefit : 90% of the average daily wages till recovery</li><li>➤ Temporary disablement benefit</li><li>➤ Permanent disablement benefit : 90% of wages for loss of earning as worked out by a medical board</li><li>➤ Permanent disablement benefit</li><li>➤ Dependents’ benefit : Pension at a rate of 90% of wages</li><li>➤ Dependents’ benefit</li><li>➤ Funeral expenses : Cash not exceeding 15,000/-</li><li>➤ Funeral expenses</li><li>➤ Rehabilitation benefit</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 911.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 911.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old female employee, who is covered under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act, is expecting her first child. She is planning to take maternity leave and is inquiring about the confinement expenses that she is entitled to receive. According to the ESI Act, what is the amount of confinement expenses that she is eligible for?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rs 2500", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rs 5000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Rs 6000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rs 7500", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rs 7500", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Rs 7500</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Under ESI act , monetary benefit at the rate of full wages is provided for -</li><li>• Under ESI act</li><li>• monetary benefit</li><li>• rate of full wages</li><li>• For confinement - 26 weeks, For miscarriage - 6 weeks For sickness arising out of confinement - 30 days.</li><li>• For confinement - 26 weeks,</li><li>• For confinement</li><li>• For miscarriage - 6 weeks</li><li>• For miscarriage</li><li>• For sickness arising out of confinement - 30 days.</li><li>• For sickness arising out of confinement</li><li>• The rate of confinement expenses has been increased from Rs. 5000 to Rs. 7500 per confinement.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act, female employees are entitled to receive confinement expenses , the amount is Rs. 7500.</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance</li><li>➤ female employees</li><li>➤ entitled to receive confinement expenses</li><li>➤ 7500.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 911.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed 911.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 30-year-old man employed in a manufacturing unit has been consistently unwell and unable to work for the past two months. He has been under the care of a certified medical practitioner and has submitted all necessary documentation to his employer. Considering the provisions of the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act of 1948, which of the following actions can his employer legally take during this period of certified sickness?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Terminate the employment due to prolonged absence.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Withhold the employee’s salary until he returns to work.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Provide sickness benefits as per the ESI Act provisions.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Require the employee to perform light duties from home", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Provide sickness benefits as per the ESI Act provisions.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Provide sickness benefits as per the ESI Act provisions.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Terminating the employment due to prolonged absence would not be in compliance with the ESI Act, which protects employees during periods of certified sickness.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Terminating</li><li>• employment</li><li>• prolonged absence</li><li>• Option B. Withholding the employee’s salary is contrary to the provisions of the ESI Act , which ensures financial support during certified illness.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Withholding</li><li>• employee’s salary</li><li>• contrary to the provisions</li><li>• ESI Act</li><li>• Option D. Requiring the employee to perform light duties from home might not be feasible or in line with the medical advice given, and the ESI Act does not mandate this.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Requiring</li><li>• employee to perform light duties</li><li>• home</li><li>• not</li><li>• feasible</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Understand that under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act of 1948 , an employer should provide sickness benefits to an employee during a period of certified sickness , in accordance with the act's provisions.</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance</li><li>➤ Act of 1948</li><li>➤ employer</li><li>➤ provide sickness benefits</li><li>➤ employee</li><li>➤ period of certified sickness</li><li>➤ Benefits under the ESI Act 1948 -</li><li>➤ Benefits under the ESI Act 1948 -</li><li>➤ Medical benefit – Full medical care</li><li>➤ Medical benefit –</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit – 70% wages x 91 days</li><li>➤ Sickness benefit –</li><li>➤ Extended Sickness benefit : 80% wages x 2 years</li><li>➤ Extended Sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Enhanced Sickness benefit : 100% wages x 7 days (Vasectomy) or 14 days (Tubectomy)</li><li>➤ Enhanced Sickness benefit</li><li>➤ Temporary Disablement benefit: 90% wages till recovery</li><li>➤ Temporary Disablement benefit:</li><li>➤ Permanent Disablement benefit: 90% wages (worked by the medical board)</li><li>➤ Permanent Disablement benefit:</li><li>➤ Maternity Benefits: 100% wages x 26 weeks</li><li>➤ Maternity Benefits:</li><li>➤ Dependence Benefits: 90% wages as pension</li><li>➤ Dependence Benefits:</li><li>➤ Funeral Expenses: Up to Rs. 15,000</li><li>➤ Funeral Expenses:</li><li>➤ The employer cannot dismiss the employee based on the severity of the illness during the period of certified sickness . Reducing the employee’s salary during the period of sickness is not permitted under the ESI Act ; instead, the employee is entitled to receive sickness benefits.</li><li>➤ employer</li><li>➤ cannot dismiss</li><li>➤ employee</li><li>➤ severity of the illness</li><li>➤ period of certified sickness</li><li>➤ Reducing the employee’s salary</li><li>➤ period of sickness</li><li>➤ not permitted</li><li>➤ ESI Act</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 912.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed 912.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an Industrial Health Officer, you are assessing the work environment of a manufacturing plant to enhance the overall safety and well-being of the employees. Which of the following statements is NOT in alignment with the principles of ergonomics?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Fitting the job to the worker.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Fitting the employee to the employer.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Deals with the human body’s response to physical and physiological stress.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Improves human efficiency and well-being.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Fitting the employee to the employer.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B.Fitting the employee to the employer.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Ergonomics (human factors)</li><li>• Ergonomics (human factors)</li><li>• It is the application of scientific information concerning objects, systems , and environment for human use . “Fitting the job to the worker”. Training in ergonomics involves designing machines , tools , equipment , and manufacturing processes , layout of the places of work, methods of work, and environment to achieve greater efficiency of both man and machine.</li><li>• application of scientific information</li><li>• objects, systems</li><li>• environment</li><li>• human use</li><li>• “Fitting the job to the worker”.</li><li>• Training</li><li>• ergonomics</li><li>• designing machines</li><li>• tools</li><li>• equipment</li><li>• manufacturing processes</li><li>• Physical Ergonomics: Deals with the human body’s responses to physical and physiological stress . Cognitive Ergonomics (engineering psychology): Concerns mental processes as they affect interactions among humans and other elements of a system; includes workload, training, interaction, decision-making, errors, etc. Organizational Ergonomics (macro ergonomics): Is concerned with the optimization of systems , including their organizational structures , policies , and processes ; includes job satisfaction, motivation, supervision, teamwork, ethics, etc. It aims to put 'RIGHT MAN IN RIGHT JOB'</li><li>• Physical Ergonomics: Deals with the human body’s responses to physical and physiological stress .</li><li>• Physical Ergonomics:</li><li>• human body’s responses</li><li>• physical</li><li>• physiological stress</li><li>• Cognitive Ergonomics (engineering psychology): Concerns mental processes as they affect interactions among humans and other elements of a system; includes workload, training, interaction, decision-making, errors, etc.</li><li>• Cognitive Ergonomics (engineering psychology):</li><li>• mental processes</li><li>• affect interactions</li><li>• humans</li><li>• Organizational Ergonomics (macro ergonomics): Is concerned with the optimization of systems , including their organizational structures , policies , and processes ; includes job satisfaction, motivation, supervision, teamwork, ethics, etc.</li><li>• Organizational Ergonomics (macro ergonomics):</li><li>• optimization of systems</li><li>• organizational structures</li><li>• policies</li><li>• processes</li><li>• It aims to put 'RIGHT MAN IN RIGHT JOB'</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ergonomics aims to optimize workspaces , systems , and products to fit the needs of the user , enhancing efficiency , productivity , and well-being , without resorting to punitive measures for incorrect posture. Preplacement examination is a part of Ergonomics</li><li>➤ Ergonomics aims</li><li>➤ optimize workspaces</li><li>➤ systems</li><li>➤ products to fit the needs</li><li>➤ user</li><li>➤ enhancing efficiency</li><li>➤ productivity</li><li>➤ well-being</li><li>➤ Ref : Parks 27 th ed pg 930, 939.</li><li>➤ Ref : Parks 27 th ed pg 930, 939.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Human Resources Manager is providing information to new employees about the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act 1948 during an orientation session. Which of the following statements made by the manager is NOT accurate regarding the ESI Act 1948?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ESI covers all establishments except Mines, Defence, Railways", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "ESI covers all private medical and educational institutes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "ESI provides Nutritional Allowances besides medical benefits and sickness benefit", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Funeral expenses are provided up to Rs. 15000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. ESI provides Nutritional Allowances besides medical benefits and sickness benefit", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/picture90_YZNTWTb.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. ESI provides Nutritional Allowances besides medical benefits and sickness benefit</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The ESI Act, 1948</li><li>• ESI Act, 1948</li><li>• Ministry : Union Ministry of Labor</li><li>• Ministry</li><li>• Chairperson : Union Ministry of Labor</li><li>• Chairperson</li><li>• Contribution : Employer – 3.25% of wages; Employee – 0.75% of wages</li><li>• Contribution</li><li>• Center : State – 7:1</li><li>• Center</li><li>• Coverage : The act covers all the factories in India ‘excluding mines, defence, railways</li><li>• Coverage</li><li>• act covers</li><li>• factories in India</li><li>• All non-seasonal factories where &gt; 10 persons; All seasonal factories where &gt; 20 persons. Income &lt; 21000 per month</li><li>• All non-seasonal factories where &gt; 10 persons;</li><li>• All seasonal factories where &gt; 20 persons.</li><li>• Income &lt; 21000 per month</li><li>• Benefits :</li><li>• Benefits</li><li>• Medical benefit – Full medical care</li><li>• Medical benefit</li><li>• Sickness benefit – 70% wages x 91 days</li><li>• Sickness benefit</li><li>• Extended Sickness benefit : 80% wages x 2 years</li><li>• Extended Sickness benefit</li><li>• Enhanced Sickness benefit : 100% wages x 7 days (Vasectomy) or 14 days (Tubectomy)</li><li>• Enhanced Sickness benefit</li><li>• Temporary Disablement benefit : 90% wages till recovery</li><li>• Temporary Disablement benefit</li><li>• Permanent Disablement benefit : 90% wages (worked by medical board)</li><li>• Permanent Disablement benefit</li><li>• Maternity Benefits : 100% wages x 26 weeks</li><li>• Maternity Benefits</li><li>• Dependence Benefits : 90% wages as pension</li><li>• Dependence Benefits</li><li>• Funeral Expenses : Up to Rs. 10000</li><li>• Funeral Expenses</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Various benefits are provided under the Employee State Insurance (ESI) Act of 1948 , except Nutritional Allowances.</li><li>➤ Various benefits</li><li>➤ provided</li><li>➤ Employee State Insurance</li><li>➤ Act of 1948</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 911</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 911</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a large manufacturing plant, the medical officer is tasked with ensuring the health and safety of all employees. As part of this responsibility, they must be aware of and comply with the notifiable diseases as listed under the Factories Act. This is crucial for the early detection, containment, and treatment of communicable diseases, thereby preventing potential outbreaks within the workforce. Given this context, which of the following diseases is NOT mandated to be reported under the Factories Act?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mercury poisoning", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Byssinosis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bagassosis", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Lead poisoning", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Bagassosis", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Bagassosis</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Bagassosis is not included under 29 diseases notifiable under Factories act .</li><li>• Bagassosis</li><li>• not included</li><li>• 29 diseases notifiable under Factories act</li><li>• The 29 Notifiable diseases under the Factory Act 1948 are -</li><li>• Lead poisoning includes poisoning by any preparation or compound of lead or their sequelae. Lead tetra-ethyl poisoning . Phosphorous poisoning or its sequelae. Mercury poisoning and its sequelae. Manganese poisoning or its sequelae. Arsenic poisoning or its sequelae. Poisoning by nitrous fumes . Carbon bisulphide poisoning . Benzene poisoning , including poisoning by any of its homologues, their nitro or amido derivatives or its sequelae. Chrome ulceration or its sequelae. Anthrax . Silicosis. Poisoning by halogens or halogen derivatives of the hydrocarbons, of the aliphatic series. Pathological manifestation due to: - radium or other radioactive substances. X-rays . Primary epitheliomatous cancer of the skin. Toxic anemia . Toxic jaundice due to poisonous substances. Oil acne or dermatitis due to mineral oils and compounds containing mineral oil base. Byssinosis. Asbestosis. Occupational or contact dermatitis caused by direct contract with chemical and paints. These are of types, that is, primary irritants and allergic sensitizers. Noise induced hearing loss (exposure to high noise levels). Beryllium poisoning. Carbon monoxide . Coal miners' pneumoconiosis . Phosgene poisoning . Occupational cancer . Isocyanates poisoning . Toxic nephritis .</li><li>• Lead poisoning includes poisoning by any preparation or compound of lead or their sequelae.</li><li>• Lead poisoning</li><li>• Lead tetra-ethyl poisoning .</li><li>• Lead tetra-ethyl poisoning</li><li>• Phosphorous poisoning or its sequelae.</li><li>• Phosphorous poisoning</li><li>• Mercury poisoning and its sequelae.</li><li>• Mercury poisoning</li><li>• Manganese poisoning or its sequelae.</li><li>• Manganese poisoning</li><li>• Arsenic poisoning or its sequelae.</li><li>• Arsenic poisoning</li><li>• Poisoning by nitrous fumes .</li><li>• Poisoning by nitrous fumes</li><li>• Carbon bisulphide poisoning .</li><li>• Carbon bisulphide poisoning</li><li>• Benzene poisoning , including poisoning by any of its homologues, their nitro or amido derivatives or its sequelae.</li><li>• Benzene poisoning</li><li>• Chrome ulceration or its sequelae.</li><li>• Chrome ulceration</li><li>• Anthrax .</li><li>• Anthrax</li><li>• Silicosis.</li><li>• Silicosis.</li><li>• Poisoning by halogens or halogen derivatives of the hydrocarbons, of the aliphatic series.</li><li>• Poisoning by halogens</li><li>• Pathological manifestation due to: - radium or other radioactive substances. X-rays .</li><li>• Pathological manifestation</li><li>• radium or other radioactive substances. X-rays .</li><li>• radium or other radioactive substances.</li><li>• radium</li><li>• X-rays .</li><li>• X-rays</li><li>• Primary epitheliomatous cancer of the skin.</li><li>• Primary epitheliomatous cancer</li><li>• Toxic anemia .</li><li>• Toxic anemia</li><li>• Toxic jaundice due to poisonous substances.</li><li>• Toxic jaundice</li><li>• Oil acne or dermatitis due to mineral oils and compounds containing mineral oil base.</li><li>• Oil acne</li><li>• Byssinosis.</li><li>• Byssinosis.</li><li>• Asbestosis.</li><li>• Asbestosis.</li><li>• Occupational or contact dermatitis caused by direct contract with chemical and paints. These are of types, that is, primary irritants and allergic sensitizers.</li><li>• Occupational or contact dermatitis</li><li>• Noise induced hearing loss (exposure to high noise levels).</li><li>• Noise induced hearing loss</li><li>• Beryllium poisoning.</li><li>• Beryllium poisoning.</li><li>• Carbon monoxide .</li><li>• Carbon monoxide</li><li>• Coal miners' pneumoconiosis .</li><li>• Coal miners' pneumoconiosis</li><li>• Phosgene poisoning .</li><li>• Phosgene poisoning</li><li>• Occupational cancer .</li><li>• Occupational cancer</li><li>• Isocyanates poisoning .</li><li>• Isocyanates poisoning</li><li>• Toxic nephritis .</li><li>• Toxic nephritis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under Factories Act 1948 , there are 29 diseases which are notifiable (Schedule 3) including Silicosis, Anthracosis, Byssinosis and Asbestosis, [NOT Bagassosis]</li><li>➤ Factories Act 1948</li><li>➤ 29 diseases</li><li>➤ notifiable</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed pg. 765; National Health programs of India by Dr. J Kishore, 5/e p430</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine by Sunder Lal, 5 th ed pg. 765; National Health programs of India by Dr. J Kishore, 5/e p430</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old factory worker is scheduled for his routine health check-up organized by his employer. The main goal of this check-up is to detect any early signs of work-related illnesses and to ensure the worker is fit for his job. This practice is an example of which level of prevention in occupational health?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Primary prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Secondary prevention", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tertiary prevention", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Primordial prevention", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Secondary prevention", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-163121.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Secondary prevention</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Screening is secondary prevention.</li><li>• Screening is secondary prevention.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Periodical examination of workers for early detection and management of work-related illnesses is an example of secondary prevention in occupational health.</li><li>➤ Periodical examination</li><li>➤ workers</li><li>➤ early detection</li><li>➤ management</li><li>➤ work-related illnesses</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an industrial setting, a proactive approach is essential for preventing occupational accidents and ensuring the safety of all workers. The factory management is implementing various strategies as part of their comprehensive safety program. Among the following measures, which one does NOT form part of the primary prevention methods in the prevention of occupational accidents?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proper covering and isolation of machine.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Educating the workers on use of safety equipment.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enforcement of factories act.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Providing the efficient medical support to victims.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Providing the efficient medical support to victims.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Providing the efficient medical support to victims</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Primary prevention in occupational health aims to prevent accidents and injuries before they occur. This is achieved through risk assessment , implementation of safety measures , and education .</li><li>• Primary prevention</li><li>• occupational health</li><li>• prevent accidents</li><li>• injuries</li><li>• achieved</li><li>• risk assessment</li><li>• implementation of safety measures</li><li>• education</li><li>• Option A. Proper covering and isolation of machine : This is a primary prevention measure as it directly addresses and mitigates the risk at its source , preventing accidents before they can occur.</li><li>• Option A. Proper covering</li><li>• isolation of machine</li><li>• primary prevention</li><li>• directly addresses</li><li>• mitigates the risk at its source</li><li>• Option B. Educating the workers on use of safety equipment : Providing education and training to workers enhances their awareness and competence in using safety equipment, which is a crucial aspect of primary prevention.</li><li>• Option B. Educating the workers on use of safety equipment</li><li>• Providing education</li><li>• training to workers</li><li>• enhances</li><li>• awareness</li><li>• competence</li><li>• Option C. Enforcement of factories act : The enforcement of safety regulations and standards is fundamental to maintaining a safe working environment , making this a primary prevention measure.</li><li>• Option C. Enforcement of factories act</li><li>• enforcement of safety regulations</li><li>• standards</li><li>• fundamental</li><li>• maintaining a safe working environment</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primary prevention in occupational health focuses on measures that prevent accidents and injuries from occurring in the first place , such as implementing safety measures , education, and enforcement of regulations, whereas providing medical support to victims is a part of secondary prevention.</li><li>➤ Primary prevention</li><li>➤ occupational health focuses</li><li>➤ measures</li><li>➤ prevent accidents</li><li>➤ injuries</li><li>➤ occurring in the first place</li><li>➤ implementing safety measures</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 908</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 908</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 40-year-old man, working as a daily wage laborer in an unorganized sector, recently faced a severe injury at his workplace resulting in a prolonged disability. He is now seeking compensation for his injury and loss of income. Under which legislation should he pursue his compensation claim?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ESI act", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Workman’s Compensation act", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Factories act", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Mines act", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Workman’s Compensation act", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Workman’s Compensation act</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Workmen's Compensation Act , 1923 (now referred to as the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923) is an important piece of legislation in India that provides for the payment of compensation to employees or their dependents in the case of injuries or death caused by accidents arising out of and in the course of employment (MONETARY benefits).</li><li>• Workmen's Compensation Act</li><li>• 1923</li><li>• piece of legislation in India</li><li>• payment of compensation</li><li>• employees</li><li>• dependents</li><li>• case of injuries</li><li>• death</li><li>• Key features of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923:</li><li>• Key features of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923:</li><li>• Scope : The Act applies to all employees , including those employed by the government , working in factories , mines , plantations , railways , and certain hazardous occupations . It also covers employees engaged in manual labor or any other work of a hazardous nature specified in the schedule to the Act.</li><li>• Scope</li><li>• Act applies to all employees</li><li>• employed by the government</li><li>• working in factories</li><li>• mines</li><li>• plantations</li><li>• railways</li><li>• hazardous occupations</li><li>• Compensation for Injury or Death: The Act provides for the payment of compensation in the event of an employee sustaining an injury during the course of employment , resulting in partial or total disablement, or in case of death due to an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.</li><li>• Compensation for Injury or Death:</li><li>• payment of compensation</li><li>• event of an employee sustaining an injury</li><li>• course of employment</li><li>• Occupational Diseases: The Act also covers occupational diseases specified in the schedule , which result from the nature of employment, and it allows for compensation in such cases.</li><li>• Occupational Diseases:</li><li>• occupational diseases</li><li>• schedule</li><li>• Employer's Liability: The employer is liable to pay compensation to the employee or the employee's dependents in case of injury , death , or occupational disease . It is a no-fault liability, meaning that the employer is liable regardless of whether they were negligent or at fault for the accident.</li><li>• Employer's Liability:</li><li>• liable to pay compensation</li><li>• employee</li><li>• employee's dependents</li><li>• case of injury</li><li>• death</li><li>• occupational disease</li><li>• Compensation Amount: The amount of compensation payable depends on the nature of the injury , the extent of disability, or the severity of the disease. The Act provides specific guidelines for calculating the compensation amount.</li><li>• Compensation Amount:</li><li>• compensation payable</li><li>• nature of the injury</li><li>• Employer's Insurance: Employers can insure their liability under this Act by taking out an insurance policy with a licensed insurance company.</li><li>• Employer's Insurance:</li><li>• insure their liability</li><li>• Act</li><li>• taking out an insurance policy</li><li>• Compensation Commission: The Act establishes compensation commissions at the state level , which are responsible for determining the amount of compensation and overseeing the process of providing compensation to the affected employees or their dependents.</li><li>• Compensation Commission:</li><li>• Act establishes compensation commissions</li><li>• state level</li><li>• Appeals: There is a provision for appeals to the High Court against the decisions of the compensation commissions.</li><li>• Appeals:</li><li>• provision for appeals</li><li>• High Court</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Employees' Compensation Act provides compensation to workers in the unorganized sector for injuries or disabilities sustained due to workplace accidents or occupational diseases [Medical assistance, sickness allowance, disablement benefits].</li><li>➤ Employees' Compensation Act</li><li>➤ compensation to workers</li><li>➤ unorganized sector</li><li>➤ injuries or disabilities</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 733</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine by Rajvir Balwar, pg 733</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X, during his pre-placement medical examination, disclosed that he was diagnosed with Tuberculosis a year ago and had successfully completed his treatment six months prior. The occupational health physician is now determining the suitability of Mr. X for employment in various industries based on his medical history. Given Mr. X's history of Tuberculosis, in which of the following industries should he be avoided from placement?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Lead", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dyes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Silica", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Solvents", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Silica", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/13/screenshot-2024-08-13-163417.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Silica</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Patients with silicosis are particularly susceptible to tuberculosis (TB) infection , known as ‘Silicotuberculosis’ (ST). The reason for the increased risk , 10–30 fold increased incidence , It is thought that silica damages pulmonary macrophages , inhibiting their ability to kill mycobacteria</li><li>➤ Patients</li><li>➤ silicosis</li><li>➤ susceptible to tuberculosis</li><li>➤ infection</li><li>➤ ‘Silicotuberculosis’</li><li>➤ increased risk</li><li>➤ 10–30 fold increased incidence</li><li>➤ silica damages pulmonary macrophages</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 908</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 908</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 64 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Preventive Obstetrics, Paediatrics &amp; Geriatrics - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 58</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 58 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "During a public health lecture, the instructor discusses various concepts of disability and health. One student asks for clarification regarding the general term used to describe any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity within the range considered normal for a human. How is this condition generally defined?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Illness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Disability", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Handicap", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Disease", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Disability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Disability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. Illness : An unhealthy condition of body or mind</li><li>• Option A. Illness</li><li>• unhealthy condition</li><li>• body</li><li>• Option C. Handicap: A disadvantage for a given individual , resulting from an impairment/disability , that limits/prevents the fulfillment of a role considered normal (depending on age, sex, social, and cultural factors) for that individual</li><li>• Option C. Handicap:</li><li>• disadvantage</li><li>• given individual</li><li>• impairment/disability</li><li>• limits/prevents</li><li>• fulfillment</li><li>• role considered normal</li><li>• Option D. Disease : Any abnormal condition of an organism that impairs function</li><li>• Option D. Disease</li><li>• abnormal condition</li><li>• organism</li><li>• impairs function</li><li>• Other Terms -</li><li>• Other Terms -</li><li>• Impairment : Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function Disability : (Because of impairment,) any restriction or inability to perform an activity in a range considered normal for a human being</li><li>• Impairment : Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function</li><li>• Impairment</li><li>• Disability : (Because of impairment,) any restriction or inability to perform an activity in a range considered normal for a human being</li><li>• Disability</li><li>• Logical Sequence - Disease-Impairment-Disability-Handicap</li><li>• Disease-Impairment-Disability-Handicap</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Continuum of disease-handicap : (Logical Sequence)</li><li>➤ Continuum of disease-handicap</li><li>➤ Disease : Intrinsic pathology Impairment : Anatomical and functional abnormality Disability : Activity restriction Handicap : Psychosocial disadvantage</li><li>➤ Disease : Intrinsic pathology</li><li>➤ Disease</li><li>➤ Impairment : Anatomical and functional abnormality</li><li>➤ Impairment</li><li>➤ Disability : Activity restriction</li><li>➤ Disability</li><li>➤ Handicap : Psychosocial disadvantage</li><li>➤ Handicap</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 668)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 668)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion on epidemiological tools for assessing women's health outcomes, a group of public health students is tasked with identifying methods of measuring maternal mortality. They are presented with a list of approaches and asked to select the one which does not serve as a method for specifically measuring maternal mortality. Which of the following would be the correct choice?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Civil registration system", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sisterhood survey", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "RAMOS", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sample registration system (SRS)", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Sample registration system (SRS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Sample registration system (SRS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Approaches for measuring maternal mortality :</li><li>➤ Approaches</li><li>➤ measuring maternal mortality</li><li>➤ Civil registration system Household survey Sisterhood methods Reproductive age mortality studies (RAMOS) Verbal autopsy Census</li><li>➤ Civil registration system</li><li>➤ Household survey</li><li>➤ Sisterhood methods</li><li>➤ Reproductive age mortality studies (RAMOS)</li><li>➤ Verbal autopsy</li><li>➤ Census</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 642)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 642)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community outreach program, a dietitian discusses nutritional support schemes for the underprivileged elderly population with a group of medical students. She talks about the Annapurna Scheme, which provides food aid to senior citizens who are not receiving pension benefits. She asks the students to identify the quantity of rice provided to beneficiaries under this scheme. How many kilograms of rice is given per month to beneficiaries under the Annapurna Scheme for the elderly?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10 kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "20 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "50 kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 10 kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 10 kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• On 1st April, 2000 a new Scheme known as Annapurna Scheme was launched. This Scheme aimed at providing food security to meet the requirement of those senior citizens who, though eligible , have remained uncovered under the NOAPS . Under the Annapurna Scheme 10 kgs of food grains per month are provided free of cost to the beneficiary .</li><li>• 1st April, 2000</li><li>• new Scheme</li><li>• Annapurna Scheme</li><li>• Scheme aimed</li><li>• providing food security</li><li>• requirement</li><li>• senior citizens</li><li>• eligible</li><li>• uncovered</li><li>• NOAPS</li><li>• Annapurna Scheme 10 kgs</li><li>• food grains per month</li><li>• free of cost to the beneficiary</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Under the Annapurna Scheme , eligible elderly individuals receive 10 kilograms of rice per month to help ensure their nutritional needs are met.</li><li>➤ Annapurna Scheme</li><li>➤ eligible elderly individuals</li><li>➤ 10 kilograms of rice per month</li><li>➤ ensure</li><li>➤ nutritional needs</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 563)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Rajvir Bhalwar- 4 th edition (page 563)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An obstetrician is training new residents on prenatal care protocols. She emphasizes the importance of regular check-ups during pregnancy and poses a question about the minimum recommended number of antenatal visits for a pregnant mother. What is the minimum number of visits recommended for a pregnant mother during the antenatal period?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "4", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 4", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 4</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• A minimum of 4 visits covering the entire period of pregnancy should be the target . The suggested schedule is as follows:</li><li>• minimum of 4 visits</li><li>• entire period of pregnancy</li><li>• target</li><li>• 1st visit - within 12 weeks, preferably as soon as the pregnancy is suspected, for registration of pregnancy and first antenatal check-up. 2nd visit - between 14 and 26 weeks POG (Period of Gestation). 3rd visit - between 28 and 34 weeks POG 4th visit - between 36 weeks POG and term</li><li>• 1st visit - within 12 weeks, preferably as soon as the pregnancy is suspected, for registration of</li><li>• 1st visit</li><li>• pregnancy and first antenatal check-up.</li><li>• 2nd visit - between 14 and 26 weeks POG (Period of Gestation).</li><li>• 2nd visit</li><li>• 3rd visit - between 28 and 34 weeks POG</li><li>• 3rd visit</li><li>• 4th visit - between 36 weeks POG and term</li><li>• 4th visit</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Note -</li><li>• Ideal recommended ante-natal visits : 13 – 14</li><li>• ante-natal visits</li><li>• 13 – 14</li><li>• 0 – 7 months - Once every month</li><li>• 8th month - Twice a month</li><li>• 9th month onwards - Once a week</li><li>• Minimum recommended postnatal visits: 3-4 (Day 0*,3,7,42). All visits undertaken post-delivery by HWF/ANM to the home of female.</li><li>• Minimum</li><li>• postnatal visits: 3-4</li><li>• (* Day 0 visit only for deliveries at home and sub-centres)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Minimum recommended antenatal visits are 4 ; Ideal recommended ante-natal visits are 13 – 14 and Minimum recommended postnatal visits are 3-4</li><li>➤ Minimum</li><li>➤ antenatal visits</li><li>➤ 4</li><li>➤ Ideal</li><li>➤ ante-natal visits</li><li>➤ 13</li><li>➤ 14</li><li>➤ Minimum</li><li>➤ postnatal</li><li>➤ 3-4</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 605)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 605)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A primary care physician is reviewing the guidelines outlined by the National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly (NPHCE) in India, which aims to address various health-related needs of the elderly at different levels of the health care system. She is explaining to her team which services should be provided at the Primary Health Center (PHC) level. Which of the following services is NOT included at the PHC level as per NPHCE guidelines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Daily geriatric clinic", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Proper advice on chronic ailments", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Conducting a routine health assessment", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Public awareness during health and village sanitation day/camps", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Daily geriatric clinic", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Daily geriatric clinic</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ PHC level activities</li><li>➤ PHC level activities</li><li>➤ Weekly geriatric clinic (CHC- twice a week Clinic; District - Daily Clinic &amp; Ten-bedded Geriatric Ward) Conducting a routine health assessment (eye, BP, blood sugar &amp; record keeping). Provision of medicines Proper advice on chronic ailments Public awareness during health and village sanitation day/camps. Referral services.</li><li>➤ Weekly geriatric clinic (CHC- twice a week Clinic; District - Daily Clinic &amp; Ten-bedded Geriatric Ward)</li><li>➤ Weekly geriatric clinic (CHC- twice a week Clinic; District - Daily Clinic &amp; Ten-bedded Geriatric Ward)</li><li>➤ Conducting a routine health assessment (eye, BP, blood sugar &amp; record keeping).</li><li>➤ Conducting</li><li>➤ routine health assessment</li><li>➤ Provision of medicines</li><li>➤ Proper advice on chronic ailments</li><li>➤ Public awareness during health and village sanitation day/camps.</li><li>➤ Referral services.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Sunder Lal- 5 th edition (page 688)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Sunder Lal- 5 th edition (page 688)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is explaining to her team the importance of different methods for determining causes of death in areas where death certification is not always accurate or available. She introduces an enhanced form of verbal autopsy that incorporates additional data sources to improve the accuracy of cause-of-death attribution. What is this enhanced method called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "RHIME- Representative Resampled Routine Household Interview of Mortality with Medical Evaluation", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Civil registration system", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sisterhood survey", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reproductive age mortality studies- RAMOS", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. RHIME- Representative Resampled Routine Household Interview of Mortality with Medical Evaluation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. RHIME- Representative Resample Routine Household Interview of Mortality with Medical Evaluation.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• From 2000 onwards , SRS (Central registration system) included a new method called the “RHIME” or Representative, Re-sampled . Routine Household Interview of Mortality with Medical Evaluation . This is an enhanced form of “verbal autopsy \" which is the key feature of a prospective study of 1 million deaths within the SRS. RHIME includes random resampling of field-work by an independent team for maintaining quality of data.</li><li>• 2000 onwards</li><li>• SRS</li><li>• new method</li><li>• “RHIME”</li><li>• Representative, Re-sampled</li><li>• Routine Household Interview</li><li>• Mortality</li><li>• Medical Evaluation</li><li>• enhanced form</li><li>• “verbal autopsy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ RHIME is an enhanced form of verbal autopsy</li><li>➤ RHIME</li><li>➤ enhanced form</li><li>➤ verbal autopsy</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 644)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 644)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical students are discussing the nutritional requirements during pregnancy in a seminar. They are presented with a question about the additional caloric needs that a pregnancy entails. Pregnancy in total consumes how many kilocalories over and above the normal requirements?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30000", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40000", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "50000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "60000", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 60000", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-112235.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 60000</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Reproduction costs energy . A pregnancy in total duration consumes about 60,000 kcal , over and above normal metabolic requirements .</li><li>• Reproduction costs energy</li><li>• pregnancy</li><li>• total duration consumes</li><li>• 60,000 kcal</li><li>• over</li><li>• above normal metabolic requirements</li><li>• On average, a healthy adult woman gains 12 kg in pregnancy (6.5 kg in poor Indian women).</li><li>• Recommended daily energy and protein intake (New Guidelines 2021) -</li><li>• Recommended daily energy and protein intake (New Guidelines 2021) -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A pregnancy in total duration consumes about 60,000 kcal , over and above normal metabolic requirements .</li><li>➤ pregnancy</li><li>➤ total duration consumes</li><li>➤ 60,000 kcal</li><li>➤ over</li><li>➤ above normal metabolic requirements</li><li>➤ On average , a healthy adult woman gains 12 kg in pregnancy (6.5 kg in poor Indian women).</li><li>➤ average</li><li>➤ healthy adult woman</li><li>➤ 12 kg in pregnancy</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a pediatrics lecture series on the history and evolution of child growth monitoring, the professor discusses the creation of the first \"Road to Health\" chart. This chart has been a pivotal tool in assessing child development and nutritional status globally. The professor poses a question to the class: Who is credited with designing the first \"Road to Health\" chart?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "David Morley", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Edgar Ray", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "James Chadwick", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rene Sand", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. David Morley", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. David Morley</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The growth or “ road-to-health\" chart (first designed by David Morley and later modified by WHO) is a visible display of the child’s physical growth and development.</li><li>• growth</li><li>• road-to-health\" chart</li><li>• visible display</li><li>• child’s physical growth</li><li>• development.</li><li>• Growth chart is designed for: Longitudinal follow-up (growth monitoring) of a child</li><li>• Growth chart</li><li>• designed</li><li>• Longitudinal follow-up</li><li>• child</li><li>• Growth chart is generally plotted between: Weight and Age</li><li>• Growth chart</li><li>• Weight and Age</li><li>• Growth chart provides information on:</li><li>• Growth chart</li><li>• Identification and registration Birth date and birth weight Chronological age Weight-for-age Developmental milestones History of sibling health Immunization procedures Introduction of supplementary foods Episodes of sickness Child spacing (Contraceptive/family planning methods used) Reasons for special care</li><li>• Identification and registration</li><li>• Birth date and birth weight</li><li>• Chronological age</li><li>• Weight-for-age</li><li>• Developmental milestones</li><li>• History of sibling health</li><li>• Immunization procedures</li><li>• Introduction of supplementary foods</li><li>• Episodes of sickness</li><li>• Child spacing (Contraceptive/family planning methods used)</li><li>• Reasons for special care</li><li>• Direction of growth in a growth chart is more important than the position of dots</li><li>• Direction</li><li>• growth</li><li>• growth chart</li><li>• position of dots</li><li>• Periodic weight record is more useful than a single weight plot</li><li>• Periodic weight record</li><li>• single weight plot</li><li>• Objective in child care : To keep the child above 3rd percentile</li><li>• Objective in child care</li><li>• child above 3rd percentile</li><li>• Flattening of a child’s plot: indicates malnutrition</li><li>• REFERENCE OR STANDARD VALUES OF GROWTH:</li><li>• REFERENCE OR STANDARD VALUES OF GROWTH:</li><li>• WHO 2006 (MGRS) Child Growth Standards Harvard (Boston) standards NCHS standards (WHO reference values) Indian standards (ICMR values)</li><li>• WHO 2006 (MGRS) Child Growth Standards</li><li>• Harvard (Boston) standards</li><li>• NCHS standards (WHO reference values)</li><li>• Indian standards (ICMR values)</li><li>• Best available standards of growth: NCHS standards</li><li>• Best available standards of growth: NCHS standards</li><li>• WHO Home Based Growth Chart (Same for both sexes)</li><li>• WHO Home Based Growth Chart (Same for both sexes)</li><li>• WHO growth chart has 2 reference curves : – Upper Reference Curve (URC): 50th percentile for boys and Lower Reference Curve (LRC): 3rd percentile for girls</li><li>• WHO growth chart</li><li>• 2 reference curves</li><li>• Upper Reference Curve</li><li>• 50th percentile</li><li>• boys</li><li>• Lower Reference Curve</li><li>• Road to Health : Is the space between two growth curves (weight channel). It includes zone of normality for most populations, i.e. 95% of healthy normal children used as a reference fall in this area</li><li>• Road to Health</li><li>• space between two growth curves</li><li>• WHO reference curves are based on: NCHS Standards (National Centre for Health Statistics, USA)</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• reference curves</li><li>• NCHS Standards</li><li>• The 3rd percentile (LRC) corresponds to approximately 2 SD below the median of weight-for-age reference value (URC)</li><li>• 3rd percentile</li><li>• approximately 2 SD below</li><li>• median of weight-for-age reference value</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Growth chart was first designed by ‘David Morley’ (and later modified by WHO); it’s the the passport to child’s health care</li><li>➤ Growth chart</li><li>➤ first designed by ‘David Morley’</li><li>➤ the passport</li><li>➤ child’s health care</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 628)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 628)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A neonatology fellow is presenting a seminar on the factors contributing to low birth weight in neonates, particularly focusing on the Indian subcontinent. He includes a segment on the most prevalent cause of low birth weight in this region and invites the audience to identify it based on prevalent health data. Which of the following is the most common cause of low birth weight in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prematurity", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Gestational hypertension", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anemia in mother", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Prematurity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Prematurity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Low birth weight : ‘ Less than 2500 grams IRRESPECTIVE of gestational age’</li><li>• Low birth weight</li><li>• Less than 2500 grams</li><li>• IRRESPECTIVE</li><li>• gestational age’</li><li>• Pre-term babies: Born at &lt;37 weeks POG Small-for-date babies : Born at term or post-term</li><li>• Pre-term babies: Born at &lt;37 weeks POG</li><li>• Pre-term babies: Born at &lt;37 weeks POG</li><li>• Small-for-date babies : Born at term or post-term</li><li>• Small-for-date babies</li><li>• 1. Weigh ‘less than 10th percentile for gestational age’ 2. As a result of IUGR 3. High risk of dying in neonatal and infancy period</li><li>• Newborn Classification of Birth Weight -</li><li>• Newborn Classification of Birth Weight</li><li>• Low birth weight (LBW): &lt;2500 grams Moderately Low birth weight (MLBW): 1501-2500 grams Very Low birth weight (VLBW): 1001-1500 grams Extremely Low birth weight (ELBW): &lt;1000 grams</li><li>• Low birth weight (LBW): &lt;2500 grams</li><li>• Moderately Low birth weight (MLBW): 1501-2500 grams</li><li>• Very Low birth weight (VLBW): 1001-1500 grams</li><li>• Extremely Low birth weight (ELBW): &lt;1000 grams</li><li>• Depending on the population , the percentage of LBW be based on measurements of at least 500 babies</li><li>• Depending</li><li>• population</li><li>• percentage of LBW</li><li>• measurements</li><li>• least 500 babies</li><li>• 3 inter-related risk factors for LBW : Malnutrition, Infection and Unregulated fertility</li><li>• 3 inter-related risk factors for LBW</li><li>• Salter’s scale - Field Instrument for Low Birth Weight (LBW)</li><li>• Salter’s scale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The most common cause of low birth weight in India is prematurity .</li><li>➤ common</li><li>➤ low birth weight</li><li>➤ prematurity</li><li>➤ The commonest cause of neonatal mortality , IMR in India is Low birth weight and Prematurity</li><li>➤ commonest</li><li>➤ neonatal mortality</li><li>➤ IMR</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Low birth weight</li><li>➤ Prematurity</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 618)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 618)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture on global health, a pediatrician discusses the challenges of reducing child mortality worldwide. She highlights the most significant cause of death in children under the age of 5 years. Which of the following is the leading cause of death among children under 5 years of age, worldwide?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Malaria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neonatal sepsis.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Pneumonia/ARI", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Pneumonia/ARI", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Pneumonia/ARI</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Worldwide , the leading causes of death among children under-5 years include pneumonia (12% of all under-five deaths).</li><li>• Worldwide</li><li>• death</li><li>• children under-5 years</li><li>• pneumonia</li><li>• Under-5 deaths causes (Developing nations): Preterm birth complications &gt; Pneumonia &gt; Diarrhoea &gt; Injury &gt; Malaria</li><li>• Pneumonia</li><li>• Under-5 deaths causes (Developed nations): Accident injury &gt; Congenital anomaly &gt; Neoplasms &gt; Influenza &gt; Pneumonia</li><li>• U5MR (India): 32 per 1000 LB [2022]</li><li>• U5MR (India): 32 per 1000 LB [2022]</li><li>• U5MR (World): 38 per 1000 LB [2021]</li><li>• U5MR (World): 38 per 1000 LB [2021]</li><li>• U5MR (World): 38 per 1000 LB [2021]</li><li>• MCC of U5MR or CMR is Prematurity and Infections</li><li>• Prematurity and Infections</li><li>• Neonatal conditions lead to 47% of total U5MR or CMR : Prematurity (MCC) Infections (Pneumonia, Diarrhea and malaria) Preterm births Asphyxia</li><li>• Neonatal conditions lead to 47% of total U5MR or CMR :</li><li>• Neonatal</li><li>• lead to 47% of total U5MR or CMR</li><li>• Prematurity (MCC)</li><li>• Infections (Pneumonia, Diarrhea and malaria)</li><li>• Preterm births</li><li>• Asphyxia</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acute respiratory infections , particularly pneumonia , are the leading cause of death in children under the age of 5 years globally .</li><li>➤ Acute respiratory infections</li><li>➤ pneumonia</li><li>➤ death in children under</li><li>➤ age of 5 years globally</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 658)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 658)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A mother brings her 5-month-old infant to the clinic for a routine check-up. The infant appears healthy and has no significant medical history. The Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) notes that the baby had a birth weight of 3 kg. Considering the infant's age and initial birth weight, what would be the expected weight of the baby at the current visit?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "5 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "6 kg", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "9 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 kg", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 6 kg", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-112850_M8JOLqW.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-112922.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 6 kg</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Healthy babies , on an average , double their birth weight by 5 months , and triples by the end of first year and quadruples by the age of two .</li><li>• Healthy babies</li><li>• average</li><li>• double</li><li>• birth weight</li><li>• 5 months</li><li>• triples</li><li>• end of first year</li><li>• quadruples</li><li>• age of two</li><li>• Birth Weight</li><li>• Birth Weight</li><li>• Birth weight of an infant is the ‘single most important determinant of its chances of survival, healthy growth and development’ Single best measure to assess physical growth : Weight Birth weight preferably be measured within: 1st hour of life Average birth weight in India: 2.8 kg (2.7–2.9 kg) Relationship between maternal nutrition and birth weight of babies : Linear Smoking during pregnancy reduces birth weight by an average: 170 grams LBW is not a contraindication for any vaccination EXCEPT Hepatitis B: Hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated in preterm children with birth weight &lt;2.0 kg Field instrument for measurement of birth weight: Salter’s Scale</li><li>• Birth weight of an infant is the ‘single most important determinant of its chances of survival, healthy growth and development’</li><li>• infant</li><li>• ‘single most important determinant of its chances of survival, healthy growth and development’</li><li>• Single best measure to assess physical growth : Weight</li><li>• Single best measure</li><li>• assess physical growth</li><li>• Weight</li><li>• Birth weight preferably be measured within: 1st hour of life</li><li>• Birth weight</li><li>• measured</li><li>• 1st hour of life</li><li>• Average birth weight in India: 2.8 kg (2.7–2.9 kg)</li><li>• Average birth weight</li><li>• 2.8 kg</li><li>• Relationship between maternal nutrition and birth weight of babies : Linear</li><li>• Relationship</li><li>• maternal nutrition</li><li>• birth weight</li><li>• babies</li><li>• Linear</li><li>• Smoking during pregnancy reduces birth weight by an average: 170 grams</li><li>• Smoking</li><li>• pregnancy reduces birth weight</li><li>• 170 grams</li><li>• LBW is not a contraindication for any vaccination EXCEPT Hepatitis B: Hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated in preterm children with birth weight &lt;2.0 kg</li><li>• Field instrument for measurement of birth weight: Salter’s Scale</li><li>• Weight gain pattern in children:</li><li>• Weight gain pattern in children:</li><li>• Weight reflects only the present status of the child, whereas height indicates events in the past also</li><li>• Height increase pattern in children:</li><li>• Height increase pattern in children:</li><li>• Average birth length in India: 50 cms Birth Length doubles at 4 years of age Near-final height attainment: Indian boys attain 98% of final height by 17.75 years Indian girls attain 98% of final height by 16.5 years</li><li>• Average birth length in India: 50 cms</li><li>• birth length</li><li>• 50 cms</li><li>• Birth Length doubles at 4 years of age</li><li>• Near-final height attainment: Indian boys attain 98% of final height by 17.75 years Indian girls attain 98% of final height by 16.5 years</li><li>• Indian boys attain 98% of final height by 17.75 years Indian girls attain 98% of final height by 16.5 years</li><li>• Indian boys attain 98% of final height by 17.75 years</li><li>• boys attain 98%</li><li>• height</li><li>• 17.75 years</li><li>• Indian girls attain 98% of final height by 16.5 years</li><li>• girls attain 98%</li><li>• height</li><li>• 16.5 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ BW doubles at 5 months , triples by 1 year and quadruples by 2 years age</li><li>➤ BW doubles at 5 months , triples by 1 year and quadruples by 2 years age</li><li>➤ BW doubles</li><li>➤ 5 months</li><li>➤ triples</li><li>➤ 1 year</li><li>➤ quadruples</li><li>➤ 2 years age</li><li>➤ Birth Length doubles at 4 years of age</li><li>➤ Birth Length doubles at 4 years of age</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 625)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 625)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 625)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a pediatrics rotation, medical residents are discussing growth standards and reference studies for children. As part of this discussion, they focus on the Multicentre Growth Reference Study (MGRS) and its significance in understanding pediatric growth patterns. Which of the following statements about the Multicentre Growth Reference Study (MGRS) is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Done from 1997 to 2003", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "India was included in the study", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Done as a case control study", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Health breast fed infants and young children (0-60 months) included", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Done as a case control study", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Done as case control study</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• MULTICENTER GROWTH REFERENCE STUDY (MGRS) 1997-2003</li><li>• MULTICENTER GROWTH REFERENCE STUDY (MGRS) 1997-2003</li><li>• Type: Population-based study Countries: Brazil, Ghana, India, Oman, Norway, USA Primary growth data and related information gathered from 8440 healthy breast-fed infants and children (0-60 months age) Mother followed breastfeeding and not smoking during and after pregnancy New standards generated : Percentile and Z-scores for H for age, W for age, W for L, W for H, and BMI for age A key component of the MGRS design was a longitudinal cohort of children who were examined in a sequence of 21 visits starting at birth and ending at 24 months of age: The principal rationale for the longitudinal component was to allow for the development of growth velocity standards.</li><li>• Type: Population-based study</li><li>• Population-based study</li><li>• Countries: Brazil, Ghana, India, Oman, Norway, USA</li><li>• Brazil, Ghana, India, Oman, Norway, USA</li><li>• Primary growth data and related information gathered from 8440 healthy breast-fed infants and children (0-60 months age)</li><li>• 8440 healthy breast-fed infants and children (0-60 months age)</li><li>• Mother followed breastfeeding and not smoking during and after pregnancy</li><li>• Mother followed breastfeeding</li><li>• New standards generated : Percentile and Z-scores for H for age, W for age, W for L, W for H, and BMI for age</li><li>• New standards generated</li><li>• A key component of the MGRS design was a longitudinal cohort of children who were examined in a sequence of 21 visits starting at birth and ending at 24 months of age: The principal rationale for the longitudinal component was to allow for the development of growth velocity standards.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Multicentre Growth Reference Study</li><li>↳ 1997 and 2003</li><li>↳ Brazil, Ghana, India, Norway, Oman</li><li>↳ USA</li><li>↳ primary growth data</li><li>↳ information</li><li>↳ gathered from 8440 healthy breast-fed infants</li><li>↳ young children</li><li>↳ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 628)</li><li>↳ Ref</li><li>↳ : Park 26 th edition (page 628)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar for pediatric nutrition, a discussion arises regarding the differences between breast milk and cow's milk in infant feeding. The paediatrician leading the seminar asks the attendees about the characteristics of breast milk when compared to cow's milk. Which of the following is true about breast milk compared to cow's milk?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Less of carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Less of Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "More iron", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "More proteins", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. More iron", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-111324_izh5krN.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. More iron</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Human Milk Vs Cow Milk</li><li>• Human Milk Vs Cow Milk</li><li>• Iron contained in human milk has a high level of bio-availability . The coefficient of uptake of the iron in breast milk may be as high as 70 percent , whereas it is only 30 percent for cow’s milk . Human milk contains more lactose than most other milks. Human milk contains more vitamin A and vitamin C than cow’s milk. One of the striking differences is the low protein content of human milk; this is about 3 times less than in cow’s milk.</li><li>• Iron contained in human milk has a high level of bio-availability . The coefficient of uptake of the iron in breast milk may be as high as 70 percent , whereas it is only 30 percent for cow’s milk .</li><li>• Iron</li><li>• human milk</li><li>• high level of bio-availability</li><li>• coefficient</li><li>• uptake of the iron</li><li>• breast milk</li><li>• high as 70 percent</li><li>• 30 percent for cow’s milk</li><li>• Human milk contains more lactose than most other milks.</li><li>• Human milk</li><li>• more lactose</li><li>• Human milk contains more vitamin A and vitamin C than cow’s milk.</li><li>• Human milk</li><li>• vitamin A</li><li>• vitamin C</li><li>• One of the striking differences is the low protein content of human milk; this is about 3 times less than in cow’s milk.</li><li>• Human Milk -</li><li>• Human Milk -</li><li>• Human milk proteins : More cystine and taurine ; less methionine; better digested than cow’s milk proteins Human milk fats : Higher levels of PUFAs , esp., linoleic acid and -linoleic acid; better digested and absorbed; low calcium content but better absorbed than cow’s milk Human milk vitamins and minerals : Human milk is richer in Vitamin A , C; richer in copper, cobalt and selenium; richer in iron and higher bioavailability; high calcium/phosphorus ratio; Human milk has lesser sodium</li><li>• Human milk proteins : More cystine and taurine ; less methionine; better digested than cow’s milk proteins</li><li>• Human milk proteins</li><li>• More cystine</li><li>• taurine</li><li>• Human milk fats : Higher levels of PUFAs , esp., linoleic acid and -linoleic acid; better digested and absorbed; low calcium content but better absorbed than cow’s milk</li><li>• Human milk fats</li><li>• Higher levels</li><li>• PUFAs</li><li>• Human milk vitamins and minerals : Human milk is richer in Vitamin A , C; richer in copper, cobalt and selenium; richer in iron and higher bioavailability; high calcium/phosphorus ratio; Human milk has lesser sodium</li><li>• Human milk vitamins and minerals</li><li>• richer in Vitamin A</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Human Milk is richer in Carbohydrate (lactose), Iron and Water content WHILE Cow’s milk is richer in Fat , Protein , Calcium and energy content</li><li>➤ Human Milk</li><li>➤ richer</li><li>➤ Carbohydrate</li><li>➤ Iron</li><li>➤ Water content</li><li>➤ Cow’s milk</li><li>➤ richer</li><li>➤ Fat</li><li>➤ Protein</li><li>➤ Calcium</li><li>➤ energy content</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 622)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 622)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A discussion regarding the efforts to assess and improve the health standards of school children leads to the topic of the School Health Committee in India. In which year was the School Health Committee constituted to assess the standards of health of school children?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1909", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1946", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1953", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1961", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1961", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1961</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In 1960, the Government of India constituted School Health Committee to assess the standards of health and nutrition of school children and suggest ways and means to improve them. The Committee submitted its report in 1961, which contains many useful recommendations.</li><li>• School Health Examination</li><li>• School Health Examination</li><li>• In 1961 , ‘ Rennuka Roy School Health Committee ’ laid the foundations for a comprehensive school health programme in India Recommendation : Medical examination of children at the time of entry and thereafter every 4 years NRHM [New Guidelines] recommendation : Once every 6 months School Eye Screening Programme : Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group) Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9 School health services should be an integral part of General health services . General health care services are delivered through PHCs in India (rural areas) so School health services are an important function of PHCs</li><li>• In 1961 , ‘ Rennuka Roy School Health Committee ’ laid the foundations for a comprehensive school health programme in India Recommendation : Medical examination of children at the time of entry and thereafter every 4 years NRHM [New Guidelines] recommendation : Once every 6 months</li><li>• 1961</li><li>• Rennuka Roy School Health Committee</li><li>• foundations</li><li>• comprehensive school health programme</li><li>• India</li><li>• Recommendation : Medical examination of children at the time of entry and thereafter every 4 years NRHM [New Guidelines] recommendation : Once every 6 months</li><li>• Recommendation : Medical examination of children at the time of entry and thereafter every 4 years</li><li>• Recommendation</li><li>• NRHM [New Guidelines] recommendation : Once every 6 months</li><li>• NRHM</li><li>• recommendation</li><li>• School Eye Screening Programme : Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group) Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• School Eye Screening Programme</li><li>• Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group) Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• Focus on middle schools (V – VIII classes: 10 – 14 years age group)</li><li>• Teachers to do screening: 1 teacher per 150 students</li><li>• 1 teacher per 150 students</li><li>• Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• Visual acuity cutoff for referral to PHC: &lt;6/9</li><li>• School health services should be an integral part of General health services . General health care services are delivered through PHCs in India (rural areas) so School health services are an important function of PHCs</li><li>• School health services</li><li>• integral part</li><li>• General health services</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ School health services are an important function of PHCs</li><li>➤ School health services</li><li>➤ important function</li><li>➤ PHCs</li><li>➤ In 1961, Rennuka Roy School Health Committee laid the foundations for a comprehensive school health programme in India</li><li>➤ Rennuka Roy School Health Committee</li><li>➤ foundations</li><li>➤ comprehensive school health programme</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 663)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 663)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In discussions about the infrastructure requirements for educational institutions, a specific question arises about land allocation for primary schools. How many acres of land are to be provided for the establishment of a primary school?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "5 acres", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10 acres", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "15 acres", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 5 acres", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 5 acres</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The School Health Committee (1961) had recommended that 10 acres of land be provided for higher elementary schools and 5 acres for primary schools with an additional one acre of land per 100 students.</li><li>• School Health Committee</li><li>• 10 acres of land</li><li>• higher elementary schools</li><li>• 5 acres for primary schools</li><li>• Healthful school environment: Suggested minimum standards for sanitation of schools and its environs in India include,</li><li>• Healthful school environment:</li><li>• Location: Away from noisy surroundings; kept fenced Site: 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools Structure: Exterior walls 10 inch thick and heat resistant Class room: 1 class room per 40 students maximum Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’ Doors and windows: Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area Color: Inside color of walls should be white Lighting: Natural light from left side Water supply: Safe and potable and continuous supply through taps Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li><li>• Location: Away from noisy surroundings; kept fenced</li><li>• Site: 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools</li><li>• 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools</li><li>• Structure: Exterior walls 10 inch thick and heat resistant</li><li>• Class room: 1 class room per 40 students maximum</li><li>• Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet</li><li>• Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet</li><li>• Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’</li><li>• Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’</li><li>• Doors and windows: Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area</li><li>• Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area</li><li>• Color: Inside color of walls should be white</li><li>• Lighting: Natural light from left side</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and potable and continuous supply through taps</li><li>• Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li><li>• Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The School Health Committee (1961) had recommended that 10 acres of land be provided for higher elementary schools and 5 acres for primary schools</li><li>➤ School Health Committee</li><li>➤ 10 acres of land</li><li>➤ higher elementary schools</li><li>➤ 5 acres</li><li>➤ primary schools</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 664)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 664)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical resident is preparing a presentation on the legislative milestones in healthcare policies for persons with disabilities. She wants to include the year of enactment of significant bills that expanded the rights and services for this population in her country. Which year did the legislature pass the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill that marked a substantial change in policy and services for disabled individuals?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2013", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2014", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2015", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2016", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2016", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-115700.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2016</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The Lok Sabha has passed “ The Rights of Persons with”.</li><li>• Lok Sabha</li><li>• The Rights of Persons</li><li>• The Bill replaced the PWD Act, 1995 , which was enacted 21 years back . The Rajya Sabha has already passed the Bill on 14.12.2016</li><li>• Bill replaced</li><li>• PWD Act, 1995</li><li>• enacted 21 years back</li><li>• Rajya Sabha</li><li>• passed the Bill</li><li>• 14.12.2016</li><li>• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016 (21 Disabilities)</li><li>• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016 (21 Disabilities)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870 The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929 The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948 The Factories Act, 1948 The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956 The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now) The Pre-conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994 The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995 The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 The Information Technology Act, 2000 The Disaster Management Act, 2005 The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005 The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016 The Mental Health Care Act, 2017 The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870</li><li>➤ The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929</li><li>➤ The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Factories Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956</li><li>➤ The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969</li><li>➤ The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971</li><li>➤ The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985</li><li>➤ The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now)</li><li>➤ The Pre-conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995</li><li>➤ The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998</li><li>➤ The Information Technology Act, 2000</li><li>➤ The Disaster Management Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005</li><li>➤ The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005</li><li>➤ Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012</li><li>➤ The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013</li><li>➤ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015</li><li>➤ The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Care Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 670)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 670)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatric resident is reviewing the history of child welfare legislation in India as part of a public health module. She notes that a specific act was pivotal in shaping child welfare and protection services in the country. In which year was the Children’s Act enacted to safeguard and promote the well-being of children in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1950", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1960", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1970", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1980", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1960", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 1960</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The Children Act , 1960 in India defines delinquent as a child who has committed an offence . This legislation was one of the first comprehensive statutes specifically aimed at protecting the rights and welfare of children . It provided a framework for the care, protection, maintenance , welfare , training , education , and rehabilitation of children . It also established Children's Courts for the speedy trial of offenses against children and for related matters.</li><li>• Children Act</li><li>• 1960</li><li>• India</li><li>• delinquent as a child</li><li>• committed</li><li>• offence</li><li>• legislation</li><li>• one of the first comprehensive statutes</li><li>• aimed at protecting the rights</li><li>• welfare of children</li><li>• framework</li><li>• care, protection, maintenance</li><li>• welfare</li><li>• training</li><li>• education</li><li>• rehabilitation of children</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Legal age of marriage in India: 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys Legal age for voting in India: 18 years for both boys and girls Legal age for employment in India: &gt; 14 years Legal age of consent by a girl for sexual intercourse in India: 18 years [NEW GUIDELINE 2012] Juvenile in India: Boy less than 18 years and girl less than 18 years [NEW GUIDELINE 2011] Major in India: 18 years and above Tobacco products cannot be sold in India: To age below 18 years Alcohol cannot be sold in India: To age below 25 years</li><li>• Legal age of marriage in India: 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys</li><li>• Legal age for voting in India: 18 years for both boys and girls</li><li>• Legal age for employment in India: &gt; 14 years</li><li>• Legal age of consent by a girl for sexual intercourse in India: 18 years [NEW GUIDELINE 2012]</li><li>• Juvenile in India: Boy less than 18 years and girl less than 18 years [NEW GUIDELINE 2011]</li><li>• Major in India: 18 years and above</li><li>• Tobacco products cannot be sold in India: To age below 18 years</li><li>• Alcohol cannot be sold in India: To age below 25 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870 The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929 The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948 The Factories Act, 1948 The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956 The Children act was passed, 1960 The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now) The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994 The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995 The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 The Information Technology Act, 2000 The Disaster Management Act, 2005 The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005 The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016 The Mental Health Care Act, 2017 The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870</li><li>➤ The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929</li><li>➤ The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Factories Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956</li><li>➤ The Children act was passed, 1960</li><li>➤ The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969</li><li>➤ The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971</li><li>➤ The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985</li><li>➤ The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now)</li><li>➤ The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995</li><li>➤ The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998</li><li>➤ The Information Technology Act, 2000</li><li>➤ The Disaster Management Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005</li><li>➤ The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005</li><li>➤ Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012</li><li>➤ The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013</li><li>➤ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015</li><li>➤ The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Care Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 671)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 671)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar on the improvement of educational environments, a discussion is held regarding the minimum standards for school sanitation in India, focusing on the furniture that should be provided. What type of desks are recommended as per the minimum standards for sanitation in schools in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Plus type", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Minus type", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Zero type", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attached type", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Minus type", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Minus type</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Furniture should suit the age group of students . It is desirable to provide single desks and chairs. Desks should be of “ minus” type .</li><li>• Furniture</li><li>• suit the age group of students</li><li>• Desks</li><li>• minus” type</li><li>• Healthful school environment: Suggested minimum standards for sanitation of schools and its environs in India include,</li><li>• Healthful school environment:</li><li>• Location: Away from noisy surroundings ; kept fenced Site: 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools Structure: Exterior walls 10 inch thick and heat resistant Class room: 1 class room per 40 students maximum Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’ Doors and windows: Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area Color: Inside color of walls should be white Lighting: Natural light from left side Water supply: Safe and potable and continuous supply through taps Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li><li>• Location: Away from noisy surroundings ; kept fenced</li><li>• Away from noisy surroundings</li><li>• Site: 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools</li><li>• 5 acres for primary schools; 10 acres for higher elementary schools</li><li>• Structure: Exterior walls 10 inch thick and heat resistant</li><li>• Class room: 1 class room per 40 students maximum</li><li>• Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet</li><li>• Per capita space: &gt;10 sq. feet</li><li>• Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’</li><li>• Furniture: Single desks of ‘minus (–) type’</li><li>• Doors and windows: Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area</li><li>• Doors and windows area &gt;25% of floor area</li><li>• Color: Inside color of walls should be white</li><li>• Lighting: Natural light from left side</li><li>• Water supply: Safe and potable and continuous supply through taps</li><li>• Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li><li>• Lavatory: 1 urinal per 60 students and 1 latrine per 100 students</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In a School scenario , School health guidelines include Minus type desks</li><li>➤ School scenario</li><li>➤ School health guidelines</li><li>➤ Minus type desks</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 665)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 665)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a class on healthcare management, students are learning about projecting healthcare needs in different population settings. They are given a demographic scenario where they need to calculate the expected number of pregnancies in a year in a sub-center area with a population of 5000 and a birth rate of 25 per 1000 population. What would be the correct calculation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "125", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "138", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "140", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "145", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 138", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 138</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Birth rate = 25/1000 population</li><li>• Birth rate</li><li>• 25/1000 population</li><li>• Population under the sub-centre = 5000</li><li>• Population</li><li>• sub-centre</li><li>• 5000</li><li>• Therefore, expected number of live births = (25x5000)/1000 = 125 births</li><li>• expected number</li><li>• live births</li><li>• 125 births</li><li>• Correction factor (pregnancy wastage) = 10% of 125 = say 13</li><li>• Correction factor (pregnancy wastage) = 10%</li><li>• Therefore, total no. of expected = 125 + 13 = 138 pregnancies in a year</li><li>• Note - As per thumb rule, ANM should have at least 50% pregnancies registered with her, Hence, total minimum expected registered pregnancies with ANM = 69</li><li>• Note -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Expected number of Pregnancy = Expected Live Birth + 10% of Expected Live birth</li><li>➤ Expected number</li><li>➤ Pregnancy</li><li>➤ Expected Live Birth</li><li>➤ 10% of Expected Live birth</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 606)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 606)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community health class, the topic of discussion is the assessment of malnutrition in children. The instructor explains that certain anthropometric measures are particularly effective for evaluating chronic malnutrition. Which of the following anthropometric measures is considered the best for assessing chronic malnutrition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Height for age", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Weight for age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight for height", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Birth weight", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Height for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Height for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight . Whereas weight reflects only the present health status of the child , height indicates the events in the past also. Height for age can be used to assess chronic malnutrition .</li><li>• Height</li><li>• stable measurement</li><li>• growth</li><li>• opposed to body weight</li><li>• weight reflects</li><li>• present health status</li><li>• child</li><li>• height</li><li>• events in the past</li><li>• Height</li><li>• age</li><li>• assess chronic malnutrition</li><li>• Acute and Chronic Malnutrition:</li><li>• Acute and Chronic Malnutrition:</li><li>• Low weight for age : Is known as ‘ Underweight’ (Acute on Chronic Malnutrition) Low weight for height : Is known as ‘Nutritional wasting’ or ‘Emaciation’ (Acute Malnutrition) Low height for age : Is known as ‘Nutritional stunting’ or ‘Dwarfing’ (Chronic malnutrition)</li><li>• Low weight for age : Is known as ‘ Underweight’ (Acute on Chronic Malnutrition)</li><li>• Low weight for age</li><li>• Underweight’</li><li>• Low weight for height : Is known as ‘Nutritional wasting’ or ‘Emaciation’ (Acute Malnutrition)</li><li>• Low weight for height</li><li>• ‘Nutritional wasting’</li><li>• Low height for age : Is known as ‘Nutritional stunting’ or ‘Dwarfing’ (Chronic malnutrition)</li><li>• Low height for age</li><li>• ‘Nutritional stunting’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Single best parameter for assessment of physical growth : Weight (and rate of weight gain) Single most sensitive measure of growth : Weight Single most reliable criterion of assessment of health and nutritional status: Weight Weight for height is considered more important than weight alone, for the measurement of physical growth Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight Weight: Reflects only present health status Height: Indicates events in past also</li><li>➤ Single best parameter for assessment of physical growth : Weight (and rate of weight gain)</li><li>➤ Single best parameter</li><li>➤ physical growth</li><li>➤ Weight</li><li>➤ Single most sensitive measure of growth : Weight</li><li>➤ Single</li><li>➤ sensitive measure</li><li>➤ growth</li><li>➤ Weight</li><li>➤ Single most reliable criterion of assessment of health and nutritional status: Weight</li><li>➤ Single</li><li>➤ reliable criterion</li><li>➤ assessment</li><li>➤ health</li><li>➤ Weight</li><li>➤ Weight for height is considered more important than weight alone, for the measurement of physical growth</li><li>➤ Weight for height</li><li>➤ important</li><li>➤ Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight</li><li>➤ Height</li><li>➤ stable measurement</li><li>➤ growth</li><li>➤ Weight: Reflects only present health status</li><li>➤ Height: Indicates events in past also</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 626)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 626)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a seminar on child nutrition and the regulation of infant food products, a discussion arises regarding the legislative measures taken to ensure the safety and nutrition of infant food supplies. The residents are asked to identify the year in which the Infant Milk Substitutes, Feeding Bottles, and Infant Foods (Regulation of Production, Supply, and Distribution) Act came into effect. In which year was this act implemented?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1990", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1991", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1993", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "1995", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 1993", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 1993</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• In view of the vulnerability of young infant to the risk of breast milk substitutes , the Government of India enacted the Infant Milk Substitutes , Feeding Bottles and Infant Food (Regulation of Production, Supply and Distribution) Act 1992 . It came into force on 1st Aug. 1993 .</li><li>• view</li><li>• vulnerability</li><li>• young infant</li><li>• risk of breast milk substitutes</li><li>• Government of India</li><li>• Infant Milk Substitutes</li><li>• Feeding Bottles</li><li>• Infant Food</li><li>• Act 1992</li><li>• 1st Aug. 1993</li><li>• IMPORTANT ACTS IN PUBLIC HEALTH (Related to child health) -</li><li>• IMPORTANT ACTS IN PUBLIC HEALTH (Related to child health)</li><li>• The Vaccination Act - 1880 The Child Marriage Restraint (SARD(A) Act - 1929 The Children’s Act - 1960 The Registration of Births and Deaths Act - 1969 The Infant Milk Substitutes , Feeding Bottles and Infant Food (Regulation of production, supply and distribution) Act - 1992 The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act - 1994</li><li>• The Vaccination Act - 1880</li><li>• Vaccination Act</li><li>• 1880</li><li>• The Child Marriage Restraint (SARD(A) Act - 1929</li><li>• Child Marriage Restraint</li><li>• 1929</li><li>• The Children’s Act - 1960</li><li>• Children’s Act</li><li>• 1960</li><li>• The Registration of Births and Deaths Act - 1969</li><li>• Registration of Births</li><li>• Deaths Act</li><li>• 1969</li><li>• The Infant Milk Substitutes , Feeding Bottles and Infant Food (Regulation of production, supply and distribution) Act - 1992</li><li>• Infant Milk Substitutes</li><li>• Feeding Bottles</li><li>• Infant Food</li><li>• 1992</li><li>• The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act - 1994</li><li>• Pre-conception</li><li>• Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques</li><li>• 1994</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Infant Milk Substitutes , Feeding Bottles and Infant Food (Regulation of production, supply and distribution) Act - 1992 . It came into force on 1st Aug. 1993 .</li><li>➤ Infant Milk Substitutes</li><li>➤ Feeding Bottles</li><li>➤ Infant Food</li><li>➤ 1992</li><li>➤ 1st Aug. 1993</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 623)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 623)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare policy analyst is assessing the impact of maternal and child health programs in a county. She wants to determine which health indicator would most accurately reflect the success of both obstetric and pediatric care interventions. Which of the following health indicators would be most sensitive to improvements in both obstetric and pediatric care services?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Infant Mortality Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Perinatal Mortality Rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Neonatal Mortality Rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maternal Mortality Rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Perinatal Mortality Rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-112735.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Perinatal Mortality Rate.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The value of the perinatal mortality rate is that it gives a good indication of the extent of pregnancy wastage as well as the quality and quantity of health care available to the mother and the newborn .</li><li>• value of the perinatal mortality rate</li><li>• good indication</li><li>• extent of pregnancy wastage</li><li>• quality and quantity of health care</li><li>• mother and the newborn</li><li>• Perinatal Mortality rate (PNMR): Includes both late fetal deaths (stillbirths) and early neonatal deaths</li><li>• Perinatal Mortality rate (PNMR):</li><li>• late fetal deaths</li><li>• early neonatal deaths</li><li>• Perinatal period is from 28 weeks period of gestation to 7th completed days of life (But the WHO definition of perinatal period is from 22 completed weeks gestation to 7th completed days of life)</li><li>• Perinatal period</li><li>• 28 weeks period of gestation</li><li>• 7th completed days of life</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• PNMR is the sum of the fetal mortality and the neonatal mortality PNMR is usually reported on an annual basis PNMR is a major marker to assess the quality of health care delivery</li><li>• PNMR is the sum of the fetal mortality and the neonatal mortality</li><li>• PNMR</li><li>• sum of the fetal mortality</li><li>• neonatal mortality</li><li>• PNMR is usually reported on an annual basis</li><li>• PNMR</li><li>• reported</li><li>• annual basis</li><li>• PNMR is a major marker to assess the quality of health care delivery</li><li>• PNMR</li><li>• major marker</li><li>• assess the quality of health care delivery</li><li>• PNMR is a Yardstick of Obstetric and Pediatric care before and around the time of birth PNMR (India): 18 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022) P List (ICD 10): 100 causes of perinatal mortality and morbidity Extended definition perinatal mortality includes crown heel length of &gt;35 cm at birth</li><li>• PNMR is a Yardstick of Obstetric and Pediatric care before and around the time of birth</li><li>• Yardstick of Obstetric and Pediatric care before and around the time of birth</li><li>• PNMR (India): 18 per 1000 Live births (SRS, September 2022)</li><li>• P List (ICD 10): 100 causes of perinatal mortality and morbidity</li><li>• Extended definition perinatal mortality includes crown heel length of &gt;35 cm at birth</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ PNMR is a Yardstick of Obstetric and Pediatric care before and around the time of birth</li><li>➤ PNMR</li><li>➤ Yardstick of Obstetric</li><li>➤ Pediatric care</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 648)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 648)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A staff nurse at a Community Health Center (CHC) is conducting a routine examination of a newborn male baby. Part of the examination involves measuring the head circumference. She aims to determine whether the baby's head circumference is within the normal range for his age and sex. What is the normal expected head circumference for a newly born male baby?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "30 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "32 cm", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "34 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "38 cm", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 34 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 34 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Head Circumference -</li><li>• Head Circumference</li><li>• At birth the head circumference is about 34 cms , about 2 cms more than the chest circumference By 6 – 9 months , Head circumference (HC) = Chest circumference (CC) Normal children : CC overtakes HC at around 1 year age Malnourished children : CC may overtake HC at around 3 – 4 years age</li><li>• At birth the head circumference is about 34 cms , about 2 cms more than the chest circumference</li><li>• birth</li><li>• head circumference</li><li>• 34 cms</li><li>• 2 cms more</li><li>• chest circumference</li><li>• By 6 – 9 months , Head circumference (HC) = Chest circumference (CC)</li><li>• 6 – 9 months</li><li>• Head circumference</li><li>• Chest circumference</li><li>• Normal children : CC overtakes HC at around 1 year age</li><li>• Normal children</li><li>• Malnourished children : CC may overtake HC at around 3 – 4 years age</li><li>• Malnourished children</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• HC should be measured in Occipito-frontal diameter , with a fibre-glass tape HC growth velocity in 0–3 months age : 2 cms per month During 1st year there is increase in HC by 12 cms; Adult head size is achieved by 5–6 years age Age-independent parameters for growth assessment is HC</li><li>• HC should be measured in Occipito-frontal diameter , with a fibre-glass tape</li><li>• HC</li><li>• Occipito-frontal diameter</li><li>• fibre-glass tape</li><li>• HC growth velocity in 0–3 months age : 2 cms per month</li><li>• HC growth velocity</li><li>• 0–3 months age</li><li>• During 1st year there is increase in HC by 12 cms; Adult head size is achieved by 5–6 years age</li><li>• Age-independent parameters for growth assessment is HC</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ At birth the head circumference is about 34 cm . It is about 2 cm more than the chest circumference . By 6 to 9 months , the two measurements become equal , after which the chest circumference overtakes the head circumference.</li><li>➤ birth</li><li>➤ head circumference</li><li>➤ 34 cm</li><li>➤ 2 cm more</li><li>➤ chest circumference</li><li>➤ 6 to 9 months</li><li>➤ two measurements become equal</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 627)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 627)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a community health center, the healthcare team is reviewing the role of Anganwadi Workers in monitoring child growth. They discuss the various indicators that are commonly used to assess and monitor the growth of children in a community setting. Which indicator would an Anganwadi Worker most likely use to regularly assess the growth of children?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Mid Upper Arm Circumference", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Height for age", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight for height", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Weight for age", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Weight for age", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-113612.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Weight for age</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The growth chart used by Anganwadi workers contains weight for age .</li><li>• growth chart</li><li>• Anganwadi workers</li><li>• weight for age</li><li>• ANGANWADI CENTRE ICDS GROWTH CHART</li><li>• ANGANWADI CENTRE ICDS GROWTH CHART</li><li>• Nutritional status of the child is assessed against weight for age Separate charts for girls and boys 3 zones : Normal zone (grey), Undernutrition below – 2 SD (light grey), Severe underweight below – 3 SD (dark grey).</li><li>• Nutritional status of the child is assessed against weight for age</li><li>• Nutritional status</li><li>• child</li><li>• weight for age</li><li>• Separate charts for girls and boys</li><li>• 3 zones : Normal zone (grey), Undernutrition below – 2 SD (light grey), Severe underweight below – 3 SD (dark grey).</li><li>• 3 zones</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The nutritional status of the child is assessed through Growth Chart (weight for age)</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 629)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 629)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A geriatrician is assessing the functional status of an 80-year-old woman during a routine health examination. The geriatrician evaluates both the Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) and the Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs) to determine the level of assistance required for her to live independently. Which of the following activities is NOT considered an Instrumental Activity of Daily Living?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preparing meals", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Taking medicines", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Managing money", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Using the toilet", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Using the toilet", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/06/image_5ZfJ6yx.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Using the toilet</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Instrumental activities of daily living ( IADL) - require planning , problem-solving , and organizational skills . These include skills that allow seniors to function independently and manage their own affairs</li><li>• Instrumental activities of daily living</li><li>• planning</li><li>• problem-solving</li><li>• organizational skills</li><li>• allow seniors to function independently</li><li>• manage their own affairs</li><li>• Basic Activity of Daily Living (ADL) - These are the basic tasks a person needs to be able to do on their own to live independently . These are Bathing , Toileting , walking , getting dressed, eating meal, etc.</li><li>• Basic Activity of Daily Living</li><li>• basic tasks a person needs</li><li>• able to do</li><li>• own to live independently</li><li>• Bathing</li><li>• Toileting</li><li>• walking</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other Options:</li><li>• Other 3 options are the instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs), which include managing finances (Option C), preparing meals (Option A), and using the telephone , taking medicine (Option B), etc</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• instrumental Activities</li><li>• Daily Living</li><li>• managing finances</li><li>• preparing meals</li><li>• using the telephone</li><li>• taking medicine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Difference between basic and instrumental activities of Daily living -</li><li>➤ Difference between basic</li><li>➤ instrumental activities</li><li>➤ Daily living</li><li>➤ Ref : Harrisons Textbook of Internal Medicine</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Harrisons Textbook of Internal Medicine</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical intern is studying public health initiatives and their impact on population segments. In a discussion about the geriatric population in India, the intern is asked to recall the year in which the National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly (NPHCE) was introduced. This program was established to address various health-related needs of the elderly. In which year was the NPHCE introduced?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2005", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2007", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2009", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2010", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2010", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2010</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly (NPHCE) was launched in the year 2010 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare , Government of India. The NPHCE aims to provide an accessible , affordable , and high-quality long-term , comprehensive and dedicated care service to an ageing population.</li><li>• National Programme for Health Care</li><li>• Elderly</li><li>• 2010</li><li>• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare</li><li>• NPHCE</li><li>• accessible</li><li>• affordable</li><li>• high-quality long-term</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ National Program for Health Care of Elderly was introduced in the year 2010 .</li><li>➤ National Program</li><li>➤ Health Care</li><li>➤ Elderly</li><li>➤ year 2010</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 527)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 527)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical officer is discussing the public health responsibilities in the context of maternal health with a group of healthcare workers. They focus on the protocols for antenatal care, particularly the significance of early pregnancy registration. According to the healthcare system's guidelines, whose primary responsibility is it to ensure the registration of a pregnancy within the first 12 weeks?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "ASHA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "AWW", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical Officer", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ANM", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. ANM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. ANM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. ASHA: Role of ASHA is the identification of Pregnant women , report to the ANM and bring the women to the sub-centre /PHC for registration, Assist the woman to obtain BPL certification if BPL card is not available. Arrange escort/accompany pregnant women requiring treatment/admission to nearest health facility. Counsel women on aspects of reproductive and child health.</li><li>• Option A. ASHA:</li><li>• Role of ASHA</li><li>• identification</li><li>• Pregnant women</li><li>• ANM</li><li>• bring</li><li>• women</li><li>• sub-centre</li><li>• Assist</li><li>• woman</li><li>• obtain BPL certification</li><li>• Option B. AWW: Responsible for Health education to Pregnant women especially related to the specific local challenges that prevent healthy behaviors, cultural practices, breaking myths, local food availability, dietary practices, etc. Along with ASHA &amp; ANM update eligible couples register,</li><li>• Option B. AWW:</li><li>• Health education</li><li>• Pregnant women</li><li>• Option C. Medical officer: Medical officer is the ‘Leader of team at PHC’ . A medical officer diagnoses and treats different illnesses , injuries and disabilities . They perform medical procedures, including physical examinations, diagnostic tests and treatments, while offering valuable lifestyle choices and health management guidance. MO should be equipped enough to handle the common obstetric emergencies and provide the requisite care.</li><li>• Option C. Medical officer:</li><li>• ‘Leader of team at PHC’</li><li>• diagnoses and treats different illnesses</li><li>• injuries and disabilities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ ANM is responsible for ensuring the registration of a pregnancy within the first 12 weeks .</li><li>➤ ANM</li><li>➤ ensuring the registration</li><li>➤ pregnancy</li><li>➤ first 12 weeks</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 605)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 605)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a series of workshops on enhancing Maternal and Child Health (MCH) care, a group of healthcare professionals is learning about various strategies and tools that can be implemented to provide better services, especially for high-risk groups. Which of the following is acknowledged as a managerial tool designed to improve MCH care and give special attention to those most in need?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Risk approach", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mother and Child protection card", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Referral services", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "FRU", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Risk approach", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Risk approach</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• The “ risk approach ” is a managerial tool for improved MCH care . Its purpose is to provide better services for all, but with special attention to those who need them most . Inherent in this approach is maximum utilization of all resources including some human resources that are not conventionally involved in such care - traditional birth attendants, community health workers, women’s groups, for example.</li><li>• risk approach</li><li>• managerial tool</li><li>• improved MCH care</li><li>• purpose</li><li>• provide better services</li><li>• special attention</li><li>• need them most</li><li>• Inherent</li><li>• approach</li><li>• maximum utilization</li><li>• resources</li><li>• human resources</li><li>• At risk approach : Central purpose is to identify high risk cases (as early as possible) from a large group of all antenatal mothers / infants , and provide specialized care to them, while continuing to provide appropriate care to all antenatal mothers/infants</li><li>• At risk approach</li><li>• Central purpose</li><li>• identify high risk cases</li><li>• large group</li><li>• antenatal mothers</li><li>• infants</li><li>• specialized care</li><li>• At risk infants : Contribute to perinatal , neonatal and infant mortality ; so they have to be provided with special intensive care ; Basic criteria for identifying these babies include:</li><li>• At risk infants</li><li>• perinatal</li><li>• neonatal</li><li>• infant mortality</li><li>• special intensive care</li><li>• Birth weight &lt;2.5 kg (low birth weight) Twins Birth order &gt;5 Artificial feeding Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition) Failure to thrive (failure to gain weight in 3 successive months) Children with PEM, diarrhea Working mother/single parent</li><li>• Birth weight &lt;2.5 kg (low birth weight)</li><li>• Twins</li><li>• Birth order &gt;5</li><li>• Artificial feeding</li><li>• Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition)</li><li>• Failure to thrive (failure to gain weight in 3 successive months)</li><li>• Children with PEM, diarrhea</li><li>• Working mother/single parent</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The “ risk approach ” is a managerial tool for improved MCH care . Its purpose is to provide better services for all, but with special attention to those who need them most.</li><li>➤ risk approach</li><li>➤ managerial tool</li><li>➤ improved MCH care</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of residents are discussing postnatal care guidelines under the National Health Mission (NHM) for discharge planning. They need to determine the recommended duration of hospital stay after a normal delivery for a healthy mother and newborn. As per the current guidelines of the National Health Mission, what is the ideal time to discharge a mother after a normal delivery?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "24 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "48 hours", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "72 hours", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "96 hours", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 48 hours", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 48 hours</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The mother is allowed to rest in bed on the first day after delivery . From the next day , she is allowed to be up and about . The current practice is to discharge the woman atleast after 48 hours lying-in period after a normal delivery.</li><li>• mother</li><li>• rest in bed</li><li>• first day after delivery</li><li>• next day</li><li>• allowed</li><li>• up and about</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ As per the current guidelines of the National Health Mission , the ideal time to discharge a mother after a normal delivery is after 48 Hours .</li><li>➤ current guidelines</li><li>➤ National Health Mission</li><li>➤ ideal time</li><li>➤ discharge</li><li>➤ mother</li><li>➤ normal delivery</li><li>➤ 48 Hours</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 611)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 611)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session on global health initiatives for neonatal care, a faculty member is discussing the history of Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) with the residents. They are reviewing its origins and how it has impacted the care of premature and low birth-weight infants around the world. In which country was Kangaroo Mother Care introduced in the year 1979?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Colombia", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Cairo", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Chicago", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Copenhagen", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Colombia", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Colombia</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kangaroo mother care for low birth-weight babies was introduced in Colombia in 1979 by Drs. Hector Martine and Edzar Rey as a response to, inter alia , high infection and mortality rates due to overcrowding in hospitals.</li><li>• Kangaroo mother care</li><li>• low birth-weight babies</li><li>• Colombia in 1979</li><li>• Drs. Hector Martine</li><li>• Edzar Rey</li><li>• inter alia</li><li>• high infection</li><li>• mortality rates</li><li>• overcrowding</li><li>• KANGAROO MOTHER CARE for prevention of neonatal hypothermia in low birth weight/premature newborns -</li><li>• KANGAROO MOTHER CARE</li><li>• prevention of neonatal hypothermia</li><li>• low birth weight/premature newborns</li><li>• Skin-to-skin positioning of newborn on mother’s chest Adequate nutrition through breastfeeding Early discharge and ambulatory care Support for mother and family for child care</li><li>• Skin-to-skin positioning of newborn on mother’s chest</li><li>• Adequate nutrition through breastfeeding</li><li>• Early discharge and ambulatory care</li><li>• Support for mother and family for child care</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ KANGAROO MOTHER CARE for prevention of neonatal hypothermia in low birth weight /premature newborns</li><li>➤ KANGAROO MOTHER CARE</li><li>➤ prevention of neonatal hypothermia</li><li>➤ low birth weight</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 621)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 621)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health student is giving a presentation on indicators of social development and wellbeing of countries. She explains that certain health-related measures can reflect the broader social progress and investment in human capital. Which of the following indicators is considered the best reflection of social development and wellbeing in a country?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Under 5 mortality rate", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Infant mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Maternal mortality rate", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Neonatal mortality rate", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Under 5 mortality rate", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Under 5 mortality rate</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• UNICEF considers under 5 mortality rate as the best single indicator of social development and well-being rather than GNP per capita , as the former reflects income , nutrition , health care and basic education .</li><li>• UNICEF</li><li>• under 5 mortality rate</li><li>• best single indicator</li><li>• social development</li><li>• well-being</li><li>• GNP per capita</li><li>• former reflects income</li><li>• nutrition</li><li>• health care</li><li>• basic education</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Other Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Other Important Pointers -</li><li>➤ Best indicator of SE development : Under 5 mortality rate (U5MR)</li><li>➤ Best</li><li>➤ SE development</li><li>➤ 5 mortality rate</li><li>➤ Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is the SECOND best indicator of socio-economic development of a country</li><li>➤ Infant Mortality Rate</li><li>➤ SECOND best</li><li>➤ socio-economic development</li><li>➤ IMR is most important indicator of - health status of a community , level of living and effectiveness of MCH services in general</li><li>➤ IMR</li><li>➤ important indicator</li><li>➤ health status of a community</li><li>➤ level of living</li><li>➤ effectiveness</li><li>➤ MCH</li><li>➤ The infant mortality rate is among ‘the best predictors of state failure’</li><li>➤ infant mortality rate</li><li>➤ best predictors</li><li>➤ state failure’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 657)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 657)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of public health students are discussing the role of health promotion in schools under the Ayushman Bharat scheme. They focus on the number of designated Health and Wellness Ambassadors in each school as per the program's guidelines. According to Ayushman Bharat, how many Health and Wellness Ambassadors are designated in each school?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the school children", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 2", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 2</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Two teachers, preferably one male and one female, in every school , designated as “ Health and Wellness Ambassadors ” shall be trained to transact with school children , health promotion and disease prevention information on 11 thematic areas in the form of interesting joyful interactive activities for one hour every week.</li><li>• Two teachers, preferably one male and one female, in every school</li><li>• Health and Wellness Ambassadors</li><li>• trained to transact</li><li>• school children</li><li>• health promotion</li><li>• disease prevention information</li><li>• 11 thematic areas</li><li>• form of interesting joyful interactive activities</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Two teachers in every school , designated as “ Health and Wellness Ambassadors .</li><li>➤ Two teachers</li><li>➤ every school</li><li>➤ Health and Wellness Ambassadors</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 666)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 666)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is giving a lecture on nutritional supplementation in adolescents and discusses the Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) program. She quizzes her students on the recommended dose of iron and folic acid for school-aged children between 10 to 19 years according to the WIFS program. What is the dose of Iron and Folic Acid supplementation recommended by WIFS for school children of 10 to 19 years of age?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "45 mg of elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60 mg of elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "100 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "60 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Weekly dose of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid with Biannual de-worming to be done in adolescents (10-19 years) under WIFS . For out-of-school girls in the age group 10-19 years through the platform of Anganwadi Kendras</li><li>• Weekly dose</li><li>• 100 mg elemental iron</li><li>• 500 mcg folic acid</li><li>• Biannual de-worming</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• WIFS</li><li>• out-of-school girls</li><li>• age group 10-19 years</li><li>• platform</li><li>• Anganwadi Kendras</li><li>• National Iron PLUS Initiative is an attempt to look at Iron Deficiency Anaemia in which beneficiaries will receive iron and folic acid supplementation irrespective of their Iron/hemoglobin status . Thus its Primary level of prevention (Specific protection)</li><li>• National Iron PLUS</li><li>• Iron Deficiency Anaemia</li><li>• receive iron</li><li>• folic acid supplementation</li><li>• Iron/hemoglobin status</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ IFA SUPPLEMENTATION – NATIONAL IRON PLUS INITIATIVE</li><li>➤ IFA SUPPLEMENTATION – NATIONAL IRON PLUS INITIATIVE</li><li>➤ 6-60 months age : 20 mg of elemental iron and 100 mcg of folic acid, Biweekly (Syrup) 5-10 years age : 45 mg elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid, Weekly 10-19 years age : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, Weekly 10-19 years age : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, 1 tablet daily for 100 days (starting after the first trimester), to be repeated for 100 days post-partum Women in reproductive age (WRA) group : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, Weekly</li><li>➤ 6-60 months age : 20 mg of elemental iron and 100 mcg of folic acid, Biweekly (Syrup)</li><li>➤ 6-60 months age</li><li>➤ 5-10 years age : 45 mg elemental iron and 400 mcg of folic acid, Weekly</li><li>➤ 5-10 years age</li><li>➤ 10-19 years age : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, Weekly</li><li>➤ 10-19 years age</li><li>➤ 10-19 years age : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, 1 tablet daily for 100 days (starting after the first trimester), to be repeated for 100 days post-partum</li><li>➤ 10-19 years age</li><li>➤ Women in reproductive age (WRA) group : 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid, Weekly</li><li>➤ Women in reproductive age</li><li>➤ group</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 667)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 667)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A team of healthcare professionals, including pediatricians, psychiatrists, and social workers, is planning to establish a multidisciplinary clinic to address the behavioral, emotional, and developmental needs of children in their community. They are inspired by the historical model of the first child guidance clinic established in the early 20th century. In which city was the first Child Guidance Clinic, dedicated to addressing the mental health and behavioral needs of children, established in 1909?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "New York", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Geneva", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Washington", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Chicago", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Chicago", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Chicago</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The first child guidance clinic was started in Chicago in 1909 and ever since, they have grown in number and complexity throughout the world. Originally intended to deal with problems of juvenile delinquency , child guidance clinics deal with all children or adolescents who for one reason or other, are not fully adjusted to their environment .</li><li>• first child guidance clinic</li><li>• Chicago</li><li>• 1909</li><li>• grown</li><li>• number</li><li>• complexity</li><li>• deal</li><li>• problems of juvenile delinquency</li><li>• child guidance clinics</li><li>• children</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• .</li><li>• Child guidance clinic - Specialized clinics that deal with children of normal and abnormal intelligence , exhibiting a range of behaviors and psychological problems which are summed up as maladjustments.</li><li>• Child guidance clinic -</li><li>• Specialized clinics</li><li>• deal</li><li>• children</li><li>• normal</li><li>• abnormal intelligence</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ In India , the Child Guidance Clinic (CGC) was the first of its kind started in 1937 with the efforts of Dr. Clifford Manshardt , the first Director of the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work now known as the Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS).</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ Child Guidance Clinic</li><li>➤ first</li><li>➤ 1937</li><li>➤ efforts of Dr. Clifford Manshardt</li><li>➤ first</li><li>➤ Director</li><li>➤ Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate</li><li>➤ School</li><li>➤ Social</li><li>➤ Work</li><li>➤ Tata Institute of Social Sciences</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 678)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 678)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 65-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine health examination. She inquires about various health promotion programs available for her age group and mentions hearing the term \"young-old\" in a brochure. Based on the generally accepted age stratification in gerontology, to which age group does the term \"young-old\" refer?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "54-59", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "60-74", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "75-84", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "&gt;85", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 60-74", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 60-74</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Option A. 54-59 - are Adults</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• 54-59</li><li>• Option C. 75-84 years of age- middle old</li><li>• Option C. 75-84</li><li>• Option D. &gt; 85 years of age- oldest old</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• &gt; 85</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Age group for geriatrics in India: 60 years and above Geriatric age group among Indian population : 8.1% (SRS 2017) Most Common health disorder among Indian geriatrics : Visual impairment (Cataract) Most common cause of death among Indian geriatric aged above 70 years: Cardiovascular disorder</li><li>➤ Age group for geriatrics in India: 60 years and above</li><li>➤ Age group</li><li>➤ geriatrics</li><li>➤ 60 years and above</li><li>➤ Geriatric age group among Indian population : 8.1% (SRS 2017)</li><li>➤ Geriatric age group</li><li>➤ Indian population</li><li>➤ 8.1%</li><li>➤ Most Common health disorder among Indian geriatrics : Visual impairment (Cataract)</li><li>➤ Common health disorder</li><li>➤ Indian geriatrics</li><li>➤ Visual impairment</li><li>➤ Most common cause of death among Indian geriatric aged above 70 years: Cardiovascular disorder</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of Community Medicine- Sunder Lal- 5 th edition (page 677)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Textbook of Community Medicine- Sunder Lal- 5 th edition (page 677)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a seminar on women's health, an obstetrician is discussing the various causes of maternal mortality in India. She points out that while there are many factors contributing to maternal deaths, there is one cause that stands out as the leading contributor. She then quizzes the attendees on what they believe is the single most common cause accounting for the majority of maternal deaths in India. Which of the following would they correctly identify?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Haemorrhage", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Gestational hypertension related", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Unsafe abortion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Haemorrhage", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Haemorrhage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The single most common cause - accounting for a quarter of all maternal deaths - is obstetric haemorrhage , generally occurring postpartum which can lead to death very rapidly in the absence of prompt life-saving care .</li><li>• single</li><li>• cause</li><li>• accounting</li><li>• quarter</li><li>• maternal deaths</li><li>• obstetric haemorrhage</li><li>• postpartum</li><li>• death</li><li>• rapidly</li><li>• absence</li><li>• prompt life-saving care</li><li>• MCC of Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR in World): Obstetric hemorrhage (25%)</li><li>• MCC</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Rate</li><li>• Obstetric hemorrhage</li><li>• MCC of MMR in India : Obstetric hemorrhage (38%); Other reasons - Other conditions (34%), Sepsis (11%), Abortion (8%), Obstructed labour (5%) and Hypertensive disorders (5%)</li><li>• MCC of MMR in India</li><li>• Obstetric hemorrhage</li><li>• Sepsis</li><li>• Abortion</li><li>• Obstructed labour</li><li>• Hypertensive disorders</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR): Maternal deaths expressed as per 100,000 live births , where a ‘ maternal death’ is defined as ‘ death of a woman while pregnant or during delivery or within 42 days (6 weeks) of termination of pregnancy , irrespective of duration or site of pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management but not from accidental or incidental causes’</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Ratio</li><li>• deaths</li><li>• 100,000 live births</li><li>• maternal death’</li><li>• death of a woman</li><li>• pregnant</li><li>• during delivery</li><li>• within 42 days</li><li>• termination of pregnancy</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): 97 per 100,000 Live births (SRS, March 2022)</li><li>• Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): 97 per 100,000 Live births (SRS, March 2022)</li><li>• Late maternal death : If death due to obstetric or related complication(s) occurs after 42 days of delivery but within 1 year. Late maternal death is not included in MMR</li><li>• Late maternal death</li><li>• death</li><li>• obstetric</li><li>• after 42 days</li><li>• delivery</li><li>• Late maternal death is not included in MMR</li><li>• RHIME - ‘ Representative, re-sampled, routine household interview of mortality, with medical evaluation’: Is a new method for MMR estimation introduced in India from 2003 SRS. RHIME is an enhanced form of verbal autopsy</li><li>• RHIME - ‘</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ MCC of Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR in World): Obstetric hemorrhage (25%)</li><li>➤ MCC</li><li>➤ Maternal Mortality Rate</li><li>➤ Obstetric hemorrhage</li><li>➤ MCC of MMR in India : Obstetric hemorrhage (38%);</li><li>➤ MCC</li><li>➤ MMR in India</li><li>➤ Obstetric hemorrhage</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 643)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 643)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a community health session focused on promoting awareness of geriatric issues, a public health student is tasked with organizing an event. The student plans to align the event with the International Day of Older Persons to increase its impact and reach. On which date is the International Day of Older Persons celebrated globally?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 March", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 April", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1 September", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "1 October", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 1 October", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 1 October</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Each year , WHO commemorate “ International Day of Older Persons ” on 1 October to raise public awareness about the opportunities and challenges presented to the ageing populations and to mobilize the families , community groups and stakeholders to address the difficulties faced by older people.</li><li>• Each year</li><li>• International Day of Older Persons</li><li>• 1 October</li><li>• raise public awareness</li><li>• opportunities</li><li>• challenges</li><li>• ageing populations</li><li>• mobilize the families</li><li>• Theme for International Day of Older persons</li><li>• Theme for International Day of Older persons</li><li>• 2021 - Digital Equity for All Ages</li><li>• 2021</li><li>• 2022 - Resilience of Older Persons in a Changing World.</li><li>• 2022</li><li>• 2023 - Fulfilling the Promises of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights for Older Persons: Across Generations</li><li>• 2023</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ 1st October - International Day for Older Persons and National Voluntary Blood Donation Day</li><li>➤ 1st October</li><li>➤ International Day</li><li>➤ Older Persons</li><li>➤ National Voluntary Blood Donation Day</li><li>➤ 2023 theme for International Day of Older Persons - Fulfilling the Promises of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights for Older Persons: Across Generations</li><li>➤ 2023 theme</li><li>➤ International Day</li><li>➤ Older Persons</li><li>➤ Fulfilling</li><li>➤ Promises</li><li>➤ Universal Declaration</li><li>➤ Human Rights</li><li>➤ Ref: https://www.un.org/en/observances/older-persons-day</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ https://www.un.org/en/observances/older-persons-day</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical residents is discussing significant public health awareness campaigns, and the conversation turns to themes chosen for World Health Day over the years. One resident mentions that 'Ageing and health' was a theme in a particular year, highlighting the importance of health care in the elderly. In which year was 'Ageing and health' the theme for World Health Day?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2010", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2011", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2012", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2013", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2012", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-110300.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2012</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• World Health Day 2012 was marked with the slogan \" Good health adds life to years \". Life expectancy is going up in most countries , meaning more and more people live longer and enter an age when they may need health care.</li><li>• World Health Day 2012</li><li>• Good health adds life to years</li><li>• Life expectancy</li><li>• most countries</li><li>• more and more people live longer</li><li>• enter an age</li><li>• World Health Day (WHD) Themes</li><li>• World Health Day (WHD) Themes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ The theme for World Health Day in the year 2012 was ' Ageing and health' .</li><li>➤ theme</li><li>➤ World Health Day</li><li>➤ 2012</li><li>➤ Ageing and health'</li><li>➤ Ref : https://www.who.int/initiatives/decade-of-healthy-ageing</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ :</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a maternal health education session for newly pregnant women, a clinician emphasizes the importance of recognizing warning signs that may indicate potential complications during pregnancy. She asks the group to identify which of the following symptoms is generally NOT considered a warning sign in pregnancy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Headache", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Blurring of vision", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Bleeding per vagina", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Constipation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Constipation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Constipation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The pregnant woman should be given clear-cut instructions that she should report immediately in case of the following warning signs:</li><li>• pregnant woman</li><li>• clear-cut instructions</li><li>• report immediately</li><li>• (a) swelling of the feet</li><li>• (b) fits</li><li>• (c) headache</li><li>• (d) blurring of the vision</li><li>• (e) bleeding or discharge per vagina</li><li>• (f) any other unusual symptoms.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Warning signs in Pregnancy are - swelling of the feet , fits , headache , blurring of the vision, bleeding or discharge per vagina, ans any other unusual symptoms.</li><li>➤ Warning signs</li><li>➤ Pregnancy</li><li>➤ swelling of the feet</li><li>➤ fits</li><li>➤ headache</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 609)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 609)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician is discussing the progression of breast milk production with a new mothers' group in her clinic. Understanding the natural changes in milk volume over time is crucial for proper feeding practices and to reassure mothers about their infant's nutritional needs. What is the typical daily mean output of breast milk for an Indian mother during the lactation period of 3 to 4 months?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "530", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "600", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "640", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "660", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 640", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-111001.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-111324.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 640</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Mean output of breast milk per day (mL) -</li><li>• Mean output</li><li>• breast milk per day</li><li>• Nutritional Importance of Breast Milk -</li><li>• Nutritional Importance of Breast Milk -</li><li>• Energy content of breast milk: 65 Kcal/100 mL Protein content of breast milk: 1.1 grams/100 mL Nutritive values of milk (per 100 gm): Human Milk is richer in Carbohydrate (lactose), Iron and Water content WHILE Cow’s milk is richer in Fat, Protein, Calcium and energy content.</li><li>• Energy content of breast milk: 65 Kcal/100 mL</li><li>• 65 Kcal/100 mL</li><li>• Protein content of breast milk: 1.1 grams/100 mL</li><li>• 1.1 grams/100 mL</li><li>• Nutritive values of milk (per 100 gm): Human Milk is richer in Carbohydrate (lactose), Iron and Water content WHILE Cow’s milk is richer in Fat, Protein, Calcium and energy content.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Mean output of breastmilk in lactating mothers at 3-4 months of lactation is 640 ml/day and 5-6 months is 730 ml/day</li><li>➤ Mean output</li><li>➤ breastmilk</li><li>➤ lactating mothers</li><li>➤ 3-4 months of lactation</li><li>➤ 640 ml/day</li><li>➤ 5-6 months</li><li>➤ 730 ml/day</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 613)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 613)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical case discussion about maternal immunization, medical students are reviewing the guidelines for tetanus vaccination during pregnancy. The question posed to them is: For how many years does a booster dose of Tetanus toxoid confer protection to a pregnant woman?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "3", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "5", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "10", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 5", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 5</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• For a woman who has been immunized earlier with tetanus toxoid , one booster dose will be sufficient . When such a booster has been given , it will necessarily provide immunity for the next 5 years , but for implementation purposes, if there is any subsequent pregnancy this duration is considered 3 years.</li><li>• woman</li><li>• immunized earlier</li><li>• tetanus toxoid</li><li>• one booster dose</li><li>• sufficient</li><li>• booster</li><li>• given</li><li>• provide immunity</li><li>• next 5 years</li><li>• Guidelines on TT/ Td in Pregnancy –</li><li>• Guidelines on TT/ Td in Pregnancy –</li><li>• Primigravida : 2 doses 1 month apart , as early as possible in pregnancy.</li><li>• Primigravida</li><li>• 2 doses 1 month apart</li><li>• DURATION OF PROTECTION WITH 2 DOSES : ALL SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCIES IN NEXT 3 YEARS</li><li>• DURATION OF PROTECTION</li><li>• 2 DOSES</li><li>• Multigravida (completely immunized in last 3 years): 1 booster dose is sufficient</li><li>• Multigravida</li><li>• 1 booster dose</li><li>• Multigravida (partially immunized in previous pregnancy in last 3 years): 2 doses, 1 month apart</li><li>• Multigravida (unimmunized in previous pregnancy in last 3 years): 2 doses, 1 month apart</li><li>• Multigravida (completely immunized in previous pregnancy earlier than 3 years): 2 doses, 1 month apart</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• RULE FOR Delayed immunization of TT in pregnancy (as per Period of gestation – POG): Give 2 doses of TT , 1 month apart , anytime in pregnancy, IRRESPECTIVE OF TIME OF DELIVERY (so as to provide protection for atleast next 3 years) In developing countries , antenatal mothers should be given TT irrespective of period of gestation (as she may not return); There is no evidence to suggest that TT is dangerous or harmful to the fetus NNT is prevented by Tetanus toxoid Infants born to unimmunized mothers or partially immunized mothers should be given: 750 IU antitoxin (heterologous serum) within 6 hours of birth (for prevention of neonatal tetanus) Immunization with 3 doses of tetanus toxoid, confers protection for 10 years</li><li>• RULE FOR Delayed immunization of TT in pregnancy (as per Period of gestation – POG): Give 2 doses of TT , 1 month apart , anytime in pregnancy, IRRESPECTIVE OF TIME OF DELIVERY (so as to provide protection for atleast next 3 years)</li><li>• RULE FOR Delayed immunization</li><li>• TT in pregnancy</li><li>• 2 doses of TT</li><li>• 1 month apart</li><li>• In developing countries , antenatal mothers should be given TT irrespective of period of gestation (as she may not return); There is no evidence to suggest that TT is dangerous or harmful to the fetus</li><li>• developing countries</li><li>• antenatal mothers</li><li>• given TT</li><li>• NNT is prevented by Tetanus toxoid</li><li>• NNT</li><li>• Tetanus toxoid</li><li>• Infants born to unimmunized mothers or partially immunized mothers should be given: 750 IU antitoxin (heterologous serum) within 6 hours of birth (for prevention of neonatal tetanus)</li><li>• Immunization with 3 doses of tetanus toxoid, confers protection for 10 years</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Primigravida : 2 doses 1 month apart , as early as possible in pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Primigravida</li><li>➤ 2 doses</li><li>➤ 1 month apart</li><li>➤ DURATION OF PROTECTION WITH 2 DOSES: ALL SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCIES IN NEXT 3 YEARS</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 610)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 610)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A human rights activist is delivering a lecture on the constitutional provisions in India that protect children from labor exploitation. He presents a query to the audience regarding the specific article in the Indian Constitution that prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories. Which article embodies this prohibition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Article 24", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Article 39", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Article 45", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Article 60", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Article 24", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Article 24</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Articles on Child rights in our Constitution:</li><li>• Articles on Child rights in our Constitution:</li><li>• Article 24 prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 in factories; Article 39 prevents abuse of children of tender age; (Option B) Article 45 provides for education for all children age of 14 years. (Option C)</li><li>• Article 24 prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 in factories;</li><li>• Article 24</li><li>• employment</li><li>• children</li><li>• below</li><li>• age of 14</li><li>• Article 39 prevents abuse of children of tender age; (Option B)</li><li>• Article 39</li><li>• abuse of children</li><li>• Article 45 provides for education for all children age of 14 years. (Option C)</li><li>• Article 45</li><li>• education for all children</li><li>• Article 60 - is not related to the child rights , it is the elated to oath and affirmation of the president of India. (Option D)</li><li>• Article 60</li><li>• not</li><li>• child rights</li><li>• NPAC 2005 definition of Child (adopted by India):</li><li>• NPAC 2005</li><li>• Child</li><li>• All persons upto the age of 18 years All rights apply to all age-groups, including before birth</li><li>• All persons upto the age of 18 years</li><li>• All rights apply to all age-groups, including before birth</li><li>• National Policy 1974 mandate : State takes responsibility for children ‘ both before and after birth’</li><li>• National Policy 1974 mandate</li><li>• responsibility for children</li><li>• both before and after birth’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Articles on Child rights in our Constitution - Article 24 prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 in factories ; Article 39 prevents abuse of children of tender age; Article 45 provides for education for all children age of 14 years.</li><li>➤ Articles</li><li>➤ Child rights</li><li>➤ Constitution</li><li>➤ Article 24 prohibits</li><li>➤ children</li><li>➤ below</li><li>➤ age of 14 in factories</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 635)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 635)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a pediatric outpatient clinic, a mother presents with her 7-month-old infant who has been experiencing increased stool frequency with a slightly looser consistency than normal. The pediatrician classifies the diarrhea as mild and discusses management strategies with the mother. According to best practices in managing mild diarrhea in infants, which of the following should the pediatrician recommend?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Stop breastfeeding and start ORS", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IV fluid administration", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Antibiotics and Zinc therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Continue breastfeeding", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Continue breastfeeding", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Continue breastfeeding</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Continue breastfeeding and monitor the infant’s hydration status . In cases of mild diarrhea , it is important to maintain the infant's usual diet , including continued breastfeeding . Breast milk offers the best nutrition and provides antibodies that can help fight infections . It also has a natural balance of electrolytes to help maintain hydration.</li><li>• Continue breastfeeding</li><li>• monitor the infant’s hydration status</li><li>• mild diarrhea</li><li>• maintain the infant's usual diet</li><li>• continued breastfeeding</li><li>• Breast milk</li><li>• best nutrition</li><li>• antibodies</li><li>• fight infections</li><li>• Breastfeeding during diarrhoea:</li><li>• Breastfeeding during diarrhoea:</li><li>• Newborns with diarrhoea who have little or no signs of dehydration can be treated by breastfeeding alone Newborns with diarrhoea who have moderate or severe dehydration should be given ORS; breastfeeding is continued along with ORS given after each liquid stool Breastfeeding rehydrates, provides nutrients to help recovery and prevents further infection</li><li>• Newborns with diarrhoea who have little or no signs of dehydration can be treated by breastfeeding alone</li><li>• Newborns</li><li>• diarrhoea</li><li>• little or no signs of dehydration</li><li>• treated</li><li>• breastfeeding alone</li><li>• Newborns with diarrhoea who have moderate or severe dehydration should be given ORS; breastfeeding is continued along with ORS given after each liquid stool</li><li>• Breastfeeding rehydrates, provides nutrients to help recovery and prevents further infection</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Newborns with diarrhoea who have little or no signs of dehydration can be treated by breastfeeding alone.</li><li>➤ Newborns</li><li>➤ diarrhoea</li><li>➤ no signs of dehydration</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 621)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 621)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health student is presenting a seminar on various health indices and their applications. She explains that one of the indices, the Child Survival Index (CSI), is used to assess the overall child health status in a population. She then quizzes the attendees on the formula for calculating the Child Survival Index. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the Child Survival Index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "(1000 – U5MR) / 10", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "(1000 – IMR) / 10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "(1000 – U5MR) / 100", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "(1000 – IMR) / 100", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. (1000 – U5MR) / 10", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. (1000 – U5MR) / 10</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Child Survival Rate (CSR) / Child Survival Index is calculated as -</li><li>• Child survival rate = (1000 – Under 5 mortality rate) / 10</li><li>• The basic measure of infant and child survival is the Under-5 mortality (number of deaths under the age of 5 years, per 1000 live births). A child survival rate per 1000 births can be simply calculated by subtracting the Under-5 mortality rate from 1000 . Dividing this figure by ten shows the percentage of those who survive to the age of 5 years.</li><li>• basic measure</li><li>• infant</li><li>• child survival</li><li>• Under-5 mortality</li><li>• child survival rate</li><li>• 1000 births</li><li>• calculated by subtracting</li><li>• Under-5 mortality rate</li><li>• 1000</li><li>• India CSR : 97 [2022]</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Child Survival Rate (CSR) / Child Survival Index is calculated as = (1000 – Under 5 mortality rate) / 10</li><li>➤ Child Survival Rate</li><li>➤ Child Survival Index</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 661)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 661)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mass screening of blood in neonates of many countries by Guthrie test is used for detecting?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Neonatal hypothyroidism", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Phenylketonuria", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Thalassemia", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Congenital dislocation of hip", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Phenylketonuria", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Phenylketonuria</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Mass screening of blood phenylalanine in neonates is performed in many countries by the Guthrie test . It is possible to test for all three types of metabolic error , namely PKU , galactosemia and maple syrup urine disease by taking blood from the 7-10 days old baby by heel prick - collecting 3 or 4 separate drops of it on thick absorbent filter paper.</li><li>• Mass screening</li><li>• blood phenylalanine</li><li>• neonates</li><li>• countries</li><li>• Guthrie test</li><li>• test</li><li>• all three types</li><li>• metabolic error</li><li>• PKU</li><li>• galactosemia</li><li>• maple syrup urine disease</li><li>• taking blood</li><li>• 7-10 days old baby</li><li>• heel prick</li><li>• Phenylketonuria and Guthrie Test</li><li>• Phenylketonuria and Guthrie Test</li><li>• PKU is an autosomal recessive trait with a frequency of 1 in 10,000 births Enzyme deficient in PKU: Phenylalanine hydroxylase Treatment of PKU: restricting or eliminating foods high in phenylalanine, such as breast milk, meat, chicken, fish, nuts, cheese, legumes and other dairy products Guthrie Test: Is done in neonates for mass screening of Phenylketonuria (PKU) Guthrie test was the first screening test used in neonates Blood sample is collected by heel prick of the baby 7 -10 days after birth Guthrie Test is negative in first 2 – 3 days of life Guthrie test can detect PKU, Galactosemia and Maple syrup urine disease Chemicals detected: Phenylalanine, Phenylpyruvate and Phenyllactate It is a semi-quantitative test Currently, Guthrie test has been replaced by Tandem mass Spectrometry</li><li>• PKU is an autosomal recessive trait with a frequency of 1 in 10,000 births Enzyme deficient in PKU: Phenylalanine hydroxylase Treatment of PKU: restricting or eliminating foods high in phenylalanine, such as breast milk, meat, chicken, fish, nuts, cheese, legumes and other dairy products</li><li>• autosomal recessive</li><li>• Enzyme deficient in PKU: Phenylalanine hydroxylase Treatment of PKU: restricting or eliminating foods high in phenylalanine, such as breast milk, meat, chicken, fish, nuts, cheese, legumes and other dairy products</li><li>• Enzyme deficient in PKU: Phenylalanine hydroxylase</li><li>• Phenylalanine hydroxylase</li><li>• Treatment of PKU: restricting or eliminating foods high in phenylalanine, such as breast milk, meat, chicken, fish, nuts, cheese, legumes and other dairy products</li><li>• Guthrie Test: Is done in neonates for mass screening of Phenylketonuria (PKU) Guthrie test was the first screening test used in neonates Blood sample is collected by heel prick of the baby 7 -10 days after birth Guthrie Test is negative in first 2 – 3 days of life Guthrie test can detect PKU, Galactosemia and Maple syrup urine disease Chemicals detected: Phenylalanine, Phenylpyruvate and Phenyllactate It is a semi-quantitative test Currently, Guthrie test has been replaced by Tandem mass Spectrometry</li><li>• Guthrie test was the first screening test used in neonates Blood sample is collected by heel prick of the baby 7 -10 days after birth Guthrie Test is negative in first 2 – 3 days of life Guthrie test can detect PKU, Galactosemia and Maple syrup urine disease Chemicals detected: Phenylalanine, Phenylpyruvate and Phenyllactate It is a semi-quantitative test Currently, Guthrie test has been replaced by Tandem mass Spectrometry</li><li>• Guthrie test was the first screening test used in neonates</li><li>• Guthrie test was the first screening test used in neonates</li><li>• Blood sample is collected by heel prick of the baby 7 -10 days after birth</li><li>• 7 -10 days after birth</li><li>• Guthrie Test is negative in first 2 – 3 days of life</li><li>• Guthrie test can detect PKU, Galactosemia and Maple syrup urine disease</li><li>• Chemicals detected: Phenylalanine, Phenylpyruvate and Phenyllactate</li><li>• It is a semi-quantitative test</li><li>• Currently, Guthrie test has been replaced by Tandem mass Spectrometry</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PKU is an autosomal recessive trait</li><li>➤ PKU</li><li>➤ autosomal recessive trait</li><li>➤ Guthrie Test is done in neonates for mass screening of Phenylketonuria (PKU)</li><li>➤ Guthrie Test</li><li>➤ neonates</li><li>➤ mass screening</li><li>➤ Phenylketonuria</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 617)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 617)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a session on geriatrics in a community medicine class, a discussion arose about the geographic distribution of the elderly population across India. A medical student is asked to identify which state in India had the maximum proportion of the elderly population in the year 2021. Which of the following states had the highest percentage of elderly residents?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kerala", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Goa", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tamil Nadu", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Arunachal Pradesh", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Kerala", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Kerala</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• State-wise data on elderly population showed that Kerala has the maximum proportion of elderly people in its population (16.5%) followed by Tamil Nadu (13.6%), Himachal Pradesh (13.1%), Punjab (12.6%) and Andhra Pradesh (12.4%) in 2021.</li><li>• State-wise data</li><li>• elderly population</li><li>• Kerala</li><li>• maximum</li><li>• proportion</li><li>• elderly people</li><li>• population</li><li>• Tamil Nadu</li><li>• Himachal Pradesh</li><li>• Punjab</li><li>• Andhra Pradesh</li><li>• Proportion of elderly population is the least in the States of Bihar (7.7%) followed by Uttar Pradesh (8.1%) and Assam (8.2%) in 2021.</li><li>• Proportion</li><li>• elderly population</li><li>• least</li><li>• States of Bihar</li><li>• Uttar Pradesh</li><li>• Assam</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kerala (16.5%) has the highest and Bihar (7.7%) has the lowest proportion of the elderly population among the states of India as of 2021 .</li><li>➤ Kerala</li><li>➤ highest and Bihar</li><li>➤ lowest proportion</li><li>➤ elderly population</li><li>➤ states of India</li><li>➤ 2021</li><li>➤ Ref : Elderly in India 2021, Ministry of statistics, Central statistics office, India</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Elderly in India 2021, Ministry of statistics, Central statistics office, India</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A group of medical residents specializing in geriatrics are attending a lecture on the policy framework for elderly care in India. The lecturer asks them about the organizational bodies that have been established to enhance the implementation of national policies for the elderly. The National Council for Older Persons (NCOP) was constituted to operationalize which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "National Program for Health care of Elderly", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "National Geriatric Scheme", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "National Policy on Older persons", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Maintenance and welfare of parents and senior citizens act", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. National Policy on Older persons", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. National Policy on Older persons</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The National Council for Older Persons (NCOP) was constituted to provide a feedback mechanism and advisory support to the government in the formulation and implementation of policies and programs for the elderly . It was particularly established to operationalize the National Policy on Older Persons, which was announced in 1999.</li><li>• National Council for Older Persons</li><li>• provide a feedback mechanism</li><li>• advisory support</li><li>• government</li><li>• formulation</li><li>• implementation</li><li>• policies</li><li>• programs</li><li>• elderly</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ The National Council for Older Persons (NCOP) was constituted to operationalize the National Policy on Older Persons .</li><li>➤ National Council for Older Persons</li><li>➤ constituted</li><li>➤ operationalize</li><li>➤ National Policy</li><li>➤ Older Persons</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 684)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 684)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A social worker at a geriatric health clinic is assisting elderly individuals in understanding and accessing various government pension schemes. One patient, a man aged 82, inquires about the specific benefits he is entitled to under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS). What amount of central assistance is provided to persons above 80 years of age under this scheme?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "200", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "500", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1000", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2000", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 500", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 500</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The rate of pension under IGNOAPS was increased to Rs. 500 per month per beneficiary for those beneficiaries of age 80 years and above w.e.f. 1st April, 2011.</li><li>• rate of pension</li><li>• IGNOAPS</li><li>• increased to Rs. 500 per month</li><li>• beneficiary</li><li>• beneficiaries of age 80 years</li><li>• above</li><li>• Ministry of Rural Development of India has introduced Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) under National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). IGNOAPS also called as National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS). Under IGNOAPS, citizens living Below Poverty Line and 60 years or above in age are eligible for this. A monthly pension of ₹ 200 up to 79 years and ₹ 500 thereafter.</li><li>• Ministry of Rural Development</li><li>• India</li><li>• Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme</li><li>• National Social Assistance Programme</li><li>• Below Poverty Line and 60 years or above</li><li>• ₹ 200 up to 79 years and ₹ 500 thereafter.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Under IGNOAPS , citizens living Below Poverty Line and 60 years or above in age are eligible for this. A monthly pension of ₹ 200 up to 79 years and ₹ 500 thereafter .</li><li>➤ IGNOAPS</li><li>➤ citizens</li><li>➤ Below Poverty Line</li><li>➤ 60 years</li><li>➤ above</li><li>➤ age</li><li>➤ eligible</li><li>➤ monthly pension of ₹ 200</li><li>➤ 79 years</li><li>➤ ₹ 500 thereafter</li><li>➤ Ref: https://nsap.nic.in/</li><li>➤ Ref:</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 24-year-old woman presents to a rural health sub-center with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and generalized weakness. The attending healthcare worker needs to decide on the initial laboratory investigations that can be managed at the sub-center before potentially referring her to a better-equipped facility. Based on the capabilities of most health sub-centers, which of the following initial laboratory tests would be least likely to be performed on-site?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pregnancy detection test", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Haemoglobin estimation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Urine test for albumin sugar", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Blood grouping", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Blood grouping", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Blood grouping</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Lab investigations at the sub-centre level :</li><li>• Lab investigations</li><li>• sub-centre level</li><li>• Pregnancy detection test. (Option A) Haemoglobin examination. (Optin B) Urine test for presence of albumin and sugar. (Option C) Blood Glucose (strip method) Rapid malaria test.</li><li>• Pregnancy detection test. (Option A)</li><li>• Haemoglobin examination. (Optin B)</li><li>• Urine test for presence of albumin and sugar. (Option C)</li><li>• Blood Glucose (strip method)</li><li>• Rapid malaria test.</li><li>• Hence, the investigation mentioned in the Other 3 options is part of routine practice at subcentre level .</li><li>• Other 3 options</li><li>• routine practice</li><li>• subcentre level</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sub-centre is the peripheral most post for delivery of health care in Rural areas of India .</li><li>➤ Sub-centre</li><li>➤ peripheral</li><li>➤ post for delivery</li><li>➤ health care</li><li>➤ Rural areas of India</li><li>➤ Under RCH program , Type B Sub centres conduct deliveries and Type A/B subcentre both provide antenatal/intranatal/postnatal services , child health care , family planning and contraceptive services along with adolescent health care</li><li>➤ RCH program</li><li>➤ Type B Sub centres conduct deliveries</li><li>➤ Type A/B subcentre</li><li>➤ antenatal/intranatal/postnatal services</li><li>➤ child health care</li><li>➤ Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is providing 100% Central assistance for sub centres</li><li>➤ Ministry of Health</li><li>➤ Family Welfare</li><li>➤ 100% Central assistance</li><li>➤ sub centres</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A third-year medical resident is reviewing case files in the obstetrics clinic and is tasked with identifying which pregnancies need to be categorized as high-risk to ensure appropriate monitoring and care. She comes across several patient profiles with different characteristics. Which of the following scenarios would generally NOT be considered a high-risk pregnancy?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Age of 35 years", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Height of 145 cm", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Treatment for infertility", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Three or more consecutive abortion", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Height of 145 cm", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Height of 145 cm</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• :</li><li>• Other 3 options (A. Age of 35 years, C. Treatment for infertility and D. Three or more consecutive abortions) are considered as High risk Pregnancies .</li><li>• 3 options</li><li>• High risk Pregnancies</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ High-Risk Pregnancies (HRPs):</li><li>➤ High-Risk Pregnancies (HRPs):</li><li>➤ Elderly primi (30 years and over). Short statured primi (140 cm and below). Malpresentations, viz breech, transverse lie, etc. Antepartum haemorrhage, threatened abortion. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. Anaemia. Twins, hydramnios. Previous still-birth, intrauterine death, manual removal of placenta. Elderly grand multipara . Prolonged pregnancy (14 days-after expected date of delivery). History of previous caesarean or instrumental delivery. Pregnancy associated with general diseases, viz. cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, diabetes, tuberculosis, liver disease, malaria, convulsions, asthma, HIV, RT1, STI, etc. Treatment for infertility. Three or more spontaneous consecutive abortions.</li><li>➤ Elderly primi (30 years and over).</li><li>➤ Short statured primi (140 cm and below).</li><li>➤ Short statured primi (140 cm and below).</li><li>➤ Malpresentations, viz breech, transverse lie, etc.</li><li>➤ Antepartum haemorrhage, threatened abortion.</li><li>➤ Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.</li><li>➤ Anaemia.</li><li>➤ Twins, hydramnios.</li><li>➤ Previous still-birth, intrauterine death, manual removal of placenta.</li><li>➤ Elderly grand multipara .</li><li>➤ Prolonged pregnancy (14 days-after expected date of delivery).</li><li>➤ History of previous caesarean or instrumental delivery.</li><li>➤ Pregnancy associated with general diseases, viz. cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, diabetes, tuberculosis, liver disease, malaria, convulsions, asthma, HIV, RT1, STI, etc.</li><li>➤ Treatment for infertility.</li><li>➤ Three or more spontaneous consecutive abortions.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 608)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 608)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "An ASHA worker during her routine home visit encounters a pregnant woman at 34 weeks of gestation. She measures the woman's blood pressure and finds it to be 180/110 mm Hg, and the urine test is strongly positive for albumin. Given this clinical scenario, where should the ASHA worker refer the mother for further management?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "HSC", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PHC", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "FRU", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Home management", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. FRU", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. FRU</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• If the diastolic blood pressure of the woman is above 110 mmHg , it is a danger sign that points towards imminent eclampsia . The urine albumin should be estimated at the earliest . If it is strongly positive , the woman should be referred to the FRU IMMEDIATELY .</li><li>• diastolic blood pressure</li><li>• woman</li><li>• above 110 mmHg</li><li>• danger sign</li><li>• imminent eclampsia</li><li>• urine albumin</li><li>• estimated</li><li>• earliest</li><li>• strongly positive</li><li>• woman</li><li>• FRU IMMEDIATELY</li><li>• The pregnant woman's symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia , which is a hypertensive emergency and can lead to complications like eclampsia , HELLP syndrome , and other end-organ damage . It is critical to manage severe preeclampsia in a facility equipped with comprehensive emergency obstetric and neonatal care.</li><li>• pregnant woman's symptoms</li><li>• severe preeclampsia</li><li>• hypertensive emergency</li><li>• eclampsia</li><li>• HELLP syndrome</li><li>• end-organ damage</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Severe preeclampsia is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate referral to a facility with the appropriate level of care , such as a First Referral Unit (FRU), or where specialized treatment can be provided like District Hospital.</li><li>➤ Severe preeclampsia</li><li>➤ obstetric emergency</li><li>➤ immediate referral</li><li>➤ facility</li><li>➤ appropriate level of care</li><li>➤ First Referral Unit</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 607)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 607)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session discussing various tools for monitoring maternal and child health, medical students learn about the Mother and Child Protection card. The Mother and Child Protection card has been developed jointly by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare along with which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Ministry of Human Resource development", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Ministry of Education", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ministry of Women and Child development", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Ministry of Social Welfare", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Ministry of Women and Child development", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Ministry of Women and Child Development.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Mother and Child Protection (MCP) Card has been developed jointly by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) and Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) to ensure uniformity in record keeping.</li><li>• Mother and Child Protection</li><li>• Card</li><li>• developed jointly</li><li>• Ministry of Health</li><li>• Family Welfare</li><li>• Ministry of Women</li><li>• Child Development</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Mother and Child Protection (MCP) Card has been developed jointly by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) and Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)</li><li>➤ Mother and Child Protection</li><li>➤ Card</li><li>➤ Ministry of Health</li><li>➤ Family Welfare</li><li>➤ Ministry of Women</li><li>➤ Child Development</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 608)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Pediatric class, you are learning to assess the condition of newborns using the APGAR score system. You are given a scenario of a newborn with the following signs: Heart rate of 110 beats per minute Slow, irregular respiratory efforts Active movements Good cry Body pink, but extremities blue Based on these observations, calculate the APGAR score for this baby.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "7", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "10", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "9", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "8", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 8", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/16/screenshot-2024-08-16-101705.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 8</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• APGAR score - The APGAR score is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth . The score assesses the baby's heart rate , respiratory effort , muscle tone , reflex response , and color . Each of these five components scores from 0 to 2 , with the highest possible total score being 10 .</li><li>• APGAR score -</li><li>• APGAR score</li><li>• quick test</li><li>• baby at 1 and 5 minutes</li><li>• birth</li><li>• score assesses</li><li>• baby's heart rate</li><li>• respiratory effort</li><li>• muscle tone</li><li>• reflex response</li><li>• color</li><li>• five components</li><li>• 0 to 2</li><li>• highest</li><li>• total score</li><li>• 10</li><li>• The higher the score, the better the baby is doing after birth A score of 7, 8, or 9 is normal and is a sign that the newborn is in good health</li><li>• The higher the score, the better the baby is doing after birth</li><li>• A score of 7, 8, or 9 is normal and is a sign that the newborn is in good health</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ APGAR SCORE</li><li>➤ APGAR SCORE</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 615)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 615)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cohort of newly joined pediatric residents is reviewing cases of newborns to identify those who may be at risk and require special attention or additional monitoring and care. They are tasked with recognizing which newborns are not typically classified as at-risk based on standard guidelines. Which of the following infants would not be considered at-risk?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Birth weight of 2.2 kg", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Birth order of 5", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Weight below 90% of expected weight", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Working mother", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Weight below 90% of expected weight", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Weight below 90% of expected weight</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• At risk infants : Contribute to perinatal, neonatal and infant mortality ; so they have to be provided with special intensive care ; Basic criteria for identifying these babies include:</li><li>• At risk infants</li><li>• perinatal, neonatal and infant mortality</li><li>• special intensive care</li><li>• Birth weight &lt;2.5 kg (low birth weight) Twins Birth order &gt;5 Artificial feeding Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition) Failure to thrive (failure to gain weight in 3 successive months) Children with PEM, diarrhea Working mother/single parent</li><li>• Birth weight &lt;2.5 kg (low birth weight)</li><li>• Twins</li><li>• Birth order &gt;5</li><li>• Artificial feeding</li><li>• Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition)</li><li>• Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition)</li><li>• Failure to thrive (failure to gain weight in 3 successive months)</li><li>• Children with PEM, diarrhea</li><li>• Working mother/single parent</li><li>• At risk approach : Central purpose is to identify high risk cases (as early as possible) from a large group of all antenatal mothers/infants , and provide specialized care to them , while continuing to provide appropriate care to all antenatal mothers/infants</li><li>• At risk approach</li><li>• Central purpose</li><li>• identify high risk cases</li><li>• large group</li><li>• antenatal mothers/infants</li><li>• specialized care to them</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ “ At risk infants ” include Birth weight &lt; 2.5 kg (low birth weight), Twin, Birth order &gt;5 , Artificial feeding , Weight &lt;70% of expected (II and III degrees of malnutrition), Failure to thrive (failure to gain weight in 3 successive months), Children with PEM/ diarrhea, Working mother/single parent</li><li>➤ At risk infants</li><li>➤ Birth weight &lt; 2.5 kg</li><li>➤ Twin, Birth order &gt;5</li><li>➤ Artificial feeding</li><li>➤ Weight &lt;70%</li><li>➤ Failure to thrive</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 617)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 617)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A term neonate is evaluated in the newborn nursery for being significantly smaller than other babies at the same gestational age. The pediatric resident notes that the baby's birth weight is below the 10th percentile for their age. This finding suggests that the neonate experienced a delay in growth while in the uterus. What term is used to describe neonates born with such a condition?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Preterm babies", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low birth weight babies", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Small for date babies", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Retarded babies", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Small for date babies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Small for date babies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Small-for-date babies may be born at term or preterm . They weigh less than the 10th percentile for the gestational age . These babies are the result of retarded intrauterine fetal growth .</li><li>• Small-for-date babies</li><li>• born at term or preterm</li><li>• weigh less</li><li>• 10th percentile</li><li>• gestational age</li><li>• retarded intrauterine fetal growth</li><li>• Small-for-date (SFD) babies : Born at term or post-term</li><li>• Small-for-date</li><li>• babies</li><li>• Born</li><li>• term</li><li>• weigh ‘less than 10th percentile for gestational age’ as a result of IUGR high risk of dying in neonatal and infancy period</li><li>• weigh ‘less than 10th percentile for gestational age’</li><li>• as a result of IUGR</li><li>• high risk of dying in neonatal and infancy period</li><li>• Pre-term babies : Born at &lt;37 weeks POG</li><li>• Pre-term babies</li><li>• Born</li><li>• &lt;37 weeks POG</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Small-for-date (SFD) babies born at term or post-term , but weigh ‘less than 10th percentile for gestational age’ and as a result of IUGR</li><li>➤ Small-for-date</li><li>➤ babies</li><li>➤ born</li><li>➤ post-term</li><li>➤ weigh ‘less than 10th percentile</li><li>➤ gestational age’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 619)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 619)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 14-year-old girl from a rural area in India was reported missing by her family. Authorities suspect she may have been taken by a group involved in child trafficking. A social worker is discussing various government initiatives that aim to combat this issue. She mentions a specific scheme that focuses on the rescue, rehabilitation, reintegration, and repatriation of the victims. Which of the following schemes mentioned by the social worker was specifically enacted to address child trafficking in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "UJJALA", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "UJWALA", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "UJJAWALA", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "UJALI", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. UJJAWALA", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. UJJAWALA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• “ Ujjawala ”, a comprehensive scheme to combat trafficking was launched in India by the Ministry of Women and Child Development on 4th December, 2007 and is being implemented mainly through NGOs.</li><li>• Ujjawala</li><li>• comprehensive scheme</li><li>• combat trafficking</li><li>• India</li><li>• Ministry of Women</li><li>• Child Development on 4th December, 2007</li><li>• This Scheme for the Prevention of Trafficking and Rescue, Rehabilitation and Re-integration of Victims of Trafficking and Commercial Sexual Exploitation</li><li>• Trafficking and Rescue, Rehabilitation and Re-integration</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ujjwala scheme is for the prevention of Child trafficking ; Human trafficking control &amp; prevention</li><li>➤ Ujjwala scheme</li><li>➤ prevention of Child trafficking</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th edition (page 676)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th edition (page 676)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 17-year-old male has been referred to a juvenile court following a series of offenses that could not be managed through the interventions typically used in certified schools. Due to his age and the complexity of his behavioral issues, the court is considering a more structured and secure setting for rehabilitation. Boys over 16 years of age who have exhibited behavioral challenges beyond the management capacity of a certified school or who have misbehaved within such a facility are typically referred to which of the following types of institutions?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Orphanage", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Foster homes", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Remand homes", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Borstals", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Borstals", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Borstals</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in an acetified school or have misbehaved there, are sent to a Borstal . This institution falls in a category between an acetified school and an adult prison.</li><li>• Boys</li><li>• 16 years</li><li>• difficult to be handled</li><li>• acetified school</li><li>• misbehaved</li><li>• sent to a Borstal</li><li>• Bombay Borstal School Act, 1929: It authorizes First Class Magistrate and Superior Courts to pass in lieu of imprisonment , an order for detention in a borstal school for not &lt; 3 or &gt; 5 years; It applies to young offenders, Boys (16 – 21 years age) and Girls (18 – 21 years age)</li><li>• Bombay Borstal School Act, 1929:</li><li>• authorizes First Class Magistrate</li><li>• Superior Courts</li><li>• pass in lieu</li><li>• imprisonment</li><li>• detention in a borstal school</li><li>• CHILD PLACEMENT</li><li>• CHILD PLACEMENT</li><li>• Orphanages : For children who have no home or cannot be taken care of by their parents Foster Homes : Several types of facilities for rearing children other than in natural families Adoption : Legal adoption confers upon child and the adoptive parents, rights and responsibilities similar to that of natural parents Law relevant to adoption in India : ‘The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956’ Borstals : Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in a certified school or have misbehaved there, are sent to a Borstal. Borstal, as an institution, falls between a certified school and an adult prison. A borstal sentence is usually for 3 years, and is regarded as a method of training and reformation Remand Homes : Child is placed under the care of doctors, psychiatrists and other trained personnel to improve the mental and physical well being of the child</li><li>• Orphanages : For children who have no home or cannot be taken care of by their parents</li><li>• Orphanages</li><li>• Foster Homes : Several types of facilities for rearing children other than in natural families</li><li>• Foster Homes</li><li>• Adoption : Legal adoption confers upon child and the adoptive parents, rights and responsibilities similar to that of natural parents</li><li>• Adoption</li><li>• Law relevant to adoption in India : ‘The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956’</li><li>• Law relevant to adoption in India</li><li>• Borstals : Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in a certified school or have misbehaved there, are sent to a Borstal. Borstal, as an institution, falls between a certified school and an adult prison. A borstal sentence is usually for 3 years, and is regarded as a method of training and reformation</li><li>• Borstals</li><li>• 3 years,</li><li>• Remand Homes : Child is placed under the care of doctors, psychiatrists and other trained personnel to improve the mental and physical well being of the child</li><li>• Remand Homes</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in a certified school or have misbehaved there, are sent to a Borstal .</li><li>➤ Boys</li><li>➤ 16 years</li><li>➤ too difficult</li><li>➤ handled in a certified school</li><li>➤ misbehaved</li><li>➤ Borstal</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 678)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 678)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health specialist is working with a non-governmental organization on a global health initiative aimed at reducing child marriages and improving women's health in developing countries. Part of the project involves reviewing legislation in different countries that addresses this issue to provide a comparative analysis for policymakers. In which year was the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, a critical piece of legislation aimed at preventing child marriages and protecting the rights of minors, enacted?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1929", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1951", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "1978", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2007", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 2007", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. 2007</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act , 2006 (PCMA) was enacted repealing the Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929 in order to prohibit child marriage rather than only restraining them. PCMA has been enforced with effect from 1st November, 2007 .</li><li>• Prohibition of Child Marriage Act</li><li>• 2006</li><li>• enacted repealing</li><li>• Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929</li><li>• prohibit child marriage</li><li>• PCMA</li><li>• enforced</li><li>• 1st November, 2007</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ :</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ Some Important Health Legislations Passed in India</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870 The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929 The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948 The Factories Act, 1948 The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956 The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now) The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994 The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995 The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 The Information Technology Act, 2000 The Disaster Management Act, 2005 The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005 The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016 The Mental Health Care Act, 2017 The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The Quarantine Act, 1870</li><li>➤ The Child Marriage Restraint (SARDA) Act, 1929</li><li>➤ The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Factories Act, 1948</li><li>➤ The Indian Medical Council (Prof. Conduct and Ethics) Act, 1956</li><li>➤ The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961</li><li>➤ The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969</li><li>➤ The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971</li><li>➤ The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985</li><li>➤ The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Act, 1987 (Repealed now)</li><li>➤ The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) [PNDT] Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994</li><li>➤ The Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights, Full Participation) Act, 1995</li><li>➤ The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998</li><li>➤ The Information Technology Act, 2000</li><li>➤ The Disaster Management Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005</li><li>➤ The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005</li><li>➤ The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005</li><li>➤ Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Food Standards and Safety Act, 2006</li><li>➤ The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012</li><li>➤ The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013</li><li>➤ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015</li><li>➤ The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill 2016</li><li>➤ The Mental Health Care Act, 2017</li><li>➤ The HIV/AIDS (Prevention &amp; Control) Act, 2017</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th edition (page 679)</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th edition (page 679)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 68 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
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The ROC curve is a graphical representation used to assess the diagnostic ability of a test across various thresholds. It is a tool commonly used to evaluate the performance of diagnostic tests in medicine. What are the two parameters between which the ROC curve is usually drawn?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity and specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negative predictive value and (1-Sensitivity)", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensitivity and (1-specificity)", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Positive predictive value and specificity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sensitivity and (1-specificity)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sensitivity and (1-specificity)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• RECEIVER OPERATOR CHARACTERISTIC (ROC) CURVE</li><li>• RECEIVER OPERATOR CHARACTERISTIC (ROC) CURVE</li><li>• Is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test ROC curve is drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity) ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate In clinical tests, ROC curve is used to determine a cut-off point ROC curve is equivalent to Likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+) Types of ROC curves: Straight line at 45º: No benefit by this test/cut-off Straight lines above 45º line: Fair, Good results by this test/cut-off Uppermost line touching Y-axis and then horizontal line: Excellent results by this test/cut-off (Perfect ROC: 100% sensitivity &amp; 100% specificity).</li><li>• Is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test</li><li>• Is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test</li><li>• graphical representation</li><li>• sensitivity</li><li>• specificity</li><li>• diagnostic test</li><li>• ROC curve is drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)</li><li>• ROC curve is drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)</li><li>• Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)</li><li>• ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate</li><li>• ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate</li><li>• True positives and False positive error rate</li><li>• In clinical tests, ROC curve is used to determine a cut-off point</li><li>• In clinical tests, ROC curve is used to determine a cut-off point</li><li>• ROC curve is equivalent to Likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+)</li><li>• ROC curve is equivalent to Likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+)</li><li>• Types of ROC curves: Straight line at 45º: No benefit by this test/cut-off Straight lines above 45º line: Fair, Good results by this test/cut-off Uppermost line touching Y-axis and then horizontal line: Excellent results by this test/cut-off (Perfect ROC: 100% sensitivity &amp; 100% specificity).</li><li>• Types of ROC curves:</li><li>• Straight line at 45º: No benefit by this test/cut-off Straight lines above 45º line: Fair, Good results by this test/cut-off Uppermost line touching Y-axis and then horizontal line: Excellent results by this test/cut-off (Perfect ROC: 100% sensitivity &amp; 100% specificity).</li><li>• Straight line at 45º: No benefit by this test/cut-off</li><li>• Straight line at 45º: No benefit by this test/cut-off</li><li>• Straight lines above 45º line: Fair, Good results by this test/cut-off</li><li>• Straight lines above 45º line: Fair, Good results by this test/cut-off</li><li>• Uppermost line touching Y-axis and then horizontal line: Excellent results by this test/cut-off (Perfect ROC: 100% sensitivity &amp; 100% specificity).</li><li>• Uppermost line touching Y-axis and then horizontal line: Excellent results by this test/cut-off (Perfect ROC: 100% sensitivity &amp; 100% specificity).</li><li>• USES OF ROC CURVES</li><li>• USES OF ROC CURVES</li><li>• Determining the threshold for screening/diagnosis of a positive test Comparison of two or more screening/diagnosis tests of a disease with each other</li><li>• Determining the threshold for screening/diagnosis of a positive test</li><li>• Determining the threshold for screening/diagnosis of a positive test</li><li>• Comparison of two or more screening/diagnosis tests of a disease with each other</li><li>• Comparison of two or more screening/diagnosis tests of a disease with each other</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ ROC curve is drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)</li><li>➤ ROC curve</li><li>➤ Sensitivity</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, pg 167</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, pg 167</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a detailed session on the evaluation of screening tests in a clinical setting, the focus is placed on understanding the validity of these tests. Validity involves the accuracy with which a test measures what it is intended to. Among the following statements, which accurately describes a relationship true with respect to the validity of a screening test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity = 1 – specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Positive predictive value = 1 – Negative predictive value", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sensitivity = 1 - Positive predictive value", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sensitivity and specificity are inversely related.</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• specificity</li><li>• inversely related.</li><li>• Sensitivity and specificity often have an inverse relationship in many screening tests, meaning as one increases , the other may decrease . This is due to the trade-off between correctly identifying as many true cases as possible (sensitivity) and correctly ruling out as many non-cases as possible (specificity).</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• specificity</li><li>• inverse relationship</li><li>• screening tests,</li><li>• one increases</li><li>• decrease</li><li>• trade-off</li><li>• correctly identifying</li><li>• correctly ruling out</li><li>• non-cases as possible</li><li>• Validity – It refers to the extent till which the test can accurately measure the values which it purports to measure . It is the accuracy with which the measured values agree with the true values.</li><li>• Validity –</li><li>• extent till which the test can accurately measure</li><li>• values</li><li>• purports to measure</li><li>• It has two components – Sensitivity and Specificity . Both, together with predictive accuracy are inherent properties of the screening test.</li><li>• two components</li><li>• Sensitivity and Specificity</li><li>• Other options are incorrect because these are not established relationships in the evaluation of screening tests.</li><li>• Other options</li><li>• not established</li><li>• relationships</li><li>• evaluation of screening tests.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ In many screening tests , there is an inverse relationship between sensitivity and specificity . Increasing the sensitivity of a test (the ability to correctly identify those with the disease) often leads to a decrease in its specificity (the ability to correctly identify those without the disease), and vice versa . This is known as the sensitivity-specificity trade-off.</li><li>➤ screening tests</li><li>➤ inverse relationship</li><li>➤ sensitivity and specificity</li><li>➤ Increasing the sensitivity</li><li>➤ test</li><li>➤ leads to a decrease</li><li>➤ specificity</li><li>➤ vice versa</li><li>➤ sensitivity-specificity trade-off.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 155</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a case study session in a medical residency program, you are presented with a scenario involving a patient with breast cancer. The patient underwent a screening test two years ago, which failed to detect her cancer. She was later diagnosed with advanced disease. As a medical resident, you are asked to analyze this case and identify the term that describes the time interval between the initial missed diagnosis and the later diagnosis of advanced disease. This concept is critical for understanding the implications of screening test limitations. What term would you use to describe this time interval?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Serial interval", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Lead time", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Screening time", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Generation time", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Lead time", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039032.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Lead time</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Serial Interval: Time gap in onset between primary case (first case in the community) and secondary case (case developing through infection from the primary case). By collecting information on series of secondary cases with serial intervals, one can guess the incubation period of a disease</li><li>• Option A. Serial Interval:</li><li>• Time gap</li><li>• primary case</li><li>• secondary case</li><li>• Option C. Screening time: Time gap between first point of diagnosis and the critical point of diagnosis . Thus a screening test is most useful if applied between B (Point of first possible detection) and C (Final critical point). It's of no use if applied after a final critical point.</li><li>• Option C. Screening time: Time gap</li><li>• first point of diagnosis</li><li>• critical point of diagnosis</li><li>• Option D. Generation time: This is the time taken for a person from the receipt of infection to develop maximum infectivity . Is roughly equal to the incubation period of the disease.</li><li>• Option D. Generation time:</li><li>• time taken for a person</li><li>• receipt of infection</li><li>• develop maximum infectivity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead time is defined as the interval between the point a condition is detected through screening and the Time it would normally have been detected due to appearance and reporting of signs and symptoms . This is the advantage gained by screening. While, Screening time is the gap between first point of diagnosis and the critical point of diagnosis.</li><li>➤ Lead time</li><li>➤ interval between</li><li>➤ detected through screening and the Time</li><li>➤ normally</li><li>➤ detected</li><li>➤ appearance</li><li>➤ reporting of signs and symptoms</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 151</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 151</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mr. X arrives at a tertiary care center with symptoms including a persistent cough and evening rise in temperature for the past two weeks. Suspecting tuberculosis (TB), the physician recommends a chest X-ray and a CBNAAT test. The CBNAAT (Cartridge Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) is a modern diagnostic tool used in the detection of TB. What type of method is CBNAAT an example of, particularly in the context of infectious diseases like tuberculosis?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Case detection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Screening test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Active Surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Diagnostic test", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Diagnostic test", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-122056.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation</li><li>• Option A. Case Detection: The objective of case detection is to notice the existence of a single individual with a disease . This is done through screening or diagnostic test</li><li>• Option A. Case Detection:</li><li>• case detection</li><li>• existence of a single individual with a disease</li><li>• Option B. Screening test Is used to search for an unrecognized disease or defect, in apparently healthy individuals , by means of rapidly applied tests, examinations or other procedures</li><li>• Option B. Screening test</li><li>• search for an unrecognized disease</li><li>• healthy individuals</li><li>• Difference between Screening Test and Diagnostic Test - </li><li>• Difference between Screening Test and Diagnostic Test</li><li>• Option C. Active surveillance: Health system seeks out ‘actively’ the collection of data , i.e., goes out to community to collect data . Example: Health worker goes house to house every fortnight to detect fever cases, collect blood slides (under malaria component of National Vector Borne Disease Control Program)</li><li>• Option C. Active surveillance: Health system</li><li>• ‘actively’</li><li>• collection of data</li><li>• goes out to community</li><li>• collect data</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ Revision in diagnostic algorithm with use of CXR in screening and early use of CBNAAT in diagnosis of TB</li><li>➤ Revision in diagnostic algorithm</li><li>➤ use of CXR in screening</li><li>➤ early use of CBNAAT</li><li>➤ diagnosis of TB</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 27 th ed pg 220</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a session on research methodology and statistical analysis, the concept of inter-observer variation and its impact on the reliability of study findings is discussed. Inter-observer variation refers to the degree of agreement or variability in the observations made by different individuals assessing the same phenomenon. For ensuring the validity and reliability of research, it is crucial to assess this variation accurately. Which statistical tool or method is most appropriate for assessing inter-observer variation in reliability?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Odds ratio", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kappa statistics", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Kappa statistics", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Kappa statistics</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A: Odds ratio: Ratio of odds that cases were exposed to a risk factor to the odds that the controls were exposed . It is used to ‘measure strength of association in a case control study’. This is also known as ‘Cross product ratio’ or ‘Relative odds’ . This is an ‘estimate of Relative risk (RR)’.</li><li>• Option A: Odds ratio:</li><li>• Ratio of odds</li><li>• risk factor</li><li>• odds</li><li>• controls were exposed</li><li>• ‘measure strength of association in a case control study’.</li><li>• ‘Cross product ratio’</li><li>• ‘Relative odds’</li><li>• Option B: Sensitivity: Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Option B: Sensitivity:</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• identify correctly</li><li>• Option D: Specificity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease (healthy) Specificity = d/(b + d) × 100 = TN/(TN + FP) × 100</li><li>• Option D: Specificity</li><li>• Ability of a screening test</li><li>• identify correctly</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective -</li><li>➤ Inter-observer variation in reliability can be better assessed using - Kappa statistic</li><li>➤ Inter-observer variation</li><li>➤ reliability</li><li>➤ assessed using - Kappa statistic</li><li>➤ Strength of association in a case control study is measured through - Odds Ratio</li><li>➤ Strength of association</li><li>➤ case control study</li><li>➤ Odds Ratio</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: AFMC textbook, pg 112, 304.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health seminar focusing on strategies for disease detection, the concept of actively identifying unrecognized diseases in seemingly healthy individuals is discussed. This strategy involves employing rapid diagnostic tests to uncover diseases that have not yet manifested symptoms, enabling early intervention. What is this proactive approach, involving the use of rapid tests to identify diseases in apparently healthy people before symptoms become apparent, commonly referred to as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Passive surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Active surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Case finding", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Screening", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Screening", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-122440.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Screening</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Passive Surveillance : It is a method of surveillance in which the patient himself comes to the case finder.</li><li>• Option A. Passive Surveillance</li><li>• method of surveillance</li><li>• Option B. Active Surveillance : In this method of surveillance, the case finder actively looks for the affected individuals in the community.</li><li>• Option B. Active Surveillance</li><li>• case finder actively looks</li><li>• affected individuals</li><li>• Option C: Case finding: This is defined as the well-organized and systematic effort to detect the largest possible number of cases in the community .</li><li>• Option C: Case finding:</li><li>• the well-organized and systematic effort to detect the largest possible number of cases in the community</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The active search for unrecognized disease in apparently healthy people using rapid tests is known as Screening</li><li>➤ active search</li><li>➤ unrecognized disease</li><li>➤ apparently healthy people</li><li>➤ rapid tests</li><li>➤ Screening</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture on the principles of diagnostic testing in clinical medicine, a key concept being discussed is the accuracy of diagnostic tests in correctly identifying individuals who do not have a specific disease. This aspect of diagnostic accuracy is crucial for ensuring that individuals are not incorrectly diagnosed with a condition they do not have. What is the term used to describe the ability of a diagnostic test to correctly identify those who are free from the disease in question?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True predictive value", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Specificity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Validity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Specificity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-163557.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Specificity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. True Predictive value: Is the Positive predictive value (PPV), the ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease , out of all those who test positive on a screening test PPV = a/(a + b) × 100 = TP/(TP + FP) × 100</li><li>• Option A. True Predictive value:</li><li>• Positive predictive value</li><li>• ability of a screening test</li><li>• identify</li><li>• correctly</li><li>• have the disease</li><li>• Option B. Sensitivity: Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Option B. Sensitivity:</li><li>• Ability of a screening test</li><li>• correctly</li><li>• who have the disease</li><li>• Option D. Validity: Refers to what extent the test measures which it purports to measure (adequacy of measurement). Validity has 2 components - Sensitivity and Specificity</li><li>• Option D. Validity:</li><li>• extent the test measures</li><li>• purports to measure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ability of the test to correctly identify those without disease is known as Specificity Ability of the test to correctly identify those with disease is known as - Sensitivity Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity</li><li>➤ The ability of the test to correctly identify those without disease is known as Specificity</li><li>➤ ability of the test</li><li>➤ correctly identify</li><li>➤ without disease</li><li>➤ Specificity</li><li>➤ Ability of the test to correctly identify those with disease is known as - Sensitivity</li><li>➤ Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 156</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 156</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a discussion on epidemiology and diagnostic testing, the influence of disease prevalence on the predictive value of a test is a key topic. The positive predictive value (PPV) of a diagnostic test is affected by the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested. Understanding this relationship is crucial for interpreting test results accurately. What happens to the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test if the prevalence of the disease in the population is low?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "PPV increases.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "PPV decreases.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "PPV remains unaffected.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "PPV will be zero.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. PPV decreases.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/14/image_swx4uQd.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. PPV decreases.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• If the prevalence of the disease in the target population is low , the PPV will be low .</li><li>• prevalence of the disease</li><li>• target population is low</li><li>• PPV will be low</li><li>• Positive Predictive Value (PPV)</li><li>• Positive Predictive Value (PPV)</li><li>• Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease , out of all those who test positive on a screening test PPV = a/(a + b) × 100 = TP/(TP + FP) × 100 PPV of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity , Specificity and Prevalence of disease in the population PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population PPV α Prevalence of disease As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test</li><li>• Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease , out of all those who test positive on a screening test</li><li>• Ability</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• identify correctly</li><li>• who have the disease</li><li>• PPV = a/(a + b) × 100 = TP/(TP + FP) × 100</li><li>• PPV of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity , Specificity and Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• PPV</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Prevalence</li><li>• PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population PPV α Prevalence of disease As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test</li><li>• PPV α Prevalence of disease As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test</li><li>• PPV α Prevalence of disease</li><li>• As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ PPV</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ directly proportional</li><li>➤ prevalence of disease</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ PPV of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity , Specificity and Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ PPV</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Sensitivity</li><li>➤ Specificity</li><li>➤ Prevalence of disease</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 161.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg. 161.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a training module on the principles of screening and diagnostic testing in public health, a significant topic of discussion is the factors that influence the predictive value of a screening test. Understanding these factors is essential for correctly interpreting test results and making informed clinical decisions. What does the predictive value of a screening test depend on?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "None of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prevalence", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prevalence</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Sensitivity: Out of those disease in a population, few are correctly picked as positive by a screening test, this is Sensitivity of a screening test</li><li>• Option A. Sensitivity:</li><li>• Sensitivity of a screening test</li><li>• Option B. Specificity: Out of those healthy in a population, few are correctly picked as not having the disease by a screening test, this is Specificity of a screening test</li><li>• Option</li><li>• B. Specificity:</li><li>• Specificity of a screening test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Predictive value of the screening test depends on - Prevalence</li><li>➤ Predictive value</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Prevalence</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 161.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 161.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health seminar focusing on the utility and limitations of screening tests, the participants discuss scenarios where such tests may not be beneficial or applicable. Screening tests are important tools in early disease detection, but their usefulness can vary depending on various factors, including disease characteristics and population dynamics. In which of the following situations would a screening test not be considered useful?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The disease has a lead time.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Incidence of the disease is high in the community.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence is low in the community.", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Early detection led to favorable outcome.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Prevalence is low in the community.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Prevalence is low in the community.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. The disease having a lead time , does not inherently make screening unhelpful . Lead time refers to the time period during which the disease is diagnosed earlier due to screening but does not impact the overall prognosis.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• disease having a lead time</li><li>• not inherently make screening unhelpful</li><li>• Option B. High incidence of the disease in the community , is often a reason to consider screening useful, as it may lead to earlier detection and treatment.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• High incidence</li><li>• disease in the community</li><li>• Option D. Early detection leading to a favorable outcome , is actually an argument for the usefulness of screening tests , as they aim to detect diseases early when they are more likely to be treatable.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Early detection</li><li>• favorable outcome</li><li>• argument for the usefulness of screening tests</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Screening tests are less beneficial in populations where the prevalence of the disease is low , as this increases the likelihood of false positives and may lead to unnecessary interventions.</li><li>➤ Screening tests</li><li>➤ less beneficial</li><li>➤ populations</li><li>➤ prevalence of the disease is low</li><li>➤ increases the likelihood</li><li>➤ false positives</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg 155</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27 th ed pg 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a workshop on clinical diagnostics, a key point of discussion revolves around the characteristics of diagnostic tests, particularly specificity. The group is exploring the implications of test specificity in clinical decision-making. Given that specificity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease, what is the expected outcome when a diagnostic test has a high specificity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low false positive", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low false negative", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Low true positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low true Negative", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low false positive", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039029_SJeHRJn.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Low false positive</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• A highly specific test will have many True Negatives and a very small (almost minimal) False Positives . A positive screening test is always followed by a confirmatory diagnostic test Sensitivity is ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) A screening test with high sensitivity would suggest that those testing positive are extremely likely to have the condition (especially if prevalence of disease is high in population) and should progress to having a diagnostic test If a disease is very rare in the population , then positive test is more likely to be a false positive (rather than being a true positive) Receiver Operator Characteristic (ROC) Curve is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test , ‘drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)’ (ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate). It is a method of evaluating the quality/performance of tests. In clinical tests, ROC curve is ‘used to determine a cutoff point’</li><li>• A highly specific test will have many True Negatives and a very small (almost minimal) False Positives .</li><li>• A highly specific test will have many True Negatives and a very small (almost minimal) False Positives .</li><li>• highly specific test</li><li>• True Negatives</li><li>• very small</li><li>• False Positives</li><li>• A positive screening test is always followed by a confirmatory diagnostic test</li><li>• A positive screening test is always followed by a confirmatory diagnostic test</li><li>• positive screening test</li><li>• confirmatory diagnostic test</li><li>• Sensitivity is ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases)</li><li>• Sensitivity is ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases)</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• ability of a screening test</li><li>• correctly</li><li>• who have the disease</li><li>• A screening test with high sensitivity would suggest that those testing positive are extremely likely to have the condition (especially if prevalence of disease is high in population) and should progress to having a diagnostic test</li><li>• A screening test with high sensitivity would suggest that those testing positive are extremely likely to have the condition (especially if prevalence of disease is high in population) and should progress to having a diagnostic test</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• high sensitivity</li><li>• those testing positive</li><li>• extremely likely</li><li>• have the condition</li><li>• If a disease is very rare in the population , then positive test is more likely to be a false positive (rather than being a true positive)</li><li>• If a disease is very rare in the population , then positive test is more likely to be a false positive (rather than being a true positive)</li><li>• disease is very rare</li><li>• population</li><li>• positive test</li><li>• false positive</li><li>• Receiver Operator Characteristic (ROC) Curve is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test , ‘drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)’ (ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate). It is a method of evaluating the quality/performance of tests. In clinical tests, ROC curve is ‘used to determine a cutoff point’</li><li>• Receiver Operator Characteristic (ROC) Curve is a graphical representation between sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test , ‘drawn between Sensitivity and (1 – Specificity)’ (ROC curve is drawn between True positives and False positive error rate). It is a method of evaluating the quality/performance of tests. In clinical tests, ROC curve is ‘used to determine a cutoff point’</li><li>• Receiver Operator Characteristic (ROC) Curve</li><li>• graphical representation</li><li>• sensitivity</li><li>• specificity of a diagnostic test</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ High specificity will result in - Low rate of false positive</li><li>➤ High specificity</li><li>➤ Low rate of false positive</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 155</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical statistics training, you are presented with a scenario to enhance your understanding of diagnostic test calculations. You're given the task of determining a key component in the calculation of a diagnostic test's negative predictive value (NPV). The scenario involves a new diagnostic test for a specific disease, and you are reviewing the test results to calculate the NPV. To do this, you need to identify which element from the test results serves as the numerator in the NPV formula. Which of these test result components would you select as the numerator for calculating the NPV?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "False positive", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "True negative", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "False negative", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. True negative", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-124001.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. True negative</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sensitivity = a / (a + c) x 100 Specificity = d / (b + d) x 100 Predictive value of a positive test = a / (a + b) x 100 Predictive value of a negative test = d / (c + d) x 100 Percentage of false negatives = c / (a + c) x 100 Percentage of false-positive = b / (b + d) x 100</li><li>• Sensitivity = a / (a + c) x 100</li><li>• Sensitivity = a / (a + c) x 100</li><li>• Specificity = d / (b + d) x 100</li><li>• Specificity = d / (b + d) x 100</li><li>• Predictive value of a positive test = a / (a + b) x 100</li><li>• Predictive value of a positive test = a / (a + b) x 100</li><li>• Predictive value of a negative test = d / (c + d) x 100</li><li>• Predictive value of a negative test = d / (c + d) x 100</li><li>• Percentage of false negatives = c / (a + c) x 100</li><li>• Percentage of false negatives = c / (a + c) x 100</li><li>• Percentage of false-positive = b / (b + d) x 100</li><li>• Percentage of false-positive = b / (b + d) x 100</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Diagnostic power of the test is reflected by - Predictive value Which one of the following relationships shown between different parameters of a performance of a test is correct - Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity If prevalence is increased, which of the following will be seen - Increase positive predictive value True negatives in a screening test is - d/b+d Usefulness is - True positive/True positive + false negative Epidemiological survey of ‘at risk’ is called - Screening</li><li>• Diagnostic power of the test is reflected by - Predictive value</li><li>• Diagnostic power of the test is reflected by - Predictive value</li><li>• Which one of the following relationships shown between different parameters of a performance of a test is correct - Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity</li><li>• Which one of the following relationships shown between different parameters of a performance of a test is correct - Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity</li><li>• If prevalence is increased, which of the following will be seen - Increase positive predictive value</li><li>• If prevalence is increased, which of the following will be seen - Increase positive predictive value</li><li>• True negatives in a screening test is - d/b+d</li><li>• True negatives in a screening test is - d/b+d</li><li>• Usefulness is - True positive/True positive + false negative</li><li>• Usefulness is - True positive/True positive + false negative</li><li>• Epidemiological survey of ‘at risk’ is called - Screening</li><li>• Epidemiological survey of ‘at risk’ is called - Screening</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Numerator for calculating negative predictive value is - True Negative</li><li>➤ Numerator</li><li>➤ calculating negative predictive value</li><li>➤ True Negative</li><li>➤ NPV is calculated as the ratio of true negatives to the sum of true negatives and false negatives , reflecting the probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease-free .</li><li>➤ NPV</li><li>➤ calculated</li><li>➤ ratio of true negatives</li><li>➤ sum of true negatives</li><li>➤ false negatives</li><li>➤ probability</li><li>➤ person with a negative test</li><li>➤ truly disease-free</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 155</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a workshop on the interpretation of diagnostic test results in various populations, a discussion arises about the positive predictive value (PPV) of a single ELISA test, commonly used for screening certain infectious diseases. The PPV of a test can vary significantly based on the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested. Among the following groups, in which would a single ELISA test likely have the highest positive predictive value?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Antenatal cases", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Voluntary blood donors", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Diabetes mellitus patients", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Female sex workers", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Female sex workers", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Female sex workers</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Positive predictive value depends directly on the prevalence . More the prevalence more the PPV .</li><li>• Positive predictive</li><li>• value</li><li>• directly on the prevalence</li><li>• More</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• more</li><li>• PPV</li><li>• Positive predictive value (PPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease , out of all those who test positive on a screening test</li><li>• Positive predictive value (PPV):</li><li>• Ability</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly</li><li>• have the disease</li><li>• test positive</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• PPV of a screening test depends on:</li><li>• PPV of a screening test depends on:</li><li>• Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Prevalence of disease in the population</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population – As the prevalence of disease increases in a population , PPV increases for the screening test</li><li>➤ PPV</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ directly proportional</li><li>➤ prevalence of disease</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ prevalence of disease increases</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ PPV increases</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 163.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC textbook, pg 163.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare team in a large hospital introduces a new screening test for cervical cancer. This test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99%. In a recent screening program, 1000 women were tested. The prevalence of cervical cancer in this population is known to be 50 per 1000. Based on this information, what is the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of the screening test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "78%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "90%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "82%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "94%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 82%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-124038.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 82%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• True positives (TP) = Sensitivity × Prevalence × Total population = 0.90 × (50/1000) × 1000 = 45</li><li>• False positives (FP) = (1 - Specificity) × (1 - Prevalence) × Total population = 0.01 × (950/1000) × 1000 ≈ 9.5</li><li>• PPV = TP / (TP + FP) = (45 / 55) * 100 = 81.8%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a screening test , which measures the proportion of positive test results that are true positives , depends on the sensitivity , specificity , and prevalence of the disease in the population .</li><li>➤ Positive Predictive Value</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ proportion of positive test</li><li>➤ true positives</li><li>➤ sensitivity</li><li>➤ specificity</li><li>➤ prevalence</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 155</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In an epidemiological study, a research team is concerned about the impact of interobserver variation. This variation refers to the differences in observations or measurements when they are conducted by different individuals. Understanding its effect is crucial for the study final result. Which aspect of epidemiological studies is most directly affected by interobserver variation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Predictive value of the positive test", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Reliability", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Reliability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Reliability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Options (A) Sensitivity and (C) Specificity are characteristics of diagnostic tests that relate to their ability to correctly identify those with and without the disease , respectively. While interobserver variation can indirectly affect these parameters, it is not their most direct impact.</li><li>• Options (A) Sensitivity</li><li>• (C) Specificity</li><li>• diagnostic tests</li><li>• ability to correctly identify</li><li>• with and without the disease</li><li>• Option (B) Predictive value of the positive test relates to the probability that a person who tests positive actually has the disease. It is more influenced by the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested than by interobserver variation.</li><li>• Option (B) Predictive value of the positive test</li><li>• probability that a person</li><li>• tests positive</li><li>• disease.</li><li>• Reliability/Precision/Repeatability/Consistency/Reproducibility: Test gives consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material, under the same conditions</li><li>• Reliability/Precision/Repeatability/Consistency/Reproducibility:</li><li>• consistent</li><li>• repeated more than once</li><li>• same individual</li><li>• Reliability is measured by – Person product-moment correlation coefficient and Cronbach’s alpha (internal consistency) Reliability of a test depends on -</li><li>• Reliability is measured by – Person product-moment correlation coefficient and Cronbach’s alpha (internal consistency)</li><li>• Reliability</li><li>• Person product-moment</li><li>• coefficient</li><li>• Cronbach’s alpha</li><li>• Reliability of a test depends on -</li><li>• Observer variation:</li><li>• Observer variation:</li><li>• Observer variation:</li><li>• Intra-observer variation: Same observer taking 2 or more readings gives varied results Inter-observer variation: Variation between different observers on the same subject/material</li><li>• Intra-observer variation: Same observer taking 2 or more readings gives varied results</li><li>• Inter-observer variation: Variation between different observers on the same subject/material</li><li>• Biological (subject) variation: occur due to</li><li>• Biological (subject) variation: occur due to</li><li>• Biological (subject) variation: occur due to</li><li>• Changes in parameters observed Variation in perceptions and answers of patients Regression to the mean</li><li>• Changes in parameters observed</li><li>• Variation in perceptions and answers of patients</li><li>• Regression to the mean</li><li>• Errors relating to technical methods: occur due to</li><li>• Errors relating to technical methods: occur due to</li><li>• Errors relating to technical methods: occur due to</li><li>• Defective instruments Erroneous calibrations Faulty reagents Inappropriate/unreliable test</li><li>• Defective instruments</li><li>• Erroneous calibrations</li><li>• Faulty reagents</li><li>• Inappropriate/unreliable test</li><li>• Characteristics of Ideal Health Indicator -</li><li>• Characteristics of Ideal Health Indicator -</li><li>• Validity : Actually measures what it is supposed to measure Reliability : Reproducible results if measured by different persons Objectivity : Independent of subjects perception Sensitivity : Sensitive to change in situations Specificity : Reflect changes only in the situation concerned with that indicator Feasibility : Practical possibility of obtaining the necessary data Relevancy : Contribution to understanding the phenomenon of interest</li><li>• Validity : Actually measures what it is supposed to measure</li><li>• Validity</li><li>• Reliability : Reproducible results if measured by different persons</li><li>• Reliability</li><li>• Objectivity : Independent of subjects perception</li><li>• Objectivity</li><li>• Sensitivity : Sensitive to change in situations</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity : Reflect changes only in the situation concerned with that indicator</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Feasibility : Practical possibility of obtaining the necessary data</li><li>• Feasibility</li><li>• Relevancy : Contribution to understanding the phenomenon of interest</li><li>• Relevancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Reliability is compromised when different observers produce varying results under the same conditions , indicating a need for standardized protocols and training to minimize such variation.</li><li>➤ Reliability</li><li>➤ compromised when different observers</li><li>➤ varying results</li><li>➤ same conditions</li><li>➤ need for standardized protocols</li><li>➤ training to minimize such variation.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed pg. 154-56</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27 th ed pg. 154-56</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In evaluating a new technique for estimating random blood sugar (RBS) levels, its performance in terms of validity and reliability is under scrutiny. The technique is applied six times to a blood sample, producing results of 112, 108, 110, 105, 104, and 101 mg/dL. A standard and accurate test indicates the RBS level at 108 mg/dL. Given these results, how would you assess the new technique's validity and reliability?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "High validity and high reliability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Low validity and low reliability", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "High validity and low reliability", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Low validity and high reliability", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Low validity and low reliability", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Low validity and low reliability</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The term validity refers to what extent the test accurately measures which it purports to measure .</li><li>• validity</li><li>• extent the test accurately</li><li>• purports to measure</li><li>• Reliability - the test must give consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material, under the same conditions.</li><li>• Reliability</li><li>• test</li><li>• consistent</li><li>• repeated more</li><li>• once</li><li>• same individual</li><li>• In this question, all the values are not close to 108 . The range is quite vast from 101 to 112 . So the test doesn’t have a high validity. Also, the values are not repeatable, it means it has low reliability.</li><li>• values are not close to 108</li><li>• range is quite vast</li><li>• 101 to 112</li><li>• Types of Validity -</li><li>• Types of Validity -</li><li>• Conclusion validity : Defines if there is a relationship between 2 variables Internal validity : Assuming relationship between 2 variables , defines if it is causal . Is free of bias and valid conclusions can be drawn for individuals in a sample Construct validity : Assuming causal relationship between 2 variables , defines if our theory is best to our constructs External validity : Assuming causal relationship between 2 variables , defines if our theory can be generalized to the broader population Concurrent validity : refers to the degree of correlation with other measures of the same construct measured at the same time Face (Logical) validity : Relevance of a measurement appear obvious Content validity : Measurement of all variable components Consensual validity : If no. of experts agree to a parameter Criterion validity : If compared with a reference or gold standard. Is best measure of validity and usually expressed as sensitivity &amp; specificity. Discriminant validity : If not showing strong correlation between 2 variables</li><li>• Conclusion validity : Defines if there is a relationship between 2 variables</li><li>• Conclusion validity</li><li>• relationship between 2 variables</li><li>• Internal validity : Assuming relationship between 2 variables , defines if it is causal . Is free of bias and valid conclusions can be drawn for individuals in a sample</li><li>• Internal validity</li><li>• Assuming relationship</li><li>• 2 variables</li><li>• causal</li><li>• Construct validity : Assuming causal relationship between 2 variables , defines if our theory is best to our constructs</li><li>• Construct validity</li><li>• causal relationship between 2 variables</li><li>• External validity : Assuming causal relationship between 2 variables , defines if our theory can be generalized to the broader population</li><li>• External validity</li><li>• causal relationship between 2 variables</li><li>• Concurrent validity : refers to the degree of correlation with other measures of the same construct measured at the same time</li><li>• Concurrent validity</li><li>• degree of correlation</li><li>• measures</li><li>• construct measured</li><li>• same time</li><li>• Face (Logical) validity : Relevance of a measurement appear obvious</li><li>• Face</li><li>• validity</li><li>• Content validity : Measurement of all variable components</li><li>• Content validity</li><li>• Consensual validity : If no. of experts agree to a parameter</li><li>• Consensual validity</li><li>• Criterion validity : If compared with a reference or gold standard. Is best measure of validity and usually expressed as sensitivity &amp; specificity.</li><li>• Criterion validity</li><li>• Discriminant validity : If not showing strong correlation between 2 variables</li><li>• Discriminant validity</li><li>• Characteristics of Ideal Health Indicator -</li><li>• Characteristics of Ideal Health Indicator -</li><li>• Validity : Actually measures what it is supposed to measure Reliability : Reproducible results if measured by different persons Objectivity : Independent of subjects perception Sensitivity : Sensitive to change in situations Specificity : Reflect changes only in the situation concerned with that indicator Feasibility : Practical possibility of obtaining the necessary data Relevancy : Contribution to understanding the phenomenon of interest</li><li>• Validity : Actually measures what it is supposed to measure</li><li>• Validity</li><li>• Reliability : Reproducible results if measured by different persons</li><li>• Reliability</li><li>• Objectivity : Independent of subjects perception</li><li>• Objectivity</li><li>• Sensitivity : Sensitive to change in situations</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity : Reflect changes only in the situation concerned with that indicator</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Feasibility : Practical possibility of obtaining the necessary data</li><li>• Feasibility</li><li>• Relevancy : Contribution to understanding the phenomenon of interest</li><li>• Relevancy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The interobserver variation in epidemiological studies affects - Reliability</li><li>➤ interobserver variation</li><li>➤ epidemiological</li><li>➤ Reliability</li><li>➤ What extent the test accurately measures which it purports to measure - Validity</li><li>➤ test accurately</li><li>➤ Validity</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 154-56</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 154-56</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a training session on screening and diagnostic tests, the focus is on understanding the concept of diagnostic power. Diagnostic power refers to the test's ability to accurately distinguish between those who have and do not have a disease. When considering the effectiveness of a screening test, which of the following best reflects the diagnostic power of the test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Predictive value", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Population attributable risk", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Predictive value", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Predictive value.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Sensitivity: Usefulness of a screening test’ is given by Sensitivity</li><li>• Option A. Sensitivity:</li><li>• Usefulness</li><li>• screening test’</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Option B. Specificity : Statistical index of diagnostic accuracy is Sensitivity</li><li>• Option B. Specificity</li><li>• Statistical index</li><li>• diagnostic accuracy</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Option D. PAR: Estimated amount of disease that can be reduced if risk factor is modified/eliminated</li><li>• Option D. PAR:</li><li>• Estimated amount of disease</li><li>• reduced</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If prevalence of disease increases , predictive value of a positive test will - Increase</li><li>➤ prevalence</li><li>➤ disease increases</li><li>➤ positive test</li><li>➤ Increase</li><li>➤ Diagnostic power of the screening test is reflected by - Predictive Value</li><li>➤ Diagnostic power</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Predictive Value</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 156</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27 th ed, pg 156</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A healthcare research team conducts a screening test for a specific disease in two different cities, A and B. The results show a higher number of false positives in city A compared to city B. What does the higher rate of false positives in city A indicate about the screening test or the population in city A compared to city B?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The test in invalid", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prevalence of the diseases is less in City B", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence of the disease is more in City A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Prevalence of the diseases is less in city A", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Prevalence of the diseases is less in city A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Prevalence of the diseases is less in city A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• More the prevalence , more the predictive value . More the predictive value , less the false positives/False negatives.</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• predictive value</li><li>• predictive value</li><li>• less the false positives/False negatives.</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Usefulness of a screening test is given by: Sensitivity Statistical index of diagnostic accuracy : Sensitivity Diagnostic power of a screening test: Predictive accuracy Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV) Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease: Negative predictive value (NPV) Predictive value of a screening test depends on: Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Usefulness of a screening test is given by: Sensitivity</li><li>• Usefulness of a screening test is given by: Sensitivity</li><li>• Usefulness</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Statistical index of diagnostic accuracy : Sensitivity</li><li>• Statistical index of diagnostic accuracy : Sensitivity</li><li>• Statistical index</li><li>• diagnostic accuracy</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test: Predictive accuracy Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV) Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease: Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test: Predictive accuracy</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV) Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease: Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease: Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease: Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Predictive value of a screening test depends on: Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Predictive value of a screening test depends on:</li><li>• Sensitivity Specificity Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Prevalence of disease in the population</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity, Specificity &amp; Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ Predictive value</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Sensitivity, Specificity &amp; Prevalence</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 163.</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 163.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical epidemiology lecture, the focus is on understanding the characteristics of screening tests, specifically the concept of specificity. A screening test with a specificity of 90% is presented as a case study. As a medical student, you are asked to analyze what this implies about the test results in non-diseased individuals. Understanding specificity is crucial for interpreting screening test results and making informed clinical decisions. What does a 90% specificity imply about the test results in individuals without the disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "True positive result", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "True negative result", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "False negative result", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "False positive result", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. True negative result", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-133042.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. True negative result</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. True positive/ TP: Population having the disease and showing screening test results as positive</li><li>• Option A. True positive/ TP:</li><li>• Population</li><li>• disease and showing screening test</li><li>• positive</li><li>• Option C. False negative/ FN: Population having the disease but erroneously showing screening test results as negative</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C. False negative/ FN:</li><li>• Population having the disease</li><li>• erroneously</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• negative</li><li>• Option D. False positive/ FP: Population not having the disease but erroneously showing screening test results as positive</li><li>• Option D. False positive/ FP:</li><li>• Population</li><li>• disease</li><li>• erroneously</li><li>• screening test results as positive</li><li>• Evaluation/Properties of a Screening Test</li><li>• Evaluation/Properties of a Screening Test</li><li>• Sensitivity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100 Specificity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease (healthy) Specificity = d/(b + d) × 100 = TN/(TN + FP) × 100 Positive predictive value (PPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, out of all those who test positive on a screening test PPV = a/(a + b) × 100 = TP/(TP + FP) × 100 Negative predictive value (NPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease, out of all those who test negative on a screening test NPV = d/(c + d) × 100 = TN/(FN + TN) × 100 Percentage of false positives (FP) - % FP = b/(b + d) × 100 = FP/(FP + TN) × 100 Percentage of false negatives (FN) - % FN = c/(a + c) × 100 = FN/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Sensitivity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• Specificity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease (healthy) Specificity = d/(b + d) × 100 = TN/(TN + FP) × 100</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Positive predictive value (PPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, out of all those who test positive on a screening test PPV = a/(a + b) × 100 = TP/(TP + FP) × 100</li><li>• Positive predictive value</li><li>• Negative predictive value (NPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease, out of all those who test negative on a screening test NPV = d/(c + d) × 100 = TN/(FN + TN) × 100</li><li>• Negative predictive value</li><li>• Percentage of false positives (FP) - % FP = b/(b + d) × 100 = FP/(FP + TN) × 100</li><li>• Percentage of false positives</li><li>• Percentage of false negatives (FN) - % FN = c/(a + c) × 100 = FN/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Percentage of false negatives</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective</li><li>➤ A screening test was found to be 90% specificity . This implies 90% of non-diseased persons will give a - True Negative Result</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ 90% specificity</li><li>➤ implies 90%</li><li>➤ non-diseased persons</li><li>➤ True Negative Result</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 154</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 154</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a resident physician reviewing the laboratory results of a 45-year-old male patient who recently underwent a screening test for colorectal cancer. The patient appears healthy with no significant family history of colorectal cancer. The patient's test result came back negative. Given the characteristics of the test, the probability that this case, whose result is negative on a screening test, really does not have the disease?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Positive predictive value", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Negative predictive value", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Negative predictive value", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039033.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Negative predictive value</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Positive predictive value (PPV): Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease , out of all those who test positive on a screening test PPV = TP/(TP + FP) × 100</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Positive predictive value</li><li>• Ability</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• identify correctly</li><li>• who have the disease</li><li>• Option C. Sensitivity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases) Sensitivity = TP/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly all those</li><li>• disease</li><li>• Option D. Specificity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease (healthy) Specificity = TN/(TN + FP) × 100</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly all those</li><li>• disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease , out of all those who test negative on a screening test known as - Negative predictive value ; while, Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, out of all those who test positive on a screening test known as Positive predictive value</li><li>➤ Ability</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ correctly all those</li><li>➤ do not have the disease</li><li>➤ test negative</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Negative predictive value</li><li>➤ Ability</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ correctly all those</li><li>➤ disease,</li><li>➤ test positive</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ Positive</li><li>➤ predictive value</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 162.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC textbook, pg 162.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "You are a medical officer overseeing a blood donation camp in a rural village. After a successful day, around 30 people have donated blood. Recognizing the importance of safety in blood transfusions, you instruct your team of technicians to screen all the donated blood products for Hepatitis B and C before they are used for patient transfusions. This precautionary measure is essential in preventing the transmission of these infections through blood products. In the context of public health and preventive medicine, how would you categorize the screening of blood products for Hepatitis B in this scenario?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Prescriptive screening", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Prospective Screening", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Surveillance", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Multiphasic screening", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Prospective Screening", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-143128.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Prospective Screening</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Prescriptive Screening: Is defined as screening for diseases solely for the benefit of the individuals . Ex: Neonatal Screening, paps smear, etc</li><li>• Option A. Prescriptive Screening:</li><li>• screening for diseases</li><li>• benefit of the individuals</li><li>• Option C. Surveillance: Is the ongoing systematic collection and analysis of data and the provision of information that leads to action being taken to prevent and control disease and other conditions of ill-health , usually one of an infectious nature. This is a broader concept and works in a continuous cycle pattern with a feedback mechanism , where an Inbuilt action component is present and this even continues if the disease is eliminated/eradicated. Types of surveillance - passive, active, sentinel.</li><li>• Option C. Surveillance:</li><li>• ongoing systematic collection</li><li>• analysis of data</li><li>• provision of information</li><li>• action being taken to prevent</li><li>• control disease</li><li>• ill-health</li><li>• infectious nature.</li><li>• broader</li><li>• works in a continuous cycle pattern</li><li>• feedback mechanism</li><li>• Option D. Multiphasic Screening: Application of two or more screening tests in combination to a large number of people at one time</li><li>• Option D. Multiphasic Screening: Application</li><li>• two or more screening tests</li><li>• large number</li><li>• people at one time</li><li>• Example: Annual health check ups</li><li>• Example: Annual health check ups</li><li>• Example: Annual health check ups</li><li>• Example:</li><li>• Screening of disease:</li><li>• Screening of disease:</li><li>• Is used to search for an unrecognized diseases or defect, in apparently healthy individuals , by means of rapidly applied tests , examinations or other procedures</li><li>• search for an unrecognized diseases</li><li>• defect,</li><li>• apparently healthy individuals</li><li>• rapidly applied tests</li><li>• Types -</li><li>• Types -</li><li>• Mass screening : Screening of whole population or a subgroup irrespective of individual’s risk</li><li>• Mass screening</li><li>• Screening</li><li>• whole population</li><li>• subgroup</li><li>• individual’s risk</li><li>• Example: Chest X-ray for TB on large population</li><li>• Example: Chest X-ray for TB on large population</li><li>• Example: Chest X-ray for TB on large population</li><li>• Example:</li><li>• High risk (Selective) screening : Screening applied selectively to high risk groups based on epidemiological research.</li><li>• High risk</li><li>• screening</li><li>• Screening</li><li>• high risk groups</li><li>• epidemiological research.</li><li>• Examples: Cervical cancer screening in lower socioeconomic strata, Diabetes screening in members of a family with history, HIV screening in risk groups</li><li>• Examples: Cervical cancer screening in lower socioeconomic strata, Diabetes screening in members of a family with history, HIV screening in risk groups</li><li>• Examples: Cervical cancer screening in lower socioeconomic strata, Diabetes screening in members of a family with history, HIV screening in risk groups</li><li>• Examples:</li><li>• Multipurpose screening : Screening of a population by more than one test done simultaneously to detect more than one disease</li><li>• Multipurpose screening</li><li>• Screening</li><li>• population</li><li>• Example: Screening of a pregnant woman for VDRL, HIV, HBV by serological tests on a blood sample</li><li>• Example: Screening of a pregnant woman for VDRL, HIV, HBV by serological tests on a blood sample</li><li>• Example: Screening of a pregnant woman for VDRL, HIV, HBV by serological tests on a blood sample</li><li>• Example:</li><li>• Opportunistic and case finding screening : If there is no accurate or precise diagnostic test for the disease and where the frequency of its occurrence in the population is small ; an objective is to detect disease and bring patients to treatment</li><li>• Opportunistic and case finding screening</li><li>• no accurate</li><li>• precise diagnostic test</li><li>• disease</li><li>• frequency of its occurrence</li><li>• population is small</li><li>• Example: RHD in children</li><li>• Example: RHD in children</li><li>• Example: RHD in children</li><li>• Example:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Prospective screening is the screening the person to protect the community from disease like screening of immigrant’s / sex workers for HIV, Hep B, etc, while people screens for their own benefit is known as Prescriptive screening like Paps smear, NNS</li><li>➤ Prospective screening</li><li>➤ screening the person to protect the community from disease</li><li>➤ screening of immigrant’s</li><li>➤ sex workers for HIV, Hep B,</li><li>➤ screens</li><li>➤ Prescriptive screening like Paps smear, NNS</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, pg 168</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, pg 168</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a resident in a public health department, you are involved in a discussion about the cost-effectiveness and resource allocation for a new screening program for lung cancer. One of the key considerations is ensuring that the program provides a sufficient number of cases to justify the expenditure and resources involved. This concept is crucial in public health to ensure that programs are both effective and efficient in using limited resources. In this context, what term best describes the principle of providing enough cases to commensurate with the expenditure and inputs involved in a screening program?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Efficient", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Yield", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Efficacy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Precise", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Yield", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Yield</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Efficient : The number of inputs (in terms of expenses and time) should result in a reasonable number of outputs in terms of improved health &amp; satisfaction . Is the measure of relationship between the results achieved and the effort expended in terms of money, resources and time.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Efficient</li><li>• number of inputs</li><li>• reasonable number of outputs</li><li>• improved health &amp; satisfaction</li><li>• Option C. Efficacy: Is the effect or usefulness of an agent/drug/vaccine under ideal ‘controlled laboratory’ conditions.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• C.</li><li>• Efficacy:</li><li>• effect or usefulness</li><li>• agent/drug/vaccine</li><li>• ‘controlled laboratory’</li><li>• Option D. Precise: Test should give consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material , under the same conditions. Precision is also known as Reliability, Repeatability or Reproducibility</li><li>• Option</li><li>• D.</li><li>• Precise:</li><li>• Test</li><li>• give consistent</li><li>• repeated more than once</li><li>• same individual</li><li>• material</li><li>• Other remaining criteria of Tests used for Screening should be:</li><li>• Other remaining criteria of Tests used for Screening should be:</li><li>• Valid: It should be “accurate”, i.e., should measure correctly what it intends to . It should have high sensitivity , specificity, and positive &amp; negative predictive values . Practical : The test should be easily administered , even by people with ordinary training , should be innocuous, acceptable and should give quick results.</li><li>• Valid: It should be “accurate”, i.e., should measure correctly what it intends to . It should have high sensitivity , specificity, and positive &amp; negative predictive values .</li><li>• Valid:</li><li>• “accurate”,</li><li>• measure correctly</li><li>• intends to</li><li>• high sensitivity</li><li>• positive &amp; negative predictive values</li><li>• Practical : The test should be easily administered , even by people with ordinary training , should be innocuous, acceptable and should give quick results.</li><li>• Practical</li><li>• easily administered</li><li>• ordinary training</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The yield of a screening test is measured by the number of cases identified whose prognosis is improved as a result of their early detection.</li><li>➤ yield of a screening test</li><li>➤ measured by the number of cases</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC pg. 168</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC pg. 168</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a public health research study, a new screening tool for cervical cancer was developed. The researchers want to ensure that this screening tool accurately identifies individuals with cervical cancer while minimizing false positives. Which term best describes the ability of the screening tool to correctly measure what it intends to measure?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reliability", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Practical", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Valid", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Efficient", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Valid", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Valid</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Reliable (Precise): It should give consistent results when repeated applications are made</li><li>• Option A. Reliable (Precise):</li><li>• give consistent results</li><li>• Option B. Practical: The test should be easily administered, even by people with ordinary training , should be innocuous , acceptable and should give quick results.</li><li>• Option B. Practical:</li><li>• easily administered,</li><li>• people with ordinary training</li><li>• innocuous</li><li>• acceptable</li><li>• Option D. Efficient: The number of inputs (in terms of expenses and time) should result in a reasonable number of outputs in terms of improved health &amp; satisfaction .</li><li>• Option D. Efficient:</li><li>• number of inputs</li><li>• reasonable number</li><li>• outputs</li><li>• improved health &amp; satisfaction</li><li>• Other remaining criteria of Tests to be used for Screening purposes are -</li><li>• Other remaining criteria of Tests to be used for Screening purposes are -</li><li>• Validity: It should be “accurate”, i.e., should measure correctly what it intends to . It should have high sensitivity , specificity, and positive &amp; negative predictive values . Yield : It should give enough number of cases to commensurate with the expenditure and inputs involved . Yield will depend on Sensitivity of the test, Prevalence of the disease (If screening is applied to a high-risk group, the yield will be better) and availability of medical care (for better prognosis).</li><li>• Validity: It should be “accurate”, i.e., should measure correctly what it intends to . It should have high sensitivity , specificity, and positive &amp; negative predictive values .</li><li>• Validity:</li><li>• “accurate”,</li><li>• correctly</li><li>• intends to</li><li>• high sensitivity</li><li>• positive &amp; negative predictive values</li><li>• Yield : It should give enough number of cases to commensurate with the expenditure and inputs involved . Yield will depend on Sensitivity of the test, Prevalence of the disease (If screening is applied to a high-risk group, the yield will be better) and availability of medical care (for better prognosis).</li><li>• Yield</li><li>• number of cases to commensurate</li><li>• expenditure and inputs involved</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The ability of the screening to measure correctly what it intends is - Validity</li><li>➤ ability of the screening</li><li>➤ measure correctly</li><li>➤ Validity</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC pg 168</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC pg 168</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 45-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine health checkup. She has no symptoms related to any specific illness. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the criteria for a screening test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The natural history of the condition should be adequately understood.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "There should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients.", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "There should be an acceptable and effective treatment.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "There should not be latent / early symptomatic stage.", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. There should not be latent / early symptomatic stage.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. There should not be latent / early symptomatic stage</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• There should be recognizable latent / early symptomatic stage of disease for it to be considered for Screening.</li><li>• recognizable latent</li><li>• early symptomatic stage</li><li>• disease</li><li>• Screening.</li><li>• Other 3 options are correct (details are mentioned below).</li><li>• 3 options are correct</li><li>• Following are considerations of Screening test:</li><li>• Following are considerations of Screening test:</li><li>• The condition should be an important health problem. There should be an acceptable and effective treatment. Facilities for confirming the diagnosis and for treatment should be available. There should be recognizable latent / early symptomatic stage. There should be a suitable screening test or examination available. The test should be acceptable. The natural history of the condition, including development from latent to apparent disease, should be adequately understood. There should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients. The cost of case finding (including final diagnosis and treatment) should be economically balanced with the expenditure on medical care. Case finding should be a continuing process and not “once and for all” project.</li><li>• The condition should be an important health problem.</li><li>• The condition should be an important health problem.</li><li>• There should be an acceptable and effective treatment.</li><li>• There should be an acceptable and effective treatment.</li><li>• There should be an acceptable and effective treatment.</li><li>• Facilities for confirming the diagnosis and for treatment should be available.</li><li>• Facilities for confirming the diagnosis and for treatment should be available.</li><li>• There should be recognizable latent / early symptomatic stage.</li><li>• There should be recognizable latent / early symptomatic stage.</li><li>• There should be recognizable latent / early symptomatic stage.</li><li>• There should be a suitable screening test or examination available.</li><li>• There should be a suitable screening test or examination available.</li><li>• The test should be acceptable.</li><li>• The test should be acceptable.</li><li>• The natural history of the condition, including development from latent to apparent disease, should be adequately understood.</li><li>• The natural history of the condition, including development from latent to apparent disease, should be adequately understood.</li><li>• The natural history of the condition, including development from latent to apparent disease, should be adequately understood.</li><li>• There should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients.</li><li>• There should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients.</li><li>• There should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients.</li><li>• The cost of case finding (including final diagnosis and treatment) should be economically balanced with the expenditure on medical care.</li><li>• The cost of case finding (including final diagnosis and treatment) should be economically balanced with the expenditure on medical care.</li><li>• Case finding should be a continuing process and not “once and for all” project.</li><li>• Case finding should be a continuing process and not “once and for all” project.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The following are true with respect to the consideration of a disease for screening - There should be latent / early symptomatic stage of disease , t here should be an acceptable and effective treatment , the natural history of the condition including development from latent to apparent disease , should be adequately understood and there should be an agreed policy regarding whom to treat as patients.</li><li>➤ true with respect</li><li>➤ disease for screening</li><li>➤ There should be latent / early symptomatic stage of disease</li><li>➤ acceptable</li><li>➤ effective treatment</li><li>➤ natural history</li><li>➤ condition</li><li>➤ development from latent to apparent disease</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, Pg 169</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC Textbook, Pg 169</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cervical cancer screening programme was conducted in a rural area using pap smear procedure, in the year 2000. Out of the women who participated, Mrs ‘A’ was diagnosed to be having cervical cancer; however she could not be offered surgery because no gynaecologist was available. She died of cervical cancer in 2005. Out of the women who did not participate, Mrs ‘B’ developed symptoms of cervical cancer and was diagnosed in 2002. She also died in 2005. This occurrence represents?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Successful increase in years lived by Mrs ‘A’", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Length time bias", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Lead time bias", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Self-selection bias", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Lead time bias", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Lead time bias</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Successful increase in years lived by Mrs ‘A’ : Here by early diagnosis without availability of treatment - increase a few more years of sickness and apprehension rather than success or health for patient</li><li>• Option A. Successful increase in years lived by Mrs ‘A’</li><li>• early diagnosis</li><li>• without availability of treatment</li><li>• Option B. Length time bias: It has been observed that cases detected through periodic, early detection programs , tend to have longer preclinical stages than those missed out by screening but self-detected between examinations.</li><li>• Option B. Length time bias:</li><li>• observed that cases detected</li><li>• periodic, early detection programs</li><li>• Option D. Self-Selection bias: If the groups which are offered screening test are not constituted on the basis of self-selection (volunteers), it is possible that such volunteers may be more health conscious , educated and more likely to give up associated risk factors; hence survival in such a screened group is likely to be better, not due to screening but because of associated factors.</li><li>• Option D. Self-Selection bias:</li><li>• groups</li><li>• offered screening test</li><li>• not constituted on the basis of self-selection</li><li>• volunteers may be more health conscious</li><li>• educated</li><li>• Other Important Types of Biases in Epidemiological Studies -</li><li>• Other Important Types of Biases in Epidemiological Studies -</li><li>• Apprehension bias : Certain levels (pulse, blood pressure) may alter systematically from their usual levels when the subject is apprehensive Attention bias (Hawthorne effect): Study subjects may systematically alter their behaviour when they know they are being observed Berksonian bias (Admission rate bias): Bias due to hospital cases and controls being systematically different from each other Interviewer bias : Interviewer devotes more time of interview with cases as compared to controls Memory/Recall bias : Cases are more likely to remember exposure more correctly than controls Neyman bias (Prevalence-incidence bias): Bias due to missing of fatal cases, mild/silent cases and cases of short duration of episodes from the study Selection bias (Susceptibility bias): Groups to be compared are differentially susceptible to the outcome of interest, even before the experimental maneuver is performed</li><li>• Apprehension bias : Certain levels (pulse, blood pressure) may alter systematically from their usual levels when the subject is apprehensive</li><li>• Apprehension bias</li><li>• Attention bias (Hawthorne effect): Study subjects may systematically alter their behaviour when they know they are being observed</li><li>• Attention bias</li><li>• Berksonian bias (Admission rate bias): Bias due to hospital cases and controls being systematically different from each other</li><li>• Berksonian bias</li><li>• Interviewer bias : Interviewer devotes more time of interview with cases as compared to controls</li><li>• Interviewer bias</li><li>• Memory/Recall bias : Cases are more likely to remember exposure more correctly than controls</li><li>• Memory/Recall bias</li><li>• Neyman bias (Prevalence-incidence bias): Bias due to missing of fatal cases, mild/silent cases and cases of short duration of episodes from the study</li><li>• Neyman bias</li><li>• Selection bias (Susceptibility bias): Groups to be compared are differentially susceptible to the outcome of interest, even before the experimental maneuver is performed</li><li>• Selection bias</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead time bias (Zero time shift bias) - Bias of over-estimation of survival time , due to backward shift in starting point, as by screening procedures</li><li>➤ Lead time bias</li><li>➤ Bias of over-estimation</li><li>➤ survival time</li><li>➤ screening procedures</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC pg: 169.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : AFMC pg: 169.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Early diagnosis of breast cancer through mammography improves prognosis. For screening program to be most effective, between which points in the natural history of the disease, must the screening test be applied:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Between A and B", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Between B and C", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Between C and D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anywhere between A and C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Between B and C", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039034.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039035.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Between B and C</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Point between B and D indicates lead time . Applying the screening test between the points B and C which is the screening time , will help in early diagnosis and management of the Breast Cancer.</li><li>• Point between B and D</li><li>• lead time</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• points B and C</li><li>• screening time</li><li>• early diagnosis</li><li>• management of the Breast Cancer.</li><li>• Early detection of disease (B rather than D) will ensure earlier institution of treatment , thus better prognosis</li><li>• Early detection of disease</li><li>• earlier institution of treatment</li><li>• Lead time bias (Zero time shift bias) : Between B &amp; D - Bias of over-estimation of survival time , due to backward shift in starting point, as by screening procedures</li><li>• Lead time bias (Zero time shift bias)</li><li>• Between B &amp; D</li><li>• Bias of over-estimation of survival time</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Lead time is the advantage gained by screening (leading the time of diagnosis). Early detection of disease due to screening (B rather than C) will ensure earlier institution of treatment, thus better prognosis.</li><li>➤ Lead time</li><li>➤ advantage gained by screening</li><li>➤ Early detection</li><li>➤ disease due to screening</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 151</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 151</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of blood in his stool (melena). The physician orders a Hemoccult test (Fecal Occult Blood Test) as the initial screening test. The Hemoccult test returns a positive result. What is the likely consequence of ordering a second stool sample test in this sequence?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Net increase in sensitivity and specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Net Increase in specificity but decrease in sensitivity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "No change in sensitivity and specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Net decrease in Specificity but increase in sensitivity", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Net Increase in specificity but decrease in sensitivity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039036.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Net Increase in specificity but decrease in sensitivity.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Screening Tests Used in Series : A population is subjected to one screening test followed by a second screening test ; 2nd screening test is applied on those individuals only who test positive on the 1st screening test</li><li>• Screening Tests Used in Series</li><li>• population</li><li>• subjected to one screening test</li><li>• second screening test</li><li>• 2nd screening test</li><li>• positive on the 1st screening test</li><li>• Combined sensitivity of 2 tests A &amp; B in series = Sensitivity (A) × Sensitivity (B) Combined specificity of 2 tests A &amp; B in series = [Specificity (A) + Specificity (B)] – [Specificity (A) × Specificity (B)]</li><li>• Combined sensitivity of 2 tests A &amp; B in series = Sensitivity (A) × Sensitivity (B)</li><li>• Combined specificity of 2 tests A &amp; B in series = [Specificity (A) + Specificity (B)] – [Specificity (A) × Specificity (B)]</li><li>• Screening Tests Used in Parallel: A population is subjected to two (or more) screening tests at the same time ; each of the individuals is subjected to both (or all) screening tests</li><li>• Screening Tests Used in Parallel:</li><li>• population is subjected to two</li><li>• screening tests</li><li>• same time</li><li>• Combined sensitivity of 2 tests A &amp; B in parallel = [Sensitivity (A) + Sensitivity (B)] – [Sensitivity (A) × Sensitivity (B)] Combined specificity of 2 tests A &amp; B in parallel = Specificity (A) × Specificity (B)</li><li>• Combined sensitivity of 2 tests A &amp; B in parallel = [Sensitivity (A) + Sensitivity (B)] – [Sensitivity (A) × Sensitivity (B)]</li><li>• Combined specificity of 2 tests A &amp; B in parallel = Specificity (A) × Specificity (B)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The use of 2 tests in sequence results in gain in net specificity and loss in net sensitivity .</li><li>➤ use of 2 tests</li><li>➤ gain in net specificity</li><li>➤ loss in net sensitivity</li><li>➤ The use of 2 test in parallel results in gain in net sensitivity and loss in net specificity .</li><li>➤ 2 test in parallel</li><li>➤ gain in net sensitivity</li><li>➤ loss in net specificity</li><li>➤ Ref : Epidemiology, Leon Gordis, 5 th ed, Pg 96.</li><li>➤ Ref : Epidemiology, Leon Gordis, 5 th ed, Pg 96.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Breast cancer screening through clinical breast examination showed that of 50 women with Breast cancer confirmed through mammography, test was positive in 37 and negative in 13 women. In contrast the test was positive in 12 and negative in 48 normal women also. What is the sensitivity and specificity of the test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "75.5% and 78.6%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "80% and 74%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "74% and 80%", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "78.6% and 75.5%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 74% and 80%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-152755.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 74% and 80%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Sensitivity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who have the disease (cases)</li><li>• Sensitivity</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• identify correctly</li><li>• disease</li><li>• Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100 = 37*100/ 50 = 74%</li><li>• Specificity : Ability of a screening test to identify correctly all those who do not have the disease (healthy)</li><li>• Specificity</li><li>• Specificity = d/(b + d) × 100 = TN/(TN + FP) × 100 = 48*100/60 = 80%</li><li>• Specificity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sensitivity = a/(a + c) × 100 = TP/(TP + FN) × 100</li><li>➤ Sensitivity</li><li>➤ Specificity = d/(b + d) × 100 = TN/(TN + FP) × 100</li><li>➤ Specificity</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A patient's blood glucose level is being tested for impaired glucose tolerance. According to WHO criteria, the cutoff for impaired glucose level is 110 mg/dl, while the International Diabetes Federation suggests a cutoff of 100 mg/dl. If the reduced cutoff of 100 mg/dl is used, what is the most likely effect on the test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Specificity will increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity will increase", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Positive predictive value will increase", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "No change", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sensitivity will increase", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sensitivity will increase</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Specificity will increase: Is incorrect because lowering the cutoff generally decreases specificity . The test will be more likely to incorrectly identify healthy individuals as having impaired glucose tolerance.</li><li>• Option</li><li>• A. Specificity will increase:</li><li>• lowering the cutoff</li><li>• decreases specificity</li><li>• Option C. Positive predictive value will increase: Is incorrect. The positive predictive value depends on both the sensitivity of the test and the prevalence of the condition in the population. Lowering the cutoff and potentially increasing false positives may actually decrease the positive predictive value, especially in populations with low prevalence of the condition.</li><li>• Option C. Positive predictive value will increase:</li><li>• positive predictive</li><li>• depends on both the sensitivity of the test</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• Option D. No change: Is incorrect because changing the cutoff value will possibly affect the characteristics of test.</li><li>• Option D. No change:</li><li>• changing the cutoff value</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ If cut off is lowered , the test will have higher sensitivity value &amp; low specificity ; if the cut - off level is raised , it will result in high specificity and low sensitivity .</li><li>➤ cut off is lowered</li><li>➤ test</li><li>➤ higher sensitivity value &amp; low specificity</li><li>➤ cut - off level is raised</li><li>➤ high specificity</li><li>➤ low sensitivity</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 167</li><li>➤ Ref : AFMC textbook, pg 167</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 50-year-old man with a family history of colorectal cancer undergoes a screening colonoscopy. The result of his colonoscopy is positive for precancerous polyps. Given this scenario, how is the positive likelihood ratio (LR+) of this screening test measured?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "{(Specificity)/ (1- Sensitivity)}", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "{(Sensitivity)/ (1- Specificity)}", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "{(1- Specificity)/ (Sensitivity)}", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "{(1- Sensitivity)/Specificity}", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. {(Sensitivity)/ (1- Specificity)}", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/image_oYnOsIK.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/27/image_GWsIfsq.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. {(Sensitivity)/ (1- Specificity)}</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The positive likelihood ratio (LR+) is a measure used to assess the usefulness of a diagnostic test . A higher LR+ indicates that a positive test result is more likely to be found in someone with the disease than in someone without it, making the test more useful for ruling in the disease.</li><li>• positive likelihood ratio</li><li>• assess the usefulness</li><li>• diagnostic test</li><li>• higher LR+</li><li>• positive test</li><li>• found in someone with the disease</li><li>• Likelihood Ratio</li><li>• Likelihood Ratio</li><li>• Incorporates both the sensitivity and specificity of the test and provides a direct estimate of how much a test result will change the odds of having a disease . Likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+) tells you how much the odds of the disease increase when a test is positive</li><li>• Incorporates both the sensitivity and specificity of the test and provides a direct estimate of how much a test result will change the odds of having a disease .</li><li>• Incorporates</li><li>• sensitivity</li><li>• specificity of the test</li><li>• provides a direct estimate</li><li>• test result will change</li><li>• odds of having a disease</li><li>• Likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+) tells you how much the odds of the disease increase when a test is positive</li><li>• Likelihood ratio</li><li>• positive</li><li>• Likelihood ratio for a negative result (LR–) tells you how much the odds of the disease decrease when a test is negative</li><li>• Likelihood ratio for a negative result (LR–) tells you how much the odds of the disease decrease when a test is negative</li><li>• Likelihood ratio</li><li>• negative result</li><li>• odds of the disease decrease</li><li>• test is negative</li><li>• Post-test odds (the chances that patient has a disease): Once you have specified the pre-test odds (the likelihood that the patient would have a specific disease prior to testing), you multiply them by the likelihood ratio Odds (post) = Odds (pre) × Likelihood ratio</li><li>• Post-test odds (the chances that patient has a disease): Once you have specified the pre-test odds (the likelihood that the patient would have a specific disease prior to testing), you multiply them by the likelihood ratio Odds (post) = Odds (pre) × Likelihood ratio</li><li>• Post-test odds</li><li>• specified the</li><li>• pre-test odds</li><li>• multiply them by the likelihood ratio</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ LR+ = Sensitivity/(1 – Specificity)</li><li>➤ LR+ = Sensitivity/(1 – Specificity)</li><li>➤ LR - = (1- Sensitivity)/ Specificity</li><li>➤ LR - = (1- Sensitivity)/ Specificity</li><li>➤ Ref: AFMC textbook,1 st ed. pg 164</li><li>➤ Ref: AFMC textbook,1 st ed. pg 164</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ AFMC textbook,1 st ed. pg 164</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study evaluating ELISA as a screening test for HIV, where PCR was used as the confirmatory diagnostic test, it was found that ELISA was positive in 90 out of 100 confirmed HIV patients. Additionally, ELISA showed positive results in 11 out of 100 individuals without HIV. Based on this information, what are the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of the ELISA test?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90% and 89%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "89.1% and 89.9%", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "90% and 94%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "89.9% and 78%", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 89.1% and 89.9%", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/05/screenshot-2024-08-05-154244.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image_AnsSIS9.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image_fLfh0K8.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image_yoslrbi.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image_kjpsiU7.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/11/15/image_yPIAA2J.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 89.1% and 89.9%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Positive predictive value of the test = True positive/ Total positives = 90*100/101= 89.1% Negative predictive value = True negatives/ Total negatives = 89*100/ 99= 89.9%</li><li>• Positive predictive value of the test = True positive/ Total positives = 90*100/101= 89.1%</li><li>• Positive predictive</li><li>• test</li><li>• Negative predictive value = True negatives/ Total negatives = 89*100/ 99= 89.9%</li><li>• Negative predictive value</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• If prevalence of disease increases , predictive value of a positive test will - Increase PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• If prevalence of disease increases , predictive value of a positive test will - Increase</li><li>• prevalence of disease increases</li><li>• positive test</li><li>• Increase</li><li>• PPV of a screening test is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• PPV of a screening test</li><li>• directly proportional</li><li>• prevalence of disease</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test: Predictive accuracy Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test: Predictive accuracy Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease: Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• </li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease : Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease : Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly exclude a disease</li><li>• Negative predictive value</li><li>• Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence of disease in the population PPV is also known as ‘post-test probability of a disease’ or ‘precision rate’</li><li>• Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>• Predictive value</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence</li><li>• disease in the population</li><li>• PPV is also known as ‘post-test probability of a disease’ or ‘precision rate’</li><li>• PPV</li><li>• ‘post-test probability of a disease’</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Positive predictive value of the test= True positive/ Total positives Negative predictive value= True negatives/ Total negatives Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ Positive predictive value of the test= True positive/ Total positives</li><li>➤ Positive predictive value of the test= True positive/ Total positives</li><li>➤ Negative predictive value= True negatives/ Total negatives</li><li>➤ Negative predictive value= True negatives/ Total negatives</li><li>➤ Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ Predictive value of a screening test depends on – Sensitivity; Specificity; Prevalence of disease in the population</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg.</li><li>➤ Ref : park 26 th ed pg.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As a part of malaria surveillance, a newly recruited lab technician was taught about the thin smear examination to study the species of Malarial parasite by the microbiologist. For assessing the inter observer variation and reliability between lab technician and microbiologist, results of 320 slides examined by both were taken. Both reported positive for 21, whereas reported negative for 251 slides. Total positives by technician were 32 and by microbiologist was 58 and negatives by technicians and microbiologist were 288 and 262 respectively. What is the degree of agreement in this?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "0.94", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "0.57", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "0.38", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "8.56", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 0.38", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039040.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039041.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 0.38</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Kappa coefficient (K)</li><li>• Kappa coefficient (K)</li><li>• Indicates the extent of agreement between frequencies of two sets of data collected on two different occasions Formula: K = O-E/(1 – E)</li><li>• Indicates the extent of agreement between frequencies of two sets of data collected on two different occasions</li><li>• extent of agreement</li><li>• frequencies of two sets</li><li>• data collected</li><li>• two different occasions</li><li>• Formula: K = O-E/(1 – E)</li><li>• O - Percent Agreement Observed</li><li>• E - Percent Agreement Expected by chance</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• 0 = agreement equivalent to chance. 0 – 0.20 = slight agreement. 0.21 – 0.40 = fair agreement. 0.41 – 0.60 = moderate agreement. 0.61 – 0.80 = substantial agreement. 0.81 – 0.99 = near perfect agreement 1 = perfect agreement</li><li>• Nearer the Kappa coefficient is to 1 (or 100%), better the agreement between two observers , or methods of measurement, is likely to be. Kappa value</li><li>• Kappa coefficient</li><li>• 1</li><li>• better the agreement</li><li>• two observers</li><li>• Kappa value</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Kappa coefficient (K) indicates the extent of agreement between frequencies of two sets of data collected on two different occasions .</li><li>➤ Kappa coefficient</li><li>➤ extent of agreement</li><li>➤ frequencies of two sets</li><li>➤ data collected</li><li>➤ two different occasions</li><li>➤ Formula: K = O-E/(1 – E)</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A research team is evaluating a new screening test for early detection of pancreatic cancer. When considering the factors that will influence the predictive accuracy of this screening test, which of the following is the most important?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sensitivity", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Specificity", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Prevalence", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All of the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. All of the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The predictive accuracy depends upon sensitivity (Option A), specificity (constant) (Option B) and disease prevalence (Option C).</li><li>• sensitivity (Option A), specificity (constant) (Option B) and disease prevalence (Option C).</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test : Predictive accuracy (it tells the actual no. of people having the disease or not having the disease out of those shown positive or negative by a screening test, respectively)</li><li>• Diagnostic power</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• Predictive accuracy</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease : Positive predictive value (PPV) Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease : Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly identify a disease : Positive predictive value (PPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly identify a disease</li><li>• Positive predictive value</li><li>• Diagnostic power of a screening test to correctly exclude a disease : Negative predictive value (NPV)</li><li>• Diagnostic power</li><li>• screening test</li><li>• correctly exclude a disease</li><li>• Negative predictive value</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The predictive accuracy of the screening test depends upon - sensitivity, specificity (constant) and disease prevalence .</li><li>➤ predictive accuracy</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ sensitivity, specificity</li><li>➤ disease prevalence</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 155</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 155</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 55-year-old woman undergoes a screening test for breast cancer. To assess the validity of this screening test, which of the following parameters should be primarily considered?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Cost effectiveness", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sensitivity and specificity", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Kappa statistics", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Percent agreement", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sensitivity and specificity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sensitivity and specificity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Cost Effectiveness : Input is in monetary terms whereas output is in terms of ‘results achieved’</li><li>• Option A. Cost Effectiveness</li><li>• Input</li><li>• monetary terms</li><li>• Option C. Kappa statistics: Indicates the extent of agreement between frequencies of two sets of data collected on two different occasions</li><li>• Option C. Kappa statistics:</li><li>• extent of agreement</li><li>• frequencies of two sets of data collected</li><li>• Option D. Percent agreement: Percent agreement is an intuitive approach to measuring agreement but does not adjust for chance. Kappa provides a measure of agreement beyond that which would be expected by chance, as estimated by the observed data.</li><li>• Option D. Percent agreement:</li><li>• intuitive approach</li><li>• measuring agreement</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Some Important Pointers -</li><li>• Inherent properties of a screening test – Sensitivity; Specificity and Predictive accuracy Reliability is precision, while validity is accuracy Accuracy: degree of closeness of a measured or calculated quantity to its actual (true) value PPV is also known as ‘post-test probability of a disease’ or ‘precision rate’ Criterion validity: If compared with a reference or gold standard - Is best measure of validity; Usually expressed as sensitivity &amp; specificity</li><li>• Inherent properties of a screening test – Sensitivity; Specificity and Predictive accuracy</li><li>• Reliability is precision, while validity is accuracy</li><li>• Accuracy: degree of closeness of a measured or calculated quantity to its actual (true) value</li><li>• PPV is also known as ‘post-test probability of a disease’ or ‘precision rate’</li><li>• Criterion validity: If compared with a reference or gold standard - Is best measure of validity; Usually expressed as sensitivity &amp; specificity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The validity of the screening test can be assessed using - Sensitivity and Specificity</li><li>➤ validity</li><li>➤ screening test</li><li>➤ assessed</li><li>➤ Sensitivity and Specificity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>References:</strong></p><ul><li>↳ Reference: Park 26 th ed pg 153</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 44 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Social Sciences And Health - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 27</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 27 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "Dr. Anjali is conducting a research project on the role of societal factors in health outcomes. She discusses with her mentor about the origin of medical sociology to better understand its evolution. Her mentor asks her if she knows who first proposed the concept of medical sociology. Who is credited with first proposing the concept of medical sociology?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Virchow", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Neumann", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Charles McIntyre", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Alfred Grotjahn", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Charles McIntyre", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Charles McIntyre</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Medical sociology is a specialization within the field of sociology that was first proposed by Charles McIntyre in 1894.</li><li>• Medical sociology</li><li>• specialization</li><li>• field</li><li>• sociology</li><li>• Charles McIntyre in 1894.</li><li>• Medical sociology includes studies of the medical profession , the relationship of medicine to the public , and of the social factors in the aetiology , prevalence , incidence , and interpretation of disease .</li><li>• Medical sociology</li><li>• medical profession</li><li>• relationship</li><li>• medicine</li><li>• public</li><li>• social factors</li><li>• aetiology</li><li>• prevalence</li><li>• incidence</li><li>• interpretation of disease</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The concept of medical sociology is proposed by Charles McIntyre in 1894.</li><li>➤ medical sociology</li><li>➤ Charles McIntyre</li><li>➤ 1894.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 760</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 760</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In sociological terms, there are various kinds of norms and customs that guide behavior within a society. Some of these are particularly stringent and are observed without deviation. Violation of these norms is often met with severe social penalties or consequences. What is the term used to describe these strict customs?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Folkways", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mores", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Role", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Culture", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Mores", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Mores</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Customs are technically divided into “ folkways ” and \" mores \".</li><li>• Customs</li><li>• divided</li><li>• folkways</li><li>• mores</li><li>• The folkways are the right ways of doing things in what is regarded as the less vital areas of human conduct . (Less stringent customs) The more stringent customs are called “ mores \".</li><li>• The folkways are the right ways of doing things in what is regarded as the less vital areas of human conduct . (Less stringent customs)</li><li>• folkways</li><li>• right ways</li><li>• less vital areas</li><li>• human conduct</li><li>• The more stringent customs are called “ mores \".</li><li>• more</li><li>• stringent customs</li><li>• mores</li><li>• Norms - These are the accepted behaviors within a society or group . This is a more general term that encompasses both folkways and mores .</li><li>• Norms</li><li>• behaviors</li><li>• society</li><li>• group</li><li>• more general term</li><li>• folkways</li><li>• mores</li><li>• Culture is the learned behavior that is socially acquired.</li><li>• Culture</li><li>• learned behavior</li><li>• socially acquired.</li><li>• Acculturation - Is cultural contact or mixing of two cultures . It can occur through Trade and commerce, Industrialization, Propagation of religion, Education and Conquest.</li><li>• Acculturation -</li><li>• cultural contact</li><li>• two cultures</li><li>• Trade</li><li>• commerce, Industrialization, Propagation</li><li>• religion, Education</li><li>• Conquest.</li><li>• Taboos - These are prohibitions against specific actions or behaviors because they are considered extremely offensive or even dangerous . Violating a taboo can often lead to extreme social sanctions or ostracism . Taboos are the most extreme form of mores’ as they forbid a society’s most outrageous practices, such as incest and murder .</li><li>• Taboos -</li><li>• specific actions</li><li>• behaviors</li><li>• extremely offensive</li><li>• even dangerous</li><li>• Violating</li><li>• extreme social sanctions</li><li>• ostracism</li><li>• extreme</li><li>• mores’</li><li>• forbid</li><li>• society’s</li><li>• outrageous practices,</li><li>• incest</li><li>• murder</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The concept of mores in sociology , which are strict norms viewed as vital to a society's welfare and moral health . Violating mores often leads to severe social penalties, reflecting their importance in maintaining social order and ethical standards .</li><li>➤ mores</li><li>➤ sociology</li><li>➤ strict norms</li><li>➤ society's welfare</li><li>➤ moral health</li><li>➤ Violating mores</li><li>➤ severe social penalties, reflecting</li><li>➤ social order</li><li>➤ ethical standards</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 761</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 761</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Psychiatrist is evaluating a 35-year-old patient. Upon conducting an intelligence test, it is found that the patient's mental age is 30 years. Based on this information, what would be the most appropriate conclusion regarding his level of intelligence?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Low normal", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Borderline", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Superior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Normal", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Low normal", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/17/picture80.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-145337.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-145353.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Low normal</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Intelligence Quotient : Is a score derived from one of several different standardized tests attempting to measure intelligence</li><li>• Intelligence Quotient</li><li>• score</li><li>• several different standardized tests</li><li>• measure intelligence</li><li>• First intelligence tests were developed by: Binet and Simon (1896)</li><li>• First intelligence tests</li><li>• Binet and Simon (1896)</li><li>• Stern’s IQ Test : Originally IQ was calculated for children</li><li>• IQ Test</li><li>• IQ</li><li>• calculated for children</li><li>• = (30/35) x 100 = 85.5</li><li>• Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS): David Wechsler (1939) published the first intelligence test designed for an adult population ; It was the first IQ test based on Normal/Gaussian distribution.</li><li>• Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale</li><li>• David Wechsler (1939)</li><li>• first intelligence test</li><li>• adult population</li><li>• first IQ test</li><li>• Normal/Gaussian distribution.</li><li>• Categories of mental retardation based on IQ levels -</li><li>• mental retardation</li><li>• IQ levels</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 769</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 769</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health conference, a presenter emphasizes the importance of understanding how humans interact with each other and their patterns of behavior, especially in the context of health behaviors. This study is referred to as:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Social psychology", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Sociology", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Anthropology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical sociology", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Sociology", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Sociology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Social Psychology: The emphasis is on understanding the basis of perception, thought, opinion, attitudes , general motivation and learning in individuals and how these vary in human societies and groups.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Social Psychology:</li><li>• perception, thought, opinion, attitudes</li><li>• general motivation</li><li>• learning</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• vary</li><li>• human societies</li><li>• groups.</li><li>• Option C. Anthropology: Study of the physical, social and cultural history of man. It also examines human behaviour but more through these aspects.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Anthropology:</li><li>• physical, social</li><li>• cultural history</li><li>• man. It also examines human behaviour but more through these aspects.</li><li>• Option D. Medical sociology: Study of Social and cultural factors in health , health behavior illness and healthcare.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Medical sociology:</li><li>• Social</li><li>• cultural factors</li><li>• health</li><li>• health behavior illness and healthcare.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Sociology is the study of human social behavior , including how individuals interact with each other and the patterns of behavior within societies . In the context of public health, sociology is important for understanding how social structures, cultural norms and group dynamics impact health behaviors and outcomes . This field helps to analyze and address various social determinants of health.</li><li>➤ Sociology</li><li>➤ human social behavior</li><li>➤ each other</li><li>➤ patterns of behavior</li><li>➤ societies</li><li>➤ public health, sociology</li><li>➤ understanding</li><li>➤ social structures, cultural norms</li><li>➤ group dynamics</li><li>➤ health behaviors</li><li>➤ outcomes</li><li>➤ analyze</li><li>➤ address</li><li>➤ social determinants</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 760</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 760</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A cultural anthropologist gave a lecture on social behaviors at a medical conference. He emphasized the importance of understanding the various behaviors and beliefs of patients to provide holistic care. One medical resident inquired about behaviors learned through societal interactions and their term. Which of the following best encapsulates behaviors and practices learned socially?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Customs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Culture", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Role", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Beliefs", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Culture", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Culture</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Customs: Customs are established patterns of behavior relevant for a particular social setting.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Customs:</li><li>• established</li><li>• behavior</li><li>• particular social setting.</li><li>• Option C. Roles: Roles refer to the specific functions , responsibilities , and tasks that various individuals or groups play in promoting and maintaining the health and well-being of a community.</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Roles:</li><li>• specific functions</li><li>• responsibilities</li><li>• tasks</li><li>• promoting</li><li>• maintaining</li><li>• health</li><li>• well-being</li><li>• community.</li><li>• Option D. Beliefs: Beliefs are subjective permanent, stable and almost unchangeable views .</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Beliefs:</li><li>• Beliefs</li><li>• subjective permanent, stable</li><li>• unchangeable views</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Culture is defined as learned behavior which has been socially acquired .</li><li>➤ Culture</li><li>➤ learned behavior</li><li>➤ socially acquired</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 762</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 762</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a Public Health workshop, the discussion centered on the impact of societal factors on health outcomes. A medical resident, intrigued by the conversation, inquired about the specific field that examines the relationship between diseases and social conditions. This area of study focuses on understanding how societal factors like poverty, education and cultural practices can influence the prevalence and spread of diseases. Which term most accurately describes this field of study?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Social stress", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Social Anthropology", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Social Pathology", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Medical sociology", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Social Pathology", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Social Pathology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Social Stress: The psychological and physiological responses that individuals experience because of their interactions and experiences within social environments.</li><li>• Option A. Social Stress:</li><li>• psychological</li><li>• physiological responses</li><li>• interactions</li><li>• experiences</li><li>• social environments.</li><li>• Option B. Social Anthropology: Social anthropology is a branch of anthropology that centers on the examination of human societies and cultures . It places significant emphasis on understanding social structures , relationships, customs, beliefs and practices that shape the diverse aspects of human social life.</li><li>• Option B. Social Anthropology:</li><li>• centers</li><li>• examination</li><li>• human societies</li><li>• cultures</li><li>• emphasis</li><li>• understanding social structures</li><li>• relationships, customs, beliefs</li><li>• practices</li><li>• diverse aspects</li><li>• human social life.</li><li>• Option D. Medical Sociology: Medical sociology is a specialized branch of sociology that focuses on the social aspects of health, illness, healthcare systems and the interaction between society and medicine.</li><li>• Option D. Medical Sociology:</li><li>• social aspects</li><li>• health, illness, healthcare</li><li>• systems</li><li>• interaction between society</li><li>• medicine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Social pathology is the field that specifically investigates the relationship between diseases and social conditions . It examines how social, economic and cultural factors can contribute to the development and spread of diseases within a society . This field helps in understanding the societal determinants of health and illness , exploring how social issues can lead to pathological conditions.</li><li>➤ Social pathology</li><li>➤ investigates</li><li>➤ diseases</li><li>➤ social conditions</li><li>➤ social, economic</li><li>➤ cultural factors</li><li>➤ development</li><li>➤ spread</li><li>➤ diseases</li><li>➤ society</li><li>➤ helps</li><li>➤ societal determinants</li><li>➤ health</li><li>➤ illness</li><li>➤ social issues</li><li>➤ pathological conditions.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 762</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 762</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Umesh is conducting a workshop on health education and promotion. While discussing the components of attitude, he lists several elements. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a component of attitude?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Thoughts &amp; beliefs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Affective", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Action", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Motivation", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Motivation", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Motivation</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Attitude includes three components: (ABC Model of attitudes include Affective, Behavioural and cognitive)</li><li>• three components: (ABC Model of attitudes include Affective, Behavioural and cognitive)</li><li>• Option A. A cognitive or knowledge element : The beliefs, thoughts and knowledge an individual holds about the object of their attitude.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• cognitive or knowledge element</li><li>• beliefs, thoughts</li><li>• knowledge</li><li>• holds</li><li>• object</li><li>• attitude.</li><li>• Option B. An affective or feeling element: The emotional or affective response a person has toward the object of their attitude . It involves the feelings and emotions associated with the subject.</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• affective or feeling element:</li><li>• emotional or affective</li><li>• object</li><li>• their attitude</li><li>• feelings</li><li>• emotions</li><li>• subject.</li><li>• Option C. Behavioural tendencies: The individual's actions or intentions toward the object of their attitude .</li><li>• Option C. Behavioural</li><li>• actions</li><li>• object</li><li>• attitude</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Attitude consists of three components : a cognitive element encompassing beliefs and knowledge about the attitude object , an BOLD element involving emotional responses towards it and a behavioral tendency indicating the individual's actions or intentions related to the object.</li><li>• Attitude</li><li>• three components</li><li>• cognitive</li><li>• beliefs</li><li>• knowledge</li><li>• attitude object</li><li>• emotional responses</li><li>• it</li><li>• behavioral tendency</li><li>• individual's actions</li><li>• intentions</li><li>• object.</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 766</li><li>• Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 766</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Priya, a pediatrician at a tertiary care hospital, encounters a 7-year-old boy with developmental delays. To better understand the child's specific disabilities and formulate an appropriate management plan, she wants to use a standard assessment scale. A medical student rotating in the pediatric ward inquires about the tools available for such assessments. Which of the following scales is commonly used to assess specific disabilities in children?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Disability assessment schedule (DAS)", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Handicap, behavior, and skills schedule (HBS)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Binet and Simon test", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Activities of Daily living scale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Handicap, behavior, and skills schedule (HBS)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Handicap, behavior, and skills schedule (HBS)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Wing’s Comprehensive Handicaps , Behavior and Skills Schedule (HBS) is used in epidemiological studies to assess the detailed scales of specific abilities and disabilities in the child population . Wing’s HBS in not useful for those who are not retarded.</li><li>• Wing’s Comprehensive Handicaps</li><li>• Behavior</li><li>• Skills Schedule</li><li>• epidemiological studies</li><li>• specific abilities</li><li>• disabilities</li><li>• child population</li><li>• Wing’s HBS</li><li>• not</li><li>• not retarded.</li><li>• MENTAL HEALTH RATING SCALES IN CHILDREN:</li><li>• 1. Adaptive Behaviour Scale (AAMR ABS): To evaluate functional and behavioural disorder in children and adolescents with mental retardation , autism and other developmental disabilities.</li><li>• 1. Adaptive Behaviour Scale (AAMR ABS):</li><li>• functional</li><li>• behavioural disorder</li><li>• children</li><li>• adolescents</li><li>• mental retardation</li><li>• autism</li><li>• developmental disabilities.</li><li>• 2. Child Behaviour Checklist (CBCL) Scale: To evaluate pathological behaviours and social competence in children aged 1½ to 18 years .</li><li>• 2. Child Behaviour Checklist (CBCL) Scale:</li><li>• pathological behaviours</li><li>• social competence</li><li>• children</li><li>• 1½ to 18 years</li><li>• 3. Children’s Depression Inventory (CDI) Scale: To evaluate depression in children and adolescents.</li><li>• 3. Children’s Depression Inventory (CDI) Scale:</li><li>• depression</li><li>• children</li><li>• adolescents.</li><li>• 4. Children’s Depression Rating Scale (CDRS): To evaluate severity of depression in children.</li><li>• 4. Children’s Depression Rating Scale (CDRS):</li><li>• severity</li><li>• depression</li><li>• 5. Comprehensive Behaviour Rating Scale for Children (CBRS(C): To assess child’s school functioning .</li><li>• 5. Comprehensive Behaviour Rating Scale for Children (CBRS(C):</li><li>• child’s school functioning</li><li>• 6. Conners’ Rating Scale (CRS): To assess psychopathology and behavioural problems in children and adolescents.</li><li>• 6. Conners’ Rating Scale (CRS):</li><li>• psychopathology</li><li>• behavioural problems</li><li>• children and adolescents.</li><li>• 7. Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children (DIS(C): To diagnose mental disorders in children and adolescents.</li><li>• 7. Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children (DIS(C):</li><li>• mental disorders</li><li>• children</li><li>• adolescents.</li><li>• 8. Revised Children’s Manifest Anxiety Scale (RCMAS): To evaluate anxiety in children.</li><li>• 8. Revised Children’s Manifest Anxiety Scale (RCMAS):</li><li>• anxiety</li><li>• 9. Reynolds Adolescent Depression Scale (RADS) : To screen for and measure depression in adolescents.</li><li>• 9. Reynolds Adolescent Depression Scale (RADS)</li><li>• depression</li><li>• adolescents.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Handicap, Behavior and Skills Schedule (HBS), developed by Lorna Wing, is a comprehensive tool used in epidemiological studies to assess detailed scales of specific abilities and disabilities in children. It is particularly useful for assessing a wide range of disabilities and is not limited to children with cognitive retardation . The HBS provides valuable insights into the child's behavioral and skill-based abilities , aiding in formulating tailored management plans .</li><li>➤ Handicap, Behavior</li><li>➤ Skills Schedule (HBS),</li><li>➤ Lorna Wing,</li><li>➤ epidemiological studies</li><li>➤ scales</li><li>➤ specific abilities</li><li>➤ disabilities</li><li>➤ children.</li><li>➤ useful</li><li>➤ wide range</li><li>➤ disabilities</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ cognitive retardation</li><li>➤ HBS</li><li>➤ valuable insights</li><li>➤ child's behavioral</li><li>➤ skill-based abilities</li><li>➤ tailored</li><li>➤ management plans</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 770</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 770</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A social worker was observing various community group dynamics to plan her community interventions better. During a meeting in one of the villages, she noticed that all members strictly followed whatever their leader said, without any discussion or questions. This type of obedience reminded her of her sociology lessons. In which type of social group do members usually follow the orders of the leader without question?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Crowd", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Mob", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herd", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Family", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Herd", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Herd</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Crowd : A group of people come together temporarily , for a short period , motivated by a common interest or curiosity . The crowd lacks internal organization and leadership. When the interest is over , the crowd disperses.</li><li>• Option A. Crowd</li><li>• group</li><li>• people</li><li>• together temporarily</li><li>• short period</li><li>• common interest</li><li>• curiosity</li><li>• crowd lacks</li><li>• internal organization and leadership.</li><li>• interest is over</li><li>• crowd disperses.</li><li>• Option B. Mob: Is essentially a crowd but has a leader who forces the members into action . There may be a symbol in the shape of a flag or slogan . The mob is more emotional than a crowd. It is unstable and without internal organization. When the purpose of the mob is achieved , the group disperses.</li><li>• Option B. Mob:</li><li>• crowd</li><li>• leader</li><li>• forces</li><li>• members</li><li>• action</li><li>• symbol</li><li>• flag or slogan</li><li>• mob</li><li>• more emotional</li><li>• unstable</li><li>• without internal organization.</li><li>• mob</li><li>• achieved</li><li>• group disperses.</li><li>• Option D. Family: A group of biologically related individuals living together and eating from a common kitchen . Family is the primary unit of all societies . Family is the most powerful example of social cohesion.</li><li>• Option D. Family:</li><li>• biologically</li><li>• individuals living together</li><li>• eating</li><li>• common kitchen</li><li>• Family</li><li>• primary unit</li><li>• all societies</li><li>• Family</li><li>• powerful example</li><li>• social cohesion.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Herd : A crowd with a leader , where the members of the group have to follow the orders of the leader without question.</li><li>➤ The Herd</li><li>➤ crowd with a leader</li><li>➤ members</li><li>➤ group</li><li>➤ orders</li><li>➤ leader without question.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a health economics seminar, participants were discussing the impact of various governmental systems on health infrastructure. One system was highlighted, where both production and wealth are under the control of the state. This system is known as:", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Monarchy", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Autocracy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Oligarchy", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Socialist", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Socialist", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Socialist</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Monarchy: This is a form of government ruled by a monarch , such as a king or queen.</li><li>• Option A. Monarchy:</li><li>• government ruled</li><li>• monarch</li><li>• king or queen.</li><li>• Option B. Autocracy: This refers to a system of government where one person holds absolute power .</li><li>• Option B. Autocracy:</li><li>• system of government</li><li>• one person</li><li>• absolute power</li><li>• Option C. Oligarchy: This is a form of power structure where a small number of people (usually members of a family group) control a country or organization.</li><li>• Option C. Oligarchy:</li><li>• power structure</li><li>• small number</li><li>• control</li><li>• country</li><li>• organization.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Types of system:</li><li>➤ Types of system:</li><li>➤ Democracy: This is the government of the people, by the people and for the people. Autocracy: The ruler is absolute in his power . Monarchy: The head of the State is a monarch. Socialistic: The production and wealth are owned and controlled by the State. Oligarchy: The country is ruled by a family group .</li><li>➤ Democracy: This is the government of the people, by the people and for the people.</li><li>➤ Democracy:</li><li>➤ government</li><li>➤ people,</li><li>➤ by the people</li><li>➤ for</li><li>➤ people.</li><li>➤ Autocracy: The ruler is absolute in his power .</li><li>➤ Autocracy:</li><li>➤ absolute</li><li>➤ his power</li><li>➤ Monarchy: The head of the State is a monarch.</li><li>➤ Monarchy:</li><li>➤ State</li><li>➤ monarch.</li><li>➤ Socialistic: The production and wealth are owned and controlled by the State.</li><li>➤ Socialistic:</li><li>➤ production</li><li>➤ wealth</li><li>➤ owned</li><li>➤ controlled</li><li>➤ State.</li><li>➤ Oligarchy: The country is ruled by a family group .</li><li>➤ Oligarchy:</li><li>➤ country</li><li>➤ ruled</li><li>➤ family group</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "All of the following are characteristics of Joint family, except?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Marital relations enjoy primacy over familial relations", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "All the authority is vested in the senior male member of the family", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "All the men are related by blood", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the incomes are held together and expenditures met together.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Marital relations enjoy primacy over familial relations", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. Marital relations enjoy primacy over familial relations.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The main characteristics of a typical joint family are -</li><li>• main characteristics</li><li>• typical joint family</li><li>• It consists of several married couples and their children who live together in the same household . All the men are related by blood and the women of the household are their wives , unmarried girls and widows of the family kinsmen . All the property is held in common . There is a common family purse to which all the family income goes and from which all the expenditures are met . All the authority is vested in the senior male member of the family. He is the most dominant member and controls the internal and external affairs of the family . The senior female member by virtue of her being the wife of the male head shares his power so far as the women of the family are concerned . Familial relations enjoy primacy over marital relations.</li><li>• It consists of several married couples and their children who live together in the same household . All the men are related by blood and the women of the household are their wives , unmarried girls and widows of the family kinsmen .</li><li>• several married couples</li><li>• their children</li><li>• together</li><li>• same household</li><li>• men</li><li>• related</li><li>• blood</li><li>• women</li><li>• household</li><li>• their wives</li><li>• unmarried girls</li><li>• widows</li><li>• family kinsmen</li><li>• All the property is held in common . There is a common family purse to which all the family income goes and from which all the expenditures are met .</li><li>• property</li><li>• common</li><li>• common family</li><li>• family income goes</li><li>• from</li><li>• expenditures</li><li>• met</li><li>• All the authority is vested in the senior male member of the family. He is the most dominant member and controls the internal and external affairs of the family . The senior female member by virtue of her being the wife of the male head shares his power so far as the women of the family are concerned .</li><li>• authority</li><li>• vested</li><li>• senior male member</li><li>• most dominant member</li><li>• controls</li><li>• internal</li><li>• external affairs</li><li>• family</li><li>• senior female member</li><li>• virtue</li><li>• wife</li><li>• male head</li><li>• his power</li><li>• women</li><li>• family</li><li>• concerned</li><li>• Familial relations enjoy primacy over marital relations.</li><li>• Familial</li><li>• enjoy</li><li>• primacy</li><li>• marital relations.</li><li>• Other Types of Family -</li><li>• Nuclear Family (Elementary/Unitary Family): Consists of a married couple and their children while they are still regarded as dependents. Joint Family: Consists of no. of married couples and their children who live together in the same household. 3-Generation Family: Consists of a household with representatives of three generations. Complex Family: Is a generic term for any family structure involving more than two adults ; term can refer to any extended family or to a polygamy of any type. Communal Family: Is a family where all of its members are playing a part in its management . This is a good example of ‘ division of labour’ , an important function of a family. New Family: A family of less than 10 years duration and consists of parents and children . It is a variant of nuclear (elementary/unitary) family . This concept is important in view of studies related to family planning.</li><li>• Nuclear Family (Elementary/Unitary Family): Consists of a married couple and their children while they are still regarded as dependents.</li><li>• Nuclear Family (Elementary/Unitary Family):</li><li>• married couple</li><li>• their children</li><li>• still regarded</li><li>• dependents.</li><li>• Joint Family: Consists of no. of married couples and their children who live together in the same household.</li><li>• Joint Family:</li><li>• no. of married couples</li><li>• their children</li><li>• together</li><li>• same household.</li><li>• 3-Generation Family: Consists of a household with representatives of three generations.</li><li>• 3-Generation Family:</li><li>• household</li><li>• representatives</li><li>• three generations.</li><li>• Complex Family: Is a generic term for any family structure involving more than two adults ; term can refer to any extended family or to a polygamy of any type.</li><li>• Complex Family:</li><li>• generic term</li><li>• family structure</li><li>• more</li><li>• two adults</li><li>• any extended family</li><li>• polygamy</li><li>• any type.</li><li>• Communal Family: Is a family where all of its members are playing a part in its management . This is a good example of ‘ division of labour’ , an important function of a family.</li><li>• Communal Family:</li><li>• family</li><li>• its members</li><li>• part</li><li>• its management</li><li>• division of labour’</li><li>• important function</li><li>• family.</li><li>• New Family: A family of less than 10 years duration and consists of parents and children . It is a variant of nuclear (elementary/unitary) family . This concept is important in view of studies related to family planning.</li><li>• New Family: A family</li><li>• less</li><li>• 10 years duration</li><li>• parents and children</li><li>• variant of nuclear</li><li>• family</li><li>• concept</li><li>• important</li><li>• family planning.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A joint family comprises multiple married couples and their children living together, with male members related by blood and females as wives, daughters, sisters and widows . Property and finances are communal, authority rests with the eldest male , and family relations take precedence over marital ones .</li><li>➤ joint family</li><li>➤ multiple married couples</li><li>➤ their children</li><li>➤ male members</li><li>➤ blood</li><li>➤ females as wives,</li><li>➤ daughters, sisters and widows</li><li>➤ Property</li><li>➤ finances</li><li>➤ communal,</li><li>➤ authority rests</li><li>➤ eldest male</li><li>➤ family relations</li><li>➤ precedence over marital ones</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 774</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 774</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nuclear family, a fundamental unit in societal structures, is defined by its composition. What constitutes a nuclear family?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Husband and Wife", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Husband, wife and their dependent children", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Husband, wife and daughter", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Son, Husband, wife and their father.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Husband, wife and their dependent children", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Husband, wife and their dependent children</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The nuclear or elementary family (Unitary Family) consists of the married couple and their children while they are still regarded as dependents.</li><li>• nuclear or elementary family (Unitary Family)</li><li>• married couple</li><li>• their children</li><li>• still regarded</li><li>• dependents.</li><li>• Other types of family:</li><li>• Other types of family:</li><li>• Joint Family - Consists of no. of married couples and their children who live together in the same household . All males are related by blood while females are wives, daughters, sisters and widows . Property is held in common; there is a common family purse to which all the family income goes and from which all the expenditures are met . All authority is vested in the senior male member of the family. Familial relations enjoy primacy over marital relations.</li><li>• Joint Family</li><li>• no. of married couples</li><li>• their children</li><li>• same household</li><li>• All males</li><li>• related by blood</li><li>• females</li><li>• wives, daughters, sisters and widows</li><li>• Property</li><li>• common family purse</li><li>• family income goes</li><li>• from</li><li>• all</li><li>• expenditures</li><li>• met</li><li>• authority</li><li>• vested</li><li>• senior male member</li><li>• Familial relations</li><li>• enjoy</li><li>• marital relations.</li><li>• New Family: A family of less than 10 years duration and consists of parents and children . It is a variant of the nuclear (elementary/unitary) family.</li><li>• New Family:</li><li>• less than 10 years duration</li><li>• parents</li><li>• children</li><li>• variant</li><li>• nuclear</li><li>• family.</li><li>• 3-Generation Family: Consists of a household with representatives of three generations.</li><li>• 3-Generation Family:</li><li>• household with representatives</li><li>• three generations.</li><li>• Complex Family : This is a generic term for any family structure involving more than two adults ; the term can refer to any extended family or polygamy of any type.</li><li>• Complex Family</li><li>• generic term</li><li>• family structure</li><li>• more</li><li>• two adults</li><li>• extended family</li><li>• polygamy</li><li>• Conjugal Family : Is a nuclear family of adult partners and their children (by birth or adoption ) where the family relationship is principally focused inwardly and ties to extended kin are voluntary and based on emotional bonds , rather than strict duties and obligations; most common form is nuclear family</li><li>• Conjugal Family</li><li>• nuclear family</li><li>• adult partners</li><li>• their children</li><li>• birth</li><li>• adoption</li><li>• family relationship</li><li>• inwardly</li><li>• ties</li><li>• extended kin</li><li>• voluntary</li><li>• emotional bonds</li><li>• nuclear family</li><li>• Communal Family : Is a family where all of its members are playing a part in its management (Division of Labour).</li><li>• Communal Family</li><li>• family</li><li>• all</li><li>• its members</li><li>• playing</li><li>• its management (Division of Labour).</li><li>• Problem Family: A family that lags behind the rest of the community ; underlying factors in most problem families are those of personality , relationships , backwardness , poverty, illness, mental and social instability , character defects, and marital disharmony . Standards of life are generally far below the accepted minimum . Parents are unable to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. Home life is utterly unsatisfactory.</li><li>• Problem Family:</li><li>• rest</li><li>• community</li><li>• problem families</li><li>• personality</li><li>• relationships</li><li>• backwardness</li><li>• poverty, illness, mental</li><li>• social instability</li><li>• marital disharmony</li><li>• Standards</li><li>• life</li><li>• far below</li><li>• accepted minimum</li><li>• unable</li><li>• physical</li><li>• emotional</li><li>• children.</li><li>• Home life</li><li>• unsatisfactory.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A nuclear family is typically composed of a husband, wife and their dependent children. This family structure is characterized by its immediate family members only, distinguishing it from extended or joint family systems that include additional relatives such as grandparents, aunts, uncles and cousins.</li><li>➤ nuclear family</li><li>➤ husband, wife</li><li>➤ dependent children.</li><li>➤ its immediate family members</li><li>➤ distinguishing</li><li>➤ extended or joint family</li><li>➤ additional relatives</li><li>➤ grandparents, aunts, uncles</li><li>➤ cousins.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 772</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an internship, a medical student is placed in a community health setting to understand the social determinants of health. On her first day, her mentor asked her to interact with the community members to gather insights about their daily lives. As she prepares, she reflects on the term \"society\" to better understand and approach her interactions. What does the term \"society\" primarily refer to?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "A group of people bound with social norms and values.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "A group of people with organized system of social relationship", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Group with Organized complex pattern of behavior", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "An association patterned the norms of interaction", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. A group of people with organized system of social relationship", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. A group of people with organized system of social relationships</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Society refers to a group of individuals who have established an organized system of social relationships and follow a specific way of life. This system is characterized by interconnectedness and interdependence among its members, defining how they interact with each other and organize their collective existence . It's not just about people living in proximity , but about the structure and quality of their relationships .</li><li>• Society</li><li>• group of individuals</li><li>• organized system</li><li>• social relationships</li><li>• specific way</li><li>• life.</li><li>• interconnectedness</li><li>• interdependence</li><li>• interact with each other</li><li>• collective existence</li><li>• not</li><li>• living</li><li>• proximity</li><li>• structure</li><li>• quality</li><li>• relationships</li><li>• Other important terms:</li><li>• Other important terms:</li><li>• Community - A social group determined by geographical boundaries and/or common values or interests.</li><li>• Community</li><li>• geographical boundaries</li><li>• common values</li><li>• interests.</li><li>• Social structure - Patterns of inter-relationships between persons in a society.</li><li>• Social structure</li><li>• Patterns</li><li>• inter-relationships between</li><li>• society.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Society is a group of individuals who have organized themselves and follow a way of life . The outstanding feature of society is a System , a system of relationships between individuals.</li><li>➤ Society</li><li>➤ group</li><li>➤ organized themselves</li><li>➤ way of life</li><li>➤ System</li><li>➤ relationships between individuals.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 761.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 761.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Ramesh, a community medicine specialist, is giving a lecture on understanding the determinants of health to a group of medical students. During the session, he emphasized the importance of understanding human history, including the physical, social, and cultural evolution of humans, as it often shapes many health behaviors and practices observed in different communities. A curious medical student asks about the specific term that refers to this study. Which of the following terms best describes the study of the physical, social and cultural history of humans?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sociology", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Social structure", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Medical Sociology", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Anthropology", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Anthropology", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Anthropology</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Sociology: Sociology is the scientific study of human society, social interactions , and the patterns of behavior that emerge from these interactions . It is a discipline that examines the structure, development and functioning of human societies, as well as the individuals and groups that constitute them.</li><li>• Option A. Sociology:</li><li>• study</li><li>• human society, social</li><li>• interactions</li><li>• patterns of behavior</li><li>• interactions</li><li>• discipline</li><li>• examines</li><li>• structure, development</li><li>• functioning</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• groups</li><li>• Option B. Social Structure: The various elements of social structure such as social institutions (e.g., family, education, religion, government), social hierarchies (e.g., social class, race, gender), and social norms (e.g., customs, values, rules).</li><li>• Option B. Social Structure:</li><li>• elements</li><li>• social structure</li><li>• social institutions</li><li>• hierarchies</li><li>• social norms</li><li>• Option C. Medical Sociology: Medical sociology is a specialized branch of sociology that focuses on the social aspects of health, illness, healthcare systems and the interaction between society and medicine.</li><li>• Option C. Medical Sociology:</li><li>• specialized branch</li><li>• health, illness, healthcare</li><li>• systems</li><li>• interaction</li><li>• society and medicine.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The role of social anthropology in health sciences. It offers a comprehensive view of how human history, including physical, social and cultural evolution, shapes health behaviors and practices in different communities, thus aiding medical professionals in developing culturally sensitive health interventions and understanding the diverse health needs of various populations.</li><li>➤ social anthropology</li><li>➤ physical, social</li><li>➤ cultural evolution,</li><li>➤ health behaviors</li><li>➤ practices</li><li>➤ medical professionals</li><li>➤ culturally sensitive health interventions</li><li>➤ diverse health</li><li>➤ various populations.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 760.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 760.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a lecture on cultural influences in healthcare, a discussion arises about acculturation and its relevance in understanding patient behavior and health practices. The lecturer asks the students to identify what acculturation is most closely associated with.Which of the following options best describes the primary association of acculturation?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Loss of culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Isolation of culture", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Cultural contact", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Sociology", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Cultural contact", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Cultural contact</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Acculturation means “ culture contact ”. When there is contact between two people with different types of culture , there is diffusion of culture both ways.</li><li>• Acculturation</li><li>• culture contact</li><li>• contact between</li><li>• different types</li><li>• culture</li><li>• diffusion</li><li>• culture both ways.</li><li>• Various Ways by which culture contact :</li><li>• culture contact</li><li>• Trade and commerce Industrialization Propagation of religion Education Conquest.</li><li>• Trade and commerce</li><li>• Industrialization</li><li>• Propagation of religion</li><li>• Education</li><li>• Conquest.</li><li>• Sociology is the study of individuals as well as groups in a society. It can be viewed as from 2 angles - Study of relationships between human beings and the study of human behaviour .</li><li>• Sociology</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• groups</li><li>• 2 angles</li><li>• relationships</li><li>• human beings</li><li>• human behaviour</li><li>• Socialisation is the process by which an individual gradually acquires culture and becomes member of a social group.</li><li>• Socialisation</li><li>• individual gradually acquires</li><li>• culture</li><li>• member</li><li>• social group.</li><li>• Culture is the learned behaviour that is socially acquired.</li><li>• Culture</li><li>• learned behaviour</li><li>• socially acquired.</li><li>• Custom is the established patterns of behaviour that can be objectively verified within a particular social setting . Folkways is the Right ways of doing things in less vital areas of human conduct and Mores are the more stringent customs.</li><li>• Custom</li><li>• patterns of behaviour</li><li>• particular social setting</li><li>• Folkways</li><li>• Right ways</li><li>• less vital</li><li>• human conduct</li><li>• Mores</li><li>• more stringent customs.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Acculturation is primarily associated with cultural contact . It occurs when individuals or groups from different cultural backgrounds come into direct and sustained contact with each other , leading to the exchange and modification of cultural practices, beliefs and values . This process can significantly impact health behaviors, attitudes and practices , making it a key consideration in culturally sensitive healthcare .</li><li>➤ Acculturation</li><li>➤ cultural contact</li><li>➤ different cultural backgrounds</li><li>➤ direct</li><li>➤ sustained contact</li><li>➤ each other</li><li>➤ exchange</li><li>➤ modification of cultural practices, beliefs and values</li><li>➤ health behaviors, attitudes and practices</li><li>➤ culturally sensitive healthcare</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 760.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 760.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During his first few weeks in medical school, Rajan, a student who grew up in an urban environment, found himself intrigued by the behaviors, values, and practices of his classmates who hailed from various cultural backgrounds. He observed them adopting specific behaviors and norms typical of the medical community. This experience made Rajan realize the significance of a specific process by which individuals integrate into a new cultural or social setting. What is this process called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Acculturation", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Socialization", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Custom", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Socialism", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Socialization", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Socialization</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Acculturation: It means cultural contact . Mixing of two different cultures creates a new one is called Acculturation . It occurs by means of Marriage, Conquest etc.</li><li>• Option A. Acculturation:</li><li>• cultural contact</li><li>• two different cultures</li><li>• Acculturation</li><li>• Marriage, Conquest</li><li>• Option C. Custom: Established patterns of behavior relevant to a particular social setting .</li><li>• Option C. Custom:</li><li>• patterns</li><li>• behavior</li><li>• particular social setting</li><li>• Option D. Socialism: This is an economic doctrine that favors the use of property and resources of the country for public welfare; it is a system of production and distribution based on social ownership.</li><li>• Option D.</li><li>• Socialism:</li><li>• economic doctrine</li><li>• favors</li><li>• property</li><li>• resources</li><li>• country</li><li>• public welfare;</li><li>• production</li><li>• distribution</li><li>• social ownership.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Socialization is the process by which individuals learn and internalize the behaviors , values, norms and roles of a particular culture or social group . It helps individuals integrate into their new cultural or social setting and acquire the knowledge and skills necessary to function effectively within that environment.</li><li>➤ Socialization</li><li>➤ individuals learn</li><li>➤ internalize</li><li>➤ behaviors</li><li>➤ values, norms</li><li>➤ culture</li><li>➤ social group</li><li>➤ integrate</li><li>➤ new cultural</li><li>➤ social setting</li><li>➤ acquire</li><li>➤ knowledge</li><li>➤ skills necessary</li><li>➤ effectively</li><li>➤ environment.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 761</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 761</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Sameer is conducting a health campaign in a rural village to promote the importance of childhood vaccination. During his interactions, he encounters a group of parents who express a temporary concern about vaccine side effects due to recent news coverage, even though they had been previously favorable towards vaccines. This temporary view held by the parents is best termed as?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Belief", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Opinion", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Emotion", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Attitude", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Opinion", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Opinion</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Belief: Permanent, subjective, stable and almost unchangeable views.</li><li>• Option A. Belief:</li><li>• Permanent, subjective, stable</li><li>• unchangeable views.</li><li>• Option C. Emotion: Strong feelings that motivate human behavior . The most common emotion is Fear.</li><li>• Option C. Emotion:</li><li>• Strong feelings</li><li>• motivate human behavior</li><li>• most</li><li>• Fear.</li><li>• Option D. Attitude: More or less permanent ways of behavior based on objective organization of beliefs on object/person/situation.</li><li>• Option D. Attitude:</li><li>• More or less permanent</li><li>• objective organization</li><li>• beliefs on object/person/situation.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Opinion refers to an individual's view or judgment on a particular matter, which can be influenced by various factors , including new information or experiences.</li><li>➤ Opinion</li><li>➤ individual's view</li><li>➤ judgment</li><li>➤ particular matter,</li><li>➤ influenced</li><li>➤ various factors</li><li>➤ new information</li><li>➤ experiences.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 766</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 766</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 5-year-old child is forcibly separated from his father due to a court-ordered custody decision. This situation exemplifies which of the following?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Problem family", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Dysfunctional Family", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Broken family", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "New Family", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Broken family", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Broken family</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Problem families: Problem families are those which lag behind the rest of the community. In these families, the standards of life are generally far below the accepted minimum and parents are unable to meet the physical and emotional needs of their children . Family lags in progress behind the rest of the community due to relationships problems , poverty and illnesses .</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• Problem families:</li><li>• lag behind</li><li>• rest</li><li>• standards</li><li>• life</li><li>• far below</li><li>• minimum</li><li>• parents</li><li>• unable</li><li>• physical and emotional</li><li>• their children</li><li>• Family lags</li><li>• behind</li><li>• relationships problems</li><li>• poverty</li><li>• illnesses</li><li>• Option B. Dysfunctional Family : Is a family in which conflict, misbehavior and even abuse on the part of individual members of the family occur continually , leading other members to accommodate such actions .</li><li>• Option B.</li><li>• Dysfunctional Family</li><li>• which conflict, misbehavior</li><li>• abuse</li><li>• individual members</li><li>• family</li><li>• continually</li><li>• other members</li><li>• accommodate</li><li>• actions</li><li>• Option D: New Family is a family where marriage duration is less than 10 years . They are targeted for contraceptive services by the RCH program.</li><li>• Option D: New Family</li><li>• less than 10 years</li><li>• RCH program.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Broken family , which is characterized by the dissolution of the marital relationship between the parents or caregivers . The term \" broken family \" is commonly used in the context of family dynamics and describes a family structure where the parents are no longer together.</li><li>➤ Broken family</li><li>➤ dissolution</li><li>➤ marital relationship between</li><li>➤ parents or caregivers</li><li>➤ broken family</li><li>➤ family dynamics</li><li>➤ describes</li><li>➤ family structure</li><li>➤ parents</li><li>➤ no longer together.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 775</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg. 775</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a public health seminar, a speaker is discussing Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and how it plays a role in understanding human motivations and behavior. Which of the following represents the correct sequence, starting from the most basic needs at the bottom to the highest needs at the top?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Physiological needs, Self-actualization needs, esteem needs, Safety needs, and social needs", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Physiological needs, social needs, Safety needs, Self-actualization needs, Esteem needs", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Physiological needs, Safety needs, social needs, Esteem needs, Self-actualization needs", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Physiological needs, Esteem needs, social needs, Self-actualization needs, Safety needs.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Physiological needs, Safety needs, social needs, Esteem needs, Self-actualization needs", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/picture82.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Physiological needs, Safety needs, social needs, Esteem needs, Self-actualization needs</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a theory in psychology proposed by Abraham Maslow in his 1943 paper \" A Theory of Human Motivation .\" It is often depicted as a pyramid with the most fundamental levels of needs at the bottom and the need for self-actualization at the top . The correct sequence from the bottom to the top is:</li><li>• Maslow's Hierarchy</li><li>• psychology proposed</li><li>• Abraham Maslow</li><li>• 1943 paper</li><li>• A Theory of Human Motivation</li><li>• pyramid</li><li>• fundamental levels</li><li>• needs</li><li>• bottom</li><li>• self-actualization</li><li>• top</li><li>• correct</li><li>• bottom</li><li>• top</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The correct sequence of Maslow's Hierarchy of Need Model is - Physiological needs, Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs, Self-actualization needs.</li><li>➤ correct sequence</li><li>➤ Maslow's Hierarchy of Need Model</li><li>➤ Physiological needs, Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs, Self-actualization needs.</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 986</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg. 986</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Dr. Shashi is a public health officer working in an urban health center in India. He is assessing the socioeconomic status of families in his area to allocate resources appropriately. He decided to use the Modified Kuppuswamy socioeconomic scale for his assessment. A junior intern accompanying him asks about the components considered in the Modified Kuppuswamy scale. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Modified Kuppuswamy socioeconomic scale?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Education", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Occupation", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Family income", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Per capita Income", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Per capita Income", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Per capita Income</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswami Scale is widely used to assess the socioeconomic status of individuals or families in India. It takes into account three key components to determine socioeconomic status:</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswami Scale</li><li>• socioeconomic status</li><li>• individuals</li><li>• families</li><li>• three</li><li>• components</li><li>• socioeconomic status:</li><li>• Education: The level of education attained by the head of the household is considered as a proxy for the overall educational status of the family. Occupation: The occupation of the head of the household is used to assess the economic status of the family . Income: The total monthly family income is another important indicator of socioeconomic status.</li><li>• Education: The level of education attained by the head of the household is considered as a proxy for the overall educational status of the family.</li><li>• Education:</li><li>• head</li><li>• household</li><li>• a proxy</li><li>• overall educational</li><li>• family.</li><li>• Occupation: The occupation of the head of the household is used to assess the economic status of the family .</li><li>• Occupation:</li><li>• head</li><li>• household</li><li>• economic status</li><li>• .</li><li>• Income: The total monthly family income is another important indicator of socioeconomic status.</li><li>• Income:</li><li>• total monthly family income</li><li>• socioeconomic status.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Modified Kuppuswami Scale evaluates socioeconomic status in India using three criteria: education and occupation of the household head , and total family income .</li><li>➤ Modified Kuppuswami Scale</li><li>➤ socioeconomic status</li><li>➤ education</li><li>➤ occupation</li><li>➤ household head</li><li>➤ total family income</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed, pg 780</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed, pg 780</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following correctly matches the socioeconomic status (SES) scale to its appropriate application in rural or urban areas in India?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Modified Kuppuswamy Scale – Rural areas", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BG Prasad Scale – Urban areas", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Udai Pareek Scale – Rural areas", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Bhardwaj Scale – Industrialists", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Udai Pareek Scale – Rural areas", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Udai Pareek Scale – Rural areas</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Udai Pareek Scale is specifically designed to assess socioeconomic status in rural settings. It includes indicators such as landholding, caste, housing, and type of family, which are more relevant in rural India.</li><li>• Udai Pareek Scale</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswamy Scale is used for urban populations and considers education, occupation, and income as primary indicators.</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswamy Scale</li><li>• BG Prasad Scale (and its modified versions) is applicable to rural populations and is primarily used in community-based health research, especially where income is the main determinant.</li><li>• BG Prasad Scale (and its modified versions)</li><li>• Bhardwaj scale is used to evaluate socioeconomic status of students</li><li>• Bhardwaj scale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective :</li><li>➤ Urban SES scales include Modified Kuppuswamy Scale, Kulshreshtha Scale, Srivastava Scale and Jalota Scale. Rural SES scales include Udai Pareek Scale, Modified B. G. Prasad Scale, Radhukar Scale and Shirpurkar Scale. International SES scales include Hollingshead (Occupation based) Scale and Henderson Scale. Students SES scales include Bhardwaj scale.</li><li>➤ Urban SES scales</li><li>➤ Rural SES scales</li><li>➤ International SES scales</li><li>➤ Students SES scales</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 26 th ed., pg 780</li><li>➤ Ref. Park 26 th ed., pg 780</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Community medicine Postgraduate resident is keen on understanding the socioeconomic status of the rural families in her posting area to help design targeted health interventions for her research. An intern on a rural rotation inquires about tools specifically designed for the assessment of socioeconomic status in rural settings. Which of the following scales is specifically used to measure the socioeconomic status for rural areas only?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Kuppuswamy scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Udai Pareek Scale", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Jalota Scale", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Srivastava Scale", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Udai Pareek Scale", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-160900.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Udai Pareek Scale</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Udai Pareek Socioeconomic scale is used for rural areas . It based on 9 parameters - caste, occupation, education, land holding, social participation, family size, housing, farm power and material possession.</li><li>• Udai Pareek Socioeconomic scale</li><li>• rural areas</li><li>• 9 parameters</li><li>• caste, occupation, education, land holding, social participation, family size, housing, farm power</li><li>• material possession.</li><li>• Scales for Socio-Economic Status:</li><li>• Scales for Socio-Economic Status:</li><li>• 1. Urban Scale</li><li>• 1. Urban Scale</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswami Scale Kulshreshtha Scale Srivastava Scale Jalota Scale</li><li>• Modified Kuppuswami Scale</li><li>• Kulshreshtha Scale</li><li>• Srivastava Scale</li><li>• Jalota Scale</li><li>• 2. Rural Scale</li><li>• 2. Rural Scale</li><li>• Udai Pareek Scale Modified BG Prasad Scale Radhukar Scale Shirpurkar Scale</li><li>• Udai Pareek Scale</li><li>• Modified BG Prasad Scale</li><li>• Radhukar Scale</li><li>• Shirpurkar Scale</li><li>• 3. Students Scale</li><li>• 3. Students Scale</li><li>• Bhardwaj Scale</li><li>• Bhardwaj Scale</li><li>• 4. Non-Indian Scale</li><li>• 4. Non-Indian Scale</li><li>• Hollingshead Scale (Occupation based) Henderson Scale</li><li>• Hollingshead Scale (Occupation based)</li><li>• Henderson Scale</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Udai Pareek Socioeconomic scale is used for rural areas , while Modified Kuppuswamy is for urban area.</li><li>➤ Udai Pareek Socioeconomic scale</li><li>➤ rural areas</li><li>➤ Modified Kuppuswamy</li><li>➤ urban area.</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg 71</li><li>➤ Ref : IAPSM textbook, 1 st ed, pg 71</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A junior resident is assessing the economic well-being of a rural area as part of her postgraduate project. She recalls the criteria used to define the poverty line for rural areas in terms of purchasing capacity. According to this criterion, what is the threshold for calorie intake per person per day below which an individual in a rural area is considered below the poverty line?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1900", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "2100", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "2400", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "2800", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 2400", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-161445.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 2400</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Poverty threshold (poverty line): Is the minimum level of income deemed necessary to achieve an adequate standard of living.</li><li>• Poverty threshold (poverty line):</li><li>• minimum level</li><li>• income</li><li>• achieve</li><li>• adequate standard</li><li>• living.</li><li>• Rural area - The poverty line is the inability to buy adequate food calories equivalent to 2400 per day/head.</li><li>• Rural area -</li><li>• poverty line</li><li>• inability</li><li>• buy adequate food calories</li><li>• 2400 per day/head.</li><li>• Urban area - Inability to buy adequate food calories equivalent to 2100 per day/head.</li><li>• Urban area</li><li>• Inability</li><li>• buy adequate food calories</li><li>• 2100 per day/head.</li><li>• Below Poverty Line (BPL) population in India -</li><li>• Below Poverty Line</li><li>• 22% (Tendulkar Committee 2011-12) 29.5% (Rangarajan Committee 2014) 11.3% (Niti Aayog 2022-23)</li><li>• 22% (Tendulkar Committee 2011-12)</li><li>• 22%</li><li>• 29.5% (Rangarajan Committee 2014)</li><li>• 29.5%</li><li>• 11.3% (Niti Aayog 2022-23)</li><li>• 11.3%</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Below Poverty Line (BPL) Criteria -</li><li>➤ Below Poverty Line (BPL) Criteria -</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, Pg 84.</li><li>➤ Ref : Textbook of community medicine, Rajvir Balwar, Pg 84.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Which of the following is the primary metric often referenced when assessing the standard of living for a population?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Knowledge", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Total assets", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Per capita income", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Family size", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Per capita income", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Per capita income</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Standard of Living : Refers to the usual scale of our expenditure, goods we consume and services we enjoy.</li><li>• Standard of Living</li><li>• scale</li><li>• our expenditure, goods</li><li>• consume</li><li>• services we enjoy.</li><li>• Standard of living [WHO] includes:</li><li>• Standard of living [WHO]</li><li>• Income and Occupation Standards of housing, sanitation and nutrition. Level of provision of health, educational, recreational and other services.</li><li>• Income and Occupation</li><li>• Income</li><li>• Occupation</li><li>• Standards of housing, sanitation and nutrition.</li><li>• Standards</li><li>• housing, sanitation and nutrition.</li><li>• Level of provision of health, educational, recreational and other services.</li><li>• provision</li><li>• health, educational, recreational</li><li>• services.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The standard of living depends on ‘ Per capita GNP’</li><li>➤ standard of living</li><li>➤ Per capita GNP’</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 790.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 790.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is delivering a presentation on global nutrition and hunger issues to a group of medical students. He challenges the students to recall the components of the Global Hunger Index (GHI). While discussing the various indicators, a student lists four potential components. Which of the following indicators is NOT part of the Global Hunger Index?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Under nourishment", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Child underweight", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Longevity", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Child mortality", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Longevity", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-161659.png", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/18/picture84.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/08/12/screenshot-2024-08-12-161744.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Longevity</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Global Hunger Index (GHI) is an annual report that measures and tracks hunger and malnutrition around the world.</li><li>• Global Hunger Index (GHI)</li><li>• measures</li><li>• tracks hunger</li><li>• malnutrition</li><li>• world.</li><li>• To capture the multidimensional nature of hunger, GHI scores are based on the following indicators:</li><li>• multidimensional</li><li>• hunger,</li><li>• GHI</li><li>• Calculation -</li><li>• Proportion of Undernourished population (PNU) Wasting and Stunting in Children ( Underweight ) (CUW) Under-five mortality (U5M)</li><li>• Proportion of Undernourished population (PNU)</li><li>• Undernourished population</li><li>• Wasting and Stunting in Children ( Underweight ) (CUW)</li><li>• Wasting</li><li>• Stunting</li><li>• Underweight</li><li>• Under-five mortality (U5M)</li><li>• Under-five mortality</li><li>• GHI Classification and Interpretation:</li><li>• The International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) calculates GHI scores each year to assess progress , or the lack there of, in combating hunger .</li><li>• International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)</li><li>• GHI scores</li><li>• year</li><li>• assess progress</li><li>• lack</li><li>• combating hunger</li><li>• India, Global Hunger Index GHI 2024: Score 27.3, Serious level of hunger (Rank 105th out of the 127 countries)</li><li>• India, Global Hunger Index GHI 2024: Score 27.3, Serious level of hunger (Rank 105th out of the 127 countries)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional and country levels . It is calculated (2016) with the help of the following indicators - Child (Under 5 age) Undernourishment , Wasting (Acute undernutrition), Stunting (Chronic undernutrition) and mortality.</li><li>➤ Global Hunger Index (GHI)</li><li>➤ comprehensively measure</li><li>➤ track hunger</li><li>➤ the global, regional and country levels</li><li>➤ Child (Under 5 age)</li><li>➤ Undernourishment</li><li>➤ Wasting (Acute undernutrition), Stunting (Chronic undernutrition)</li><li>➤ mortality.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 792.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 792.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Nutritional Expert conducted a health workshop in a semi-urban school. While discussing nutrition, she highlighted that many children may consume adequate calories but still suffer from nutritional deficiencies, which aren't immediately apparent. This type of nutritional insufficiency is known as \"hidden hunger.\" Which of the following is most likely responsible for hidden hunger?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Proteins and fats", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Micronutrients", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Carbohydrates", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All of the above", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Micronutrients", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Micronutrients</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Hidden hunger (micronutrient deficiency) is a form of undernutrition that occurs when intake and absorption of vitamins and minerals (such as zinc, iodine, and iron ) are too low to sustain good health and development .</li><li>• Hidden hunger (micronutrient deficiency)</li><li>• undernutrition</li><li>• intake and absorption</li><li>• vitamins and minerals</li><li>• zinc, iodine, and iron</li><li>• too low</li><li>• good health</li><li>• development</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Hidden Hunger is micronutrient deficiency.</li><li>➤ Hidden Hunger</li><li>➤ micronutrient deficiency.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 792.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg. 792.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health researcher is collecting data in a rural community to analyze the determinants affecting the standard of living. During a community gathering, she highlights several factors and asks community members to identify which factor is least likely to directly impact the standard of living. Which of the following is NOT directly associated with determining the standard of living in a country?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "National income", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Population size", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Life expectancy of the population", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Level of education", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Life expectancy of the population", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Life expectancy of the population</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The standard of living in a country depends upon :</li><li>• standard</li><li>• living</li><li>• country depends upon</li><li>• The level of national income The total amount of goods and services a country can produce. The size of the population The level of education General price level and The distribution of national income.</li><li>• The level of national income</li><li>• national income</li><li>• The total amount of goods and services a country can produce.</li><li>• goods and services</li><li>• The size of the population</li><li>• size</li><li>• population</li><li>• The level of education</li><li>• level</li><li>• education</li><li>• General price level and</li><li>• General price level</li><li>• The distribution of national income.</li><li>• distribution</li><li>• national income.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Standard of Living : Refers to the usual scale of our expenditure, goods we consume and services we enjoy . As per WHO , the Standard of living includes Income and Occupation , Standards of housing, sanitation and nutrition , Level of provision of health, education , recreational and other services.</li><li>➤ Standard of Living</li><li>➤ usual scale</li><li>➤ expenditure,</li><li>➤ goods</li><li>➤ consume</li><li>➤ services</li><li>➤ enjoy</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ Standard</li><li>➤ living</li><li>➤ Income</li><li>➤ Occupation</li><li>➤ Standards</li><li>➤ housing, sanitation</li><li>➤ nutrition</li><li>➤ provision</li><li>➤ health, education</li><li>➤ recreational</li><li>➤ services.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 762.</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg. 762.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 37 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 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Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">
<div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Instructions</h2> <h4 class="text-gray-800 text-lg font-semibold mt-6 mb-4">Test Features:</h4> <ul class="space-y-3"> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Multiple choice questions with single correct answers </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Timer-based testing for realistic exam conditions </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mark questions for review functionality </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Comprehensive results and performance analysis </li> <li class="flex items-center gap-3"> <i class="fa-solid fa-circle-check text-green-500"></i> Mobile-optimized interface for learning on-the-go </li> </ul> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="start-test">Start Test</button> </div> <div class="error-message hidden" id="error-message"></div> </div> </section> <!-- Quiz Section --> <section class="container mx-auto px-4 md:px-6 pt-4 md:pt-6 pb-1 hidden section-transition" id="quiz"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <!-- Progress Bar --> <div class="w-full bg-gray-200 rounded-full h-3 mb-4"> <div class="progress-bar h-3 rounded-full" id="progress-bar" style="width: 0%"></div> </div> <!-- Question Header --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center mb-4"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold" id="question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 4</h2> <p class="text-lg font-semibold mt-2 md:mt-0" id="timer">Time Remaining: <span>00:00</span></p> </div> <!-- Question Content --> <div class="mb-6" id="question-content"> <p class="text-gray-800 mb-4" id="question-text"></p> <div class="flex flex-wrap gap-4 mb-4" id="question-images"></div> <div class="space-y-3" id="options"></div> </div> <!-- Navigation Buttons --> <div class="flex flex-col md:flex-row justify-between items-center gap-2 md:gap-4"> <div class="flex gap-2 w-full md:w-auto"> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" disabled="" id="previous-btn">Previous</button> <button class="bg-[#2c5281] text-white px-4 py-3 w-full md:w-32 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-[#2c5281] transition" id="next-btn">Next</button> </div> <div class="flex items-center gap-2"> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="mark-review"> Review <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" class="h-5 w-5" viewBox="0 0 20 20" fill="currentColor"> <path d="M10 2a1 1 0 00-1 1v14l3.293-3.293a1 1 0 011.414 0L17 17V3a1 1 0 00-1-1H10z" /> </svg> </button> <button class="bg-transparent text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-100 transition flex items-center gap-1" id="nav-toggle"> Question 🧭 </button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-6 py-3 w-44 h-14 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition w-full md:w-auto" id="submit-test">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Results Section --> <section class="container mx-auto p-4 md:p-6 hidden section-transition" id="results"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg shadow-md p-4 md:p-6"> <h2 class="text-2xl font-semibold mb-4">Vaccines And Cold Chain - Results</h2> <div class="grid grid-cols-1 md:grid-cols-2 gap-4 mb-6"> <p><strong>Correct:</strong> <span id="correct-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Wrong:</strong> <span id="wrong-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Unanswered:</strong> <span id="unanswered-count">0</span></p> <p><strong>Marked for Review:</strong> <span id="marked-count">0</span></p> </div> <h3 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4" id="result-question-number">Question <span>1</span> of 35</h3> <div class="space-y-6" id="results-content"></div> <div class="result-nav"> <button aria-label="Previous question result" class="result-nav-btn" disabled="" id="prev-result">Previous</button> <button aria-label="Toggle results navigation panel" class="result-nav-btn" id="results-nav-toggle">Results Navigation</button> <button aria-label="Next question result" class="result-nav-btn" id="next-result">Next</button> </div> <div class="mt-6 flex space-x-4 button-group md:flex-row flex-col"> <button class="bg-blue-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-blue-600 transition" id="take-again">Take Again</button> <button class="bg-gray-500 text-white px-6 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition" id="review-test">Review Test</button> </div> </div> </section> <!-- Exit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="exit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Leave Test?</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4">Your progress will be lost if you leave this page. Are you sure you want to exit?</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="continue-test">No, Continue</button> <button class="bg-red-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-red-600 transition" id="exit-test">Yes, Exit</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Submit Confirmation Modal --> <div class="fixed inset-0 bg-black bg-opacity-50 flex items-center justify-center hidden" id="submit-modal"> <div class="bg-white rounded-lg p-6 max-w-sm w-full"> <h2 class="text-xl font-semibold mb-4">Confirm Submission</h2> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-2">You have attempted <span id="attempted-count">0</span> of 35 questions.</p> <p class="text-gray-700 mb-4"><span id="unattempted-count">0</span> questions are unattempted.</p> <div class="flex justify-end space-x-4"> <button class="bg-gray-300 text-gray-700 px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-400 transition" id="cancel-submit">Cancel</button> <button class="bg-green-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-green-600 transition" id="confirm-submit">Submit Test</button> </div> </div> </div> <!-- Quiz Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Questions Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- Results Navigation Panel --> <div class="fixed inset-y-0 right-0 results-nav-panel bg-white shadow-lg p-4 hidden overflow-y-auto" id="results-nav-panel"> <h2 class="text-lg font-semibold mb-4">Results Navigation</h2> <div class="mb-4"> <select class="w-full p-2 border rounded-lg text-gray-700" id="results-nav-filter"> <option value="all">All Questions</option> <option value="answered">Answered</option> <option value="unanswered">Unanswered</option> <option value="marked">Marked for Review</option> </select> </div> <div class="grid grid-cols-5 gap-2 md:gap-3" id="results-nav-grid"></div> <button class="mt-4 bg-gray-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg hover:bg-gray-600 transition w-full" id="close-results-nav">Close</button> </div> <!-- JavaScript Logic --> <script> // Enable debug mode for detailed logging const DEBUG_MODE = true; // Log debug messages function debugLog(message) { if (DEBUG_MODE) { console.log(`[DEBUG] ${message}`); } } // Initialize questions with error handling let questions = []; let currentResultQuestion = 0; // State for current question in results try { debugLog("Attempting to parse questions_json"); questions = [{"text": "A 14-week-old infant is brought to a Primary Health Center for routine immunizations. During this visit, she receives all her scheduled vaccines, but the Rota Virus Vaccine (RVV) is unavailable due to a shortage. As a result, she misses her third dose of RVV and is advised to return when it's available. For optimal immunization scheduling, it's important to know the minimum recommended interval between the administration of the RVV and other vaccines if they are not given on the same day. What is this minimum recommended interval before administering the RVV, following the administration of other vaccines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1 day", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1 week", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "3 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. 3 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. 3 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• General rules for multiple vaccine administration :</li><li>• rules</li><li>• multiple vaccine administration</li><li>• 2 live vaccines can be given together Live and killed vaccines can be given together Live vaccine should not be administered to immuno-deficient or immunosuppressed persons 2 live vaccines can be administered simultaneously at different sites (or at an interval of 3 weeks) Cholera vaccine and Yellow fever vaccine cannot be given together OPV is the only live vaccine where a single dose is not sufficient for immunization</li><li>• 2 live vaccines can be given together</li><li>• 2 live vaccines</li><li>• together</li><li>• Live and killed vaccines can be given together</li><li>• Live and killed vaccines</li><li>• together</li><li>• Live vaccine should not be administered to immuno-deficient or immunosuppressed persons</li><li>• Live vaccine</li><li>• not</li><li>• immuno-deficient or immunosuppressed</li><li>• 2 live vaccines can be administered simultaneously at different sites (or at an interval of 3 weeks)</li><li>• 2 live vaccines</li><li>• at different sites</li><li>• Cholera vaccine and Yellow fever vaccine cannot be given together</li><li>• Cholera vaccine and Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• cannot</li><li>• together</li><li>• OPV is the only live vaccine where a single dose is not sufficient for immunization</li><li>• OPV</li><li>• only live vaccine</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• not sufficient</li><li>• immunization</li><li>• Rules for Live Vaccine and Immunoglobulin :</li><li>• Rules</li><li>• Live Vaccine and Immunoglobulin</li><li>• Live vaccines should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an injection of normal human Ig If a live vaccine has already been given, NHIg injection should be deferred for 2 weeks</li><li>• Live vaccines should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an injection of normal human Ig</li><li>• Live vaccines</li><li>• not</li><li>• 12 weeks</li><li>• after</li><li>• normal human Ig</li><li>• If a live vaccine has already been given, NHIg injection should be deferred for 2 weeks</li><li>• live vaccine</li><li>• given,</li><li>• NHIg</li><li>• deferred</li><li>• 2 weeks</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Two live vaccines can be administered simultaneously at different sites (or at an interval of 3 weeks )</li><li>➤ Two live vaccines</li><li>➤ administered</li><li>➤ at different sites</li><li>➤ interval</li><li>➤ 3 weeks</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During an immunization logistics workshop, attendees, who include healthcare professionals and logistics coordinators, are learning about the cold chain system used for vaccine storage at different levels. One of the topics covered is the appropriate cold chain equipment for vaccine storage at the regional level. Knowing the correct type of equipment used at each level of the cold chain is crucial for maintaining vaccine efficacy. Which type of cold chain equipment is primarily used at the regional level to store vaccines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Walk in Freezer", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Large Deep freezer", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Ice line refrigerator", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Small Deep freezer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Walk in Freezer", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-160928_8DdLgqd.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Walk in Freezer</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B. Large Deep freezer : at district level , can store vaccine for 1 month, temperature is –15°C to –25°C</li><li>• Option B. Large Deep freezer</li><li>• district level</li><li>• 1 month,</li><li>• –15°C to –25°C</li><li>• Option C. Ice line refrigerator ( ILR) : This is the most important component of the cold chain in India . Temperature of ILR (Cold chain) in India is +2°C to +8°C. ILR is used for storage of all vaccines . ILRs can maintain temperature of vaccines if provided with even 8 hours of uninterrupted electricity per day .</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Ice line refrigerator (</li><li>• ILR)</li><li>• cold chain</li><li>• India</li><li>• Temperature</li><li>• ILR (Cold chain)</li><li>• +2°C to +8°C.</li><li>• ILR</li><li>• storage</li><li>• all vaccines</li><li>• ILRs</li><li>• temperature of vaccines</li><li>• even 8 hours</li><li>• uninterrupted electricity per day</li><li>• Option D. Small Deep freezer : At PHC level, can store vaccine for 1 month, temperature is –15°C to –25°C</li><li>• Option D. Small Deep freezer</li><li>• PHC level,</li><li>• 1 month,</li><li>• –15°C to –25°C</li><li>• Some important Pointers -</li><li>• Most important component of cold chain in India : ILR</li><li>• important</li><li>• component</li><li>• cold chain</li><li>• India</li><li>• ILR</li><li>• Minimum level of vaccine storage (in cold chain) in India: Primary health centre (below PHC level, vaccines are ‘ transported to sub-centres on immunization days’ in vaccine carriers and day carriers ).</li><li>• Minimum level</li><li>• Primary health centre</li><li>• transported to sub-centres</li><li>• immunization days’</li><li>• vaccine carriers and day carriers</li><li>• Maximum chance of cold chain failure in India: Sub-centre and village level</li><li>• Maximum chance of cold chain</li><li>• failure</li><li>• Sub-centre and village level</li><li>• Instrument used to monitor the temperature of cold chain at PHC: Dial Thermometer.</li><li>• Instrument</li><li>• monitor</li><li>• temperature of cold chain</li><li>• Dial Thermometer.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cold chain components (equipments) and levels in India:</li><li>➤ Cold chain components</li><li>➤ levels in India:</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27th ed pg 118-120</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27th ed pg 118-120</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a seminar on immunoglobulin therapy, a discussion arises about the World Health Organization (WHO) standards for Normal Human Immunoglobulin (NHIG) preparation. The speaker presents various criteria that define these standards and asks the audience to identify which of the given options is NOT included in the WHO standards for NHIG. This question aims to highlight a specific aspect of NHIG preparation that does not align with WHO guidelines.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "90% should be Ig G", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "All IgG subclass should be present", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Should contain high concentration of Ig A", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Should contain antibody against at least 2 bacterial and viral species", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Should contain high concentration of Ig A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Should contain high concentration of IgA</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. 90% should be Ig G : Correct. This ensures the primary immunoglobulin in NHIG is IgG , known for its antibody activity against pathogens.</li><li>• Option A. 90% should be Ig G</li><li>• primary immunoglobulin</li><li>• NHIG</li><li>• IgG</li><li>• antibody</li><li>• activity against pathogens.</li><li>• Option B. All IgG subclass should be present : Correct. This is to maintain a broad spectrum of antibody activity .</li><li>• Option B. All IgG subclass should be present</li><li>• broad spectrum of antibody activity</li><li>• Option D. Should contain antibody against atleast 2 bacterial and viral species : Correct. This criterion ensures the NHIG is effective against a range of pathogens.</li><li>• Option D. Should contain antibody against atleast 2 bacterial and viral species</li><li>• ensures</li><li>• NHIG</li><li>• effective against</li><li>• range of pathogens.</li><li>• The Normal Human Immunoglobulin preparation should contain:</li><li>• Normal Human Immunoglobulin</li><li>• contain:</li><li>• At least 90 percent intact IgG It should be as free as possible from IgG aggregates All IgG sub-classes should be present There should be a low IgA concentration The level of antibody against at least two bacterial species and two viruses should be ascertained etc</li><li>• At least 90 percent intact IgG</li><li>• 90 percent</li><li>• IgG</li><li>• It should be as free as possible from IgG aggregates</li><li>• free</li><li>• IgG aggregates</li><li>• All IgG sub-classes should be present</li><li>• IgG sub-classes</li><li>• present</li><li>• There should be a low IgA concentration</li><li>• low IgA concentration</li><li>• The level of antibody against at least two bacterial species and two viruses should be ascertained etc</li><li>• level of</li><li>• antibody against</li><li>• two bacterial species</li><li>• two viruses</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO standards for Normal Human Immunoglobulin preparation , focus on the predominance of IgG (90%) and the presence of all IgG subclasses , and low concentration of IgA</li><li>➤ WHO standards</li><li>➤ Normal Human Immunoglobulin preparation</li><li>➤ predominance</li><li>➤ IgG (90%)</li><li>➤ all IgG subclasses</li><li>➤ low concentration</li><li>➤ IgA</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 115</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 115</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 9-month-old child who has not received any immunizations is brought to a Primary Health Centre in India. As per the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) schedule followed in India, it is essential to determine which vaccines the child should receive at this age to catch up with the national immunization schedule. For a 9-month-old infant who is unimmunized, which of the following vaccines should be administered according to the UIP schedule?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "MR1, JE1, IPV, PCV and Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "MR1, JE1, PCV and Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMR1, JE1, PCV and Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "MR1, JE1, PCV, DPT Booster and Vitamin A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. MR1, JE1, IPV, PCV and Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-173401_atjAruH.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) MR1, JE1, IPV, PCV and Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Vaccines to be given in situations of delayed immunizations in India – 9 month old unimmunized child comes for immunization first time -</li><li>• Vaccines</li><li>• delayed immunizations in India</li><li>• 9 month old unimmunized child</li><li>• immunization first time</li><li>• BCG (Direct) OPV1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart, booster after 1 year of 3rd dose) Pentavalent-1 /DPT1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart, booster after 1 year of 3rd dose) + HepB1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart) + HiB1 (2 successive doses 1 month apart) Measles-1/MR-1 Vitamin A (1 Lac IU) IPV-1 PCV-1 JE-1 Rota V-1</li><li>• BCG (Direct)</li><li>• OPV1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart, booster after 1 year of 3rd dose)</li><li>• Pentavalent-1 /DPT1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart, booster after 1 year of 3rd dose) + HepB1 (3 successive doses 1 month apart) + HiB1 (2 successive doses 1 month apart)</li><li>• Measles-1/MR-1</li><li>• Vitamin A (1 Lac IU)</li><li>• IPV-1</li><li>• PCV-1</li><li>• JE-1</li><li>• Rota V-1</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cases of delayed immunization -</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 135, NTAGI recommendations 2022</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 135, NTAGI recommendations 2022</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A Community Medicine SR is conducting a session with medical students on vaccine formulations and their components. During the session, the topic shifts to the use of adjuvants in vaccines and their specific roles. The pediatrician highlights the Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, pointing out that it contains aluminum phosphate. The students are then asked to consider why aluminum phosphate is included in this vaccine. What is the primary role of aluminum phosphate in the DTaP vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Detoxifies the micro organisms", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Stabilizes the antigen", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Enhances the immune response", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Preservatives", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Enhances the immune response", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Enhances the immune response</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Detoxifies the microorganisms : Preservatives are used to detoxify the microorganisms. Antibiotics are used during the manufacturing phase to prevent bacterial contamination of the tissue culture cells in which the viruses are grown .</li><li>• Option A. Detoxifies the microorganisms</li><li>• Preservatives</li><li>• detoxify</li><li>• microorganisms.</li><li>• Antibiotics</li><li>• used</li><li>• prevent bacterial contamination</li><li>• tissue culture cells</li><li>• viruses are grown</li><li>• Option B . Stabilizes the antigen: Stabilizers acts by controlling acidity (pH); stabilizing antigens through necessary steps in the manufacturing process, such as freeze drying ; and preventing antigens from adhering to the sides of glass vials with a resultant loss in immunogenicity .</li><li>• Option B</li><li>• Stabilizes the antigen:</li><li>• Stabilizers</li><li>• acidity (pH); stabilizing antigens</li><li>• freeze drying</li><li>• preventing antigens</li><li>• adhering</li><li>• glass vials</li><li>• resultant loss</li><li>• immunogenicity</li><li>• Examples - potassium or sodium salts, lactose, human serum albumin and a variety of animal proteins, such as gelatin and bovine serum albumin.</li><li>• potassium or sodium salts, lactose, human serum albumin</li><li>• gelatin</li><li>• bovine serum albumin.</li><li>• Option D. Preservatives: These are the chemicals (e.g. thiomersal, formaldehyde ) added to killed or subunit vaccines in order to inactivate viruses , detoxify bacterial toxins , and to prevent serious secondary infections as a result of bacterial or fungal contamination.</li><li>• Option D. Preservatives:</li><li>• thiomersal, formaldehyde</li><li>• killed or subunit vaccines</li><li>• inactivate viruses</li><li>• detoxify bacterial toxins</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• secondary</li><li>• infections</li><li>• bacterial or fungal contamination.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The role of adjuvants like aluminum phosphate in vaccines, which is to enhance the immune response to the antigen , as seen in the Diphtheria vaccine.</li><li>➤ role of adjuvants</li><li>➤ aluminum phosphate</li><li>➤ enhance</li><li>➤ immune response</li><li>➤ antigen</li><li>➤ Diphtheria vaccine.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 114</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 114</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A community health worker is conducting a routine immunization camp in a rural village. During her visit, she encounters a mother with a 10-month-old boy who has not been vaccinated due to the family's constant relocations. The mother is now eager to start her child's vaccinations. Given the child's age and lack of prior immunizations, the community health worker needs to recommend a combination of vaccines for immediate administration to catch up with the standard immunization schedule. Which combination of vaccines should she recommend for the 10-month-old boy to protect him against preventable diseases?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG, pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV, MR, JE and Vitamin A", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCG, Pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV and after 4 weeks MR, JE, Vitamin A", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "BCG, DPT, Hepatitis B, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "BCG, DPT, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV, MR, JE and Vitamin A", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. BCG, pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV, MR, JE and Vitamin A", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-170954_LHU9k98.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-173401.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) BCG, pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, PCV, IPV, MR, JE and Vitamin A</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• It is safe and effective to give BCG, Penta, OPV, IPV, MR, RVV, PCV and JE (where applicable) vaccines and Vitamin A at the same time to a 9-month-old child who has never been vaccinated.</li><li>• safe and effective</li><li>• BCG, Penta, OPV, IPV, MR, RVV, PCV</li><li>• JE</li><li>• vaccines</li><li>• Vitamin A</li><li>• 9-month-old</li><li>• never</li><li>• vaccinated.</li><li>• If more than one injection has to be given in one limb then ensure that the distance between the two injection sites is at least 1 inch apart.</li><li>• more</li><li>• one injection</li><li>• given</li><li>• one limb</li><li>• distance between</li><li>• two injection sites</li><li>• 1 inch apart.</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Cases of delayed Immunization -</li><li>• Cases of delayed Immunization -</li><li>• Ref: Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 21; IAP Guidebook on Immunization</li><li>• Ref:</li><li>• Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 21; IAP Guidebook on Immunization</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 35-year-old woman from Brazil arrives at a major international airport in India. She is scheduled to travel to various rural areas in India for a pilgrimage. She is in good health and has no history of recent illnesses. As the airport's medical officer reviewing her health documentation, you note that she has completed most recommended vaccinations for travel. Considering her origin and travel plans, which of the following vaccination certificates is most important to verify for her?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Hepatitis A", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Japanese encephalitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Yellow fever", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Yellow fever", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Yellow fever</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Hepatitis A: Hepatitis A vaccination is generally recommended for travelers to areas with high endemicity. It's not specifically required for entry into India .</li><li>• Option A. Hepatitis A:</li><li>• travelers</li><li>• high endemicity.</li><li>• not</li><li>• entry into India</li><li>• Option B. BCG: It's not a standard travel vaccine.</li><li>• Option B. BCG:</li><li>• not</li><li>• Option C. Japanese Encephalitis: This vaccine is recommended for travelers to Asia who will be spending a lot of time outdoors in rural areas , but it's not a standard requirement for entry into India.</li><li>• Option C. Japanese Encephalitis:</li><li>• travelers to Asia</li><li>• spending</li><li>• outdoors in rural areas</li><li>• not</li><li>• entry into India.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ India is a ‘Yellow Fever receptive’ area: Population is unvaccinated and susceptible to Yellow Fever . Under IHR Travellers must possess a valid International certificate of vaccination ( validity 10 days–Lifelong ) against YF before they enter ‘YF receptive areas’</li><li>➤ India is a ‘Yellow Fever receptive’ area: Population is unvaccinated and susceptible to Yellow Fever .</li><li>➤ India</li><li>➤ ‘Yellow Fever receptive’</li><li>➤ unvaccinated</li><li>➤ susceptible</li><li>➤ Yellow Fever</li><li>➤ Under IHR Travellers must possess a valid International certificate of vaccination ( validity 10 days–Lifelong ) against YF before they enter ‘YF receptive areas’</li><li>➤ IHR Travellers</li><li>➤ valid International certificate</li><li>➤ validity 10 days–Lifelong</li><li>➤ YF before</li><li>➤ enter ‘YF receptive areas’</li><li>➤ Ref : PARK 26 th ed 324</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : PARK 26 th ed 324</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A medical student is reviewing concepts of immunology. While discussing active immunity, the student is asked to identify which of the following methods does NOT confer active immunity. Which option should the student choose?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Exposure to infections", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inoculation of Immunoglobulins", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunization with killed vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Exposure to subclinical infection", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Inoculation of Immunoglobulins", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. Inoculation of Immunoglobulins</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Active immunity may be acquired in 3 ways:</li><li>• Active immunity may be acquired in 3 ways:</li><li>• Option A. Exposure to infections: Following clinical infection, e.g., chickenpox, rubella, and measles.</li><li>• Option A. Exposure to infections:</li><li>• clinical</li><li>• chickenpox, rubella, and measles.</li><li>• Option C. Immunization with killed vaccine: Following immunization with an antigen which may be a killed vaccine, a live attenuated vaccine, or toxoid.</li><li>• Option C. Immunization with killed vaccine:</li><li>• immunization</li><li>• antigen</li><li>• killed vaccine, a live attenuated vaccine, or toxoid.</li><li>• Option D. Exposure to subclinical infection: Following subclinical or inapparent infection, e.g., polio and diphtheria.</li><li>• Option D. Exposure to subclinical infection:</li><li>• inapparent</li><li>• polio and diphtheria.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Active immunity may be acquired through clinical or subclinical infection or immunization, while Immunoglobins render passive immunity.</li><li>➤ Active immunity</li><li>➤ acquired</li><li>➤ clinical or subclinical infection or immunization,</li><li>➤ Immunoglobins</li><li>➤ passive immunity.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 109.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 109.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 28-year-old man, planning an adventurous journey to a region known for exotic infectious diseases, consults a travel clinic for necessary immunizations. During his visit, he receives a vaccine to protect against a specific pathogen prevalent in his travel destination. In the context of his body's immune response to this vaccine, which type of antibody will his immune system predominantly produce first? This initial antibody plays a pivotal role in the primary immune response, acting as the first line of defense against new pathogens.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "IgG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IgM", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "IgA", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "IgD", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IgM", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. IgM</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Types of immunoglobulins -</li><li>• Types of immunoglobulins -</li><li>• IgG: Comprises 85% of total serum immunoglobulins, largely extravascular , the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta.</li><li>• IgG:</li><li>• 85%</li><li>• total serum immunoglobulins,</li><li>• extravascular</li><li>• cross the placenta.</li><li>• IgM: Comprises 10% of total serum immunoglobulins , indicative of recent infection, has high agglutinating and complement-fixating ability.</li><li>• IgM:</li><li>• 10% of total serum immunoglobulins</li><li>• recent infection,</li><li>• high agglutinating</li><li>• complement-fixating</li><li>• IgA: Comprises 15% of total serum immunoglobulins, predominantly found in secretions, primary defence mechanism at mucous membranes</li><li>• IgA:</li><li>• 15% of total serum immunoglobulins,</li><li>• found</li><li>• secretions,</li><li>• defence</li><li>• mucous membranes</li><li>• IgD: Exact function not known</li><li>• IgD:</li><li>• not known</li><li>• IgE : Concentrated in submucous tissues , responsible for immediate allergic anaphylaxis reaction.</li><li>• IgE</li><li>• submucous tissues</li><li>• immediate allergic anaphylaxis reaction.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Identify IgM as the first type of antibody produced in the primary immune response following initial vaccination or antigen exposure .</li><li>➤ Identify IgM</li><li>➤ first</li><li>➤ antibody</li><li>➤ primary immune response</li><li>➤ vaccination or antigen exposure</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26th ed pg 109.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26th ed pg 109.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a workshop on public health, a medical officer emphasizes the importance of herd immunity in preventing outbreaks. Later, during a breakout session, participants brainstorm on factors that influence herd immunity. Which of the following factors raised by a participant does NOT play a significant role in establishing or maintaining herd immunity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Subclinical infection", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Immunization of herd", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Herd structure", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Immunity through maternal antibodies", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Immunity through maternal antibodies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Immunity through maternal antibodies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd.</li><li>• Option A.</li><li>• clinical and subclinical infection</li><li>• Option B. Immunization of the herd.</li><li>• Option B. Immunization</li><li>• Option C. Herd structure (hosts, alternative animal hosts, insect vectors, environmental &amp; social factors).</li><li>• Option C.</li><li>• Herd structure</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herd immunity is the indirect protection from an infectious disease that happens when a population is immune either through vaccination or immunity developed through previous infection . It is neither possible nor necessary to achieve 100% herd immunity to control a disease . Herd immunity may be determined by Serological Surveys .</li><li>➤ Herd immunity</li><li>➤ indirect</li><li>➤ protection</li><li>➤ infectious disease</li><li>➤ population</li><li>➤ immune</li><li>➤ vaccination or immunity</li><li>➤ previous infection</li><li>➤ neither</li><li>➤ nor</li><li>➤ achieve</li><li>➤ 100% herd immunity</li><li>➤ control</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ determined</li><li>➤ Serological Surveys</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 110.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 110.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A public health official is addressing a group of healthcare professionals about the critical role of vaccinations in controlling infectious diseases. The official emphasizes the concept of herd immunity, which occurs when a significant portion of a community is vaccinated, thereby providing indirect protection to those who are not vaccinated. This phenomenon can effectively prevent the spread of certain infectious diseases. However, not all diseases can be controlled through herd immunity. The official poses a question to the audience: Among following diseases, which one does NOT benefit from herd immunity?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Diphtheria", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Poliomyelitis", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Tetanus", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Tetanus", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-154429_HY7EM4y.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Tetanus</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Options: In the cases of Diphtheria (Option A), Poliomyelitis (Option B), and Measles (Option D ), the pathogens are transmitted between individuals , and a high level of community immunity can prevent their spread, protecting even those who are not immunized . High vaccination rates in a population can provide herd immunity , reducing the likelihood of outbreaks .</li><li>• Options:</li><li>• Diphtheria (Option A), Poliomyelitis (Option B), and Measles (Option D</li><li>• pathogens</li><li>• transmitted</li><li>• between individuals</li><li>• high level</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• protecting</li><li>• not immunized</li><li>• High vaccination rates</li><li>• herd immunity</li><li>• reducing</li><li>• outbreaks</li><li>• Herd Immunity is the level of resistance of a community or group of people to a particular disease . It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals . It helps to protect vulnerable people like babies , the elderly and to those who are immunocompromised.</li><li>• Herd Immunity</li><li>• level of resistance</li><li>• particular disease</li><li>• group protection</li><li>• afforded</li><li>• protection of immunized individuals</li><li>• protect vulnerable people</li><li>• babies</li><li>• elderly</li><li>• immunocompromised.</li><li>• Elements contributing to herd immunity are the occurrence of clinical/subclinical infections in herd, immunization of the herd , and structure of the herd (hosts, alternative animal hosts, insect vectors, environmental &amp; social factors). It is neither possible nor necessary to achieve 100% herd immunity to control a disease . Herd immunity may be determined by Serological Surveys . Herd immunity describes a type of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a portion of the population (or herd) protects un-vaccinated individuals .</li><li>• Elements contributing to herd immunity are the occurrence of clinical/subclinical infections in herd, immunization of the herd , and structure of the herd (hosts, alternative animal hosts, insect vectors, environmental &amp; social factors).</li><li>• Elements</li><li>• herd immunity</li><li>• clinical/subclinical</li><li>• infections in herd, immunization</li><li>• herd</li><li>• structure</li><li>• herd</li><li>• It is neither possible nor necessary to achieve 100% herd immunity to control a disease .</li><li>• neither possible nor necessary</li><li>• 100% herd immunity</li><li>• control a disease</li><li>• Herd immunity may be determined by Serological Surveys .</li><li>• determined</li><li>• Serological Surveys</li><li>• Herd immunity describes a type of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a portion of the population (or herd) protects un-vaccinated individuals .</li><li>• Herd immunity</li><li>• type of immunity</li><li>• vaccination</li><li>• population (or herd) protects un-vaccinated individuals</li><li>• Herd Immunity Threshold</li><li>• Herd Immunity Threshold</li><li>• Virologists have found that when a certain percentage of a population is vaccinated , the spread of the disease is effectively stopped ;</li><li>• Virologists</li><li>• certain percentage</li><li>• population</li><li>• vaccinated</li><li>• spread</li><li>• disease</li><li>• effectively stopped</li><li>• This critical percentage (HIT) depends on the disease and the vaccine:</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Herd immunity is effective in controlling diseases spread from person to person like Diptheria, polio, measles , but it does not apply to disease such as tetanus , where infection occurs through environmental exposure .</li><li>➤ Herd immunity</li><li>➤ controlling diseases</li><li>➤ person to person</li><li>➤ Diptheria, polio, measles</li><li>➤ does not</li><li>➤ tetanus</li><li>➤ infection</li><li>➤ environmental exposure</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 111</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 111</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 39-year-old woman visits your clinic for pre-travel health advice. She is planning a humanitarian mission to a rural area in Africa and is seeking guidance on necessary immunizations. During the consultation, you evaluate her health history and current medical status to determine the suitability of live vaccines for her. Given her specific health profile, you need to identify which aspect of her medical history does NOT constitute a contraindication to receiving live vaccines. This particular attribute, despite being a part of her health background, does not automatically disqualify her from receiving live vaccines.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Recent initiation of chemotherapy for breast cancer", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) under immunosuppressive therapy", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Asymptomatic HIV Infection", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Current pregnancy", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Asymptomatic HIV Infection", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Asymptomatic HIV infection</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Recent initiation of chemotherapy for breast cancer: Immunosuppression is the contraindication for live vaccine .</li><li>• Option A. Recent initiation of chemotherapy for breast cancer: Immunosuppression</li><li>• contraindication</li><li>• live vaccine</li><li>• Option B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) under immunosuppressive therapy: Patients on immunosuppressive therapy, such as those with SLE, are generally advised against live vaccines due to the heightened risk of vaccine-induced disease .</li><li>• Option B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) under immunosuppressive therapy:</li><li>• advised</li><li>• live vaccines</li><li>• heightened risk</li><li>• vaccine-induced disease</li><li>• Option D. Current pregnancy: All live vaccines are contraindicated in Pregnancy EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Option D. Current pregnancy:</li><li>• All live vaccines</li><li>• contraindicated</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Some important pointers related to Vaccine Contraindication s -</li><li>• Vaccine Contraindication</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Pregnancy : All live vaccines EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine Vaccines contraindicated in Immuno-suppression : All live vaccines Vaccines contraindicated in Corticosteroid therapy : All live vaccines Vaccines contraindicated in fever : Typhoid vaccines (Typhoral; Typhim – Vi; TAB) Vaccines contraindicated in ARTI/diarrhoea : NONE Vaccines contraindicated together : Yellow fever and Cholera vaccine Vaccine contraindicated in Preterm-premature baby with birth weight &lt; 2 kg : Hepatitis B Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 1 year (infants): Yellow fever vaccine; Meningococcal vaccine and Pneumococcal vaccine Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 2 years : Meningococcal vaccine; Pneumococcal vaccine and Typhoid vaccines Vaccine contraindicated in progressive neurological disease : Pertussis vaccine (Pertussis vaccine is not contraindicated in epilepsy controlled on medications, Cerebral palsy). Only absolute contraindication to killed vaccines : Severe local or general reaction to a previous dose.</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Pregnancy : All live vaccines EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• EXCEPT Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Immuno-suppression : All live vaccines</li><li>• Immuno-suppression</li><li>• All live vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Corticosteroid therapy : All live vaccines</li><li>• in Corticosteroid therapy</li><li>• All live vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in fever : Typhoid vaccines (Typhoral; Typhim – Vi; TAB)</li><li>• fever</li><li>• Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in ARTI/diarrhoea : NONE</li><li>• in ARTI/diarrhoea</li><li>• NONE</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated together : Yellow fever and Cholera vaccine</li><li>• contraindicated together</li><li>• Yellow fever and Cholera vaccine</li><li>• Vaccine contraindicated in Preterm-premature baby with birth weight &lt; 2 kg : Hepatitis B</li><li>• Preterm-premature baby</li><li>• with birth weight &lt; 2 kg</li><li>• Hepatitis B</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 1 year (infants): Yellow fever vaccine; Meningococcal vaccine and Pneumococcal vaccine</li><li>• age &lt; 1 year (infants):</li><li>• Yellow fever vaccine; Meningococcal vaccine and Pneumococcal vaccine</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in age &lt; 2 years : Meningococcal vaccine; Pneumococcal vaccine and Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• age &lt; 2 years</li><li>• Meningococcal vaccine; Pneumococcal vaccine and Typhoid vaccines</li><li>• Vaccine contraindicated in progressive neurological disease : Pertussis vaccine (Pertussis vaccine is not contraindicated in epilepsy controlled on medications, Cerebral palsy).</li><li>• progressive neurological disease</li><li>• Pertussis vaccine</li><li>• Only absolute contraindication to killed vaccines : Severe local or general reaction to a previous dose.</li><li>• absolute contraindication to killed vaccines</li><li>• Severe</li><li>• general reaction</li><li>• previous dose.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Live vaccines should not be administered to persons with immune deficiency diseases or to persons whose immune response may be suppressed because of leukaemia, lymphoma or malignancy or because of therapy with corticosteroids, alkylating agents, antimetabolic agents, or radiation, Pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Live vaccines</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ immune deficiency diseases</li><li>➤ immune response</li><li>➤ suppressed</li><li>➤ leukaemia, lymphoma</li><li>➤ malignancy</li><li>➤ corticosteroids, alkylating agents, antimetabolic agents, or radiation, Pregnancy.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a practical examination, you encounter a question related to vaccine types. You are presented with a set of vaccines and asked to identify which one is NOT a live attenuated vaccine. Live attenuated vaccines are made from a weakened form of the virus or bacteria, but one of the vaccines listed is prepared differently. Based on its method of preparation, which of the following vaccines is not a live attenuated vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Sabin", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Rotavirus", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "17-D", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rabies", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Rabies", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/08/23/screenshot-2023-08-11-1921039026_SBEBAIV.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Rabies</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Sabin: Live attenuated Oral Polio Vaccine</li><li>• Option A. Sabin:</li><li>• Live attenuated Oral Polio Vaccine</li><li>• Option B. Rota virus: Live attenuated oral vaccine</li><li>• Option B. Rota virus: Live attenuated oral vaccine</li><li>• Option C. 17 D - Live attenuated , lyophilized (Freeze dried) Yellow fever vaccine</li><li>• Option C. 17 D</li><li>• Live attenuated</li><li>• lyophilized</li><li>• Yellow fever vaccine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 111.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a clinical immunology lecture, the topic of interaction between live vaccines and Normal Human Immunoglobulin (NHIG) administration is discussed. The lecturer emphasizes the importance of timing when administering NHIG after a live vaccine to avoid diminishing the vaccine's efficacy. The students are then asked to determine the recommended minimum interval that should elapse after administering a live vaccine before NHIG can be safely given. This interval is crucial to ensure that the live vaccine has sufficient time to elicit an effective immune response before NHIG is introduced.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "2 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "6 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. 2 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A. 2 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Live vaccines should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an injection of normal human Ig , and if a live vaccine has already been given, NHIg injection should be deferred for 2 weeks as this may jeopardize the immune response to the vaccine .</li><li>➤ Live vaccines</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ 12 weeks</li><li>➤ normal human Ig</li><li>➤ live vaccine</li><li>➤ NHIg</li><li>➤ deferred</li><li>➤ 2 weeks</li><li>➤ jeopardize</li><li>➤ immune response</li><li>➤ vaccine</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 26 th ed pg 115</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 26 th ed pg 115</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a medical training session about the BCG vaccine, used for tuberculosis prevention, specific details regarding its preparation and administration are being discussed. The trainees are presented with various statements about the BCG vaccine and asked to identify which one is true. This question is designed to test their knowledge about the practical aspects of handling and administering the BCG vaccine.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": " Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Distilled water is used as a diluent for the BCG vaccine: Incorrect. BCG is a lyophilized (freeze dried) vaccine and is reconstituted with Normal Saline as diluent and must be used within 1 hour of reconstitution</li><li>• Option A. Distilled water is used as a diluent for the BCG vaccine:</li><li>• lyophilized (freeze dried) vaccine</li><li>• reconstituted</li><li>• Normal Saline</li><li>• diluent</li><li>• used</li><li>• 1 hour of reconstitution</li><li>• Option B. The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit: Incorrect. Cleaning the injection site with spirit or alcohol- based solutions is actually not recommended for the BCG vaccine , as it can kill the live bacteria in the vaccine.</li><li>• Option B. The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit:</li><li>• Cleaning</li><li>• injection site</li><li>• spirit or alcohol-</li><li>• not</li><li>• BCG vaccine</li><li>• kill the live bacteria</li><li>• vaccine.</li><li>• Option C. The Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination : Incorrect. The test does not become positive immediately after BCG vaccination . It takes 8–14 weeks to become positive after vaccination .</li><li>• Option C. The Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination</li><li>• does not</li><li>• positive</li><li>• immediately</li><li>• BCG vaccination</li><li>• 8–14 weeks</li><li>• positive</li><li>• vaccination</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ WHO recommended the Danish 1331 strain for BCG vaccine production, sterile saline is used as a diluent and Mantoux test takes 8–14 weeks to become positive after vaccination.</li><li>➤ WHO</li><li>➤ Danish 1331 strain</li><li>➤ BCG vaccine</li><li>➤ sterile saline</li><li>➤ diluent</li><li>➤ Mantoux test</li><li>➤ 8–14 weeks</li><li>➤ positive</li><li>➤ after vaccination.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 27/e p231</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 27/e p231</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "Mrs. X, an Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM), is conducting an immunization session at her sub-centre. She has vaccinated three children with the MR (Measles-Rubella) vaccine from a 5-dose vial. After completing this session, she moves to the next village, where she needs to vaccinate one more child with the MR vaccine. Considering best practices in vaccine administration and safety, what should Mrs. X do with the opened MR vaccine vial to vaccinate the child in the new area?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Use the same vial if not exceeded 4 hours from opening of vial", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "If exceeded 4 hrs check for VVM, if VVM is there use the same vial", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discard the old opened vial and use new vial", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Consult the medical officer", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Discard the old opened vial and use new vial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C. Discard the old opened vial and use new vial</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Use the same vial if not exceeded 4 hours from the opening of the vial: As there is change of location, so new vial for vaccinating the child in the new area . This practice ensures the potency and safety of the vaccine , adhering to strict vaccine handling and administration guidelines.</li><li>• Option A. Use the same vial if not exceeded 4 hours from the opening of the vial:</li><li>• new vial</li><li>• vaccinating</li><li>• new area</li><li>• ensures</li><li>• potency</li><li>• safety</li><li>• vaccine</li><li>• adhering</li><li>• strict vaccine handling</li><li>• administration guidelines.</li><li>• Option B. If exceeded 4 hours, check for VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor): if it shows viability, use the same vial . Incorrect.</li><li>• Option B. If exceeded 4 hours, check for VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor):</li><li>• viability,</li><li>• same vial</li><li>• Incorrect.</li><li>• Option D. Consult the medical officer: While consulting a medical officer is a good practice in uncertain situations, in this case, the standard protocol is to use a new vial .</li><li>• Option D. Consult the medical officer:</li><li>• consulting</li><li>• medical officer</li><li>• good practice</li><li>• uncertain</li><li>• standard protocol</li><li>• use</li><li>• new vial</li><li>• Open Vial Policy 2015</li><li>• Open Vial Policy 2015</li><li>• Not applicable for Vaccines : Measles, BCG, JE Applicable for Vaccines: OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent - Opened vaccine vials can be used in subsequent session ‘ up to 4 weeks’ .</li><li>• Not applicable for Vaccines : Measles, BCG, JE</li><li>• Not</li><li>• Vaccines</li><li>• Measles, BCG, JE</li><li>• Applicable for Vaccines: OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent - Opened vaccine vials can be used in subsequent session ‘ up to 4 weeks’ .</li><li>• Applicable</li><li>• OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent -</li><li>• used</li><li>• subsequent session</li><li>• ‘</li><li>• 4 weeks’</li><li>• The expiry date should not pass, VVM within usability limits , Cold chain maintenance. Vaccine vial septum not submerged in water or contaminated , Aseptic technique used to withdraw doses . Record date and time of each vial opening.</li><li>• expiry date</li><li>• not</li><li>• VVM</li><li>• usability limits</li><li>• Cold chain</li><li>• Vaccine vial septum</li><li>• water</li><li>• contaminated</li><li>• Aseptic</li><li>• withdraw doses</li><li>• Record date</li><li>• time</li><li>• each vial opening.</li><li>• At end of session return all open vials to Cold chain - Reusable open vials : DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials : Measles, BCG, JE ( Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier ) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>• At end of session return all open vials to Cold chain - Reusable open vials : DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials : Measles, BCG, JE ( Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier ) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>• end of session</li><li>• all open vials</li><li>• Cold chain</li><li>• Reusable open vials : DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent Non-reusable open vials : Measles, BCG, JE ( Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier ) If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>• Reusable open vials : DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent</li><li>• Reusable open vials</li><li>• DPT, DT, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent</li><li>• Non-reusable open vials : Measles, BCG, JE ( Destroy after 48 hours or Next session whichever earlier )</li><li>• Non-reusable</li><li>• open vials</li><li>• Measles, BCG, JE</li><li>• Destroy after 48 hours</li><li>• Next session</li><li>• earlier</li><li>• If any AEFI reported: Store all vials in Cold chain till completion of investigation</li><li>• AEFI</li><li>• Store all vials</li><li>• Cold chain</li><li>• completion</li><li>• investigation</li><li>• RECENT UPDATE – Rotavirus vaccine is under Open Vial Policy .</li><li>• RECENT UPDATE</li><li>• Rotavirus vaccine</li><li>• Open Vial Policy</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccines like OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent, rota virus follow the Open vial policy , these can be used in subsequent sessions ‘up to 4 weeks’ . Open Vial Policy does not apply to Measles, BCG and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccines.</li><li>➤ OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, TT, Liquid Pentavalent, rota virus</li><li>➤ Open vial policy</li><li>➤ used</li><li>➤ subsequent sessions</li><li>➤ 4 weeks’</li><li>➤ Open Vial Policy</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ to Measles, BCG and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccines.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 117</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 117</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As the Medical Officer overseeing a primary health center, one of your responsibilities is to ensure the correct storage of vaccines. Proper storage is crucial for maintaining vaccine efficacy, particularly regarding their sensitivity to freezing temperatures. Among the vaccines commonly stored at your facility, you need to identify which one is most sensitive to freezing and requires the most careful temperature management to retain its effectiveness. Which of the following vaccines is known to be the most freeze-sensitive?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "IPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Hepatitis B", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/image-20230710163422-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D. Hepatitis B</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. OPV: More sensitive to heat . OPV is stored at +2° to +8°C. Except for long-term storage when it’s kept in a freezer (-15° to -25°C)</li><li>• Option A. OPV:</li><li>• sensitive</li><li>• heat</li><li>• OPV</li><li>• +2° to +8°C.</li><li>• long-term storage</li><li>• kept</li><li>• freezer (-15° to -25°C)</li><li>• Option B. DPT: Stored at +2° to +8°C . Both heat and cold sensitive but its sensitivity to freezing is not as critical as that of the Hepatitis B vaccine.</li><li>• Option B. DPT:</li><li>• Stored</li><li>• +2° to +8°C</li><li>• heat and cold sensitive</li><li>• its sensitivity</li><li>• freezing</li><li>• not</li><li>• Hepatitis B vaccine.</li><li>• Option C. IPV: Stored at +2° to +8°C . Both heat and cold sensitive but its sensitivity to freezing is not as critical as that of the Hepatitis B vaccine.</li><li>• Option C. IPV:</li><li>• +2° to +8°C</li><li>• heat and cold sensitive</li><li>• its sensitivity</li><li>• freezing</li><li>• not</li><li>• Hepatitis B vaccine.</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Note:</li><li>• Under NIS, RCH Program all vaccines are stored in +2° to +8°C. SHAKE TEST is used to check if freeze-sensitive vaccines have been damaged by exposure to freezing temperatures below 0 degrees C; after the test , the previously frozen vaccine shows flakes . Most Thermolabile vaccine : Reconstituted BCG Most Thermostable vaccine : TT</li><li>• Under NIS, RCH Program all vaccines are stored in +2° to +8°C.</li><li>• NIS, RCH</li><li>• all vaccines</li><li>• stored</li><li>• +2° to +8°C.</li><li>• SHAKE TEST is used to check if freeze-sensitive vaccines have been damaged by exposure to freezing temperatures below 0 degrees C; after the test , the previously frozen vaccine shows flakes .</li><li>• SHAKE TEST</li><li>• freeze-sensitive vaccines</li><li>• damaged</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• below</li><li>• 0 degrees</li><li>• after</li><li>• test</li><li>• frozen</li><li>• shows flakes</li><li>• Most Thermolabile vaccine : Reconstituted BCG</li><li>• Thermolabile vaccine</li><li>• Reconstituted BCG</li><li>• Most Thermostable vaccine : TT</li><li>• Thermostable vaccine</li><li>• TT</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 69.</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 69.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 3-year-old child with malnutrition is brought to a community health center by his mother. After a thorough examination, you decide to administer Vitamin A prophylaxis to help protect the child against potential childhood blindness. You recall that Vitamin A, once opened, has specific storage and usage guidelines. After opening a bottle of Vitamin A for prophylaxis, for how long can it be used without compromising its potency and safety?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "4 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "8 weeks", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "12 weeks", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Till expiry date", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 8 weeks", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B. 8 weeks</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ A Vitamin A bottle , once opened , should be used within 8 weeks . It is stored outside cold chain ( at room temperature )</li><li>➤ Vitamin A bottle</li><li>➤ once opened</li><li>➤ 8 weeks</li><li>➤ stored</li><li>➤ outside</li><li>➤ at room temperature</li><li>➤ Ref : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "During a training session on vaccine management and storage, the topic of the Open Vial Policy (OVP) is discussed. OVP permits the use of certain multi-dose vaccine vials in subsequent immunization sessions even after the vial has been opened, as long as specific conditions are met. This policy is crucial for efficient vaccine utilization, especially in resource-limited settings. The trainees are asked to identify which of the following vaccines is NOT included under the Open Vial Policy, meaning it should not be used in subsequent sessions once the vial has been opened.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Pentavalent", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "JE", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "OPV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. JE", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) JE</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Open vial policy – for Hep B, OPV, DPT, pentavalent, TT, PCV, IPV, Rotavirus vaccines</li><li>➤ Open vial policy</li><li>➤ Hep B, OPV, DPT, pentavalent, TT, PCV, IPV, Rotavirus vaccines</li><li>➤ No open vial policy for - BCG, MR, JE Vaccines</li><li>➤ No open vial policy</li><li>➤ BCG, MR, JE Vaccines</li><li>➤ Ref: Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, Pg, 67</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, Pg, 67</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a vaccine management training session for healthcare providers, the shake test is introduced as a technique to evaluate the viability of vaccines that might have been compromised due to freezing. The shake test is an important tool in determining whether a vaccine has been damaged by freezing and thus lost its potency. The attendees are asked to identify an accurate statement regarding the implementation and interpretation of the shake test in vaccine management.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shake Test is used to assess the heat damage to the vaccines", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "If the sediments in the suspect vial settle more slowly, the suspect vaccine may be used.", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "If the sediments in the suspect vial settle at the same rate, the suspect vaccine can be used.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "If the sediments in the suspect vial settle at the faster rate, the suspect vaccine can be used.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. If the sediments in the suspect vial settle more slowly, the suspect vaccine may be used.", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/image_5iW48Aq.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) If the sediments in the suspect vial settle more slowly, the suspect vaccine may be used.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• SHAKE TEST is used to check if freeze-sensitive vaccines have been damaged by exposure to freezing temperatures below 0 degrees C; after the test, the previously frozen vaccine shows flakes.</li><li>• SHAKE TEST</li><li>• if freeze-sensitive vaccines</li><li>• damaged by exposure</li><li>• freezing temperatures</li><li>• below 0 degrees</li><li>• C;</li><li>• the previously</li><li>• frozen vaccine</li><li>• shows flakes.</li><li>• Method of Shake test :</li><li>• Shake test</li><li>• Test Vial : Vial which is suspected to have been frozen Frozen control vial : Take a similar (as Test vial) vaccine vial with same manufacturer, batch number, antigen(s), Label it properly. Freeze it overnight at -20 degrees C, then let it haw (Do not heat). Hold the Test vial and Control vials between thumb and forefinger and shake them vigorously (10-15 seconds). Place both vials on even flat surface for 30 minutes observation, compare the sedimentation rates (SR).</li><li>• Test Vial : Vial which is suspected to have been frozen</li><li>• Test Vial</li><li>• suspected</li><li>• frozen</li><li>• Frozen control vial : Take a similar (as Test vial) vaccine vial with same manufacturer, batch number, antigen(s), Label it properly. Freeze it overnight at -20 degrees C, then let it haw (Do not heat).</li><li>• Frozen control vial</li><li>• similar</li><li>• vaccine vial</li><li>• same manufacturer, batch number, antigen(s), Label it properly.</li><li>• Freeze</li><li>• overnight</li><li>• -20</li><li>• then</li><li>• haw</li><li>• Hold the Test vial and Control vials between thumb and forefinger and shake them vigorously (10-15 seconds).</li><li>• Test vial and Control vials</li><li>• thumb and forefinger</li><li>• shake</li><li>• them vigorously</li><li>• Place both vials on even flat surface for 30 minutes observation, compare the sedimentation rates (SR).</li><li>• Place both vials</li><li>• flat surface</li><li>• 30 minutes</li><li>• compare</li><li>• sedimentation rates (SR).</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &lt; Control vial : Vaccine had not been damaged If SR in Test vial &gt; Control vial : Vaccine had been damaged , do not use and inform the supervisors.</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &lt; Control vial : Vaccine had not been damaged</li><li>• SR</li><li>• Test vial</li><li>• Control vial</li><li>• not</li><li>• damaged</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &gt; Control vial : Vaccine had been damaged , do not use and inform the supervisors.</li><li>• SR</li><li>• Test vial &gt; Control vial</li><li>• damaged</li><li>• do not use</li><li>• inform</li><li>• supervisors.</li><li>• Shake Test is used to assess the freeze damage to Aluminium based freeze sensitive vaccines such as DPT, TT, Td etc.</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• freeze damage to Aluminium</li><li>• freeze sensitive</li><li>• DPT, TT, Td</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shake test is used to check if freeze-sensitive vaccines have been damaged by exposure to freezing temperatures below 0 degrees C; After the test, the previously Frozen vaccine shows flakes . If the Sedimentation rate of Test / suspect vial is more than Control vial , means the Vaccine had been damaged.</li><li>➤ Shake test</li><li>➤ freeze-sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ damaged</li><li>➤ freezing temperatures below 0</li><li>➤ previously Frozen vaccine</li><li>➤ shows flakes</li><li>➤ Sedimentation rate</li><li>➤ Test</li><li>➤ suspect vial</li><li>➤ more than Control vial</li><li>➤ had been damaged.</li><li>➤ Shake Test is used to assess the freeze damage to Aluminium based freeze sensitive vaccines such as DPT, TT, Td etc .</li><li>➤ Shake Test</li><li>➤ used to assess</li><li>➤ damage to Aluminium based freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ DPT, TT, Td</li><li>➤ .</li><li>➤ Ref : Park 27/e p123</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Park 27/e p123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As part of a training session for new healthcare staff, you are emphasizing the critical aspect of vaccine storage and the significance of monitoring the condition of vaccine vials. An essential tool in this process is the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM). It's crucial for the staff to understand the function and importance of the VVM in ensuring vaccine potency. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the true purpose or function of the Vaccine Vial Monitor?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "The VVM number indicates the time in days that it takes for the inner square to reach the color indicating a discard point, if the vial is exposed to a constant temperature of 37-degree C.", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "VVM is the marker of the cold chain maintenance and the potency of the vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The inner square is white and the outer circle is blue", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "All the above", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. All the above", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/10/image-20230710180846-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) All the above</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• VVM is a marker of potency .</li><li>• VVM</li><li>• potency</li><li>• VVM indicates efficiency of cold chain (temperature maintenance)</li><li>• VVM</li><li>• efficiency</li><li>• cold chain</li><li>• VVM is a simple tool that enables vaccinator to know if the vaccine is potent at the time of administration .</li><li>• VVM</li><li>• enables vaccinator</li><li>• vaccine is potent</li><li>• administration</li><li>• VVM is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is placed on a vaccine vial to register cumulative heat exposure over time . If the color of inner square is similar or darker than the outer circle , the vaccine vial should be discarded. (Only inner square changes colour , circle always remain blue )</li><li>• VVM</li><li>• heat-sensitive</li><li>• vaccine vial</li><li>• register</li><li>• heat exposure</li><li>• over time</li><li>• color</li><li>• inner square</li><li>• similar or darker</li><li>• outer circle</li><li>• vial</li><li>• discarded.</li><li>• inner square changes colour</li><li>• circle</li><li>• blue</li><li>• Mandatory since 1998 for quality assurance. This is an example of \" Appropriate Technology \".</li><li>• Mandatory</li><li>• 1998</li><li>• Appropriate Technology</li><li>• WHO Grading of VVM (OPV) -</li><li>• WHO</li><li>• VVM (OPV)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The purpose of the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM), which is to indicate a vaccine's exposure to heat and help in determining its viability based on cumulative heat exposure , rather than freezing conditions, expiration dates, or tampering .</li><li>➤ Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM),</li><li>➤ indicate a vaccine's</li><li>➤ heat</li><li>➤ its viability</li><li>➤ heat exposure</li><li>➤ rather</li><li>➤ freezing conditions, expiration dates,</li><li>➤ tampering</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 121, https://www.who.int/publications/m/item/vaccine-vial-</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 121, https://www.who.int/publications/m/item/vaccine-vial-</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a workshop dedicated to vaccine storage and handling, the topic of the \"shake test\" is introduced. This test is a practical method used to determine if freeze-sensitive vaccines have been damaged due to freezing. The participants are presented with a list of vaccines and asked to identify for which vaccine the shake test is not applicable. This question aims to assess their understanding of the shake test and its relevance to different types of vaccines, especially in the context of freeze sensitivity.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "DPT", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "IPV", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetanus Toxoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. IPV", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/image_dfA9vwc.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) IPV</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Shake Test is not applicable for IPV.</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• not</li><li>• IPV.</li><li>• The Shake Test currently applies to freeze sensitive vaccines which are:</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>• DPT-Hep B-Hib TT PCV13 Hepatitis B HPV</li><li>• DPT-Hep B-Hib</li><li>• TT</li><li>• PCV13</li><li>• Hepatitis B</li><li>• HPV</li><li>• SHAKE TEST</li><li>• SHAKE TEST</li><li>• It is used to check if Freeze sensitive vaccines have been damaged by exposure to freezing temperatures below 0 degrees C ; after the test the previously Frozen vaccine shows flakes</li><li>• used</li><li>• Freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>• damaged by exposure</li><li>• freezing temperatures</li><li>• below 0 degrees</li><li>• C</li><li>• previously Frozen vaccine</li><li>• flakes</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• Interpretation:</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &lt; Control vial: Vaccine had not been damaged If SR in Test vial &gt; Control vial : Vaccine had been damaged , Do not use and Inform the supervisors</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &lt; Control vial: Vaccine had not been damaged</li><li>• SR</li><li>• Test vial &lt; Control vial:</li><li>• not</li><li>• damaged</li><li>• If SR in Test vial &gt; Control vial : Vaccine had been damaged , Do not use and Inform the supervisors</li><li>• SR</li><li>• Test vial &gt; Control vial</li><li>• damaged</li><li>• Do not use</li><li>• Inform</li><li>• supervisors</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ The Shake Test currently applies to freeze sensitive vaccines which are: DPT-Hep B-Hib; TT; PCV13; Hepatitis B; HPV . Shake Test is not applicable for IPV</li><li>➤ Shake Test</li><li>➤ freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ DPT-Hep B-Hib; TT; PCV13; Hepatitis B; HPV</li><li>➤ Shake Test</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ IPV</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 27/e p123</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 27/e p123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A pediatrician is overseeing the reception of a new shipment of vaccines at her clinic. During the inspection, she notices that one of the boxes, which contains a vaccine sensitive to light, was inadvertently placed near a window where it was exposed to direct sunlight. Understanding the importance of protecting vaccines from light to maintain their efficacy, she acts swiftly to identify and safeguard the affected vaccine. Among the vaccines in her shipment, which one is most likely to be adversely affected by exposure to sunlight?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Measles Rubella vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Tetanus toxoid", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Hepatitis B", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Rabies Vaccine", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Measles Rubella vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Measles Rubella vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option B .TT, Option C. Hep B and Option D. Rabies vaccine - While all vaccines should be stored according to manufacturer guidelines to ensure their efficacy, but these are supplied in transparent glass vial , and are not light sensitive.</li><li>• Option B .TT, Option C. Hep B and Option D. Rabies vaccine -</li><li>• stored according</li><li>• manufacturer guidelines</li><li>• ensure</li><li>• efficacy,</li><li>• but</li><li>• transparent glass vial</li><li>• not</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccines sensitive to light are : BCG, Measles, MR, MMR, MMRV, and Rubella.</li><li>➤ Vaccines sensitive</li><li>➤ light</li><li>➤ : BCG, Measles, MR, MMR, MMRV, and Rubella.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 117</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 117</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "As an intern at a community health clinic, you're being quizzed by your supervising Resident on vaccine storage practices. The Resident presents several statements about how vaccines should be stored and asks you to identify the incorrect one. Proper storage is crucial for vaccine efficacy, and this test is designed to assess your understanding of the best practices in vaccine storage. Which of the following statements about vaccine storage is NOT true?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Inside ILR, freeze sensitive vaccines should be kept at the bottom of the basket", "correct": true}, {"label": "B", "text": "Inside ILR, Heat sensitive vaccines should be kept at the bottom of the basket", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "The temperature inside the ILRs are kept between +2 to +8 degree C.", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "ILRs require minimum 8 hours of electricity per day.", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "A. Inside ILR, freeze sensitive vaccines should be kept at the bottom of the basket", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/07/11/image-20230711110142-1.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. A) Inside ILR, freeze sensitive vaccines should be kept at the bottom of the basket</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Options are correct :-</li><li>• Options</li><li>• correct</li><li>• Heat sensitive vaccines in the bottom of the basket .</li><li>• Heat sensitive vaccines</li><li>• bottom of the basket</li><li>• An ILR is an ice-lined refrigerator which is used to store vaccines at PHC and CHC . The temperature at which the vaccines are kept is +2 to +8 degree Celsius . At this temperature range, the vaccines can be stored for 1 month in both PHC and CHC.</li><li>• ILR</li><li>• ice-lined refrigerator</li><li>• PHC</li><li>• CHC</li><li>• temperature</li><li>• vaccines</li><li>• kept</li><li>• +2 to +8 degree Celsius</li><li>• stored for 1 month</li><li>• PHC and CHC.</li><li>• It requires minimum 8 hours of electricity per day and it can store vaccines for around 5 days without electricity .</li><li>• minimum 8 hours of electricity per day</li><li>• can store</li><li>• 5 days without electricity</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Freeze-sensitive vaccines at the top of the basket and Heat sensitive vaccines in the bottom of the basket.</li><li>➤ Freeze-sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ top</li><li>➤ basket</li><li>➤ Heat sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ bottom</li><li>➤ basket.</li><li>➤ Ref: Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 73</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 73</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a Primary Health Care (PHC) setting, you are approached by a pharmacist who has encountered a problem: the Ice Lined Refrigerator (ILR) malfunctioned, resulting in the freezing of the DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) vaccine. The pharmacist is seeking your advice on the appropriate course of action for the frozen vaccine. Handling such situations correctly is crucial to ensure vaccine safety and efficacy. What should be done with the DPT vaccine that has been frozen due to the ILR malfunction?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Shaken thoroughly before use", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Brought to +2 to +8 degree temperature before use", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Discarded the vial", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Allowed to melt before use", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Discarded the vial", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Discarded the vial.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• DPT vaccine is sensitive to freezing , and freezing can alter its properties, making it ineffective or unsafe . The appropriate action is to discard any DPT vaccine that has been frozen.</li><li>• DPT vaccine</li><li>• sensitive</li><li>• freezing</li><li>• alter its properties,</li><li>• ineffective or unsafe</li><li>• discard any DPT vaccine</li><li>• been frozen.</li><li>• Shake test -</li><li>• Shake test -</li><li>• The Shake Test need not be conducted under the following circumstances - When solid frozen vaccine vial(s) have been found.</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• not</li><li>• solid frozen vaccine vial(s)</li><li>• Shake Test is used to assess the freeze damage to Aluminum based freeze sensitive vaccines such as DPT, TT, Td etc. If the sediments in the suspect vial settle more slowly , the suspect vaccine may be used.</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• freeze damage to Aluminum</li><li>• freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>• DPT, TT, Td</li><li>• sediments</li><li>• suspect vial settle more slowly</li><li>• suspect vaccine</li><li>• used.</li><li>• The Shake Test currently applies to freeze sensitive vaccines which are:</li><li>• Shake Test</li><li>• freeze sensitive vaccines</li><li>• DPT-Hep B-Hib TT PCV13 Hepatitis B HPV</li><li>• DPT-Hep B-Hib</li><li>• TT</li><li>• PCV13</li><li>• Hepatitis B</li><li>• HPV</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Shake Test is used to assess the freeze damage to Aluminum based freeze sensitive vaccines such as DPT, TT, Td etc. If the sediments in the suspect vial settle more slowly , the suspect vaccine may be used</li><li>➤ Shake Test</li><li>➤ freeze damage</li><li>➤ Aluminum based freeze</li><li>➤ sensitive vaccines</li><li>➤ DPT, TT, Td</li><li>➤ sediments</li><li>➤ suspect vial</li><li>➤ settle more slowly</li><li>➤ suspect vaccine</li><li>➤ used</li><li>➤ DPT vaccine is sensitive to freezing . The appropriate action is to discard any DPT vaccine that has been frozen.</li><li>➤ DPT vaccine</li><li>➤ sensitive to freezing</li><li>➤ discard any</li><li>➤ DPT vaccine</li><li>➤ been frozen.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 27/e p123</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 27/e p123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A nurse in a rural community health clinic is tasked with storing a new shipment of the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV). She is aware that OPV requires specific storage conditions to maintain its efficacy, particularly in terms of temperature. In order to correctly store the OPV, she needs to ensure that the deep freezer is set to the appropriate temperature range. What is the correct temperature range that the nurse should maintain in the deep freezer for the optimal storage of the Oral Polio Vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "+ 2 degree C to + 8 degree C", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "– 2 degree C to – 8 degree C", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "– 15 degree C to – 25 degree C", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "– 8 degree C to – 10 degree C", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. – 15 degree C to – 25 degree C", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-160928.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) – 15 degree C to – 25 degreeC</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The cabinet temperature of the deep freezer is maintained between – 15 degree C to – 25 degree C .</li><li>• cabinet temperature</li><li>• deep freezer</li><li>• – 15 degree C to – 25 degree C</li><li>• Ice packs are prepared by keeping them in a Deep freezer.</li><li>• Ice packs</li><li>• Deep freezer.</li><li>• All vaccines are stored at a temperature of +2° to +8°C including OPV (OPV vaccine is stored at -15° to -25°C , i.e., Subzero/freezing temperatures only for long-term storage i.e. &gt;1 month ) and YF vaccine is stored at -30° to +5°C.</li><li>• All vaccines</li><li>• stored</li><li>• temperature</li><li>• +2° to +8°C</li><li>• OPV</li><li>• stored</li><li>• -15° to -25°C</li><li>• Subzero/freezing</li><li>• long-term storage</li><li>• &gt;1 month</li><li>• YF vaccine</li><li>• -30° to +5°C.</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Cold chain components (equipments) and levels in India:</li><li>➤ Cold chain components (equipments) and levels in India:</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg118</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg118</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a vaccination drive, a community health officer is tasked with estimating the necessary quantity of vaccines, including a provision for potential wastage. Effective vaccine management requires accurate estimation to ensure sufficient supply without excessive waste. This estimation is particularly important for vaccines like MR (Measles-Rubella) and JE (Japanese Encephalitis), which have specific wastage factors. What is the permissible wastage factor for the MR and JE vaccines?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "1.11", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "1.33", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "1.5", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "2", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. 1.33", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-180130.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/07/26/screenshot-2024-07-26-121458.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) 1.33</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. 1.11: Wastage factor for most of the vaccines except - BCG, MR, JE and RVV</li><li>• Option A. 1.11:</li><li>• Wastage factor</li><li>• except - BCG, MR, JE and RVV</li><li>• Option C. 1.5: Not applicable</li><li>• Option C. 1.5:</li><li>• Not applicable</li><li>• Option D. 2.0 - Wastage factor for BCG vaccine</li><li>• Option D. 2.0</li><li>• Wastage factor</li><li>• BCG vaccine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccine wastage rate and factor (for vaccine under UIP) -</li><li>➤ Vaccine wastage rate and factor (for vaccine under UIP) -</li><li>➤ Ref: Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 58.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 58.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a training session dedicated to understanding Adverse Events Following Immunization (AEFI), a medical intern is learning about the different categories and causes of AEFIs. One specific category is highlighted: an AEFI that occurs as a direct result of the inherent properties of the vaccine itself, rather than due to an error in vaccine administration or external factors. The intern is asked to identify the term used to describe this specific type of AEFI. What is this category of AEFI called?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Vaccine quality defect-related reaction", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vaccine product related", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Immunization error", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Coincidental error", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Vaccine product related", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Vaccine product related</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Vaccine quality defect-related reaction- An AEFI that is caused or precipitated by a vaccine that is due to one or more quality defects of the vaccine product , including its administration device as provided by the manufacturer.</li><li>• Option A. Vaccine quality defect-related reaction-</li><li>• AEFI</li><li>• caused or</li><li>• precipitated</li><li>• vaccine</li><li>• due</li><li>• one or more quality defects</li><li>• vaccine product</li><li>• its administration</li><li>• device</li><li>• manufacturer.</li><li>• Option C. Immunization error: (formerly “program error”) An AEFI that is caused by inappropriate vaccine handling , prescribing or administration and thus by its nature is preventable.</li><li>• Option C. Immunization error:</li><li>• AEFI</li><li>• inappropriate vaccine handling</li><li>• prescribing or administration</li><li>• its nature</li><li>• preventable.</li><li>• Immunization anxiety-related reaction (formerly “injection reaction”) An AEFI arising from anxiety about the immunization.</li><li>• Immunization anxiety-related reaction</li><li>• AEFI arising</li><li>• anxiety</li><li>• Option D. Coincidental event: An AEFI that is caused by something other than the vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety .</li><li>• Option D. Coincidental event:</li><li>• AEFI</li><li>• other than</li><li>• vaccine product, immunization error or immunization anxiety</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccine product-related AEFI includes adverse events that occur due to the inherent properties of the vaccine itself , while Programmatic error occurs due to errors in vaccine administration, handling, storage, or other programmatic issues , Vaccine quality defect-related are due to some defect in the vaccine's quality, like contamination or improper storage and Coincidental event happens to occur after vaccination but is not causally related to the vaccination itself.</li><li>➤ Vaccine product-related AEFI</li><li>➤ adverse</li><li>➤ inherent properties of the vaccine itself</li><li>➤ Programmatic error</li><li>➤ due to errors</li><li>➤ vaccine administration, handling, storage,</li><li>➤ other programmatic</li><li>➤ issues</li><li>➤ Vaccine quality</li><li>➤ some defect</li><li>➤ contamination or improper storage</li><li>➤ Coincidental</li><li>➤ not</li><li>➤ vaccination itself.</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed pg 123</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed pg 123</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In the process of reviewing a poster you created for a Community health talk on vaccine safety, a Senior resident quizzes you about the content, particularly focusing on your list of serious vaccine reactions. He asks you to identify which of the reactions listed on your poster is NOT typically considered a serious adverse event following vaccination. It's crucial to accurately distinguish between serious and non-serious adverse events to provide correct information to the public. Which of the following reactions, as mentioned on your poster, would not be classified as a serious adverse event following vaccination?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "That leads to death", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Seizures (Non hospitalized)", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Leading to disability", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Cluster of cases", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Seizures (Non hospitalized)", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-161320.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-162235.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Seizures (Non hospitalized)</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• AEFIs that are not minor but do not result in death , hospitalization or disability are categorized as severe. Examples include non-hospitalized cases of seizures, hypotonic hyporesponsive episodes (HHEs), persistent screaming, severe local reaction, injection site abscesses, intussusception , etc.</li><li>• AEFIs</li><li>• not</li><li>• do not</li><li>• death</li><li>• hospitalization or disability</li><li>• categorized</li><li>• severe.</li><li>• non-hospitalized cases</li><li>• seizures, hypotonic hyporesponsive episodes (HHEs),</li><li>• screaming,</li><li>• severe local reaction, injection site abscesses, intussusception</li><li>• An AEFI will be considered serious if it results in death (option a) , requires hospitalization , results in persistent or significant disability (option C) /incapacity or a cluster (two or more cases) (option D) of AEFIs occur in a geographical area.</li><li>• An AEFI</li><li>• considered serious</li><li>• death (option a)</li><li>• hospitalization</li><li>• persistent or significant disability (option C)</li><li>• cluster (two or more cases)</li><li>• (option D)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Adverse effects following immunization (AEFI):</li><li>➤ Minor Vaccine Reactions:</li><li>➤ Minor Vaccine Reactions:</li><li>➤ Minor Vaccine Reactions:</li><li>➤ Rare vaccine reactions:</li><li>➤ Rare vaccine reactions:</li><li>➤ Ref : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 109, Park 27/e p245</li><li>➤ Ref</li><li>➤ : Immunization handbook for health workers, 2018, MoHFW, GoI, pg 109, Park 27/e p245</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a neurology rotation, medical students delve into the various causes of Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS), a rare neurological disorder. One particular area of interest is the potential association of GBS with vaccines. While the occurrence is rare, there has been evidence linking certain vaccines to the development of GBS. The students are asked to identify which of the following vaccines has been associated, albeit infrequently, with the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome.", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "OPV", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Influenza", "correct": true}, {"label": "C", "text": "Measles", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetanus toxoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "B. Influenza", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-182142.jpg", "https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-180930_gt0vF4z.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. B) Influenza</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. OPV: Rare vaccine reaction - Vaccine-associated paralytic Poliomyelitis (VAPP).</li><li>• Option A. OPV:</li><li>• Rare</li><li>• reaction</li><li>• Vaccine-associated paralytic</li><li>• Poliomyelitis</li><li>• Option C. Measles/ MMR: Rare vaccine reaction - Febrile seizures, Thrombocytopenia, Anaphylaxis, Encephalopathy.</li><li>• Option C. Measles/ MMR:</li><li>• Rare</li><li>• Febrile seizures,</li><li>• Thrombocytopenia, Anaphylaxis, Encephalopathy.</li><li>• Option D. TT: Rare vaccine reaction - Brachial neuritis, Anaphylaxis</li><li>• Option D. TT:</li><li>• Rare</li><li>• Brachial neuritis, Anaphylaxis</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Rare vaccine reactions:</li><li>➤ Rare vaccine reactions:</li><li>➤ AEFI and Vaccines -</li><li>➤ AEFI and Vaccines -</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 27 th ed pg 245</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 27 th ed pg 245</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a pediatric review meeting, healthcare professionals are discussing various adverse reactions following vaccinations. A key point of discussion is the association of certain vaccines with thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by an abnormally low number of platelets. One resident queries about a specific vaccine that has a known association with thrombocytopenia as a potential adverse reaction. Among the following, which vaccine is recognized for its linkage with thrombocytopenia?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "BCG", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "JE", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MMR", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "IPV", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MMR", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-180930_PCGedPz.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MMR</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. BCG : AEFI (rare)- Suppurative lymphadenitis, BCG osteitis, Disseminated BCGiosis</li><li>• Option A. BCG : AEFI (rare)-</li><li>• Option B. JE: AEFI - Enchephalitis, encephalopathy</li><li>• Option B. JE: AEFI -</li><li>• Option D. IPV : AEFI - Febrile convulsions</li><li>• Option D. IPV : AEFI -</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccine and AEFI -</li><li>➤ Vaccine and AEFI -</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 27 th ed pg 245</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 27 th ed pg 245</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a study of the effectiveness of the Diphtheria vaccine in preventing Diphtheria, the following data were collected by studying the children who had the disease. What was the protective efficacy of the Diphtheria vaccine?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "50%", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "40%", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "90%", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "75%", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. 75%", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-164538.jpg"], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/image.png"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) 75%</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The efficacy of vaccine , or the percentage reduction in the incidence of disease in vaccinated compared with unvaccinated subjects , is given by the expression.</li><li>• efficacy of vaccine</li><li>• percentage</li><li>• reduction</li><li>• incidence of disease</li><li>• vaccinated</li><li>• unvaccinated subjects</li><li>• Attack rate in vaccinated = 400/4000 = 0.1</li><li>• Attack rate</li><li>• vaccinated</li><li>• 0.1</li><li>• Attack rate in Unvaccinated = 400/1000 = 0.4</li><li>• Attack rate</li><li>• Unvaccinated</li><li>• 0.4</li><li>• VE = 1 - (0.1/0.4) *100 = 75%</li><li>• VE = 1 - (0.1/0.4)</li><li>• *100</li><li>• NOTE -</li><li>• NOTE</li><li>• Measles vaccine efficacy with single dose: 90% OPV vaccine efficacy with single dose: 65-80% BCG vaccine efficacy with single dose : 50% TT vaccine efficacy with single dose: 70% Rubella vaccine efficacy with single dose : 95% (HIGHEST)</li><li>• Measles vaccine efficacy with single dose: 90%</li><li>• Measles vaccine efficacy</li><li>• single dose: 90%</li><li>• OPV vaccine efficacy with single dose: 65-80%</li><li>• OPV</li><li>• efficacy</li><li>• single dose: 65-80%</li><li>• BCG vaccine efficacy with single dose : 50%</li><li>• BCG</li><li>• efficacy</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• 50%</li><li>• TT vaccine efficacy with single dose: 70%</li><li>• TT vaccine</li><li>• single dose: 70%</li><li>• Rubella vaccine efficacy with single dose : 95% (HIGHEST)</li><li>• Rubella vaccine efficacy</li><li>• single dose</li><li>• 95% (HIGHEST)</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Vaccine efficacy or vaccine effectiveness is the percentage reduction of disease cases in a vaccinated group of people compared to an unvaccinated group.</li><li>➤ Vaccine efficacy</li><li>➤ vaccine effectiveness</li><li>➤ percentage reduction</li><li>➤ disease</li><li>➤ vaccinated group</li><li>➤ compared</li><li>➤ unvaccinated group.</li><li>➤ Ref: Leon gordis 5 th ed.</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Leon gordis 5 th ed.</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room after sustaining a scratch on her right hand while playing with a cat at home. The examination reveals a single scratch mark without any active bleeding. In such a scenario, determining the most appropriate medical intervention is crucial to prevent any potential complications. What should be the most appropriate intervention for this child at this time?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Reassure the parents that there is no risk of rabies as it is a pet animal and give wound care", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Reassure the parents that there is no risk of rabies as it is a pet animal and give wound care", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Administer rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) along with wound care", "correct": false}, {"label": "D", "text": "Administer rabies vaccine along with wound care", "correct": true}], "correct_answer": "D. Administer rabies vaccine along with wound care", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2024/04/06/screenshot-2024-04-06-162956.jpg"], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. D) Administer rabies vaccine along with wound care.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Category II situation - PEP is Immediate vaccination and Local treatment of wound</li><li>• Category II situation</li><li>• PEP</li><li>• Immediate vaccination</li><li>• Local treatment</li><li>• wound</li><li>• The components of post–exposure prophylaxis are:</li><li>• components of post–exposure prophylaxis</li><li>• Local treatment of wound Antibiotics and anti-tetanus measures Active immunization against rabies – if indicated Passive immunization with rabies immunoglobulin – if indicated Observe the animal for 10 days from the day of bite :</li><li>• Local treatment of wound</li><li>• Local treatment</li><li>• wound</li><li>• Antibiotics and anti-tetanus measures</li><li>• Antibiotics</li><li>• anti-tetanus measures</li><li>• Active immunization against rabies – if indicated</li><li>• Active immunization</li><li>• rabies</li><li>• Passive immunization with rabies immunoglobulin – if indicated</li><li>• Passive immunization</li><li>• rabies immunoglobulin</li><li>• Observe the animal for 10 days from the day of bite :</li><li>• animal for 10 days</li><li>• day of bite</li><li>• If healthy after 10 days : Discontinue post – exposure vaccination If dies within observation period : complete PEP If observation not possible: complete the post – exposure vaccination</li><li>• If healthy after 10 days : Discontinue post – exposure vaccination</li><li>• after 10 days</li><li>• post – exposure vaccination</li><li>• If dies within observation period : complete PEP</li><li>• dies</li><li>• observation period</li><li>• complete PEP</li><li>• If observation not possible: complete the post – exposure vaccination</li><li>• observation not</li><li>• complete</li><li>• post – exposure vaccination</li><li>• Local Treatment of Wound - Purpose of local treatment is to remove as much virus as possible, from site of inoculation, before it is absorbed on local nerve endings . Local wound treatment can reduce chances of Rabies by upto 80%.</li><li>• Local Treatment of Wound</li><li>• Purpose</li><li>• remove</li><li>• virus</li><li>• site of inoculation, before</li><li>• absorbed on local nerve endings</li><li>• Local wound treatment</li><li>• reduce</li><li>• Rabies</li><li>• upto 80%.</li><li>• Immediate flushing and washing wound area with plenty of soap and running water for minimum 15 minutes. Suturing: not recommended ; if necessary, do 24–48 hours later under cover of Anti-rabies serum (Local application with prior sensitivity testing) Chemical treatment with virucidal agents ( Alcohol, tincture, 0.01% aqueous iodine )</li><li>• Immediate flushing and washing wound area with plenty of soap and running water for minimum 15 minutes.</li><li>• Immediate flushing</li><li>• washing wound area</li><li>• plenty of soap</li><li>• running water</li><li>• minimum 15 minutes.</li><li>• Suturing: not recommended ; if necessary, do 24–48 hours later under cover of Anti-rabies serum (Local application with prior sensitivity testing)</li><li>• Suturing: not recommended</li><li>• 24–48 hours later</li><li>• cover</li><li>• Anti-rabies serum</li><li>• Chemical treatment with virucidal agents ( Alcohol, tincture, 0.01% aqueous iodine )</li><li>• Chemical treatment</li><li>• virucidal agents</li><li>• Alcohol, tincture, 0.01% aqueous iodine</li></ul>\n<p><strong>Educational Objective:</strong></p><ul><li>➤ Educational Objective:</li><li>➤ Ref: Park 26 th ed 324</li><li>➤ Ref:</li><li>➤ Park 26 th ed 324</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "In a prenatal consultation, a pregnant woman expresses concerns about the safety of receiving vaccinations during her pregnancy. It's crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of which vaccines are safe and which are contraindicated during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the developing fetus. The woman asks about specific vaccines and their safety in pregnancy. Which of the following vaccines is CONTRAINDICATED for pregnant women?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Rabies vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Hepatitis B vaccine", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "MR vaccine", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Tetanus toxoid", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. MR vaccine", "question_images": [], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) MR vaccine</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• Option A. Rabies, Option B. Hep B and Option D. TT - can be given during Pregnancy .</li><li>• Option A. Rabies, Option B. Hep B and Option D. TT</li><li>• given</li><li>• Pregnancy .</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated in Pregnancy - All live vaccines except Yellow fever vaccine.</li><li>• Vaccines contraindicated</li><li>• Pregnancy</li><li>• except Yellow fever vaccine.</li><li>• Ref: Park 27 th ed. Pg 111</li><li>• Ref:</li><li>• Park 27 th ed. Pg 111</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}, {"text": "A 7-year-old child arrives at your outpatient department with symptoms of fever, malaise, and a vesicular rash that started a day ago. The child has close contacts at home who are susceptible to this illness: a 2-year-old sibling and a mother who is on immunosuppressive therapy. In such a scenario, managing the health of these contacts is crucial to prevent the spread of the illness. What is the most appropriate management strategy for the mother and the sibling in this case?", "options": [{"label": "A", "text": "Isolate the infected child and observe for symptoms among contacts", "correct": false}, {"label": "B", "text": "Vaccinate the sibling and give immunoglobulins to the mother", "correct": false}, {"label": "C", "text": "Provide immunoglobulin to both mother and sibling", "correct": true}, {"label": "D", "text": "Give immunoglobulin and vaccine for both", "correct": false}], "correct_answer": "C. Provide immunoglobulin to both mother and sibling", "question_images": ["https://cerebellum-web-static.s3.amazonaws.com/media/public/images/2023/10/24/image-20231024125056-1.jpeg"], "explanation_images": [], "explanation": "<p><strong>Ans. C) Provide immunoglobulin to both mother and sibling.</strong></p>\n<p><strong>Explanation:</strong></p><ul><li>• Explanation:</li><li>• The described child likely has varicella (chickenpox) given the presentation of fever and a vesicular rash . Given the exposure to a vesicular rash illness (possibly varicella or chickenpox), and considering the mother's immunosuppressed state and the young age of the sibling , the administration of immunoglobulin is the most appropriate management . Immunoglobulin can help to prevent or reduce the severity of the illness in these susceptible contacts .</li><li>• child</li><li>• varicella (chickenpox)</li><li>• fever and a vesicular rash</li><li>• exposure</li><li>• vesicular rash illness</li><li>• mother's immunosuppressed state</li><li>• young age</li><li>• sibling</li><li>• administration</li><li>• immunoglobulin</li><li>• appropriate management</li><li>• prevent</li><li>• reduce the severity</li><li>• illness</li><li>• susceptible contacts</li><li>• Management of Contacts of a Varicella case -</li><li>• Management of Contacts of a Varicella case -</li><li>• Isolation for 6 days after onset of rash. Varicella vaccination (live attenuated) is useful, if given to susceptible contacts within 5 days (preferably 72 hours) of first exposure . High-risk susceptible contacts where vaccination is not indicated , such as neonates, pregnancy , and immunosuppressed persons, VZIG for High risk susceptible contacts - within 72 hours of exposure. VZIG Dose: 1.25–5.0 mL intramuscularly (15-25 units/kg BW).</li><li>• Isolation for 6 days after onset of rash.</li><li>• Isolation</li><li>• 6 days after onset of rash.</li><li>• Varicella vaccination (live attenuated) is useful, if given to susceptible contacts within 5 days (preferably 72 hours) of first exposure . High-risk susceptible contacts where vaccination is not indicated , such as neonates, pregnancy , and immunosuppressed persons,</li><li>• Varicella vaccination</li><li>• susceptible contacts</li><li>• 5 days</li><li>• first exposure</li><li>• High-risk</li><li>• susceptible contacts</li><li>• not indicated</li><li>• neonates, pregnancy</li><li>• immunosuppressed persons,</li><li>• VZIG for High risk susceptible contacts - within 72 hours of exposure. VZIG Dose: 1.25–5.0 mL intramuscularly (15-25 units/kg BW).</li><li>• VZIG</li><li>• High risk susceptible contacts</li><li>• 72 hours</li><li>• exposure.</li><li>• VZIG</li><li>• 1.25–5.0 mL</li><li>• intramuscularly</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• Educational objective:</li><li>• VZIg to close contacts who are susceptible and at high risk (such as an immunosuppressed mother and a young sibling ) is an appropriate management strategy following exposure to varicella . VZIG for High risk susceptible contacts - within 72 hours of exposure. VZIG Dose: 1.25–5.0 mL intramuscularly (15-25 units/kg BW).</li><li>• VZIg</li><li>• close contacts</li><li>• susceptible</li><li>• high risk</li><li>• immunosuppressed</li><li>• mother and a young sibling</li><li>• appropriate management</li><li>• exposure to varicella</li><li>• VZIG</li><li>• High risk</li><li>• susceptible contacts</li><li>• 72 hours</li><li>• VZIG</li><li>• 1.25–5.0 mL</li><li>• intramuscularly</li><li>• Ref: Park 27th ed, pg 163</li><li>• Ref:</li><li>• Park 27th ed, pg 163</li></ul>\n<p>@dams_new_robot</p>", "bot": "@dams_new_robot", "video": ""}]; if (!Array.isArray(questions) || questions.length === 0) { throw new Error("Questions data is empty or invalid"); } debugLog(`Successfully parsed ${questions.length} questions`); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to parse questions_json:", e); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error loading quiz data. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; // Fallback to sample questions for testing questions = [ { text: "What is 2 + 2?", options: [ { label: "A", text: "3", correct: false }, { label: "B", text: "4", correct: true }, { label: "C", text: "5", correct: false }, { label: "D", text: "6", correct: false } ], correct_answer: "B. 4", question_images: [], explanation_images: [], explanation: "<p>2 + 2 = 4</p><p>@dams_new_robot</p>", bot: "@dams_new_robot", audio: "", video: "" } ]; debugLog("Loaded fallback questions"); } // Quiz state let currentQuestion = 0; let answers = new Array(questions.length).fill(null); let markedForReview = new Array(questions.length).fill(false); let timeRemaining = 45 * 60; // Duration in seconds let timerInterval = null; const quizId = `{title.replace(/\s+/g, '_').toLowerCase()}`; // Unique ID for local storage // Load saved progress function loadProgress() { try { debugLog("Loading progress from localStorage"); const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); if (saved) { const { savedAnswers, savedMarked, savedTime } = JSON.parse(saved); answers = savedAnswers || answers; markedForReview = savedMarked || markedForReview; timeRemaining = savedTime !== undefined ? savedTime : timeRemaining; debugLog("Progress loaded successfully"); } else { debugLog("No saved progress found"); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to load progress: " + e.message); } } // Save progress function saveProgress() { try { debugLog("Saving progress to localStorage"); localStorage.setItem(`quiz_${quizId}`, JSON.stringify({ savedAnswers: answers, savedMarked: markedForReview, savedTime: timeRemaining })); debugLog("Progress saved successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error saving progress:", e); debugLog("Failed to save progress: " + e.message); } } // Initialize quiz function initQuiz() { try { debugLog("Initializing quiz"); loadProgress(); const startButton = document.getElementById('start-test'); if (!startButton) { throw new Error("Start test button not found"); } startButton.addEventListener('click', startQuiz); debugLog("Start test button listener attached"); document.getElementById('previous-btn').addEventListener('click', showPreviousQuestion); document.getElementById('next-btn').addEventListener('click', showNextQuestion); document.getElementById('mark-review').addEventListener('click', toggleMarkForReview); document.getElementById('nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('submit-test').addEventListener('click', showSubmitModal); document.getElementById('continue-test').addEventListener('click', closeExitModal); document.getElementById('exit-test').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Exiting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('cancel-submit').addEventListener('click', closeSubmitModal); document.getElementById('confirm-submit').addEventListener('click', submitTest); document.getElementById('take-again').addEventListener('click', () => { debugLog("Restarting test"); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); window.location.reload(); }); document.getElementById('review-test').addEventListener('click', () => showResults(currentResultQuestion)); document.getElementById('close-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleNavPanel); document.getElementById('theme-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleTheme); document.getElementById('nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateNavPanel); document.getElementById('prev-result').addEventListener('click', showPreviousResult); document.getElementById('next-result').addEventListener('click', showNextResult); document.getElementById('results-nav-toggle').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('close-results-nav').addEventListener('click', toggleResultsNavPanel); document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').addEventListener('change', updateResultsNavPanel); debugLog("Quiz initialized successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Failed to initialize quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('start-test').disabled = true; } } // Start quiz function startQuiz() { try { debugLog("Starting quiz"); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.remove('hidden'); showQuestion(currentQuestion); startTimer(); updateNavPanel(); debugLog("Quiz started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting quiz:", e); debugLog("Failed to start quiz: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error starting quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('instructions').classList.remove('hidden'); } } // Show question function showQuestion(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing question ${index + 1}`); currentQuestion = index; const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } document.getElementById('question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('question-text').innerHTML = q.text || "No question text available"; const imagesDiv = document.getElementById('question-images'); imagesDiv.innerHTML = q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg">`).join('') : ''; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); optionsDiv.innerHTML = q.options && q.options.length > 0 ? q.options.map(opt => ` <button class="option-btn w-full text-left p-3 border rounded-lg ${answers[index] === opt.label ? 'selected' : ''}" onclick="selectOption(${index}, '${opt.label}')" aria-label="Option ${opt.label}: ${opt.text}"> ${opt.label}. ${opt.text} </button> `).join('') : '<p class="text-red-500">No options available</p>'; document.getElementById('previous-btn').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-btn').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[index]); updateProgressBar(); saveProgress(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying question:", e); debugLog("Failed to display question: " + e.message); } } // Select option function selectOption(index, label) { try { debugLog(`Selecting option ${label} for question ${index + 1}`); answers[index] = label; const optionsDiv = document.getElementById('options'); const optionButtons = optionsDiv.querySelectorAll('.option-btn'); optionButtons.forEach(btn => { const btnLabel = btn.textContent.trim().split('.')[0]; btn.classList.toggle('selected', btnLabel === label); }); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Option ${label} selected for question ${index + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error selecting option:", e); debugLog("Failed to select option: " + e.message); } } // Toggle mark for review function toggleMarkForReview() { try { debugLog(`Toggling mark for review on question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); markedForReview[currentQuestion] = !markedForReview[currentQuestion]; document.getElementById('mark-review').classList.toggle('marked', markedForReview[currentQuestion]); updateNavPanel(); saveProgress(); debugLog(`Mark for review toggled for question ${currentQuestion + 1}`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error marking for review:", e); debugLog("Failed to mark for review: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous question function showPreviousQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion > 0) { currentQuestion--; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous question: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next question function showNextQuestion() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next question from ${currentQuestion + 1}`); if (currentQuestion < questions.length - 1) { currentQuestion++; showQuestion(currentQuestion); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next question:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next question: " + e.message); } } // Handle question navigation click function handleQuestionNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showQuestion(index); toggleNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate via nav panel: " + e.message); } } // Start timer function startTimer() { try { debugLog("Starting timer"); timerInterval = setInterval(() => { if (timeRemaining <= 0) { debugLog("Timer expired, submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); submitTest(); } else { timeRemaining--; const minutes = Math.floor(timeRemaining / 60); const seconds = timeRemaining % 60; document.getElementById('timer').innerHTML = `Time Remaining: <span>${minutes.toString().padStart(2, '0')}:${seconds.toString().padStart(2, '0')}</span>`; saveProgress(); } }, 1000); debugLog("Timer started successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error starting timer:", e); debugLog("Failed to start timer: " + e.message); } } // Update progress bar function updateProgressBar() { try { debugLog("Updating progress bar"); const progress = ((currentQuestion + 1) / questions.length) * 100; document.getElementById('progress-bar').style.width = `${progress}%`; debugLog("Progress bar updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating progress bar:", e); debugLog("Failed to update progress bar: " + e.message); } } // Update quiz navigation panel function updateNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating quiz navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="question-nav-btn ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleQuestionNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Update results navigation panel function updateResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Updating results navigation panel"); const filter = document.getElementById('results-nav-filter').value; const navGrid = document.getElementById('results-nav-grid'); navGrid.innerHTML = questions.map((_, i) => { if (filter === 'answered' && !answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'unanswered' && answers[i]) return ''; if (filter === 'marked' && !markedForReview[i]) return ''; return ` <button class="result-nav-btn-grid ${answers[i] ? 'answered' : 'unanswered'} ${markedForReview[i] ? 'marked-nav' : ''}" onclick="handleResultNavClick(${i})" aria-label="Go to Result for Question ${i + 1}"> ${i + 1} </button> `; }).join(''); debugLog("Results navigation panel updated"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error updating results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to update results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle quiz navigation panel function toggleNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling quiz navigation panel"); const navPanel = document.getElementById('nav-panel'); navPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); debugLog("Quiz navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling quiz navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle quiz navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Toggle results navigation panel function toggleResultsNavPanel() { try { debugLog("Toggling results navigation panel"); const resultsNavPanel = document.getElementById('results-nav-panel'); resultsNavPanel.classList.toggle('hidden'); if (!resultsNavPanel.classList.contains('hidden')) { updateResultsNavPanel(); } debugLog("Results navigation panel toggled"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling results navigation panel:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle results navigation panel: " + e.message); } } // Handle result navigation click function handleResultNavClick(index) { try { debugLog(`Navigating to result for question ${index + 1} via nav panel`); showResults(index); toggleResultsNavPanel(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error handling result navigation click:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to result: " + e.message); } } // Show submit modal function showSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Showing submit modal"); const attempted = answers.filter(a => a !== null).length; document.getElementById('attempted-count').textContent = attempted; document.getElementById('unattempted-count').textContent = questions.length - attempted; document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.remove('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal displayed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error showing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to show submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close submit modal function closeSubmitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing submit modal"); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Submit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing submit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close submit modal: " + e.message); } } // Close exit modal function closeExitModal() { try { debugLog("Closing exit modal"); document.getElementById('exit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); debugLog("Exit modal closed"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error closing exit modal:", e); debugLog("Failed to close exit modal: " + e.message); } } // Submit test function submitTest() { try { debugLog("Submitting test"); clearInterval(timerInterval); document.getElementById('quiz').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('submit-modal').classList.add('hidden'); document.getElementById('results').classList.remove('hidden'); showResults(0); // Start with first question // Trigger confetti animation confetti({ particleCount: 100, spread: 70, origin: { y: 0.6 } }); localStorage.removeItem(`quiz_${quizId}`); debugLog("Test submitted successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error submitting test:", e); debugLog("Failed to submit test: " + e.message); } } // Show result for a single question function showResults(index) { try { debugLog(`Showing result for question ${index + 1}`); currentResultQuestion = index; let correct = 0, wrong = 0, unanswered = 0, marked = 0; answers.forEach((answer, i) => { const isCorrect = answer && questions[i].options.find(opt => opt.label === answer)?.correct; if (answer === null) unanswered++; else if (isCorrect) correct++; else wrong++; if (markedForReview[i]) marked++; }); const q = questions[index]; if (!q) { throw new Error(`Question ${index} is undefined`); } const userAnswer = answers[index]; const isCorrect = userAnswer && q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.correct; const resultsContent = document.getElementById('results-content'); resultsContent.innerHTML = ` <div class="border p-4 rounded-lg ${isCorrect ? 'bg-green-50' : userAnswer ? 'bg-red-50' : 'bg-gray-50'}"> <p class="font-semibold">Question ${index + 1}: ${q.text || 'No question text'}</p> ${q.question_images && q.question_images.length > 0 ? q.question_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Question Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} <p><strong>Your Answer:</strong> ${userAnswer ? `${userAnswer}. ${q.options.find(opt => opt.label === userAnswer)?.text || 'Invalid option'}` : 'Unanswered'}</p> <p><strong>Correct Answer:</strong> ${q.correct_answer || 'Unknown'}</p> <div class="mt-2">${q.explanation || 'No explanation available'}</div> ${q.explanation_images && q.explanation_images.length > 0 ? q.explanation_images.map(url => `<img src="${url}" alt="Explanation Image" class="max-w-full h-auto rounded-lg my-2">`).join('') : ''} ${q.video ? ` <button class="play-video bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadVideo(this, '${q.video}', 'video-${index}')" aria-label="Play explanation video for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Video Explanation </button> <div id="video-${index}" class="video-container mt-2"></div> ` : '<p class="text-gray-500 mt-2">No video available</p>'} ${q.audio ? ` <button class="play-audio bg-blue-500 text-white px-4 py-2 rounded-lg mt-2" onclick="loadAudio(this, '${q.audio}', 'audio-${index}')" aria-label="Play audio explanation for Question ${index + 1}"> Play Audio Explanation </button> <div id="audio-${index}" class="audio-container mt-2"></div> ` : ''} </div> `; document.getElementById('correct-count').textContent = correct; document.getElementById('wrong-count').textContent = wrong; document.getElementById('unanswered-count').textContent = unanswered; document.getElementById('marked-count').textContent = marked; document.getElementById('result-question-number').innerHTML = `Question <span>${index + 1}</span> of ${questions.length}`; document.getElementById('prev-result').disabled = index === 0; document.getElementById('next-result').disabled = index === questions.length - 1; updateResultsNavPanel(); window.scrollTo({ top: 0, behavior: 'smooth' }); debugLog(`Result for question ${index + 1} displayed successfully`); } catch (e) { console.error("Error displaying result:", e); debugLog("Failed to display result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to previous result function showPreviousResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to previous result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion > 0) { showResults(currentResultQuestion - 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to previous result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to previous result: " + e.message); } } // Navigate to next result function showNextResult() { try { debugLog(`Navigating to next result from question ${currentResultQuestion + 1}`); if (currentResultQuestion < questions.length - 1) { showResults(currentResultQuestion + 1); } } catch (e) { console.error("Error navigating to next result:", e); debugLog("Failed to navigate to next result: " + e.message); } } // Lazy-load video function loadVideo(button, videoUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading video for ${containerId}: ${videoUrl}`); if (!videoUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No video available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No video URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <div class="video-loading"></div> <video controls class="w-full max-w-[600px] rounded-lg" preload="metadata" aria-label="Video explanation"> <source src="${videoUrl}" type="${videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') ? 'application/x-mpegURL' : 'video/mp4'}"> Your browser does not support the video tag. </video> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Initialize HLS.js for .m3u8 videos const video = container.querySelector('video'); if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && Hls.isSupported()) { const hls = new Hls(); hls.loadSource(videoUrl); hls.attachMedia(video); hls.on(Hls.Events.ERROR, (event, data) => { console.error("HLS.js error:", data); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("HLS.js error: " + JSON.stringify(data)); }); } else if (videoUrl.endsWith('.m3u8') && video.canPlayType('application/vnd.apple.mpegurl')) { video.src = videoUrl; } // Handle video load errors video.onerror = () => { console.error("Video load error for URL:", videoUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; debugLog("Video load error for URL: " + videoUrl); }; // Remove loading spinner when video is ready video.onloadedmetadata = () => { container.querySelector('.video-loading').remove(); debugLog("Video loaded successfully"); }; } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading video:", e); debugLog("Failed to load video: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading video. <a href="${videoUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open video in new tab">Open video</a></p>`; } } // Lazy-load audio function loadAudio(button, audioUrl, containerId) { try { debugLog(`Loading audio for ${containerId}: ${audioUrl}`); if (!audioUrl) { const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-gray-500">No audio available</p>`; button.remove(); debugLog("No audio URL provided"); return; } const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = ` <audio controls class="w-full max-w-[600px]" preload="metadata" aria-label="Audio explanation"> <source src="${audioUrl}" type="audio/mpeg"> Your browser does not support the audio tag. </audio> `; container.classList.add('active'); button.remove(); // Handle audio load errors const audio = container.querySelector('audio'); audio.onerror = () => { console.error("Audio load error for URL:", audioUrl); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; debugLog("Audio load error for URL: " + audioUrl); }; debugLog("Audio loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading audio:", e); debugLog("Failed to load audio: " + e.message); const container = document.getElementById(containerId); container.innerHTML = `<p class="text-red-500">Error loading audio. <a href="${audioUrl}" target="_blank" aria-label="Open audio in new tab">Open audio</a></p>`; } } // Toggle dark mode function toggleTheme() { try { debugLog("Toggling theme"); document.documentElement.classList.toggle('dark'); localStorage.setItem('theme', document.documentElement.classList.contains('dark') ? 'dark' : 'light'); debugLog("Theme toggled successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error toggling theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to toggle theme: " + e.message); } } // Load theme preference function loadTheme() { try { debugLog("Loading theme preference"); const theme = localStorage.getItem('theme'); if (theme === 'dark') { document.documentElement.classList.add('dark'); } debugLog("Theme loaded successfully"); } catch (e) { console.error("Error loading theme:", e); debugLog("Failed to load theme: " + e.message); } } // Initialize on DOM content loaded window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', () => { try { debugLog("DOM content loaded, initializing quiz"); loadTheme(); initQuiz(); } catch (e) { console.error("Error during DOMContentLoaded:", e); debugLog("Failed to initialize on DOMContentLoaded: " + e.message); document.getElementById('error-message').innerHTML = "Error initializing quiz. Please check the console for details or contact support."; document.getElementById('error-message').classList.remove('hidden'); } }); </script> </body> </html>" frameborder="0" width="100%" height="2000px">